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• Jrails and jquery-rails together?

  - by ecoologic

  I hope you forgive me if I'm a little confused about this. Jrails rewrites all the helper methods for rjs otherwise in prototype. Jquery-rails overrides rails.js (so I taught the rjs helpers as well, but I see it's not) and the rest of the libraries in jquery instead of prototype. Does it means that with just Jquery-rails I can't use rjs at all? Then do these gems work well together and let me completely forget prototype? Is there any disadvantage in using them together? I read some complaining about the fact that jrails uses jq 1.5 and now there is 1.8, but jquery-rails gives me the last version (is there retro compatibility?), but how will this affect my development (using both the gems together)? I mean have you got some examples of jquery-ui plugins I can't use or I could have problems with? Any help is appreciated. Don't get me wrong, I'm not against prototype, just I keep on having conflicts over conflicts using both of them, and I have to chose I pick Jquery.

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• How to avoid loading a LINQ to SQL object twice when editting it on a website.

  - by emzero

  Hi guys I know you are all tired of this Linq-to-Sql questions, but I'm barely starting to use it (never used an ORM before) and I've already find some "ugly" things. I'm pretty used to ASP.NET Webforms old school developing, but I want to leave that behind and learn the new stuff (I've just started to read a ASP.NET MVC book and a .NET 3.5/4.0 one). So here's is one thing I didn't like and I couldn't find a good alternative to it. In most examples of editing a LINQ object I've seen the object is loaded (hitting the db) at first to fill the current values on the form page. Then, the user modify some fields and when the "Save" button is clicked, the object is loaded for second time and then updated. Here's a simplified example of ScottGu NerdDinner site. // // GET: /Dinners/Edit/5 [Authorize] public ActionResult Edit(int id) { Dinner dinner = dinnerRepository.GetDinner(id); return View(new DinnerFormViewModel(dinner)); } // // POST: /Dinners/Edit/5 [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post), Authorize] public ActionResult Edit(int id, FormCollection collection) { Dinner dinner = dinnerRepository.GetDinner(id); UpdateModel(dinner); dinnerRepository.Save(); return RedirectToAction("Details", new { id=dinner.DinnerID }); } As you can see the dinner object is loaded two times for every modification. Unless I'm missing something about LINQ to SQL caching the last queried objects or something like that I don't like getting it twice when it should be retrieved only one time, modified and then comitted back to the database. So again, am I really missing something? Or is it really hitting the database twice (in the example above it won't harm, but there could be cases that getting an object or set of objects could be heavy stuff). If so, what alternative do you think is the best to avoid double-loading the object? Thank you so much, Greetings!

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• JavaScript: input validation in the keydown event

  - by c411

  Hi, I'm attempting to do info validation against user text input in the process of keydown event. The reason that I am trying to validate in the keydown event is because I do not want to display the characters those that are considered to be illegal in the input box at the beginning. The validation I am writing is like this, function validateUserInput(){ var code = this.event.keyCode; if ((code<48||code>57) // numerical &&code!==46 //delete &&code!==8 //back space &&code!==37 // <- arrow &&code!==39) // -> arrow { this.event.preventDefault(); } } I can keep going like this, however I am seeing drawbacks on this implmentation. Those are, for example, Conditional statement become longer and longer when I put more conditions to be examined. keyCodes can be different by browsers. I have to not only check what is not legal but also have to check what are exceptionals. In above examples, delete,backspace, and arrow keys are exceptionals. But the feature that I don't want to lose is having not to display the input in the textarea unless it passes the validation. (In case the user try to put illegal characters in the textarea, nothing should appear at all) That is why I am not doing validation upon keyup event. So my question is, Are there better ways to validate input in keydown event than checking keyCode by keyCode? Are there other ways to capture the user inputs other than keydown event before browser displays it? And a way to put the validation on it? Thanks for the help in advance.

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• Private Java class properties mysteriously reset between method calls....

  - by Michael Jones

  I have a very odd problem. A class property is mysteriously reset between method calls. The following code is executed so the constructor is called, then the parseConfiguration method is called. Finally, processData is called. The parseConfiguration method sets the "recursive" property to "true". However, as soon as it enters "processData", "recursive" becomes "false". This problem isn't isolated to a single class -- I have several examples of this in my code. How can this possibly be happening? I've tried initialising properties when they're declared outside any methods, I've tried initialising them in constructors... nothing works. The only complication I can think of here is that this class is invoked by an object that runs in a thread -- but here is one instance per thread, so surely no chance that threads are interfering. I've tried setting both methods to "synchronized", but this still happens. Please help! /** * This class or its superclasses are NOT threaded and don't extend Thread */ public class DirectoryAcquirer extends Manipulator { /** * @var Whether to recursively scan directories */ private boolean recursive = false; /** * Constructor */ public DirectoryAcquirer() { } /** * Constructor that initialises the configuration * * @param config * @throws InvalidConfigurationException */ public DirectoryAcquirer(HierarchicalConfiguration config) throws InvalidConfigurationException { super(config); } @Override protected void parseConfiguration() throws InvalidConfigurationException { // set whether to recurse into directories or not if (this.config.containsKey("recursive")) { // this.recursive gets set to "true" here this.recursive = this.config.getBoolean("recursive"); } } @Override public EntityCollection processData(EntityCollection data) { // here this.recursive is "false" this.logger.debug("processData: Entered method"); } }

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• Using PHP to display button with hyperlink or greyed out button if no URL in database

  - by Diane

  I've got a webpage that I'm working on where you click on a letter or category and it displays records matching that query from a database. One of the things I want to display is a hyperlinked button that says "Website" if the database record contains a URL in the 'URL' field, and if there is no value in that field, it will display a greyed out version of that button. I tried using an if...else statement, but was absolutely unable to get the syntax correct trying to get php to call up the 'URL' value in the middle of an "echo " So here's what I did: <?php if($row_rsmemalpha['URL'] != NULL) ?><a href="http://<?php echo ($row_rsmemalpha['URL']);?>"><target ="_blank"><img src="web_button_on.gif" alt="Website" border="0" height="18" width="103" /></target></a> <?php if($row_rsmemalpha['URL'] == NULL) echo "<img src=\"web_button_off.gif\" alt=\"No Website Available\" height=\"18\" width=\"103\" />"; ?> If there is a URL available it shows the button properly. But if there isn't a URL in the database it shows both buttons. I have spent a few days studying examples and tutorials on the web, but haven't found too much that helps. The buttons were completely non-functional when I started, so I'm pretty proud of getting this far with it! I've just run out of time and patience for more trial-and-error experimenting. Any help is appreciated... Diane

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• Rolling Back a Transaction with MySQL Connector in VB.net

  - by Jonathan

  Hey all- I have one multi-row INSERT statement (300 or so sets of values) that I would like to commit to the MySQL database in an all-or-nothing fashion. insert into table VALUES (1, 2, 3), (4, 5, 6), (7, 8, 9); In some cases, a set of values in the command will not meet the criteria of the table (duplicate key, for example). When that happens I do not want any of the previous sets added to the database. I've implemented this with the following code, however, my rollback command doesn't appear to be making a difference. I've used this documentation: http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.0/es/connector-net-examples-mysqltransaction.html Dim transaction As MySqlTransaction = sqlConnection.BeginTransaction() sqlCommand = New MySqlCommand(insertStr, sqlConnection, transaction) Try sqlCommand.ExecuteNonQuery() Catch ex As Exception writeToLog("EXCEPTION: " & ex.Message & vbNewLine) writeToLog("Could not execute " & sqlCmd & vbNewLine) Try transaction.Rollback() writeToLog("All statements were rolled back." & vbNewLine) Return False Catch rollbackEx As Exception writeToLog("EXCEPTION: " & rollbackEx.Message & vbNewLine) writeToLog("All statements were not rolled back." & vbNewLine) Return False End Try End Try transaction.commit() I get the DUPLICATE KEY exception thrown, no Rollback Exception thrown, and every set of values up to duplicate key committed to the database. What am I doing wrong? Thanks- Jonathan

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• DDK/WDM developing problem ... driver won't load on x64 windows platform

  - by user295975

  Hi there! I am a beginner at DDK/WDM driver developing field. I have a task which involves porting a virtual device driver from x86 to x64 (intel). I got the source code, I modified it a bit and compiled it succesfuly with DDK (build environments). But when I tried to load it on a ia64 Windows7 machine it didn't want to load. Then I tried some simple examples of device drivers from --http://www.codeproject.com/KB/system/driverdev.aspx (I put '--' to be able to post the hyperlink) and from other links but still the same problem. I hear on a forum that some libraries that you use to link are not compatible with the new machines and suggested to link to another similar libraries...but still didn't worked. When I build I use "-cefw" command line parameters as suggested. I do not have an *.inf file asociated but I'm copying it in system32/drivers and I'm using WinObj to see if next restart it's loaded into the memory. I also tried this program ( http://www.codeproject.com/KB/system/tdriver.aspx ) to load the driver into the memory but still didn't worked for me. Please please help me...I'm stuck on this and my deadline already passed. I feel I'driving nuts in here trying to discover what am I doing wrong.

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• C# - Removing event handlers - FormClosing event or Dispose() method

  - by Andy

  Suppose I have a form opened via the .ShowDialog() method. At some point I attach some event handlers to some controls on the form. e.g. // Attach radio button event handlers. this.rbLevel1.Click += new EventHandler(this.RadioButton_CheckedChanged); this.rbLevel2.Click += new EventHandler(this.RadioButton_CheckedChanged); this.rbLevel3.Click += new EventHandler(this.RadioButton_CheckedChanged); When the form closes, I need to remove these handlers, right? At present, I am doing this when the FormClosing event is fired. e.g. private void Foo_FormClosing(object sender, FormClosingEventArgs e) { // Detach radio button event handlers. this.rbLevel1.Click -= new EventHandler(this.RadioButton_CheckedChanged); this.rbLevel2.Click -= new EventHandler(this.RadioButton_CheckedChanged); this.rbLevel3.Click -= new EventHandler(this.RadioButton_CheckedChanged); } However, I have seen some examples where handlers are removed in the Dispose() method. Is there a 'best-practice' way of doing this? (Using C#, Winforms, .NET 2.0) Thanks.

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• Is it valid to use unsafe struct * as an opaque type instead of IntPtr in .NET Platform Invoke?

  - by David Jeske

  .NET Platform Invoke advocates declaring pointer types as IntPtr. For example, the following [DllImport("user32.dll")] static extern IntPtr SendMessage(IntPtr hWnd, UInt32 Msg, Int32 wParam, Int32 lParam); However, I find when interfacing with interesting native interfaces, that have many pointer types, flattening everything into IntPtr makes the code very hard to read and removes the typical typechecking that a compiler can do. I've been using a pattern where I declare an unsafe struct to be an opaque pointer type. I can store this pointer type in a managed object, and the compiler can typecheck it form me. For example: class Foo { unsafe struct FOO {}; // opaque type unsafe FOO *my_foo; class if { [DllImport("mydll")] extern static unsafe FOO* get_foo(); [DllImport("mydll")] extern static unsafe void do_something_foo(FOO *foo); } public unsafe Foo() { this.my_foo = if.get_foo(); } public unsafe do_something_foo() { if.do_something_foo(this.my_foo); } While this example may not seem different than using IntPtr, when there are several pointer types moving between managed and native code, using these opaque pointer types for typechecking is a godsend. I have not run into any trouble using this technique in practice. However, I also have not seen an examples of anyone using this technique, and I wonder why. Is there any reason that the above code is invalid in the eyes of the .NET runtime? My main question is about how the .NET GC system treats "unsafe FOO *my_foo". Is this pointer something the GC system is going to try to trace, or is it simply going to ignore it? My hope is that because the underlying type is a struct, and it's declared unsafe, that the GC would ignore it. However, I don't know for sure. Thoughts?

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• Compile IL code at runtime using .NET 3.5 and C# from file

  - by nitefrog

  I would like to take a file that is an IL file, and at run time compile it back to an exe. Right now I can use process.start to fire off the command line with parameters (ilasm.exe) but I would like to automate this process from a C# service I will create. Is there a way to do this with reflection and reflection.emit? While this works: string rawText = File.ReadAllText(string.Format("c:\\temp\\{0}.il", Utility.GetAppSetting("baseName")), Encoding.ASCII); rawText = rawText.Replace("[--STRIP--]", guid); File.Delete(string.Format("c:\\temp\\{0}.il", Utility.GetAppSetting("baseName"))); File.WriteAllText(string.Format("c:\\temp\\{0}.il", Utility.GetAppSetting("baseName")),rawText, Encoding.ASCII); pi = new ProcessStartInfo(); pi.WindowStyle = ProcessWindowStyle.Hidden; pi.FileName = "\"" + ilasm + "\""; pi.Arguments = string.Format("c:\\temp\\{0}.il", Utility.GetAppSetting("baseName")); using(Process p = Process.Start(pi)) { p.WaitForExit(); } It is not ideal as I really would like this to be a streamlined process. I have seen examples of creating the IL at runtime, then saving, but I need to use the IL I already have in file form and compile it back to an exe. Thanks.

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• To what degree should I use Marshal.ReleaseComObject with Excel Interop objects?

  - by DanM

  I've seen several examples where Marshal.ReleaseComObject() is used with Excel Interop objects (i.e., objects from namespace Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel), but I've seen it used to various degrees. I'm wondering if I can get away with something like this: var application = new ApplicationClass(); try { // do work with application, workbooks, worksheets, cells, etc. } finally { Marashal.ReleaseComObject(application) } Or if I need to release every single object created, as in this method: public void CreateExcelWorkbookWithSingleSheet() { var application = new ApplicationClass(); var workbook = application.Workbooks.Add(_missing); var worksheets = workbook.Worksheets; for (var worksheetIndex = 1; worksheetIndex < worksheets.Count; worksheetIndex++) { var worksheet = (WorksheetClass)worksheets[worksheetIndex]; worksheet.Delete(); Marshal.ReleaseComObject(worksheet); } workbook.SaveAs( WorkbookPath, _missing, _missing, _missing, _missing, _missing, XlSaveAsAccessMode.xlExclusive, _missing, _missing, _missing, _missing, _missing); workbook.Close(true, _missing, _missing); application.Quit(); Marshal.ReleaseComObject(worksheets); Marshal.ReleaseComObject(workbook); Marshal.ReleaseComObject(application); } What prompted me to ask this question is that, being the LINQ devotee I am, I really want to do something like this: var worksheetNames = worksheets.Cast<Worksheet>().Select(ws => ws.Name); ...but I'm concerned I'll end up with memory leaks or ghost processes if I don't release each worksheet (ws) object. Any insight on this would be appreciated.

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• Why put a DAO layer over a persistence layer (like JDO or Hibernate)

  - by Todd Owen

  Data Access Objects (DAOs) are a common design pattern, and recommended by Sun. But the earliest examples of Java DAOs interacted directly with relational databases -- they were, in essence, doing object-relational mapping (ORM). Nowadays, I see DAOs on top of mature ORM frameworks like JDO and Hibernate, and I wonder if that is really a good idea. I am developing a web service using JDO as the persistence layer, and am considering whether or not to introduce DAOs. I foresee a problem when dealing with a particular class which contains a map of other objects: public class Book { // Book description in various languages, indexed by ISO language codes private Map<String,BookDescription> descriptions; } JDO is clever enough to map this to a foreign key constraint between the "BOOKS" and "BOOKDESCRIPTIONS" tables. It transparently loads the BookDescription objects (using lazy loading, I believe), and persists them when the Book object is persisted. If I was to introduce a "data access layer" and write a class like BookDao, and encapsulate all the JDO code within this, then wouldn't this JDO's transparent loading of the child objects be circumventing the data access layer? For consistency, shouldn't all the BookDescription objects be loaded and persisted via some BookDescriptionDao object (or BookDao.loadDescription method)? Yet refactoring in that way would make manipulating the model needlessly complicated. So my question is, what's wrong with calling JDO (or Hibernate, or whatever ORM you fancy) directly in the business layer? Its syntax is already quite concise, and it is datastore-agnostic. What is the advantage, if any, of encapsulating it in Data Access Objects?

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• Compile and optimize for different target architectures

  - by Peter Smit

  Summary: I want to take advantage of compiler optimizations and processor instruction sets, but still have a portable application (running on different processors). Normally I could indeed compile 5 times and let the user choose the right one to run. My question is: how can I can automate this, so that the processor is detected at runtime and the right executable is executed without the user having to chose it? I have an application with a lot of low level math calculations. These calculations will typically run for a long time. I would like to take advantage of as much optimization as possible, preferably also of (not always supported) instruction sets. On the other hand I would like my application to be portable and easy to use (so I would not like to compile 5 different versions and let the user choose). Is there a possibility to compile 5 different versions of my code and run dynamically the most optimized version that's possible at execution time? With 5 different versions I mean with different instruction sets and different optimizations for processors. I don't care about the size of the application. At this moment I'm using gcc on Linux (my code is in C++), but I'm also interested in this for the Intel compiler and for the MinGW compiler for compilation to Windows. The executable doesn't have to be able to run on different OS'es, but ideally there would be something possible with automatically selecting 32 bit and 64 bit as well. Edit: Please give clear pointers how to do it, preferably with small code examples or links to explanations. From my point of view I need a super generic solution, which is applicable on any random C++ project I have later. Edit I assigned the bounty to ShuggyCoUk, he had a great number of pointers to look out for. I would have liked to split it between multiple answers but that is not possible. I'm not having this implemented yet, so the question is still 'open'! Please, still add and/or improve answers, even though there is no bounty to be given anymore. Thanks everybody!

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• WPF: Selecting the Target of an Animation

  - by Phil Sandler

  I am trying to create a simple (I think) animation effect based on a property change in my ViewModel. I would like the target to be a specific textblock in the control template of a custom control, which inherits from Window. From the article examples I've seen, a DataTrigger is the easiest way to accomplish this. It appears that Window.Triggers doesn't support DataTriggers, which led me to try to apply the trigger in the style. The problem I am currently having is that I can't seem to target the TextBlock (or any other child control)--what happens is which the code below is that the animation is applied to the background of the whole window. If I leave off StoryBoard.Target completely, the effect is exactly the same. Is this the right approach with the wrong syntax, or is there an easier way to accomplish this? <Style x:Key="MyWindowStyle" TargetType="{x:Type Window}"> <Setter Property="Template" Value="{StaticResource MyWindowTemplate}"/> <Style.Triggers> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding ChangeOccurred}" Value="True"> <DataTrigger.EnterActions> <BeginStoryboard> <Storyboard BeginTime="00:00:00" Duration="0:0:2" Storyboard.Target="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType=TextBlock}}" Storyboard.TargetProperty="(Background).(SolidColorBrush.Color)"> <ColorAnimation FillBehavior="Stop" From="Black" To="Red" Duration="0:0:0.5" AutoReverse="True"/> </Storyboard> </BeginStoryboard> </DataTrigger.EnterActions> </DataTrigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style>

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• How do I represent concurrent actions in jBPM, any of which can end a process?

  - by tpdi

  An example: a permit must be examined by two lawyers and one engineer. If any of those three reject it, the process enters a "rejected" end state. If all three grant the permit, it enters a "granted" end state. All three examiners may examine simultaneously, or in any order. Once one engineer has granted it, it shouldn't be available to be examined by an engineer; once two lawyers have examined it, it shouldn't be available to lawyers; once one engineer and two lawyers have examined it should go to the granted end state. My initial thinking is that either I have a overly complicated state transition diagram, with "the same" intermediate states multiply repeated, or I carry (external) state with the process { bool rejected; int engineerSignoffId; int lawyer1SignoffId; int lawyer2SignoffId}. Or something like this? If so, how does the engineer's rejection terminate the subprocess that is in "Lawyers"? START->FORK->Engineer->Granted?---------------->Y->JOIN-->Granted |->Lawyers-->Granted?->by 2 lawyers?->Y---^ ^ | |--------------------------N What's the canonical jBPM answer to this? Can you point me to examples or documentation of such answers? Thanks.

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• Modelling Business Logic with NON-Techies

  - by cbmeeks

  The setup: Winform/ASP.NET MVC projects. Learning NHibernate SQL-Server driven apps I work with clients that have no idea how to model an application. That's what I'm for. However, we have lots of conflicts with validation, mis-understandings, etc. For example, the client will ask for an order entry screen. The screen should require a "product". That's fine and dandy. However, the client didn't know to tell me that the user can't order a product of "Class A" unless it's Tuesday. Or, they need a time entry screen. 2 days before it's rolled into production, they casually forgot to mention that certain activities are only valid for certain situations. These situations being a week of coding. That's of course, some crude examples (not by much!). But the problem is getting these non-technical clients to layout their business logic. They somehow didn't realize that the "Class A" problem would come up two weeks later, etc. I'm all for agile programming but is there an easy way to somehow make business logic like this extremely easy to implement and change on almost a daily basis? I of course am splitting the project into hopefully intelligent pieces, using NHibernate, etc. But making this BI logic so dynamic is really making it hard to project timelines, etc. Any suggestions? I know there will never be a perfect client (or a perfect provider) but how do you guys deal with the constant mis-understandings? Thanks.

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• Ordered delivery with NetNamedPipeBinding using oneWay calls

  - by Aseem Bansal

  Is it possible to guarantee ordered delivery with oneWay calls using namedPipe binding? I have a WCF service/client communicating using namedPipe binding. The client is exposing a callback contract in which all the methods in the callback are marked as OneWay. Something like this [ServiceContract(CallbackContract = typeof(IMyServiceCallback))] public interface IMyService { [OperationContract] void MyOperation(); } public interface IMyServiceCallback { [OperationContract(IsOneWay=true)] void MyCallback1(); [OperationContract(IsOneWay=true)] void MyCallback2(); } At the server side, the implementation of MyOperation method always calls MyCallback1 first and then MyCallback2 but I am observing that sometimes the client receives the calls in the incorrect order (MyCallback2 first and then MyCallback1). On searching the internet I found that the order is not guaranteed with oneway operation as mentioned here and also there is something called reliableSession which ensure message ordering. All the examples on the internet for reliable session are with TCP binding (and not a single one with NamedPipeBinding) and the tcpBinding also has a property called ReliableSession which is not present on the NetNamedPipeBinding. So I am not sure whether reliable session is expected to work with NetNamedPipeBinding or not. Question: Does reliable session work with namedPipeBinding? If yes, how? If no, Is there any other approach with which I can guarantee ordered delivery?

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• Calling a .net webservice from a plain HTML site using jQuery

  - by pwee167

  Hi guys, I wanted to know it is possible to call a hosted .net web service from a HTML page using jQuery? I tried this piece of code, but it doesn't work for me: $('#myForm').click(function() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", data: '{}', url: "http://localhost:49590/Service.asmx?op=HelloWorld", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(response) { alert(response.d); }, failure: function(result) { alert(result.status + ' ' + result.statusText); } }); }); And the webservice is as such: [WebService(Namespace = "http://tempuri.org/")] [WebServiceBinding(ConformsTo = WsiProfiles.BasicProfile1_1)] [System.ComponentModel.ToolboxItem(false)] // To allow this Web Service to be called from script, using ASP.NET AJAX, uncomment the following line. [System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptService] public class Service : System.Web.Services.WebService { [WebMethod] public string HelloWorld() { return "Hello World"; } } I have searched for this and found only examples where it is done from asp.net or asp.net mvc projects. I am not sure what I am missing but I thought this was possible from a plain HTML site with javascript, so can someone please point me in the right direction. Cheers!

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• Can per-user randomized salts be replaced with iterative hashing?

  - by Chas Emerick

  In the process of building what I'd like to hope is a properly-architected authentication mechanism, I've come across a lot of materials that specify that: user passwords must be salted the salt used should be sufficiently random and generated per-user ...therefore, the salt must be stored with the user record in order to support verification of the user password I wholeheartedly agree with the first and second points, but it seems like there's an easy workaround for the latter. Instead of doing the equivalent of (pseudocode here): salt = random(); hashedPassword = hash(salt . password); storeUserRecord(username, hashedPassword, salt); Why not use the hash of the username as the salt? This yields a domain of salts that is well-distributed, (roughly) random, and each individual salt is as complex as your salt function provides for. Even better, you don't have to store the salt in the database -- just regenerate it at authentication-time. More pseudocode: salt = hash(username); hashedPassword = hash(salt . password); storeUserRecord(username, hashedPassword); (Of course, hash in the examples above should be something reasonable, like SHA-512, or some other strong hash.) This seems reasonable to me given what (little) I know of crypto, but the fact that it's a simplification over widely-recommended practice makes me wonder whether there's some obvious reason I've gone astray that I'm not aware of.

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• Possible to have multiple Profiles in ASP.NET for different users?

  - by asple

  My application has a few different user types with their own members. For example, I have the student user as well as the teacher user. I authenticate my users through active directory in my custom MembershipProvider's ValidateUser method. While querying AD, I pull out all their relevant information. I'd like to put that information into a Profile, but from what I've read and the examples I've sen, you can only define a single Profile (like so): <profile defaultProvider="CustomProfileProvider" enabled="true"> <properties> <add name="YearLevel" type="String" /> <add name="Name" type="String" /> <add name="Age" type="String" /> </properties> </profile> The above profile would work for a student, but not for a teacher, who does not have a value for "YearLevel" in AD. Is it possible to have multiple profiles to accomplish this? Or is it easier to add all properties from AD spanning all user types, then in my code, just check what user type they are and then access their specific properties?

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• correct way to create a pivot table in postgresql using CASE WHEN

  - by mojones

  I am trying to create a pivot table type view in postgresql and am nearly there! Here is the basic query: select acc2tax_node.acc, tax_node.name, tax_node.rank from tax_node, acc2tax_node where tax_node.taxid=acc2tax_node.taxid and acc2tax_node.acc='AJ012531'; And the data: acc | name | rank ----------+-------------------------+-------------- AJ012531 | Paromalostomum fusculum | species AJ012531 | Paromalostomum | genus AJ012531 | Macrostomidae | family AJ012531 | Macrostomida | order AJ012531 | Macrostomorpha | no rank AJ012531 | Turbellaria | class AJ012531 | Platyhelminthes | phylum AJ012531 | Acoelomata | no rank AJ012531 | Bilateria | no rank AJ012531 | Eumetazoa | no rank AJ012531 | Metazoa | kingdom AJ012531 | Fungi/Metazoa group | no rank AJ012531 | Eukaryota | superkingdom AJ012531 | cellular organisms | no rank What I am trying to get is the following: acc | species | phylum AJ012531 | Paromalostomum fusculum | Platyhelminthes I am trying to do this with CASE WHEN, so I've got as far as the following: select acc2tax_node.acc, CASE tax_node.rank WHEN 'species' THEN tax_node.name ELSE NULL END as species, CASE tax_node.rank WHEN 'phylum' THEN tax_node.name ELSE NULL END as phylum from tax_node, acc2tax_node where tax_node.taxid=acc2tax_node.taxid and acc2tax_node.acc='AJ012531'; Which gives me the output: acc | species | phylum ----------+-------------------------+----------------- AJ012531 | Paromalostomum fusculum | AJ012531 | | AJ012531 | | AJ012531 | | AJ012531 | | AJ012531 | | AJ012531 | | Platyhelminthes AJ012531 | | AJ012531 | | AJ012531 | | AJ012531 | | AJ012531 | | AJ012531 | | AJ012531 | | Now I know that I have to group by acc at some point, so I try select acc2tax_node.acc, CASE tax_node.rank WHEN 'species' THEN tax_node.name ELSE NULL END as sp, CASE tax_node.rank WHEN 'phylum' THEN tax_node.name ELSE NULL END as ph from tax_node, acc2tax_node where tax_node.taxid=acc2tax_node.taxid and acc2tax_node.acc='AJ012531' group by acc2tax_node.acc; But I get the dreaded ERROR: column "tax_node.rank" must appear in the GROUP BY clause or be used in an aggregate function All the previous examples I've been able to find use something like SUM() around the CASE statements, so I guess that is the aggregate function. I have tried using FIRST(): select acc2tax_node.acc, FIRST(CASE tax_node.rank WHEN 'species' THEN tax_node.name ELSE NULL END) as sp, FIRST(CASE tax_node.rank WHEN 'phylum' THEN tax_node.name ELSE NULL END) as ph from tax_node, acc2tax_node where tax_node.taxid=acc2tax_node.taxid and acc2tax_node.acc='AJ012531' group by acc2tax_node.acc; but get the error: ERROR: function first(character varying) does not exist Can anyone offer any hints?

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• silverlight security with WCF service, Forms Authentication and Custom Form Ticket

  - by user74825

  I have a silverlight application with login on the silverlight page. It uses Forms Authentication with WCF authentication service and customer Membership Provider. Something like : http://blogs.msdn.com/phaniraj/archive/2009/09/10/using-the-ado-net-data-services-silverlight-client-library-in-x-domain-and-out-of-browser-scenarios-ii-forms-authentication.aspx So, SL page login page calls the WCF service authentication service, it validates using DB - brings back username and password. Now, in each subsequent calls (in Global.asax in Authenticate_Request, I get HttpContext.User.IsAuthenticated and HttpContext.User.UserName). I have all this working properly. But, I just don't want the username, but more information surrounding the user, like UserId, UserAddress, UserAssociateCustomer etc. I tried couple of different approaches. 1) Use HttpContext.Cache as a dictionary to save the item and get it off based on httpcontext.user.name, problem is cache can be erased if there memory is being used heavily. 2) Tried CustomFormsAuth Ticket, when forms authentication writes a ticket, I intercept CreatingCookie method and write additional info in formauthentication ticket, so that I can read it in subsequent requests, I am having problems with this approach, I don't find the ticket in subsequent requests. I read about how we should use REsponse.Redirect, but where do I redirect user from WCF call. How do you guys implement the above scenario? Any best practices.? Any issues you see with going on HTTPS? All examples (or most of them) just explains simple forms authentication with "I am logged in message".. Any suggestions ?

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• Teach Markup or use a WYSIWYG editor?

  - by Atomiton

  When it comes to WYSIWYG editors WYSI rarely WYG. The problem I always have is when people paste in formatted text from word. Ideally, what I'm looking for is a way for people to input text into the document while at the same time teaching them structure... I just don't know if that's a realistic goal ( compared to cut n' paste ) I'm curious if people have found using something other than WYSIWYG editors ( take SO, for example ) has worked for REAL WORLD USERS. I'm not talking about programmers, developers and experience internet users... I'm talking about your average user. I'd be interested in best practices when it comes to getting users to enter content... and I'd love it if someone could point me to some good editors/examples. there are lots of choices when it comes to WYSIWYG ( ckEditor, FreeTextBox, TinyMCE ) but I don't hear a lot about SO-like techniques. Does adding that small barrier scares users away? Is it too difficult to teach people to mark up their text? Is it easier to teach them html? Is a BBCode implementation a good idea? What are some Pros/Cons to wysiwyg/markup. What approach have others used?

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• Accessing type members outside the class in Scala

  - by Pekka Mattila

  Hi, I am trying to understand type members in Scala. I wrote a simple example that tries to explain my question. First, I created two classes for types: class BaseclassForTypes class OwnType extends BaseclassForTypes Then, I defined an abstract type member in trait and then defined the type member in a concerete class: trait ScalaTypesTest { type T <: BaseclassForTypes def returnType: T } class ScalaTypesTestImpl extends ScalaTypesTest { type T = OwnType override def returnType: T = { new T } } Then, I want to access the type member (yes, the type is not needed here, but this explains my question). Both examples work. Solution 1. Declaring the type, but the problem here is that it does not use the type member and the type information is duplicated (caller and callee). val typeTest = new ScalaTypesTestImpl val typeObject:OwnType = typeTest.returnType // declare the type second time here true must beTrue Solution 2. Initializing the class and using the type through the object. I don't like this, since the class needs to be initialized val typeTest = new ScalaTypesTestImpl val typeObject:typeTest.T = typeTest.returnType // through an instance true must beTrue So, is there a better way of doing this or are type members meant to be used only with the internal implementation of a class?

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• Issue using GAE appcfg.py

  - by JustSmith

  I get nothing out of appcfg.py besides the default output. I'm trying to upload some data to my development project with no luck at at all. From the instructions on the Google App Engine page the steps are as follows: Edit app.yaml update with appcfg.py make upload script upload with appcfg.py After step one I try to run the update and it never shows any success. The following commands product the same output: appcfg.py appcfg.py update appDir appcfg.py update appDir/ appcfg.py update /appDir If i try to follow the instructions from the appcfg.py output and type help upload and get: "help <action>" I get a response from the system, This command is not supported by the help utility. Try "update /?". cause I'm calling the system help command. If I use the command appcfg.py help upload I get the same result as just typing appcfg.py Can someone show me examples of the syntax to update the dev site, upload data to it and get appcfg.py to actually give help on its commands? Also I'm just assuming that the upload script and the .csv file that are being uploaded are in they myApp directory. Appreciate any help,

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