Search Results

Search found 7850 results on 314 pages for 'except'.

Page 216/314 | < Previous Page | 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219 220 221 222 223  | Next Page >

  • ConcurrentDictionary and updating values

    - by rboarman
    Hello, After searching via Google and coming up empty, I decided to ask the gurus here on StackOverflow. I am trying to update entries in a ConcurrentDictionary something like this: class Class1 { public int Counter { get; set; } } class Test { private ConcurrentDictionary<int, Class1> dict = new ConcurrentDictionary<int, Class1>(); public void TestIt() { foreach (var foo in dict) { foo.Value.Counter = foo.Value.Counter + 1; // Simplified example } } } Essentially I need to iterate over the dictionary and update a field on each Value. I understand from the documentation that I need to avoid using the Value property. Instead I think I need to use TryUpdate except that I don’t want to replace my whole object. Instead, I want to update a field on the object. After reading this: http://blogs.msdn.com/b/pfxteam/archive/2010/01/08/9945809.aspx Perhaps I need to use AddOrUpdate and simply do nothing in the add delegate. Does anyone have any insight as to how to do this? Thank you, Rick

    Read the article

  • xcode linker error on iPhone app (Only on simulator)

    - by RexOnRoids
    Im getting this linker error that won't let me compile. It only happens on the simulator. KEY POINTS: - Happens only in simulator - Similar to THIS question, but found no FRAMEWORK_SEARCH_PATHS in my .pbxproj file - Though my OS is 10.6.2, I had to build target 1.5 to avoid other linker errors - libxml2.dylib IS required and is in my Frameworks group - The other cited libraries I have never heard of. - Tried bringing in those other Libs under frameworks, didn't solve. Build SpaceTweet of project SpaceTweet with configuration Debug Ld build/Debug-iphonesimulator/SpaceTweet.app/SpaceTweet normal i386 cd "/Users/Scott/Desktop/iPhone Dev/SpaceTweet(Experimental)" setenv MACOSX_DEPLOYMENT_TARGET 10.5 setenv PATH "/Developer/Platforms/iPhoneSimulator.platform/Developer/usr/bin:/Developer/usr/bin:/usr/bin:/bin:/usr/sbin:/sbin" /Developer/Platforms/iPhoneSimulator.platform/Developer/usr/bin/gcc-4.2 -arch i386 -isysroot /Developer/Platforms/iPhoneSimulator.platform/Developer/SDKs/iPhoneSimulator3.1.3.sdk "-L/Users/Scott/Desktop/iPhone Dev/SpaceTweet(Experimental)/build/Debug-iphonesimulator" -L/Users/Scott/Desktop "-L/Users/Scott/Desktop/iPhone Dev/SpaceTweet(Experimental)/../../libYAJLIPhone-0" -L/Developer/Platforms/iPhoneOS.platform/Developer/SDKs/iPhoneOS3.0.sdk/usr/lib -L/Developer/Platforms/iPhoneSimulator.platform/Developer/SDKs/iPhoneSimulator3.1.3.sdk/usr/lib -L/Developer/Platforms/iPhoneSimulator.platform/Developer/SDKs/iPhoneSimulator3.0.sdk/usr/lib "-F/Users/Scott/Desktop/iPhone Dev/SpaceTweet(Experimental)/build/Debug-iphonesimulator" -filelist "/Users/Scott/Desktop/iPhone Dev/SpaceTweet(Experimental)/build/SpaceTweet.build/Debug-iphonesimulator/SpaceTweet.build/Objects-normal/i386/SpaceTweet.LinkFileList" -mmacosx-version-min=10.5 -framework Foundation -framework UIKit -framework CoreGraphics -framework AVFoundation -framework MessageUI -lYAJLIPhone -lxml2 -o "/Users/Scott/Desktop/iPhone Dev/SpaceTweet(Experimental)/build/Debug-iphonesimulator/SpaceTweet.app/SpaceTweet" ld: warning: in /Developer/Platforms/iPhoneOS.platform/Developer/SDKs/iPhoneOS3.0.sdk/usr/lib/libxml2.dylib, missing required architecture i386 in file ld: warning: in /Developer/Platforms/iPhoneOS.platform/Developer/SDKs/iPhoneOS3.0.sdk/usr/lib/libSystem.dylib, missing required architecture i386 in file ld: in /Developer/Platforms/iPhoneOS.platform/Developer/SDKs/iPhoneOS3.0.sdk/usr/lib/libobjc.A.dylib, missing required architecture i386 in file collect2: ld returned 1 exit status Command /Developer/Platforms/iPhoneSimulator.platform/Developer/usr/bin/gcc-4.2 failed with exit code 1 CLUE: Again, MY question is very similar to THIS SOLVED QUESTION except that in my case I did NOT find a FRAMEWORK_SEARCH_PATHS entry in the .pbxproj file in my project bundle and thus could not solve in the manner in which that question was solved.

    Read the article

  • JQgrid - Get Row Number instead of ID

    - by mariojjsimoes
    Hello, all, I am creating a JQGrid from a database table that does not contain a single field primary key. Therefore, the field i am supplying as id is not unique and the same one exists in several rows. Because of this, when passing a reference to the data with ondblClickRow to a function external to the grid i need to use the rownumber and not the id. To test, I'm using ondblClickRow: function(id){alert($("#grid1").getInd('rowid'));}, , and i should be getting and alert with the row number, except that it isn't working. I've been over the documentation and can't understand what i am doing wrong... Any help would be greatly appreciated! Thanks in advance, Mario. Bellow is my full grid: jQuery(document).ready(function(){ var mygrid = jQuery("#grid1").jqGrid({ datatype: 'xmlstring', datastr : grid1RsXML, width: 1024, height: 500, colNames:['DEVICE_ID','JOB_SIZE_IN_BYTES', 'USER_NAME','HOST_NAME','DAY_OF_WEEK','JOB_ID'], colModel:[ {name:'DEVICE_ID',index:'DEVICE_ID', width:55, sortable:true}, {name:'JOB_SIZE_IN_BYTES',index:'JOB_SIZE_IN_BYTES', width:40, sortable:true}, {name:'USER_NAME',index:'USER_NAME', width:60, sortable:true}, {name:'HOST_NAME',index:'HOST_NAME', width:50,align:"right", sortable:true}, {name:'DAY_OF_WEEK',index:'DAY_OF_WEEK', width:10, sortable:true}, {name:'JOB_ID',index:'JOB_ID', width:30, sortable:true} ], rowNum:1000, autowidth: true, //rowList:[10,20,30], rowList:[1], pager: '#grid1Pager', sortname: 'DEVICE_ID', viewrecords: true, rownumbers: true, sortorder: "desc", sortable: true, gridview : true, xmlReader: { root : "recordset", row: "record", repeatitems: false, id: "DEVICE_ID" }, caption:"All Jobs - Double Click for detailed history", ondblClickRow: function(id){alert($("#grid1").getInd('rowid'));}, toolbar: [true,"top"], url: grid1RsXML });

    Read the article

  • How to invoke the same msbuild target twice with different parameters from within msbuild project fi

    - by mark
    Dear ladies and sirs. I have the following piece of msbuild code: <PropertyGroup> <DirA>C:\DirA\</DirA> <DirB>C:\DirB\</DirB> </PropertyGroup> <Target Name="CopyToDirA" Condition="Exists('$(DirA)') AND '@(FilesToCopy)' != ''" Inputs="@(FilesToCopy)" Outputs="@(FilesToCopy -> '$(DirA)%(Filename)%(Extension)')"> <Copy SourceFiles="@(FilesToCopy)" DestinationFolder="$(DirA)" /> </Target> <Target Name="CopyToDirB" Condition="Exists('$(DirB)') AND '@(FilesToCopy)' != ''" Inputs="@(FilesToCopy)" Outputs="@(FilesToCopy -> '$(DirB)%(Filename)%(Extension)')"> <Copy SourceFiles="@(FilesToCopy)" DestinationFolder="$(DirB)" /> </Target> <Target Name="CopyFiles" DependsOnTargets="CopyToDirA;CopyToDirB"/> So invoking the target CopyFiles copies the relevant files to $(DirA) and $(DirB), provided they are not already there and up-to-date. But the targets CopyToDirA and CopyToDirB look identical except one copies to $(DirA) and the other - to $(DirB). Is it possible to unify them into one target first invoked with $(DirA) and then with $(DirB)? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • uploadify scriptData problem

    - by elpaso66
    Hi, I'm having problems with scriptData on uploadify, I'm pretty sure the config syntax is fine but whatever I do, scriptData is not passed to the upload script. I tested in both FF and Chrome with flash v. Shockwave Flash 9.0 r31 This is the config: $(document).ready(function() { $('#id_file').uploadify({ 'uploader' : '/media/filebrowser/uploadify/uploadify.swf', 'script' : '/admin/filebrowser/upload_file/', 'scriptData' : {'session_key': 'e1b552afde044bdd188ad51af40cfa8e'}, 'checkScript' : '/admin/filebrowser/check_file/', 'cancelImg' : '/media/filebrowser/uploadify/cancel.png', 'auto' : false, 'folder' : '', 'multi' : true, 'fileDesc' : '*.html;*.py;*.js;*.css;*.jpg;*.jpeg;*.gif;*.png;*.tif;*.tiff;*.mp3;*.mp4;*.wav;*.aiff;*.midi;*.m4p;*.mov;*.wmv;*.mpeg;*.mpg;*.avi;*.rm;*.pdf;*.doc;*.rtf;*.txt;*.xls;*.csv;', 'fileExt' : '*.html;*.py;*.js;*.css;*.jpg;*.jpeg;*.gif;*.png;*.tif;*.tiff;*.mp3;*.mp4;*.wav;*.aiff;*.midi;*.m4p;*.mov;*.wmv;*.mpeg;*.mpg;*.avi;*.rm;*.pdf;*.doc;*.rtf;*.txt;*.xls;*.csv;', 'sizeLimit' : 10485760, 'scriptAccess' : 'sameDomain', 'queueSizeLimit' : 50, 'simUploadLimit' : 1, 'width' : 300, 'height' : 30, 'hideButton' : false, 'wmode' : 'transparent', translations : { browseButton: 'BROWSE', error: 'An Error occured', completed: 'Completed', replaceFile: 'Do you want to replace the file', unitKb: 'KB', unitMb: 'MB' } }); $('input:submit').click(function(){ $('#id_file').uploadifyUpload(); return false; }); }); I checked that other values (file name) are passed correctly but session_key is not. This is the decorator code from django-filebrowser, you can see it checks for request.POST.get('session_key'), the problem is that request.POST is empty. def flash_login_required(function): """ Decorator to recognize a user by its session. Used for Flash-Uploading. """ def decorator(request, *args, **kwargs): try: engine = __import__(settings.SESSION_ENGINE, {}, {}, ['']) except: import django.contrib.sessions.backends.db engine = django.contrib.sessions.backends.db print request.POST session_data = engine.SessionStore(request.POST.get('session_key')) user_id = session_data['_auth_user_id'] # will return 404 if the session ID does not resolve to a valid user request.user = get_object_or_404(User, pk=user_id) return function(request, *args, **kwargs) return decorator

    Read the article

  • AWS Amazon EC2 - password-less SSH login for non-root users using PEM keypairs

    - by Mark White
    We've got a couple of clusters running on AWS (HAProxy/Solr, PGPool/PostgreSQL) and we've setup scripts to allow new slave instances to be auto-included into the clusters by updating their IPs to config files held on S3, then SSHing to the master instance to kick them to download the revised config and restart the service. It's all working nicely, but in testing we're using our master pem for SSH which means it needs to be stored on an instance. Not good. I want a non-root user that can use an AWS keypair who will have sudo access to run the download-config-and-restart scripts, but nothing else. rbash seems to be the way to go, but I understand this can be insecure unless setup correctly. So what security holes are there in this approach: New AWS keypair created for user.pem (not really called 'user') New user on instances: user Public key for user is in ~user/.ssh/authorized_keys (taken by creating new instance with user.pem, and copying it from /root/.ssh/authorized_keys) Private key for user is in ~user/.ssh/user.pem 'user' has login shell of /home/user/bin/rbash ~user/bin/ contains symbolic links to /bin/rbash and /usr/bin/sudo /etc/sudoers has entry "user ALL=(root) NOPASSWD: ~user/.bashrc sets PATH to /home/user/bin/ only ~user/.inputrc has 'set disable-completion on' to prevent double tabbing from 'sudo /' to find paths. ~user/ -R is owned by root with read-only access to user, except for ~user/.ssh which has write access for user (for writing known_hosts), and ~user/bin/* which are +x Inter-instance communication uses 'ssh -o StrictHostKeyChecking=no -i ~user/.ssh/user.pem user@ sudo ' Any thoughts would be welcome. Mark...

    Read the article

  • Correctly calling setGridWidth on a jqGrid inside a jQueryUI Dialog

    - by Dan
    I have a jQueryUI dialog (#locDialog) which has a jqGrid ($grid) inside it. When the Dialog opens (initially, but it gets called whenever it opens), I want the $grid to resize to the size of the $locDialog. When I do this initially, I get scrollbars inside the grid (not inside the dialog). If I debug the code, I see the width of the $grid is 677. So, I call setGridWidth() again and check the width and now I have 659, which is 18px less, which is the size of the scroll area for the jqGrid (Dun-dun-dun..) When I rezie the dialog, I resize the grid as well, and everything is happy - no scrollbars, except where necessary. My dialog init code: $locDialog = $('#location-dialog').dialog({ autoOpen: false, modal: true, position: ['center', 100], width: 700, height:500, resizable: true, buttons: { "Show Selected": function() {alert($('#grid').jqGrid('getGridParam','selarrrow'));}, "OK": function() {$(this).dialog('close');}, "Cancel": function() {$(this).dialog('close');} }, open: function(event, ui) { $grid.setGridHeight($(this).height()-54); // No idea why 54 is the magic number here $grid.setGridWidth($(this).width(), true); }, close: function(event, ui) { }, resizeStop: function(event, ui) { $grid.setGridWidth($locDialog.width(), true); $grid.setGridHeight($locDialog.height()-54); } }); I am curious if anyone has seen this before. Really, it isn't the end of the world if I initially have unnecessary scrollbars at first, but it is just odd that when I call setGridWidth initially, it doesn't take into account the scroll area of 18px. As far as the magical number 54, that is the number I had to subtract from the height of the dialog value to get the grid to render without unnecessary scrollbars.

    Read the article

  • CSS window height problem with dynamic loaded css

    - by Michael Mao
    Hi all: Please go here and use username "admin" and password "endlesscomic" (without wrapper quotes) to see the web app demo. Basically what I am trying to do is to incrementally integrate my work to this web app, say, every nightly, for the client to check the progress. Also, he would like to see, at the very beginning, a mockup about the page layout. I am trying to use the 960 grid system to achieve this. So far, so good. Except one issue that when the "mockup.css" is loaded dynamically by jQuery, it "extends" the window to the bottom, something I do not wanna have... As an inexperienced web developer, I don't know which part is wrong. Below is my js: /* master.js */ $(document).ready(function() { $('#addDebugCss').click(function() { alertMessage('adding debug css...'); addCssToHead('./css/debug.css'); $('.grid-insider').css('opacity','0.5');//reset mockup background transparcy }); $('#addMockupCss').click(function() { alertMessage('adding mockup css...'); addCssToHead('./css/mockup.css'); $('.grid-insider').css('opacity','1');//set semi-background transparcy for mockup }); $('#resetCss').click(function() { alertMessage('rolling back to normal'); rollbackCss(new Array("./css/mockup.css", "./css/debug.css")); }); }); function alertMessage(msg) //TODO find a better modal prompt { alert(msg); } function addCssToHead(path_to_css) { $('<link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="' + path_to_css + '" />').appendTo("head"); } function rollbackCss(set) { for(var i in set) { $('link[href="'+ set[i]+ '"]').remove(); } } Something should be added to the exteral mockup.css? Or something to change in my master.js? Thanks for any hints/suggestions in advance.

    Read the article

  • converting 2D mouse coordinates to 3D space in OpenGL ES

    - by Jayesh
    I want to convert mouse's current X and Y coordinates into the 3D space I have drawn in the viewport. I need to do this on the OpenGL ES platform. I found following possible solutions implemented in OpenGL, but none fits what I am looking for. I found NeHe's tutorial on doing exactly this, but in traditional OpenGL way. It uses gluUnProject. http://nehe.gamedev.net/data/articles/article.asp?article=13 Although gluUnProject is not available in OpenGL ES, its implementation seems simple enough to port back. But before calling it, we need to call glReadPixels with GL_DEPTH_COMPONENT and that is not possible in OpenGL ES. (The reason I found in this thread: http://www.khronos.org/message_boards/viewtopic.php?f=4&t=771) What I want to do is similar to picking, except that I don't want to select the object but I want exact coordinates so that I can recognize particular portion of the object that is currently under mouse cursor. I went through the Picking tutorials in this answer. http://stackoverflow.com/posts/2211312/revisions But they need glRenderMode, which I believe is absent in OpenGL ES. If you know how to solve this problem in OpenGL ES, please let me know. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Edit/Access data from a CheckBox column in an ASPX:GridView - c#

    - by Endo
    Hi, I have a GridView to which I bind a dataTable I manually create. Both the GridView and the dataTable contain 2 columns, Name and isBusy. My GridView looks like this <Columns> <asp:BoundField HeaderText="Name" DataField="Name" SortExpression="Name"> </asp:BoundField> <asp:CheckBoxField DataField="isBusy" HeaderText="Busy" SortExpression="isBusy" /> </Columns> That works fine, except that the Busy column is non-editable unless you set a specific row to edit mode. I require the entire column of checkboxes to be checkable. So I converted the column to a template, and so the columns look like this: <Columns> <asp:BoundField HeaderText="Name" DataField="Name" SortExpression="Name"> </asp:BoundField> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Busy" SortExpression="isBusy"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:CheckBox ID="isBusy" runat="server" Checked='<%# Eval("isBusy") %>' oncheckedchanged="CheckBoxBusy_CheckedChanged" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> Now, this throws an error at runtime, saying System.InvalidCastException was unhandled by user code Message="Specified cast is not valid." Source="App_Web_zzjsqlrr" StackTrace: at ASP.proyectos_aspx.__DataBinding__control24(Object sender, EventArgs e) in c:\Proyect\Users.aspx:line 189 at System.Web.UI.Control.OnDataBinding(EventArgs e) at System.Web.UI.Control.DataBind(Boolean raiseOnDataBinding) at System.Web.UI.Control.DataBind() at System.Web.UI.Control.DataBindChildren() InnerException: Any idea why this is happening? The next step I would need is to know how to set and get a checkbox's state (haven't been able to find how to manually check a checkbox). I appreciate very much any help.

    Read the article

  • Ado.net dataservices BeginExecuteBatch call works on development fails on production server with Obj

    - by Mike Morley
    We have an ado.net dataservices 1.0 call that is being passed to a [WebGet] service operation as a batch through BeginExecuteBatch. Everything works perfectly on our development server - we have the project configured to use IIS instead of the cassini web server to make it as close to our production server as we can. When we publish to the production server, all the service operations work perfectly except the batch call, which fails with Object does not match target type. . I have not been able to find any cause for this. I can even run a single non-batch style GET operation against the [WebGet] service by copying the URL used in the batch and pasting it in a browser. I have not been able to find any information to help me solve this - any guidance would be most appreciated. Thanks, Mike M. Error message From Fiddler: HTTP/1.1 500 Internal Server Error Content-Type: application/xml DataServiceVersion: 1.0; An error occurred while processing this request. Object does not match target type. System.Reflection.TargetException at System.Reflection.RuntimeMethodInfo.CheckConsistency(Object target) at System.Reflection.RuntimeMethodInfo.Invoke(Object obj, BindingFlags invokeAttr, Binder binder, Object[] parameters, CultureInfo culture, Boolean skipVisibilityChecks) at System.Reflection.RuntimeMethodInfo.Invoke(Object obj, BindingFlags invokeAttr, Binder binder, Object[] parameters, CultureInfo culture) at System.Data.Services.RequestUriProcessor.CreateFirstSegment(IDataService service, String identifier, Boolean checkRights, String queryPortion, Boolean& crossReferencingUrl) at System.Data.Services.RequestUriProcessor.CreateSegments(String[] segments, IDataService service) at System.Data.Services.RequestUriProcessor.ProcessRequestUri(Uri absoluteRequestUri, IDataService service) at System.Data.Services.DataService`1.BatchDataService.HandleBatchContent(Stream responseStream)

    Read the article

  • Should I buy Obout? Help, Please.

    - by Ramiz Uddin
    We started a new project and the nature of the project is very interactive and a Rich UI is required. We would need a set of controls that would require for Rich UI development. I found Obout while googling. I never heard about them and never seen fellow members telling me such name except Telerik, ComponentOne, NetAdvantage. These are the famous names we heard but no this one. But, the controls give a positive feeling. But as two things matter always when you are buying some services: How good are their customer support? and How much feasible their price is? Another, How quickly they release patches/updates? As, what if we find a bug or an error during development what will gonna happen? Do they provide a quick solution for this? I hope you understand my query. I'm bit confused making a decision here. I need your assistance, experience and feedback. Please, assist! Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Print Report in Microsoft Dynamics AX 2009 through X++

    - by haroonattari
    I am trying to print sales confirmation report on a button click which I have added on Sales Order Detail form in Microsoft Dynamics AX 2009. On click event of that button, I have written following code: void clicked() { Args args; ReportRun reportRun; SalesFormLetter salesFormLetter; PrintJobSettings printJobSettings; CustConfirmJour custConfirmJour; RecordSortedList list = new RecordSortedList(55); SalesTable salesTableUpdate; ; SELECT firstonly custConfirmJour order by ConfirmID desc where custConfirmJour.SalesId == salesTable.SalesId ; list.ins(custConfirmJour); args = new Args(ReportStr(SalesConfirm)); printJobSettings = new PrintJobSettings(); printJobSettings.SetTarget(PrintMedium::Printer); printJobSettings.suppressScalingMessage(true); salesFormLetter = new SalesFormLetter_Confirm(true); salesFormLetter.updatePrinterSettingsFormLetter(printJobSettings.packPrintJobSettings()); args.designName("Standard"); args.caller(salesFormletter); args.parmEnum(PrintCopyOriginal::Original); args.parmEnumType(enumnum(PrintCopyOriginal)); args.object(list);     reportRun = new ReportRun(args); reportRun.setTarget(PrintMedium::Printer);     reportRun.init();     reportRun.run(); } The code is running fine except on problem that instead of sending the report directly on printer, print preview is coming. I will be very greateful if anyone of you could let me know what is wrong with this code. Rgds Haroon

    Read the article

  • How can I beta test web Perl modules under Apache/mod_perl on production web server?

    - by DVK
    We have a setup where most code, before being promoted to full production, is deployed in BETA mode - meaning, it runs in full production environment (using production database - usually production data; and production web server). We call that stage BETA testing. One of the main requirements is that BETA code promotion to production must be a simple "cp" command from beta to production directory - no code/filename changes. For non-web Perl code, achieving seamless BETA test is quite doable (see details here): Perl programs live in a standard location under production root (/usr/code/scripts) with production perl modules living under the same root (/usr/code/lib/perl) The BETA code has 100% same code paths except under beta root (/usr/code/beta/) A special module manipulates @INC of any script based on whether the script was called from /usr/code/scripts or /usr/code/test/scripts, to include beta libraries for beta scripts. This setup works fine up till we need to beta test our web Perl code (the setup is EmbPerl and Apache/mod_perl). The hang-up is as follows: if both a production Perl module and BETA Perl module have the same name (e.g. /usr/code/lib/perl/MyLib1.pm and /usr/code/beta/lib/perl/MyLib1.pm), then mod_perl will only be able to load ONE of these modules into memory - and there's no way we are aware of for a particular web page to affect which version of the module is currently loaded due to concurrency issues. Leaving aside the obvious non-programming solution (get a bloody BETA web server) which for political/organizational reasons is not feasible, is there any way we can somehow hack around this problem in either Perl or mod_perl? I played around with various approaches to unloading Perl modules that %INC has listed, but the problem remains that another user might load a beta page at just the right (or rather wrong) moment and have the beta module loaded which will be used for my production page.

    Read the article

  • IIS HTTP Error 403.1 - Forbidden: Execute access is denied

    - by coxymla
    I have a ASP.NET 1.1 application running on IIS 6 / Windows Server 2003. It's our application, but we're trying to specifically replicate a customer's installation so the app folder has been copied entirely from their production server onto our test machine, and then we've created the Virtual Directory and Web Application for IIS manually. The problem I have is that when we access the app, we get the standard IIS security error message: The page cannot be displayed You have attempted to execute a CGI, ISAPI, or other executable program from a directory that does not allow programs to be executed. -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Please try the following: •Contact the Web site administrator if you believe this directory should allow execute access. HTTP Error 403.1 - Forbidden: Execute access is denied. Internet Information Services (IIS) Now this is pretty standard, except as far as I can see it's not anything so simple. I have checked: IIS user has read access to the directory IIS user and Network Service users have read/write access to the Temporary ASP.NET Files folder Virtual directory is set to the correct version of ASP.NET ASP.NET 1.1 Web Service Extension is allowed Virtual directory has the correct mappings of file extensions and all verbs to the aspnet 1.1 DLL Virtual directory properties allow Scripts and Executables to be run Anonymous access is turned on and the username and password is correct What am I missing?

    Read the article

  • Deselect dates in Web Calendar c#

    - by yomismo
    Hello, I'm trying to select and de-select dates on a C# Web Calendar control. The problem I have is that I can select or deselect dates except when there is only a single date selected. Clicking on it does not trigger the selection changed event, so Ineed to do something on the dayrender event but I'm not sure what or how. Any ideas? TIA Code so far: public static List<DateTime> list = new List<DateTime>(); protected void Calendar1_DayRender(object sender, DayRenderEventArgs e) { if (e.Day.IsSelected == true) { list.Add(e.Day.Date); } Session["SelectedDates"] = list; } protected void Calendar1_SelectionChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { DateTime selection = Calendar1.SelectedDate; if (Session["SelectedDates"] != null) { List<DateTime> newList = (List<DateTime>)Session["SelectedDates"]; foreach (DateTime dt in newList) { Calendar1.SelectedDates.Add(dt); } if (searchdate(selection, newList)) { Calendar1.SelectedDates.Remove(selection); } list.Clear(); } } public bool searchdate(DateTime date, List<DateTime> dates) { var query = from o in dates where o.Date == date select o; if (query.ToList().Count == 0) { return false; } else { return true; } }

    Read the article

  • Using DirectX Effect11 with Visual Studio 2012

    - by l3utterfly
    I recently updated to Visual Studio 2012 Ultimate. I was programming previously with DirectX 11 June 2010 SDK and want to continue to do so using Visual Studio 2012. However, I discovered that VS2012 comes with its own DirectX SDK (in Windows Kit 8.0) and I've been trying to migrate my code using the newer versions of d3d11. Everything went fine until I try to use effect files in my project (.fx files). I had to compile the Effects11 Sample in the DirectX SDK using VS2012 and link the lib file in my project. That went fine too. However, when I compile my project the function D3DX11CreateEffectFromMemory returns a E_NOINTERFACE error (no such interface is supported). Can anyone tell me why is that? Note that I'm using the d3d11.lib from the Windows Kit and the d3dx11.lib from the DirectX SDK. Perhaps I shouldn't mix them? However, everything else works fine when I mix them, except for the effect file creation. Any help would be appreciated. P.S. I don't know if this is helpful but just so you know, if I add an additional library directory in the project settings of "DirectXSDKInstallPath\lib\x86\" it works. Why is that? Does it mean I'm using the older version of the libraries? This will give a ton of warnings about redefined headers in winerror.h

    Read the article

  • Loading not-so-well-formed XML into XDocument (multiple DTD)

    - by Gart
    I have got a problem handling data which is almost well-formed XHTML document except for it has multiple DTD declarations in the beginning: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 3.2 Final//EN"> <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 3.2 Final//EN"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> ... </head> <body> ... </body> </html> I need load this data into XDocument object using only the first DTD and ignoring the rest declarations. It is not possible to completely ignore DTD processing because the document may have unusual characters like &acirc; or &euro; etc. The text is retrieved from external source and I have no idea why it comes like this. Obviously my naive attempt to load this document fails with System.Xml.XmlException : Cannot have multiple DTDs: var xmlReaderSettings = new XmlReaderSettings { DtdProcessing = DtdProcessing.Parse XmlResolver = new XmlPreloadedResolver(), ConformanceLevel = ConformanceLevel.Document, }; using (var xmlReader = XmlReader.Create(stream, xmlReaderSettings)) { return XDocument.Load(xmlReader); } What would be the best way to handle this kind of data?

    Read the article

  • VSTO Development - Key Improvements In VS2010 / .NET 4.0?

    - by dferraro
    Hi all, I am trying to make a case to my bosses on why we should use VS2010 for an upcoming Excel Workbook VSTO application. I haven't used VSTO before but have used VBA. With 2010 just around the corner, I wanted to read about the improvements made to see if it was worth using 2010 to develop this application. So far I have read 2 major improvements are ease of deployments and also debugging / com interop improvements ... I was just wondering if there was anything else I wasn't aware of, or if anyone here is actually developing in VSTO and has used 2010 and both 2008 and could help make a case / arm me with information. The main concern of my bosses is deploying .NET 4.0 runtime on the Citrix servers here... however it seems that with 3.5, we would have to deploy the VSTO runtime and PIA's, etc... So really wouldn't deployments be easier with 2010 because installing just the 4.0 runtime is better than having to install the 'VSTO Runtime' as well as PIA's, etc? Or is there something I'm missing here? Anyone here deploy VSTO app in an enterprise and can speak to this? Also - I'm trying to also fight to use C# over VB.NET for this app. Does anyone know any key reasons why (except for my bias on preference of syntax) it would be better to use C# over VB for this? Any key features lacking in VB VSTO development? I've read about the VSTO Power Tools, and one of them describes LINQ enalbment of the Excel Object Model classes - however it says 'a set of C# classes'... Does anyone know if they literally mean C# - so this would not work with VB.NET, or do they just mean the code is written in C#? Anyone ever used these power tools with VB? I am going to download & play with it now, but any help again is greatly appreciated Thanks very much for any information.

    Read the article

  • Core Data: Keypath "objectID" not found in entity

    - by Martin Gordon
    I'm using NSFetchedResultsController with a predicate to load a list of Documents in my application. I want to load all the Documents except the currently active one. I am using Rentzsch's MOGenerator to create a _Document class and then I put all my custom code in the Document subclass. _Document generates an objectID property with type DocumentID. In the class that creates the controller, I set the controller's currentDocID property: controller.currentDocID = self.document.objectID; In the controller itself, I lazy load the fetchedResultsController like this: - (NSFetchedResultsController *)fetchedResultsController { if (fetchedResultsController != nil) { return fetchedResultsController; } NSFetchRequest *fetchRequest = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Document" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [fetchRequest setEntity:entity]; NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"(objectID != %@)", self.currentDocID]; [fetchRequest setPredicate:predicate]; NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"dateModified" ascending:NO]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortDescriptor, nil]; [fetchRequest setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; NSFetchedResultsController *aFetchedResultsController = [[NSFetchedResultsController alloc] initWithFetchRequest:fetchRequest managedObjectContext:managedObjectContext sectionNameKeyPath:nil cacheName:@"Root"]; aFetchedResultsController.delegate = self; self.fetchedResultsController = aFetchedResultsController; [aFetchedResultsController release]; [sortDescriptor release]; [sortDescriptors release]; return fetchedResultsController; } When the fetchedResultsController loads, my app crashes with an unhandled exception: *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: 'keypath objectID not found in entity <NSSQLEntity Document id=1>' It's my understanding that all NSManagedObjects have an objectID, whether temporary or permanent. Is this not the case? Any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • Spring MVC jQuery remote validation

    - by raulsan
    Hi, I am using Spring MVC on the server side, but in one of the pages I decided to create an AJAX validation with jQuery rather than the default Spring validation. Everything works great, except when I have to do a remote validation to check if a "title" already exists. For the javascript I have the following: var validator = $("form").validate({ rules: { title: { minlength: 6, required: true, remote: { url: location.href.substring(0,location.href.lastIndexOf('/'))+"/checkLocalArticleTitle.do", type: "GET" } }, html: { minlength: 50, required: true } }, messages: { title: { required: "A title is required.", remote: "This title already exists." } } }); Then, I use Spring-Json to make this validation and give a response: @RequestMapping("/checkLocalArticleTitle.do") public ModelAndView checkLocalArticleTitle(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { Map model = new HashMap(); String result = "FALSE"; try{ String title = request.getParameter("title"); if(!EJBRequester.articleExists(title)){ result = "TRUE"; } }catch(Exception e){ System.err.println("Exception: " + e.getMessage()); } model.put("result",result); return new ModelAndView("jsonView", model); } However, this does not work and the field "title" is never validated. I think the reason for this is that I am returning an answer in the manner: {result:"TRUE"} when in fact, the answer should be: {"TRUE"} I don't know how to return a single response like this one using a ModelAndView answer. Another thing that is not working is the customized message for the "remote" validation: messages: { title: { required: "A title is required.", remote: "This title already exists." } }, The required message works, but not the remote message. I looked around, but I didn't see many people using Spring and jQuery at the same time. I would appreciate some help here.

    Read the article

  • In Asp.Net MVC 2 is there a better way to return 401 status codes without getting an auth redirect

    - by Greg Roberts
    I have a portion of my site that has a lightweight xml/json REST API. Most of my site is behind forms auth but only some of my API actions require authentication. I have a custom AuthorizeAttribute for my API that I use to check for certain permissions and when it fails it results in a 401. All is good, except since I'm using forms auth, Asp.net conveniently converts that into a 302 redirect to my login page. I've seen some previous questions that seem a bit hackish to either return a 403 instead or to put some logic in the global.asax protected void Application_EndRequest() that will essentially convert 302 to 401 where it meets whatever criteria. Previous Question Previous Question 2 What I'm doing now is sort of like one of the questions, but instead of checking the Application_EndRequest() for a 302 I make my authorize attribute return 666 which indicates to me that I need to set this to a 401. Here is my code: protected void Application_EndRequest() { if (Context.Response.StatusCode == MyAuthAttribute.AUTHORIZATION_FAILED_STATUS) { //check for 666 - status code of hidden 401 Context.Response.StatusCode = 401; } } Even though this works, my question is there something in Asp.net MVC 2 that would prevent me from having to do this? Or, in general is there a better way? I would think this would come up a lot for anyone doing REST api's or just people that do ajax requests in their controllers. The last thing you want is to do a request and get the content of a login page instead of json.

    Read the article

  • delete element from xml using LINQ

    - by Shishir
    Hello I've a xml file like: <starting> <start> <site>mushfiq.com</site> <site>mee.con</site> <site>ttttt.co</site> <site>jkjhkhjkh</site> <site>jhkhjkjhkhjkhjkjhkh</site> <site>dasdasdasdasdasdas</site> </start> </starting> Now I need to delete any ... and value will randomly be given from a textbox. Here is my code : XDocument doc = XDocument.Load(@"AddedSites.xml"); var deleteQuery = from r in doc.Descendants("start") where r.Element("site").Value == txt.Text.Trim() select r; foreach (var qry in deleteQuery) { qry.Element("site").Remove(); } doc.Save(@"AddedSites.xml"); If I put the value of first element in the textbox then it can delete it, but if I put any value of element except the first element's value it could not able to delete! I need I'll put any value of any element...as it can be 2nd element or 3rd or 4th and so on.... can anyone help me out? thanks in advanced!

    Read the article

  • Passenger, Nginx, and Capistrano - Passenger not launching Rails app at all

    - by Throlkim
    Essentially, my route is working perfectly, Passenger seems to be loading - all is hunky-dory. Except that nothing Railsy happens. Here's my Nginx log from starting the server to the first request (ignore the different domain/route - it's because I haven't moved the new domain over yet, and it's returning a 403 error because there's no index file in the public folder): [ pid=24559 file=ext/nginx/HelperServer.cpp:826 time=2009-11-10 00:49:13.227 ]: Passenger helper server started on PID 24559 [ pid=24559 file=ext/nginx/HelperServer.cpp:831 time=2009-11-10 00:49:13.227 ]: Password received. 2009/11/10 00:49:53 [error] 24578#0: *1 directory index of "/var/www/***/current/public/" is forbidden, client: 188.221.195.27, server: ***, request: "GET / HTTP/1.1", host: "***" 2009/11/10 00:49:54 [error] 24578#0: *1 open() "/var/www/***/current/public/favicon.ico" failed (2: No such file or directory), client: 188.221.195.27, server: ***, request: "GET /favicon.ico HTTP/1.1", host: "***", referrer: "***" Someone on the RubyOnRails IRC channel suggested that it might be a webserver permissions problem. I had a suspicion that it might be a filesystem permission problem, but then Nginx runs as www-data and Passenger as root. I can load static files from within the public directory fine, but no Rails application is being launched. Does anyone have an idea? My head is gradually melting away figuring this one out! Edit: Here's the vhost file: server { listen 80; server_name ***; passenger_enabled on; location / { root /var/www/***/current/public; index index.html index.htm; } #error_page 404 /404.html; # redirect server error pages to the static page /50x.html # error_page 500 502 503 504 /50x.html; location = /50x.html { root html; } }

    Read the article

  • Can't create more than one overlay in Seadragon

    - by XGreen
    Hi everyone, I am trying to add overlays to a seadragon map I am making but for some reason that I can not figure our seadragon ignores all my overlays except the first one. Any help with this is much appreciated. var viewer = null; function init() { Seadragon.Config.autoHideControls = false; viewer = new Seadragon.Viewer("container"); viewer.addEventListener("open", addOverlays); viewer.addControl(makeControl(), Seadragon.ControlAnchor.TOP_RIGHT); $(viewer.getNavControl()).parent().parent().css({ 'top': 10, 'right': 10 }); viewer.openDzi("_assets/Mapdata/dzc_output.xml"); } function makeControl() { var control = document.createElement("a"); var controlText = document.createTextNode(""); control.href = "#"; // so browser shows it as link control.className = "control"; control.appendChild(controlText); Seadragon.Utils.addEvent(control, "click", onControlClick); return control; } function onControlClick(event) { Seadragon.Utils.cancelEvent(event); // don't process link if (!viewer.isOpen()) { return; } // These are the coordinates of europe on this map var x = 0.5398693914203284; var y = 0.21155952391206562; var z = 5; viewer.viewport.panTo(new Seadragon.Point(x, y)); viewer.viewport.zoomTo(z); viewer.viewport.ensureVisible(); } function addOverlays(viewer) { drawer = viewer.drawer; var img = document.createElement("img"); img.src = "_assets/Images/pushpin.png"; $(img).addClass('pushPin'); var overlays = [ { elmt: img, point: new Seadragon.Point(0.51, 0.22) }, { elmt: img, point: new Seadragon.Point(0.20, 0.13) } ]; for (var i = 0; i < overlays.length; i++) { drawer.addOverlay(overlays[i].elmt, overlays[i].point); } } Seadragon.Utils.addEvent(window, "load", init);

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219 220 221 222 223  | Next Page >