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  • Supersized image captions - render outside of JavaScript

    - by Sol
    I am using the jQuery supersized script for a full screen slideshow (not the WordPress plugin as this didn't give me enough control). However, one issue that I am trying to tackle is how to render the image caption text outside of the javascript slides[ ] call - and instead, render them within the page div - to improve SEO on the page. My code works fine right now, images and the caption text are correctly displaying, but looking at the source code, there is very little text outside of the javascript (which is bad for SEO), so I would just like to improve it, if possible. I haven't been able to find any other topic on this subject and so far, I've been unsuccessful at improving on the current code, which is as follows; <!-- Supersized 3.2.7 - By Sam Dunn / One Mighty Roar (www.onemightyroar.com) Released under MIT License / GPL License --> <script type="text/javascript"> var slides=[]; <?php $my_query = new WP_Query ( array( 'post_status' => 'publish', 'post_type' => 'featured', //'numberposts' => 5, 'orderby' => 'menu_order', 'order' => 'ASC', 'showposts' => 50 )); while( $my_query->have_posts() ) : $my_query->the_post(); $slink = get_post_meta($post->ID,'FS_link',true); ?> slides.push({image : '<?php echo get_image_path(get_post_meta($post->ID, 'FS_slideimage_src', true)); ?>', title : '<div class="slidecaptioninside"><h1><?php echo the_title(); ?></h1><p><?php echo strip_tags(get_post_meta($post->ID, 'FS_fitemcaption', true)); ?>...<a href="<?php echo $slink;?>">find out more</a></p></div>', url : '<?php echo $slink;?>'}); <?php endwhile; ?> // start supersized JS $j = jQuery.noConflict(); $j(window).load(function() { $j.supersized({ //Functionality slideshow: 1, // ..... additional functions go here... slide_captions : 1, //Slide caption (Pull from "title" in slides array) slides : slides, slide_links : 'blank', progress_bar : 1, mouse_scrub: 1 }); }); </script> <div id="slidecontainer"> <div id="slidecaption"></div> <!--Thumbnail Navigation--> <div id="prevthumb"></div> <div id="nextthumb"></div> <!--additional tray divs here--> </div><!--slidecontainer--> I have tried to get Supersized to output the content into a parent div [div id="supersized"] using $j('#supersized').supersized({ but this doesn't appear to work. Has anyone managed to do this differently to improve page SEO?

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  • Resize AIR app window while dragging

    - by matt lohkamp
    So I've noticed Windows 7 has a disturbing tendency to prevent you from dragging the title bar of windows off the top of the screen. If you try - in this case, using an air app with a draggable area at the bottom of the window, allowing you to push the top of the window up past the screen - it just kicks the window back down far enough that the title bar is at the top of what it considers the 'visible area.' One solution would be to resize the app window as it moves, so that the title bar is always where windows wants it. How would you resize the window while you're dragging it, though? Would you do it like this? dragHitArea.addEventListener(MouseEvent.MOUSE_DOWN, function(e:MouseEvent):void{ stage.nativeWindow.height += 50; stage.nativeWindow.startMove(); stage.nativeWindow.height -= 50; }); see what's going on there? When I click, I'm doing startMove(), which is hooking into the OS' function for dragging a window around. I'm also increasing and decreasing the height of the window by 50 pixels - which should give me no net increase, right? Wrong - the first '.height +=' gets executed, but the '.height -=' after the .startMove() never runs. Why? update - If you're curious, I'm programming an air widget with fly-out menus which expand rightwards and upwards - and since those element can only be displayed within the boundaries of the application window itself (even though the window is set to be chromeless and transparent) I have to expand the application's borders to include the area that the menu 'pops up' into. In the extreme case, with the widget positioned bottom left, and the menus expanded completely across to the right side and top edge of the screen, the application area could very well cover the entire desktop. The problem is, when it's expanded like this, if the user drags it up and to the right, it causes the 'title bar' area of the application window to move above the top edge of the desktop area, where it would normally be unreachable; and Windows automatically re-positions the window back below that edge once the .startMove() operation is completed. So what I want to do is continually resize the height of the application so that the visual effect will be the same for the user, but for the benefit of the operating system the window's title bar will never be above that top boundary of the desktop area.

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  • C++ game designing & polymorphism question

    - by Kotti
    Hi! I'm trying to implement some sort of 'just-for-me' game engine and the problem's plot goes the following way: Suppose I have some abstract interface for a renderable entity, e.g. IRenderable. And it's declared the following way: interface IRenderable { // (...) // Suppose that Backend is some abstract backend used // for rendering, and it's implementation is not important virtual void Render(Backend& backend) = 0; }; What I'm doing right now is something like declaring different classes like class Ball : public IRenderable { virtual void Render(Backend& backend) { // Rendering implementation, that is specific for // the Ball object // (...) } }; And then everything looks fine. I can easily do something like std::vector<IRenderable*> items, push some items like new Ball() in this vector and then make a call similiar to foreach (IRenderable* in items) { item->Render(backend); } Ok, I guess it is the 'polymorphic' way, but what if I want to have different types of objects in my game and an ability to manipulate their state, where every object can be manipulated via it's own interface? I could do something like struct GameState { Ball ball; Bonus bonus; // (...) }; and then easily change objects state via their own methods, like ball.Move(...) or bonus.Activate(...), where Move(...) is specific for only Ball and Activate(...) - for only Bonus instances. But in this case I lose the opportunity to write foreach IRenderable* simply because I store these balls and bonuses as instances of their derived, not base classes. And in this case the rendering procedure turns into a mess like ball.Render(backend); bonus.Render(backend); // (...) and it is bad because we actually lose our polymorphism this way (no actual need for making Render function virtual, etc. The other approach means invoking downcasting via dynamic_cast or something with typeid to determine the type of object you want to manipulate and this looks even worse to me and this also breaks this 'polymorphic' idea. So, my question is - is there some kind of (probably) alternative approach to what I want to do or can my current pattern be somehow modified so that I would actually store IRenderable* for my game objects (so that I can invoke virtual Render method on each of them) while preserving the ability to easily change the state of these objects? Maybe I'm doing something absolutely wrong from the beginning, if so, please point it out :) Thanks in advance!

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  • Asp.net Mvc - Kigg: Maintain User object in HttpContext.Items between requests.

    - by Pickels
    Hallo, first I want to say that I hope this doesn't look like I am lazy but I have some trouble understanding a piece of code from the following project. http://kigg.codeplex.com/ I was going through the source code and I noticed something that would be usefull for my own little project I am making. In their BaseController they have the following code: private static readonly Type CurrentUserKey = typeof(IUser); public IUser CurrentUser { get { if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(CurrentUserName)) { IUser user = HttpContext.Items[CurrentUserKey] as IUser; if (user == null) { user = AccountRepository.FindByClaim(CurrentUserName); if (user != null) { HttpContext.Items[CurrentUserKey] = user; } } return user; } return null; } } This isn't an exact copy of the code I adjusted it a little to my needs. This part of the code I still understand. They store their IUser in HttpContext.Items. I guess they do it so that they don't have to call the database eachtime they need the User object. The part that I don't understand is how they maintain this object in between requests. If I understand correctly the HttpContext.Items is a per request cache storage. So after some more digging I found the following code. internal static IDictionary<UnityPerWebRequestLifetimeManager, object> GetInstances(HttpContextBase httpContext) { IDictionary<UnityPerWebRequestLifetimeManager, object> instances; if (httpContext.Items.Contains(Key)) { instances = (IDictionary<UnityPerWebRequestLifetimeManager, object>) httpContext.Items[Key]; } else { lock (httpContext.Items) { if (httpContext.Items.Contains(Key)) { instances = (IDictionary<UnityPerWebRequestLifetimeManager, object>) httpContext.Items[Key]; } else { instances = new Dictionary<UnityPerWebRequestLifetimeManager, object>(); httpContext.Items.Add(Key, instances); } } } return instances; } This is the part where some magic happens that I don't understand. I think they use Unity to do some dependency injection on each request? In my project I am using Ninject and I am wondering how I can get the same result. I guess InRequestScope in Ninject is the same as UnityPerWebRequestLifetimeManager? I am also wondering which class/method they are binding to which interface? Since the HttpContext.Items get destroyed each request how do they prevent losing their user object? Anyway it's kinda a long question so I am gradefull for any push in the right direction. Kind regards, Pickels

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  • Accordion nonfunctional in Opera

    - by nona
    While working as expected in all other browsers, opera refuses to tween the height of content. oddly enough, as i sat annoyed rapidly clicking it over and over again, if it's closed, and you select some text, and keep clicking the same spot long enough, sometimes it pops open. lol. seriously. ahh, it seems to sometimes open the first time clicked after the page is loaded. wth? the javascript: window.addEvent('domready', function(){ var content_height = [];i=0; $$( '.bio_accordion' ).each(function(item){ i++; content_height.push(item.getElement('.moreInfo').offsetHeight); var thisSlider = new Fx.Slide( item.getElement( '.moreInfo' ), { mode: 'horizontal' } ); thisSlider.hide(); item.getElement('.moreInfo').set('tween').tween('height', '0px'); var morph = new Fx.Morph(item.getElement( '.divToggle' )); var selected = 0; item.getElement( '.divToggle' ).addEvents({ 'mouseenter': function(){ if(!selected) this.morph('.div_highlight'); }, 'mouseleave': function(){ if(!selected) { this.morph('.divToggle'); } }, 'click': function(){ if (!selected){ if (this.getElement('.symbol').innerHTML == '+') this.getElement('.symbol').innerHTML = '-'; else this.getElement('.symbol').innerHTML = '+'; item.getElement('.moreInfo').set('tween', { duration: 1500, transition: Fx.Transitions.Bounce.easeOut }).tween('height', content_height[i]); selected = 1; thisSlider.slideIn(); } else{ if (this.getElement('.symbol').innerHTML == '+') this.getElement('.symbol').innerHTML = '-'; else this.getElement('.symbol').innerHTML = '+'; thisSlider.slideOut(); item.getElement('.moreInfo').set('tween', { duration: 1000, transition: Fx.Transitions.Bounce.easeOut }).tween('height', '0px'); selected = 0; } } }); } ); }); the html: <div class="bio_accordion"> <div class="divToggle">test<span class="symbol">-</span></div> <div class="moreInfo" style="margin-left:10px;"> aaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa asdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdf aaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa asdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdf aaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa asdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdf </div> </div> the css: .bio_accordion { padding:0px; margin:0px; } .divToggle { cursor: pointer; color: #ffffff; background-color:#1089b5; padding: 8px; } .div_highlight { padding-left:30px; padding-right:30px; background-color:#096687; } .moreInfo { padding: 2px; padding-top:15px; padding-bottom:15px; overflow: hidden; } .symbol { float:right; }

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  • C++ DLL creation for C# project - No functions exported

    - by Yeti
    I am working on a project that requires some image processing. The front end of the program is C# (cause the guys thought it is a lot simpler to make the UI in it). However, as the image processing part needs a lot of CPU juice I am making this part in C++. The idea is to link it to the C# project and just call a function from a DLL to make the image processing part and allow to the C# environment to process the data afterwards. Now the only problem is that it seems I am not able to make the DLL. Simply put the compiler refuses to put any function into the DLL that I compile. Because the project requires some development time testing I have created two projects into a C++ solution. One is for the Dll and another console application. The console project holds all the files and I just include the corresponding header into my DLL project file. I thought the compiler should take out the functions that I marked as to be exported and make the DLL from them. Nevertheless this does not happens. Here it is how I defined the function in the header: extern "C" __declspec(dllexport) void _stdcall RobotData(BYTE* buf, int** pToNewBackgroundImage, int* pToBackgroundImage, bool InitFlag, ObjectInformation* robot1, ObjectInformation* robot2, ObjectInformation* robot3, ObjectInformation* robot4, ObjectInformation* puck); extern "C" __declspec(dllexport) CvPoint _stdcall RefPointFinder(IplImage* imgInput, CvRect &imgROI, CvScalar &refHSVColorLow, CvScalar &refHSVColorHi ); Followed by the implementation in the cpp file: extern "C" __declspec(dllexport) CvPoint _stdcall RefPointFinder(IplImage* imgInput, CvRect &imgROI,&refHSVColorLow, CvScalar &refHSVColorHi ) { \\... return cvPoint((int)( M10/M00) + imgROI.x, (int)( M01/M00 ) + imgROI.y) ;} extern "C" __declspec(dllexport) void _stdcall RobotData(BYTE* buf, int** pToNewBackgroundImage, int* pToBackgroundImage, bool InitFlag, ObjectInformation* robot1, ObjectInformation* robot2, ObjectInformation* robot3, ObjectInformation* robot4, ObjectInformation* puck) { \\ ...}; And my main file for the DLL project looks like: #ifdef _MANAGED #pragma managed(push, off) #endif /// <summary> Include files. </summary> #include "..\ImageProcessingDebug\ImageProcessingTest.h" #include "..\ImageProcessingDebug\ImageProcessing.h" BOOL APIENTRY DllMain( HMODULE hModule, DWORD ul_reason_for_call, LPVOID lpReserved) { return TRUE; } #ifdef _MANAGED #pragma managed(pop) #endif Needless to say it does not work. A quick look with DLL export viewer 1.36 reveals that no function is inside the library. I don't get it. What I am doing wrong ? As side not I am using the C++ objects (and here it is the C++ DLL part) such as the vector. However, only for internal usage. These will not appear in the headers of either function as you can observe from the previous code snippets. Any ideas? Thx, Bernat

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  • calling startActivity() inside of a instance method - causing a NullPointerException

    - by Cole
    Heya - I'm trying to call startActivity() from a class that extends AsyncTask in the onPostExecute(). Here's the flow: Class that extends AsyncTask: protected void onPostExecute() { Login login = new Login(); login.pushCreateNewOrChooseExistingFormActivity(); } Class that extends Activity: public void pushCreateNewOrChooseExistingFormActivity() { // start the CreateNewOrChooseExistingForm Activity Intent intent = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_VIEW); **ERROR_HERE*** intent.setClassName(this, CreateNewOrChooseExistingForm.class.getName()); startActivity(intent); } And I get this error… every time: 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): FATAL EXCEPTION: main 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): java.lang.NullPointerException 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): at android.content.ContextWrapper.getPackageName(ContextWrapper.java:120) 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): at android.content.ComponentName.(ComponentName.java:62) 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): at android.content.Intent.setClassName(Intent.java:4850) 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): at com.att.AppName.Login.pushCreateNewOrChooseExistingFormActivity(Login.java:47) For iOS developers - I'm just trying to push a new view controller on to a navigational controller's stack a la pushViewController:animated:. Which apparently - is hard to do on this platform. Any ideas? Thanks in advance! UPDATE - FIXED: per @Falmarri advice, i managed to resolve this issue. first of all, i'm no longer calling Login login = new Login(); to create a new login object. bad. bad. bad. no cookie. instead, when preparing to call .execute(), this tutorial suggests passing the applicationContext to the class the executes the AsyncTask, for my purposes, as shown below: CallWebServiceTask task = new CallWebServiceTask(); // pass the login object to the task task.applicationContext = login; // execute the task in the background, passing the required params task.execute(login); now, in onPostExecute(), i can get to my Login objects methods like so: ((Login) applicationContext).pushCreateNewOrChooseExistingFormActivity(); ((Login) applicationContext).showLoginFailedAlert(result.get("httpResponseCode").toString()); ... hope this helps someone else out there! especially iOS developers transistioning over to Android...

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  • Tab Bar disappears below the bottom of the screen

    - by Manu
    Hi, In my application I'm using a Navigation Controller to push one view that loads a Tab Bar Controller and a custom Navigation Bar as well. The problem is that the Tab Bar disappears below the bottom of the screen, and I don't know what's causing the problem. If I load a simple Tab Bar in the next view, it positions itself correctly... but what I need is a Tab Bar Controller, and in that case the Tab Bar disappears below the bottom. I have tried changing the view and size properties of the Tab Bar, but that did not solve the problem. I also realised that the images and text of the tabs don't show (I have set up the "favourites" and "contacts" images and text, and they are big enough and should be visible on the top side of the tab, but they are not). Both tabs work perfectly, by the way. There is an image here. I load the Tab Bar with the following code: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; myTabBarController = [[UITabBarController alloc] init]; SettingsViewController* tab1 = [[SettingsViewController alloc] init]; AboutViewController* tab2 = [[AboutViewController alloc] init]; NSArray* controllers = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:tab1, tab2, nil]; myTabBarController.viewControllers = controllers; [self.view insertSubview:myTabBarController.view belowSubview:myNavigationBar]; } It doesn't matter if I remove the Navigation Bar or not. I have tested using this instead: [self.view addSubview:myTabBarController.view]; ... forgetting about the Navigation Bar, but the Tab Bar still goes under the bottom. I don't know if the problem is in one of my NIB files or in how I load the view (although I do this as I read in the Apple's SDK documentation). Any ideas? Another question would be... do you know how could I change the title of my Navigation Bar when I select the second tab? I imagine I would have to do it in viewDidLoad in AboutViewController.m, would that be correct? Thanks for you time!

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  • Correlation formula explanation needed d3.js

    - by divakar
    function getCorrelation(xArray, yArray) { alert(xArray); alert(yArray); function sum(m, v) {return m + v;} function sumSquares(m, v) {return m + v * v;} function filterNaN(m, v, i) {isNaN(v) ? null : m.push(i); return m;} // clean the data (because we know that some values are missing) var xNaN = _.reduce(xArray, filterNaN , []); var yNaN = _.reduce(yArray, filterNaN , []); var include = _.intersection(xNaN, yNaN); var fX = _.map(include, function(d) {return xArray[d];}); var fY = _.map(include, function(d) {return yArray[d];}); var sumX = _.reduce(fX, sum, 0); var sumY = _.reduce(fY, sum, 0); var sumX2 = _.reduce(fX, sumSquares, 0); var sumY2 = _.reduce(fY, sumSquares, 0); var sumXY = _.reduce(fX, function(m, v, i) {return m + v * fY[i];}, 0); var n = fX.length; var ntor = ( ( sumXY ) - ( sumX * sumY / n) ); var dtorX = sumX2 - ( sumX * sumX / n); var dtorY = sumY2 - ( sumY * sumY / n); var r = ntor / (Math.sqrt( dtorX * dtorY )); // Pearson ( http://www.stat.wmich.edu/s216/book/node122.html ) var m = ntor / dtorX; // y = mx + b var b = ( sumY - m * sumX ) / n; // console.log(r, m, b); return {r: r, m: m, b: b}; } I have finding correlation between the points i plot using this function which is not written by me. my xarray=[120,110,130,132,120,118,134,105,120,0,0,0,0,137,125,120,127,120,160,120,148] yarray=[80,70,70,80,70,62,69,70,70,62,90,42,80,72,0,0,0,0,78,82,68,60,58,82,60,76,86,82,70] I can t able to understand the function perfectly. Can anybody explain it with the data i pasted here. I also wanted to remove the zeros getting calculated from this function.

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  • Javascript terminates after trying to select data from an object passed to a function

    - by Silmaril89
    Here is my javascript: $(document).ready(function(){ var queries = getUrlVars(); $.get("mail3.php", { listid: queries["listid"], mindex: queries["mindex"] }, showData, 'html'); }); function showData(data) { var response = $(data).find("#mailing").html(); if (response == null) { $("#results").html("<h3>Server didn't respond, try again.</h3>"); } else if (response.length) { var old = $("#results").html(); old = old + "<br /><h3>" + response + "</h3>"; $("#results").html(old); var words = response.split(' '); words[2] = words[2] * 1; words[4] = words[4] * 1; if (words[2] < words[4]) { var queries = getUrlVars(); $.get("mail3.php", { listid: queries["listid"], mindex: words[2] }, function(data){showData(data);}, 'html'); } else { var done = $(data).find("#done").html(); old = old + "<br />" + done; $("#results").html(old); } } else { $("#results").html("<h3>Server responded with an empty reply, try again.</h3>"); } } function getUrlVars() { var vars = [], hash; var hashes = window.location.href.slice(window.location.href.indexOf('?') + 1).split('&'); for (var i = 0; i < hashes.length; i++) { hash = hashes[i].split('='); vars.push(hash[0]); vars[hash[0]] = hash[1]; } return vars; } After the first line in showData: var response = $(data).find("#mailing").html(); the javascript stops. If I put an alert before it, the alert pops up, after it, it doesn't pop up. There must be something wrong with using $(data), but why? Any ideas would be appreciated.

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  • User Control as container

    - by Luca
    I'm designing a simple expander control. I've derived from UserControl, drawn inner controls, built, run; all ok. Since an inner Control is a Panel, I'd like to use it as container at design time. Indeed I've used the attributes: [Designer(typeof(ExpanderControlDesigner))] [Designer("System.Windows.Forms.Design.ParentControlDesigner, System.Design", typeof(IDesigner))] Great I say. But it isn't... The result is that I can use it as container at design time but: The added controls go back the inner controls already embedded in the user control Even if I push to top a control added at design time, at runtime it is back again on controls embedded to the user control I cannot restrict the container area at design time into a Panel area What am I missing? Here is the code for completeness... why this snippet of code is not working? [Designer(typeof(ExpanderControlDesigner))] [Designer("System.Windows.Forms.Design.ParentControlDesigner, System.Design", typeof(IDesigner))] public partial class ExpanderControl : UserControl { public ExpanderControl() { InitializeComponent(); .... [System.Security.Permissions.PermissionSet(System.Security.Permissions.SecurityAction.Demand, Name = "FullTrust")] internal class ExpanderControlDesigner : ControlDesigner { private ExpanderControl MyControl; public override void Initialize(IComponent component) { base.Initialize(component); MyControl = (ExpanderControl)component; // Hook up events ISelectionService s = (ISelectionService)GetService(typeof(ISelectionService)); IComponentChangeService c = (IComponentChangeService)GetService(typeof(IComponentChangeService)); s.SelectionChanged += new EventHandler(OnSelectionChanged); c.ComponentRemoving += new ComponentEventHandler(OnComponentRemoving); } private void OnSelectionChanged(object sender, System.EventArgs e) { } private void OnComponentRemoving(object sender, ComponentEventArgs e) { } protected override void Dispose(bool disposing) { ISelectionService s = (ISelectionService)GetService(typeof(ISelectionService)); IComponentChangeService c = (IComponentChangeService)GetService(typeof(IComponentChangeService)); // Unhook events s.SelectionChanged -= new EventHandler(OnSelectionChanged); c.ComponentRemoving -= new ComponentEventHandler(OnComponentRemoving); base.Dispose(disposing); } public override System.ComponentModel.Design.DesignerVerbCollection Verbs { get { DesignerVerbCollection v = new DesignerVerbCollection(); v.Add(new DesignerVerb("&asd", new EventHandler(null))); return v; } } } I've found many resources (Interaction, designed, limited area), but nothing was usefull for being operative...

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  • Count seconds and minutes with MCU timer/interrupt?

    - by arynhard
    I am trying to figure out how to create a timer for my C8051F020 MCU. The following code uses the value passed to init_Timer2() with the following formula: 65535-(0.1 / (12/2000000)=48868. I set up the timer to count every time it executes and for every 10 counts, count one second. This is based on the above formula. 48868 when passed to init_Timer2 will produce a 0.1 second delay. It would take ten of them per second. However, when I test the timer it is a little fast. At ten seconds the timer reports 11 seconds, at 20 seconds the timer reports 22 seconds. I would like to get as close to a perfect second as I can. Here is my code: #include <compiler_defs.h> #include <C8051F020_defs.h> void init_Clock(void); void init_Watchdog(void); void init_Ports(void); void init_Timer2(unsigned int counts); void start_Timer2(void); void timer2_ISR(void); unsigned int timer2_Count; unsigned int seconds; unsigned int minutes; int main(void) { init_Clock(); init_Watchdog(); init_Ports(); start_Timer2(); P5 &= 0xFF; while (1); } //============================================================= //Functions //============================================================= void init_Clock(void) { OSCICN = 0x04; //2Mhz //OSCICN = 0x07; //16Mhz } void init_Watchdog(void) { //Disable watchdog timer WDTCN = 0xDE; WDTCN = 0xAD; } void init_Ports(void) { XBR0 = 0x00; XBR1 = 0x00; XBR2 = 0x40; P0 = 0x00; P0MDOUT = 0x00; P5 = 0x00; //Set P5 to 1111 P74OUT = 0x08; //Set P5 4 - 7 (LEDs) to push pull (Output) } void init_Timer2(unsigned int counts) { CKCON = 0x00; //Set all timers to system clock divided by 12 T2CON = 0x00; //Set timer 2 to timer mode RCAP2 = counts; T2 = 0xFFFF; //655535 IE |= 0x20; //Enable timer 2 T2CON |= 0x04; //Start timer 2 } void start_Timer2(void) { EA = 0; init_Timer2(48868); EA = 1; } void timer2_ISR(void) interrupt 5 { T2CON &= ~(0x80); P5 ^= 0xF0; timer2_Count++; if(timer2_Count % 10 == 0) { seconds++; } if(seconds % 60 == 0 && seconds != 0) { minutes++; } }

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  • Getting code-first Entity Framework to build tables on SQL Azure

    - by NER1808
    I am new the code-first Entity Framework. I have tried a few things now, but can't get EF to construct any tables in the my SQL Azure database. Can anyone advise of some steps and settings I should check. The membership provider has no problems create it's tables. I have added the PersistSecurityInfo=True in the connection string. The connection string is using the main user account for the server. When I implement the tables in the database using sql everything works fine. I have the following in the WebRole.cs //Initialize the database Database.SetInitializer<ReykerSCPContext>(new DbInitializer()); My DbInitializer (which does not get run before I get a "Invalid object name 'dbo.ClientAccountIFAs'." when I try to access the table for the first time. Sometime after startup. public class DbInitializer:DropCreateDatabaseIfModelChanges<ReykerSCPContext> { protected override void Seed(ReykerSCPContext context) { using (context) { //Add Doc Types context.DocTypes.Add(new DocType() { DocTypeId = 1, Description = "Statement" }); context.DocTypes.Add(new DocType() { DocTypeId = 2, Description = "Contract note" }); context.DocTypes.Add(new DocType() { DocTypeId = 3, Description = "Notification" }); context.DocTypes.Add(new DocType() { DocTypeId = 4, Description = "Invoice" }); context.DocTypes.Add(new DocType() { DocTypeId = 5, Description = "Document" }); context.DocTypes.Add(new DocType() { DocTypeId = 6, Description = "Newsletter" }); context.DocTypes.Add(new DocType() { DocTypeId = 7, Description = "Terms and Conditions" }); //Add ReykerAccounttypes context.ReykerAccountTypes.Add(new ReykerAccountType() { ReykerAccountTypeID = 1, Description = "ISA" }); context.ReykerAccountTypes.Add(new ReykerAccountType() { ReykerAccountTypeID = 2, Description = "Trading" }); context.ReykerAccountTypes.Add(new ReykerAccountType() { ReykerAccountTypeID = 3, Description = "SIPP" }); context.ReykerAccountTypes.Add(new ReykerAccountType() { ReykerAccountTypeID = 4, Description = "CTF" }); context.ReykerAccountTypes.Add(new ReykerAccountType() { ReykerAccountTypeID = 5, Description = "JISA" }); context.ReykerAccountTypes.Add(new ReykerAccountType() { ReykerAccountTypeID = 6, Description = "Direct" }); context.ReykerAccountTypes.Add(new ReykerAccountType() { ReykerAccountTypeID = 7, Description = "ISA & Direct" }); //Save the changes context.SaveChanges(); } and my DBContext class looks like public class ReykerSCPContext : DbContext { //set the connection explicitly public ReykerSCPContext():base("ReykerSCPContext"){} //define tables public DbSet<ClientAccountIFA> ClientAccountIFAs { get; set; } public DbSet<Document> Documents { get; set; } public DbSet<DocType> DocTypes { get; set; } public DbSet<ReykerAccountType> ReykerAccountTypes { get; set; } protected override void OnModelCreating(DbModelBuilder modelBuilder) { //Runs when creating the model. Can use to define special relationships, such as many-to-many. } The code used to access the is public List<ClientAccountIFA> GetAllClientAccountIFAs() { using (DataContext) { var caiCollection = from c in DataContext.ClientAccountIFAs select c; return caiCollection.ToList(); } } and it errors on the last line. Help!

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  • How do I call a function name that is stored in a hash in Perl?

    - by Ether
    I'm sure this is covered in the documentation somewhere but I have been unable to find it... I'm looking for the syntactic sugar that will make it possible to call a method on a class whose name is stored in a hash (as opposed to a simple scalar): use strict; use warnings; package Foo; sub foo { print "in foo()\n" } package main; my %hash = (func => 'foo'); Foo->$hash{func}; If I copy $hash{func} into a scalar variable first, then I can call Foo->$func just fine... but what is missing to enable Foo->$hash{func} to work? (EDIT: I don't mean to do anything special by calling a method on class Foo -- this could just as easily be a blessed object (and in my actual code it is); it was just easier to write up a self-contained example using a class method.) EDIT 2: Just for completeness re the comments below, this is what I'm actually doing (this is in a library of Moose attribute sugar, created with Moose::Exporter): # adds an accessor to a sibling module sub foreignTable { my ($meta, $table, %args) = @_; my $class = 'MyApp::Dir1::Dir2::' . $table; my $dbAccessor = lcfirst $table; eval "require $class" or do { die "Can't load $class: $@" }; $meta->add_attribute( $table, is => 'ro', isa => $class, init_arg => undef, # don't allow in constructor lazy => 1, predicate => 'has_' . $table, default => sub { my $this = shift; $this->debug("in builder for $class"); ### here's the line that uses a hash value as the method name my @args = ($args{primaryKey} => $this->${\$args{primaryKey}}); push @args, ( _dbObject => $this->_dbObject->$dbAccessor ) if $args{fkRelationshipExists}; $this->debug("passing these values to $class -> new: @args"); $class->new(@args); }, ); } I've replaced the marked line above with this: my $pk_accessor = $this->meta->find_attribute_by_name($args{primaryKey})->get_read_method_ref; my @args = ($args{primaryKey} => $this->$pk_accessor); PS. I've just noticed that this same technique (using the Moose meta class to look up the coderef rather than assuming its naming convention) cannot also be used for predicates, as Class::MOP::Attribute does not have a similar get_predicate_method_ref accessor. :(

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  • Rogue PropertyChanged notifications from ViewModel

    - by user1886323
    The following simple program is causing me a Databinding headache. I'm new to this which is why I suspect it has a simple answer. Basically, I have two text boxes bound to the same property myString. I have not set up the ViewModel (simply a class with one property, myString) to provide any notifications to the View for when myString is changed, so even although both text boxes operate a two way binding there should be no way that the text boxes update when myString is changed, am I right? Except... In most circumstances this is true - I use the 'change value' button at the bottom of the window to change the value of myString to whatever the user types into the adjacent text box, and the two text boxes at the top, even although they are bound to myString, do not change. Fine. However, if I edit the text in TextBox1, thus changing the value of myString (although only when the text box loses focus due to the default UpdateSourceTrigger property, see reference), TextBox2 should NOT update as it shouldn't receive any updates that myString has changed. However, as soon as TextBox1 loses focus (say click inside TextBox2) TextBox2 is updated with the new value of myString. My best guess so far is that because the TextBoxes are bound to the same property, something to do with TextBox1 updating myString gives TextBox2 a notification that it has changed. Very confusing as I haven't used INotifyPropertyChanged or anything like that. To clarify, I am not asking how to fix this. I know I could just change the binding mode to a oneway option. I am wondering if anyone can come up with an explanation for this strange behaviour? ViewModel: namespace WpfApplication1 { class ViewModel { public ViewModel() { _myString = "initial message"; } private string _myString; public string myString { get { return _myString; } set { if (_myString != value) { _myString = value; } } } } } View: <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:local="clr-namespace:WpfApplication1" Title="MainWindow" Height="350" Width="525"> <Window.DataContext> <local:ViewModel /> </Window.DataContext> <Grid> <!-- The culprit text boxes --> <TextBox Height="23" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="166,70,0,0" Name="textBox1" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="120" Text="{Binding Path=myString, Mode=TwoWay}" /> <TextBox Height="23" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="166,120,0,0" Name="textBox2" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="120" Text="{Binding Path=myString, Mode=TwoWay}"/> <!--The buttons allowing manual change of myString--> <Button Name="changevaluebutton" Content="change value" Click="ButtonUpdateArtist_Click" Margin="12,245,416,43" Width="75" /> <Button Content="Show value" Height="23" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="12,216,0,0" Name="showvaluebutton" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="75" Click="showvaluebutton_Click" /> <Label Content="" Height="23" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="116,216,0,0" Name="showvaluebox" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="128" /> <TextBox Height="23" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="116,245,0,0" Name="changevaluebox" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="128" /> <!--simply some text--> <Label Content="TexBox1" Height="23" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="99,70,0,0" Name="label1" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="61" /> <Label Content="TexBox2" Height="23" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="99,118,0,0" Name="label2" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="61" /> </Grid> </Window> Code behind for view: namespace WpfApplication1 { /// <summary> /// Interaction logic for MainWindow.xaml /// </summary> public partial class MainWindow : Window { ViewModel viewModel; public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); viewModel = (ViewModel)this.DataContext; } private void showvaluebutton_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { showvaluebox.Content = viewModel.myString; } private void ButtonUpdateArtist_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { viewModel.myString = changevaluebox.Text; } } }

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  • Java, LDAP: Make it not ignore blank passwords?

    - by Steve
    I'm maintaining some legacy Java LDAP code. I know next to nothing about LDAP. The program below basically just sends the userid and password to the LDAP server, receives notification back if the credentials are good. If so, it prints out the LDAP attributes received from the LDAP server, if not it prints out an exception. All works well if a bad password is given. An "invalid credentials" exception gets thrown. However, if a blank password is sent to the LDAP Server, authentication will still happen, LDAP attributes will still be returned. Is this unhappy situation due to the LDAP server allowing blank passwords, or does the code below need to be adjusted such a blank password will get fed to the LDAP server in such a way so it will get rejected? I do have data validation in place. I took it off in a testing environment to solve another issue and noticed this problem. I would prefer not to have this problem underneath the data validation. Thanks much in advance for any information import javax.naming.*; import javax.naming.directory.*; import java.util.*; import java.sql.*; public class LDAPTEST { public static void main(String args[]) { String lcf = "com.sun.jndi.ldap.LdapCtxFactory"; String ldapurl = "ldaps://ldap-cit.smew.acme.com:636/o=acme.com"; String loginid = "George.Jetson"; String password = ""; DirContext ctx = null; Hashtable env = new Hashtable(); Attributes attr = null; Attributes resultsAttrs = null; SearchResult result = null; NamingEnumeration results = null; int iResults = 0; int iAttributes = 0; env.put(Context.INITIAL_CONTEXT_FACTORY, lcf); env.put(Context.PROVIDER_URL, ldapurl); env.put(Context.SECURITY_PROTOCOL, "ssl"); env.put(Context.SECURITY_AUTHENTICATION, "simple"); env.put(Context.SECURITY_PRINCIPAL, "uid=" + loginid + ",ou=People,o=acme.com"); env.put(Context.SECURITY_CREDENTIALS, password); try { ctx = new InitialDirContext(env); attr = new BasicAttributes(true); attr.put(new BasicAttribute("uid",loginid)); results = ctx.search("ou=People",attr); while (results.hasMore()) { result = (SearchResult)results.next(); resultsAttrs = result.getAttributes(); for (NamingEnumeration enumAttributes = resultsAttrs.getAll(); enumAttributes.hasMore();) { Attribute a = (Attribute)enumAttributes.next(); System.out.println("attribute: " + a.getID() + " : " + a.get().toString()); iAttributes++; }// end for loop iResults++; }// end while loop System.out.println("Records == " + iResults + " Attributes: " + iAttributes); }// end try catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } }// end function main() }// end class LDAPTEST

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  • how to make DIV show up on top of other Divs

    - by feelexit
    I upload my code on jsFiddle, you can see it there. http://jsfiddle.net/SrT2U/2/ When you click on the link, the hidden FAQ section will show up, and it will push other divs down. But that is not what I want, I need all other divs stay where they are, and my hidden FAQ section just float on the top. Not sure how to do it. Not even sure if this should be done in HTML, CSS or jQuery. My jQuery code: $(function(){ $(".OpenTopMessage").click(function () { $("#details").slideToggle("slow"); }); }); HTML code: <div style="border: 1px solid #000;"> <span>link</span> <span>&nbsp;&nbsp;|&nbsp;&nbsp;</span> <span>link</span> <span>&nbsp;&nbsp;|&nbsp;&nbsp;</span> <span>link</span> <span>&nbsp;&nbsp;|&nbsp;&nbsp;</span> <span>link</span> <span>&nbsp;&nbsp;|&nbsp;&nbsp;</span> <span>link</span> <span>&nbsp;&nbsp;|&nbsp;&nbsp;</span> </div> <div id="faqBox"> <table width="100%"> <tr><td><a href="#" id="openFAQ" class="OpenTopMessage">this is hte faq section</a></td> </tr> </table> <div id="details" style="display:none"> <br/><br/><br/><br/><br/><br/><br/><br/> the display style property is set to none to ensure that the element no longer affects the layout of the page <br/><br/><br/><br/><br/><br/><br/><br/> </div> </div> <br/><br/> <div style="background:#c00;">other stuff heren the height reaches 0 after a hiding animation, the display style property is set to </div>

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  • Create a Counter within a For-Loop?

    - by Todd Hartman
    I am a novice programmer and apologize upfront for the complicated question. I am trying to create a lexical decision task for experimental research, in which respondents must decide if a series of letters presented on the screen make a "word" or "not a word". Everything works reasonably well except for the bit where I want to randomly select a word (category A) or nonword (category B) for each of 80 trials from a separate input file (input.txt). The randomization works, but some elements from each list (category A or B) are skipped because I have used "round.catIndex = j;" where "j" is a loop for each successive trial. Because some trials randomly select from Category A and other from Category B, "j" does not move successively down the list for each category. Instead, elements from the Category A list may be selected from something like 1, 2, 5, 8, 9, 10, and so on (it varies each time because of the randomization). To make a long story short(!), how do I create a counter that will work within the for-loop for each trial, so that every word and nonword from Category A and B, respectively, will be used for the lexical decision task? Everything I have tried thus far does not work properly or breaks the javascript entirely. Below is my code snippet and the full code is available at http://50.17.194.59/LDT/trunk/LDT.js. Also, the full lexical decision task can be accessed at http://50.17.194.59/LDT/trunk/LDT.php. Thanks! function initRounds() { numlst = []; for (var k = 0; k<numrounds; k++) { if (k % 2 == 0) numlst[k] = 0; else numlst[k] = 1; } numlst.sort(function() {return 0.5 - Math.random()}) for (var j = 0; j<numrounds; j++) { var round = new LDTround(); if (numlst[j] == 0) { round.category = input.catA.datalabel; } else if (numlst[j] == 1) { round.category = input.catB.datalabel; } // pick a category & stimulus if (round.category == input.catA.datalabel) { round.itemtype = input.catA.itemtype; round.correct = 1; round.catIndex = j; } else if (round.category == input.catB.datalabel) { round.itemtype = input.catB.itemtype; round.correct = 2; round.catIndex = j; } roundArray[i].push(round); } return roundArray; }

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  • What is the proper way to change the UINavigationController transition effect

    - by Felipe Sabino
    I have seen lots of people asking on how to push/pop UINavigationControllers using other animations besides the default one, like flip or curl. The problem is that either the question/answer was relative old, which means the have some things like [UIView beginAnimations:] (example here) or they use two very different approaches. The first is to use UIView's transitionFromView:toView:duration:options:completion: selector before pushing the controller (with the animation flag set to NO), like the following: UIViewController *ctrl = [[UIViewController alloc] init]; [UIView transitionFromView:self.view toView:ctrl.view duration:1 options:UIViewAnimationOptionTransitionFlipFromTop completion:nil]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:ctrl animated:NO]; Another one is to use CoreAnimation explicitly with a CATransaction like the following: // remember you will have to have the QuartzCore framework added to your project for this approach and also add <QuartzCore/QuartzCore.h> to the class this code is used CATransition* transition = [CATransition animation]; transition.timingFunction = [CAMediaTimingFunction functionWithName:kCAMediaTimingFunctionEaseIn]; transition.duration = 1.0f; transition.type = @"flip"; transition.subtype = @"fromTop"; [self.navigationController.view.layer removeAllAnimations]; [self.navigationController.view.layer addAnimation:transition forKey:kCATransition]; UIViewController *ctrl = [[UIViewController alloc] init]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:ctrl animated:NO]; There are pros and cons for both approaches. The first approach gives me a much cleaner code but restricts me from using animations like "suckEffect", "cube" and others. The second approach feels wrong just by looking at it. It starts by using undocumented transitions types (i.e. not present in the Common transition types documentation from CATransition Class Reference) which might get your app rejected from App Store (I mean might as I could not found any reference of apps being rejected because it was using this transactions, which I would also appreciate any clarification on this matter), but it gives you much more flexibility on your animations, as I can use other animation types such as "cameraIris", "rippleEffect" and so on. Regarding all that, do I really need to appeal for QuartzCore and CoreAnimation whenever I need a fancier UINavigationController transition? Is there any other way to accomplish the same effect using only UIKit? If not, will the use of string values like "flip" and "cube" instead of the pre-defined constants (kCATransitionFade, kCATransitionMoveIn, etc...) be an issue regarding my app approval in the App Store? Also, are there other pros and cons regarding both approaches that could help me deciding whether to choose each one of them?

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  • Multiple Timers with setTimeInterval

    - by visibleinvisibly
    I am facing a problem with setInterval being used in a loop. I have a function subscribeFeed( ) which takes an array of urls as input. It loops through the url array and subscribes each url to getFeedAutomatically() using a setInterval function. so if three URL's are there in the array, then 3 setInterval's will be called. The problem is 1)how to distinguish which setInterval is called for which URL. 2)it is causing Runtime exception in setInterval( i guess because of closure problem in javascript) //constructor function myfeed(){ this.feedArray = []; } myfeed.prototype.constructor= myfeed; myfeed.prototype.subscribeFeed =function(feedUrl){ var i=0; var url; var count = 0; var _this = this; var feedInfo = { url : [], status : "" }; var urlinfo = []; feedUrl = (feedUrl instanceof Array) ? feedUrl : [feedUrl]; //notifyInterval = (notifyInterval instanceof Array) ? notifyInterval: [notifyInterval]; for (i = 0; i < feedUrl.length; i++) { urlinfo[i] = { url:'', notifyInterval:5000,// Default Notify/Refresh interval for the feed isenable:true, // true allows the feed to be fetched from the URL timerID: null, //default ID is null called : false, position : 0, getFeedAutomatically : function(url){ _this.getFeedUpdate(url); }, }; urlinfo[i].url = feedUrl[i].URL; //overide the default notify interval if(feedUrl[i].NotifyInterval /*&& (feedUrl[i] !=undefined)*/){ urlinfo[i].notifyInterval = feedUrl[i].NotifyInterval; } // Trigger the Feed registered event with the info about URL and status feedInfo.url[i] = feedUrl[i].URL; //Set the interval to get the feed. urlinfo[i].timerID = setInterval(function(){ urlinfo[i].getFeedAutomatically(urlinfo[i].url); }, urlinfo[i].notifyInterval); this.feedArray.push(urlinfo[i]); } } // The getFeedUpate function will make an Ajax request and coninue myfeed.prototype.getFeedUpdate = function( ){ } I am posting the same on jsfiddle http://jsfiddle.net/visibleinvisibly/S37Rj/ Thanking you in advance

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  • Webservice for uploading data: security considerations

    - by Philip Daubmeier
    Hi everyone! Im not sure about what authentification method I should use for my webservice. I've searched on SO, and found nothing that helped me. Preliminary Im building an application that uploads data from a local database to a server (running my webservice), where all records are merged and stored in a central database. I am currently binary serializing a DataTable, that holds a small fragment of the local database, where all uninteresting stuff is already filtered out. The byte[] (serialized DataTable), together with the userid and a hash of the users password is then uploaded to the webservice via SOAP. The application together with the webservice already work exactly like intended. The Problem The issue I am thinking about is now: What is if someone just sniffs the network traffic, 'steals' the users id and password hash to send his own SOAP message with modified data that corrupts my database? Options The approaches to solving that problem, I already thought of, are: Using ssl + certificates for establishing the connection: I dont really want to use ssl, I would prefer a simpler solution. After all, every information that is transfered to the webservice can be seen on the website later on. What I want to say is: there is no secret/financial/business-critical information, that has to be hidden. I think ssl would be sort of an overkill for that task. Encrypting the byte[]: I think that would be a performance killer, considering that the goal of the excercise was simply to authenticate the user. Hashing the users password together with the data: I kind of like the idea: Creating a checksum from the data, concatenating that checksum with the password-hash and hashing this whole thing again. That would assure the data was sent from this specific user, and the data wasnt modified. The actual question So, what do you think is the best approach in terms of meeting the following requirements? Rather simple solution (As it doesnt have to be super secure; no secret/business-critical information transfered) Easily implementable retrospectively (Dont want to write it all again :) ) Doesnt impact to much on performance What do you think of my prefered solution, the last one in the list above? Is there any alternative solution I didnt mention, that would fit better? You dont have to answer every question in detail. Just push me in the right direction. I very much appreciate every well-grounded opinion. Thanks in advance!

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  • Can I have a workspace that is both a git workspace and a svn workspace?

    - by Troy
    I have checked out now a local working copy of a codebase that lives in an svn repo. It's a big Java project that I use Eclipse to develop in. Eclipse of course builds everything on the fly, in it's own way with all the binaries ending up in [project root]/bin. That's perfectly fine with me, for development, but when the build runs on the build server, it looks quite a lot different (maven build, binaries end up in a different directory structure, etc). Sometimes I need to recreate the build server environment on my local development system to debug the build or what have you, so I usually end up downloading an entirely new working copy into a new workspace and running the build from there (prevents cluttering my development workspace with all the build artifacts and dirtying up the working copy). Of course sometimes I'm interested in running the full build on code that I don't want to check in yet, so I will manually copy over the "development" workspace onto the "build" workspace. Besides taking a lot of extra time copying a lot of files that I don't actually need (just overlaying the new over the old), this also screws up my svn metadata, meaning that I can't check in changes from that "build workspace" working copy, and I often end up having to re-download the code to get it back into a known state. So I'm thinking I make my svn working copy a local git repo, then "check out" the in-development code from the svn working copy/git master, into the local build workspace. Then I can build, revert my changes, have all the advantages of a version controlled working copy in the build workspace. Then if I need to make changes to the build, push those back into the git master (which is also a svn working copy), then check them into the main svn repo. |-------------| |main svn repo| <------- |---------------------| |-------------| |svn working copy | <------- |--------------------| | (svn dev workspace/ | | non-svn-versioned | | git master) | | build workspace | |---------------------| | (git working copy) | |--------------------| Just switching everything to git would obviously be better, but, big company, too many people using svn, too costly to change everything, etc. We're stuck with svn as the main repo for now. BTW, I know there is a maven plugin for Eclipse and everything, I'm mainly interested to know if there is a way to maintain a workspace that is both a git working copy and an svn working copy. Actually any distributed version control system would probably work (hg possibly?). Advice? How does everybody else handle this situation of having a to manage both a "development" build process and a "production" build process?

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  • is it possible that a greasemonkey script can work on one computer but not on another?

    - by plastic cloud
    i'm writing an greasemonkey script for somebody else. he is a moderator and i am not. and the script will help him do some moderating things. now the script works for me. as far as it can work for me.(as i am not a mod) but even those things that work for me are not working for him.. i checked his version of greasemonkey plugin and firefox and he is up to date. only thing that's really different is that i'm on a mac and he is pc, but i wouldn't think that would be any problem. this is one of the functions that is not working for him. he does gets the first and third GM_log message. but not the second one ("got some(1) .."). kmmh.trackNames = function(){ GM_log("starting to get names from the first "+kmmh.topAmount+" page(s) from leaderboard."); kmmh.leaderboardlist = []; for (var p=1; p<=(kmmh.topAmount); p++){ var page = "http://www.somegamesite.com/leaderboard?page="+ p; var boardHTML = ""; dojo.xhrGet({ url: page, sync: true, load: function(response){ boardHTML = response; GM_log("got some (1) => "+boardHTML.length); }, handleAs: "text" }); GM_log("got some (2) => "+boardHTML.length); //create dummy div and place leaderboard html in there var dummy = dojo.create('div', { innerHTML: boardHTML }); //search through it var searchN = dojo.query('.notcurrent', dummy).forEach(function(node,index){ if(index >= 10){ kmmh.leaderboardlist.push(node.textContent); // add names to array } }); } GM_log("all names from "+ kmmh.topAmount +" page(s) of leaderboard ==> "+ kmmh.leaderboardlist); does anyone have any idea what could be causing this ?? EDIT: i know i had to write according to what he would see on his mod screen. so i asked him to copy paste source of pages and so on. and besides that, this part of the script is not depending on being a mod or not. i got everything else working for him. just this function still doesn't on neither of his pc's.

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  • DataGridView validating old value insted of new value.

    - by Scott Chamberlain
    I have a DataGridView that is bound to a DataTable, it has a column that is a double and the values need to be between 0 and 1. Here is my code private void dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin_CellValidating(object sender, DataGridViewCellValidatingEventArgs e) { if (e.ColumnIndex == dtxtPercentageOfUsersAllowed.Index) { double percentage; if(dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin[e.ColumnIndex, e.RowIndex].Value.GetType() == typeof(double)) percentage = (double)dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin[e.ColumnIndex, e.RowIndex].Value; else if (!double.TryParse(dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin[e.ColumnIndex, e.RowIndex].Value.ToString(), out percentage)) { e.Cancel = true; dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin[e.ColumnIndex, e.RowIndex].ErrorText = "The value must be between 0 and 1"; return; } if (percentage < 0 || percentage > 1) { e.Cancel = true; dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin[e.ColumnIndex, e.RowIndex].ErrorText = "The value must be between 0 and 1"; } } } However my issue when dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin_CellValidating fires dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin[e.ColumnIndex, e.RowIndex].Value will contain the old value before the edit, not the new value. For example lets say the old value was .1 and I enter 3. The above code runs when you exit the cell and dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin[e.ColumnIndex, e.RowIndex].Value will be .1 for that run, the code validates and writes 3 the data to the DataTable. I click on it a second time, try to leave, and this time it behaves like it should, it raises the error icon for the cell and prevents me from leaving. I try to enter the correct value (say .7) but the the Value will still be 3 and there is now no way out of the cell because it is locked due to the error and my validation code will never push the new value. Any recommendations would be greatly appreciated. EDIT -- New version of the code based off of Stuart's suggestion and mimicking the style the MSDN article uses. Still behaves the same. private void dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin_CellValidating(object sender, DataGridViewCellValidatingEventArgs e) { if (e.ColumnIndex == dtxtPercentageOfUsersAllowed.Index) { dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin[e.ColumnIndex, e.RowIndex].ErrorText = String.Empty; double percentage; if (!double.TryParse(dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin[e.ColumnIndex, e.RowIndex].FormattedValue.ToString(), out percentage) || percentage < 0 || percentage > 1) { e.Cancel = true; dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin[e.ColumnIndex, e.RowIndex].ErrorText = "The value must be between 0 and 1"; return; } } }

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  • Visual Studio 2010 and Test Driven Development

    - by devoured elysium
    I'm making my first steps in Test Driven Development with Visual Studio. I have some questions regarding how to implement generic classes with VS 2010. First, let's say I want to implement my own version of an ArrayList. I start by creating the following test (I'm using in this case MSTest): [TestMethod] public void Add_10_Items_Remove_10_Items_Check_Size_Is_Zero() { var myArrayList = new MyArrayList<int>(); for (int i = 0; i < 10; ++i) { myArrayList.Add(i); } for (int i = 0; i < 10; ++i) { myArrayList.RemoveAt(0); } int expected = 0; int actual = myArrayList.Size; Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); } I'm using VS 2010 ability to hit ctrl + . and have it implement classes/methods on the go. I have been getting some trouble when implementing generic classes. For example, when I define an .Add(10) method, VS doesn't know if I intend a generic method(as the class is generic) or an Add(int number) method. Is there any way to differentiate this? The same can happen with return types. Let's assume I'm implementing a MyStack stack and I want to test if after I push and element and pop it, the stack is still empty. We all know pop should return something, but usually, the code of this test shouldn't care for it. Visual Studio would then think that pop is a void method, which in fact is not what one would want. How to deal with this? For each method, should I start by making tests that are "very specific" such as is obvious the method should return something so I don't get this kind of ambiguity? Even if not using the result, should I have something like int popValue = myStack.Pop() ? How should I do tests to generic classes? Only test with one generic kind of type? I have been using ints, as they are easy to use, but should I also test with different kinds of objects? How do you usually approach this? I see there is a popular tool called TestDriven for .NET. With VS 2010 release, is it still useful, or a lot of its features are now part of VS 2010, rendering it kinda useless? Thanks

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