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• Self referencing update SQL statement for Informix

  - by CheeseConQueso

  Need some Informix SQL... Courses get a regular grade, but their associated labs get a grade of 'LAB'. I need to update the table so that the lab grade matches the course grade. Also, if there is no corresponding course for a lab, it means the course was canceled. In that case, I want to place a flag value of 'X' for its grade. Example data before update: id yr sess crs_no hrs grd 725 2009 FA COLL101 3.000000000000 C 725 2009 FA ENGL021 3.000000000000 FI 725 2009 FA ENGL021L 1.000000000000 LAB 725 2009 FA ENGL031 3.000000000000 FNI 725 2009 FA ENGL031L 1.000000000000 LAB 725 2009 FA MATH010 3.000000000000 FNI 725 2010 SP AOTE101 3.000000000000 C 725 2010 SP ENGL021L 1.000000000000 LAB 725 2010 SP ENGL031 3.000000000000 FI 725 2010 SP ENGL031L 1.000000000000 LAB 725 2010 SP MATH010 3.000000000000 FNI 726 2010 SP SPAN101 3.000000000000 FN Example data after update: id yr sess crs_no hrs grd 725 2009 FA COLL101 3.000000000000 C 725 2009 FA ENGL021 3.000000000000 FI 725 2009 FA ENGL021L 1.000000000000 FI 725 2009 FA ENGL031 3.000000000000 FNI 725 2009 FA ENGL031L 1.000000000000 FNI 725 2009 FA MATH010 3.000000000000 FNI 725 2010 SP AOTE101 3.000000000000 C 725 2010 SP ENGL021L 1.000000000000 X 725 2010 SP ENGL031 3.000000000000 FI 725 2010 SP ENGL031L 1.000000000000 FI 725 2010 SP MATH010 3.000000000000 FNI 726 2010 SP SPAN101 3.000000000000 FN I worked out a solution for this, but it required a lot of on-the-fly composite foreign keys built from concatenating the id, yr, sess, and substring'd crs_no. My solution is not only overkill, but it has gaps in it and it takes too long to process. I know there is an easier way to do this, but I've gone so far down one road that I am having trouble thinking of a different approach.

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• Wnat is the preferred method of building extremely lightweight business object / DAL now that I have

  - by Seth Spearman

  Hello, I have completed a simple database for a project. Only 6tables. Of the 6, one is a "lookup" table. There is one "master" table that is the driver for the system. It is referenced as a foreign key by the other four tables. Give that this step is completed. What is the FASTEST, EASIEST way to create POCOs/BizObjects that can load load the data and the child data. Here are my CAVEATS. *I don't want to spend more than 30-60 minutes learning how? *There is very little biz logic needed in the POCOs. They will pretty much load data. Don't even really need to write back data. *I already know CSLA (up to version 3) but I feel that is overkill for this little project. *Nevertheless, I would love it if it ROOT objects could have collection classes that contain the CHILD objects as in CSLA...but again, without using CSLA. *Please give the answer for .NET 35 but also if I was restricted to only use .NET 20. *Ideally I could just point a tool at the database and the POCOs would be genn'ed. *FREE Just curious what you guys use for this kind of scenario. I understand that this question is subjective but I want to hear a variety of answers. Seth

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• Hi, how can I use the check box group in JSF to select the items of database and generate a list in

  - by Alexzzy

  I am using netbean and JSF to do my project, recently I encountered a problem that confused me. The question: There is a set of check box groups that identify the artifacts from the nature, creator, period and school. And all the artifacts are stored in a table of database. I would like to select the items by nature or creator or something like that, and generate a list for the items selected in the next page. There are some tables of database for artifacts, nature, creators and school, and the type_ID(this is the nature), creator_ID, school_ID are the foreign keys in artifacts table. I have bound the tables with respective check boxes. For example, if I want to select nature is painting, creator is Davinci, school is Italian Renaissance, and then I click Search button. It will go to next page that generate a list of artifacts about all Italian Renaissance paintings created by Davinci. How can I do that? I was confused by JSF, but I have to use JSF to do my project. Anyone can help me plz??? Thank you very very much !!!!!!!

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• JSP/Struts2/Hibernate: loop through a self-referencing table.

  - by TBW

  Hello everyone, Let's say we have a self-referencing table called PERSON, with the following columns: ID, PARENT, where PARENT is a foreign key to the ID column of another element in the PERSON table. Of course, many persons can have the same parent. I use Hibernate 3 in lazy fetching mode to deal with the database. Hibernate fetches a person element from the database, which is then put in the ValueStack by the Struts2 action, to be used on the result JSP page. Now the question is : In JSP, how can I do to display all the child (and the child's child, and so on, like a family tree) of this person element? Of course, for the n+1 children I can use the < s:iterator tag over the person.person. I can also nest another < s:iterator tag over person.person.person to get the n+2 children. But what if I want to do this in an automated manner, up to the last n+p child, displaying in the process all the children of all the n+1..n+p elements? I hope I have been clear enough. Thank you all for your time. -- TBW.

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• [CODE GENERATION] How to generate DELETE statements in PL/SQL, based on the tables FK relations?

  - by The chicken in the kitchen

  Is it possible via script/tool to generate authomatically many delete statements based on the tables fk relations, using Oracle PL/SQL? In example: I have the table: CHICKEN (CHICKEN_CODE NUMBER) and there are 30 tables with fk references to its CHICKEN_CODE that I need to delete; there are also other 150 tables foreign-key-linked to that 30 tables that I need to delete first. Is there some tool/script PL/SQL that I can run in order to generate all the necessary delete statements based on the FK relations for me? (by the way, I know about cascade delete on the relations, but please pay attention: I CAN'T USE IT IN MY PRODUCTION DATABASE, because it's dangerous!) I'm using Oracle DataBase 10G R2. This is the result I've written, but it is not recursive: This is a view I have previously written, but of course it is not recursive! CREATE OR REPLACE FORCE VIEW RUN ( OWNER_1, CONSTRAINT_NAME_1, TABLE_NAME_1, TABLE_NAME, VINCOLO ) AS SELECT OWNER_1, CONSTRAINT_NAME_1, TABLE_NAME_1, TABLE_NAME, '(' || LTRIM ( EXTRACT (XMLAGG (XMLELEMENT ("x", ',' || COLUMN_NAME)), '/x/text()'), ',') || ')' VINCOLO FROM ( SELECT CON1.OWNER OWNER_1, CON1.TABLE_NAME TABLE_NAME_1, CON1.CONSTRAINT_NAME CONSTRAINT_NAME_1, CON1.DELETE_RULE, CON1.STATUS, CON.TABLE_NAME, CON.CONSTRAINT_NAME, COL.POSITION, COL.COLUMN_NAME FROM DBA_CONSTRAINTS CON, DBA_CONS_COLUMNS COL, DBA_CONSTRAINTS CON1 WHERE CON.OWNER = 'TABLE_OWNER' AND CON.TABLE_NAME = 'TABLE_OWNED' AND ( (CON.CONSTRAINT_TYPE = 'P') OR (CON.CONSTRAINT_TYPE = 'U')) AND COL.TABLE_NAME = CON1.TABLE_NAME AND COL.CONSTRAINT_NAME = CON1.CONSTRAINT_NAME --AND CON1.OWNER = CON.OWNER AND CON1.R_CONSTRAINT_NAME = CON.CONSTRAINT_NAME AND CON1.CONSTRAINT_TYPE = 'R' GROUP BY CON1.OWNER, CON1.TABLE_NAME, CON1.CONSTRAINT_NAME, CON1.DELETE_RULE, CON1.STATUS, CON.TABLE_NAME, CON.CONSTRAINT_NAME, COL.POSITION, COL.COLUMN_NAME) GROUP BY OWNER_1, CONSTRAINT_NAME_1, TABLE_NAME_1, TABLE_NAME; ... and it contains the error of using DBA_CONSTRAINTS instead of ALL_CONSTRAINTS...

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• Getting the first of a GROUP BY clause in SQL

  - by Michael Bleigh

  I'm trying to implement single-column regionalization for a Rails application and I'm running into some major headaches with a complex SQL need. For this system, a region can be represented by a country code (e.g. us) a continent code that is uppercase (e.g. NA) or it can be NULL indicating the "default" information. I need to group these items by some relevant information such as a foreign key (we'll call it external_id). Given a country and its continent, I need to be able to select only the most specific region available. So if records exist with the country code, I select them. If, not I want a records with the continent code. If not that, I want records with a NULL code so I can receive the default values. So far I've figured that I may be able to use a generated CASE statement to get an arbitrary sort order. Something like this: SELECT *, CASE region WHEN 'us' THEN 1 WHEN 'NA' THEN 2 ELSE 3 END AS region_sort FROM my_table WHERE region IN ('us','NA') OR region IS NULL GROUP BY external_id ORDER BY region_sort The problem is that without an aggregate function the actual data returned by the GROUP BY for a given row seems to be untameable. How can I massage this query to make it return only the first record of the region_sort ordered groups?

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• What is the corrrect way to increment a field making up part of a composit key

  - by Tr1stan

  I have a bunch of tables whose primary key is made up of the foreign keys of other tables (Composite key). Therefore for example the attributes (as a very cut down version) might look like this: A[aPK, SomeFields] 1:M B[bPK, aFK, SomeFields] 1:M C[cPK, bFK, aFK, SomeFields] as data this could look like: A[aPK, SomeFields]: 1, Foo 2, Bar B[bPK, aFK, SomeFields]: 1, 1, FooData1 2, 1, FooData2 1, 2, BarData1 2, 2, BarData2 C[cPK, bFK, aFK, SomeFields]: 1, 1, 1, FooData1More 2, 1, 1, FooData1More 1, 2, 1, FooData2More 2, 2, 1, FooData2More 1, 1, 2, BarData1More 2, 1, 2, BarData1More 1, 2, 2, BarData2More 2, 2, 2, BarData2More I've got this running in a MSSQL DBMS and I'm looking for the best way to increment the left most column, in each table when a new tuple is added to it. I can't use the Auto Increment Identity Specification option as that has no idea that it is part of a composite key. I also don't want to use any aggregate function such as: MAX(field)+1 as this will have adverse affects with multiple users inputting data, rolling back etc. There might however be a nice trigger based option here, but I'm not sure. This must be a common issue so I'm hoping that someone has a lovely solution. As a side which may or may not affect the answer, I'm using Entity Framework 1.0 as my ORM, within a c# MVC application.

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• Can I force the auto-generated Linq-to-SQL classes to use an OUTER JOIN?

  - by Gary McGill

  Let's say I have an Order table which has a FirstSalesPersonId field and a SecondSalesPersonId field. Both of these are foreign keys that reference the SalesPerson table. For any given order, either one or two salespersons may be credited with the order. In other words, FirstSalesPersonId can never be NULL, but SecondSalesPersonId can be NULL. When I drop my Order and SalesPerson tables onto the "Linq to SQL Classes" design surface, the class builder spots the two FK relationships from the Order table to the SalesPerson table, and so the generated Order class has a SalesPerson field and a SalesPerson1 field (which I can rename to SalesPerson1 and SalesPerson2 to avoid confusion). Because I always want to have the salesperson data available whenever I process an order, I am using DataLoadOptions.LoadWith to specify that the two salesperson fields are populated when the order instance is populated, as follows: dataLoadOptions.LoadWith<Order>(o => o.SalesPerson1); dataLoadOptions.LoadWith<Order>(o => o.SalesPerson2); The problem I'm having is that Linq to SQL is using something like the following SQL to load an order: SELECT ... FROM Order O INNER JOIN SalesPerson SP1 ON SP1.salesPersonId = O.firstSalesPersonId INNER JOIN SalesPerson SP2 ON SP2.salesPersonId = O.secondSalesPersonId This would make sense if there were always two salesperson records, but because there is sometimes no second salesperson (secondSalesPersonId is NULL), the INNER JOIN causes the query to return no records in that case. What I effectively want here is to change the second INNER JOIN into a LEFT OUTER JOIN. Is there a way to do that through the UI for the class generator? If not, how else can I achieve this? (Note that because I'm using the generated classes almost exclusively, I'd rather not have something tacked on the side for this one case if I can avoid it).

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• How can I go through a Set in JSP? (Hibernate Associations)

  - by Parris

  Hi All, So I am pretty new to JSP. I have tried this a few ways. Ways that would make sense in PHP or automagicy frameworks... I am probably thinking too much in fact... I have a hibernate one to many association. That is class x has many of class y. In class x's view.jsp. I would like to grab all of class y, where the foreign key of y matches the primary key of x and display them. It seems that hibernate properly puts this stuff into a set. Now, the question is how can I iterate through this set and then output it's contents... I am kind of stumped here. I tried to write a scriptlet, <% java.util.Iterator iter = aBean.getYs().iter(); // aBeans is the bean name // getYs would return the set and iter would return an iterator for the set while(iter.hasNext) { model.X a = new iter.next() %> <h1><%=a.getTitle()%></h1> <% } %> It would seem that that sort of thing should work? Hmmmmmm

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• A typical mysql query( how to use subquery column into main query)

  - by I Like PHP

  I HAVE TWO TABLES shown below table_joining id join_id(PK) transfer_id(FK) unit_id transfer_date joining_date 1 j_1 t_1 u_1 2010-06-05 2010-03-05 2 j_2 t_2 u_3 2010-05-10 2010-03-10 3 j_3 t_3 u_6 2010-04-10 2010-01-01 4 j_5 NULL u_3 NULL 2010-06-05 5 j_6 NULL u_4 NULL 2010-05-05 table_transfer id transfer_id(PK) pastUnitId futureUnitId effective_transfer_date 1 t_1 u_3 u_1 2010-06-05 2 t_2 u_6 u_1 2010-05-10 3 t_3 u_5 u_3 2010-04-10 now i want to know total employee detalis( using join_id) which are currently working on unit u_3 . means i want only join_id j_1 (has transfered but effective_transfer_date is future date, right now in u_3) j_2 ( tansfered and right now in `u_3` bcoz effective_transfer_date has been passed) j_6 ( right now in `u_3` and never transfered) what i need to take care of below steps( as far as i know ) <1> first need to check from table_joining whether transfer_id is NULL or not <2> if transfer_id= is NULL then see unit_id=u_3 where joining_date <=CURDATE() ( means that person already joined u_3) <3> if transfer_id is NOT NULL then go to table_transfer using transfer_id (foreign key reference) <4> now see the effective_transfer_date regrading that transfer_id whether effective_transfer_date<=CURDATE() <5> if transfer date has been passed(means transfer has been done) then return futureUnitID otherwise return pastUnitID i used two separate query but don't know how to join those query?? for step <1 ans <2 SELECT unit_id FROM table_joining WHERE joining_date<=CURDATE() AND transfer_id IS NULL AND unit_id='u_3' for step<5 SELECT IF(effective_transfer_date <= CURDATE(),futureUnitId,pastUnitId) AS currentUnitID FROM table_transfer // here how do we select only those rows which have currentUnitID='u_3' ?? please guide me the process?? i m just confused with JOINS. i think using LEFT JOIN can return the data i need, or if we use subquery value to main query? but i m not getting how to implement ...please help me. Thanks for helping me alwayz

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• Ideas in implenting the following entry form in ASP.NET MVC 2

  - by KiD0M4N

  Hi guys, I have a very simple data entry form to implement. It looks like this: Obviously I have mocked out the actual requirements but the essence is similar. Entering a name and clicking history should bring up a pop up pointing to the url '/student/viewhistory/{name}' Name and age are required fields The sub form (in the mockup) with Class (a drop down, containing the numbers 1 - 10) and Subject (containing A - D, say) form a unique pair of values for which a score is required. So, selecting the Class and Subject, entering a score and clicking on Add should 'add' this record for the student. Then the user should be able to click Save (to persist the entry to the database) or be able to add further (class, subject, score) pairs to the entry. Any ideas how to smartly implement this? (I am coming from a DWH field... so thinking in a stateless manner is slightly foreign to me.) Any help is appreciated. I would imagine a smart use of jQuery would give a easy solution. Regards, Karan

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• SQLAlchemy Custom Type Which Contains Multiple Columns

  - by Kekoa

  I would like to represent a datatype as a single column in my model, but really the data will be stored in multiple columns in the database. I cannot find any good resources on how to do this in SQLAlchemy. I would like my model to look like this(this is a simplified example using geometry instead of my real problem which is harder to explain): class 3DLine(DeclarativeBase): start_point = Column(my.custom.3DPoint) end_point = Column(my.custom.3DPoint) This way I could assign an object with the (x, y, z) components of the point at once without setting them individually. If I had to separate each component, this could get ugly, especially if each class has several of these composite objects. I would combine the values into one encoded field except that I need to query each value separately at times. I was able to find out how to make custom types using a single column in the documentation. But there's no indication that I can map a single type to multiple columns. I suppose I could accomplish this by using a separate table, and each column would be a foreign key, but in my case I don't think it makes sense to have a one to one mapping for each point to a separate table, and this still does not give the ability to set the related values all at once.

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• ZF2 - How to use the Hydrator/exchangeArray() to populate a nested object

  - by Dominic Watson

  I've got an object with values that are stored in my database. My object also contains another object which is stored in the database using just the ID of it (foreign key). http://framework.zend.com/manual/2.0/en/modules/zend.stdlib.hydrator.html Before the Hydrator/exchangeArray functionality in ZF2 you would use a Mapper to grab everything you need to create the object. Now I'm trying to eliminate this extra layer by just using Hydration/exchangeArray to populate my objects but am a bit stuck on creating the nested object. Should my entity have the Inner object's table injected into it so I can create it if the ID of it is passed to my 'exchangeArray' ? Here are example entities as an example. // Village id, name, position, square_id // Map Square id, name, type Upon sending square_id to my Village's exchangeArray() function. It would get the mapTable and use hydrator to pull in the square using the ID I have. It doesn't seem right to be to have mapper instances inside my entity as I thought they should be disconnected from anything but it's own entity specific parameters and functionality?

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• Entity Framework 5 Enum Naming

  - by Tyrel Van Niekerk

  I am using EF 5 with migrations and code first. It all works rather nicely, but there are some issues/questions I would like to resolve. Let's start with a simple example. Lets say I have a User table and a user type table. The user type table is an enum/lookup table in my app. So the user table has a UserTypeId column and a foreign key ref etc to UserType. In my poco, I have a property called UserType which has the enum type. To add the initial values to the UserType table (or add/change values later) and to create the table in the initial migrator etc. I need a UserType table poco to represent the actual table in the database and to use in the map files. I mapped the UserType property in the User poco to UserTypeId in the UserType poco. So now I have a poco for code first/migrations/context mapping etc and I have an enum. Can't have the same name for both, so do I have a poco called UserType and something else for the enum or have the poco for UserType be UserTypeTable or something? More importantly however, am I missing some key element in how code first works? I tried the example above, ran Add-Migration and it does not add the lookup table for the enum.

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• Why is using a common-lookup table to restrict the status of entity wrong?

  - by FreshCode

  According to Five Simple Database Design Errors You Should Avoid by Anith Sen, using a common-lookup table to store the possible statuses for an entity is a common mistake. Why is this wrong? I disagree that it's wrong, citing the example of jobs at a repair service with many possible statuses that generally have a natural flow, eg.: Booked In Assigned to Technician Diagnosing problem Waiting for Client Confirmation Repaired & Ready for Pickup Repaired & Couriered Irreparable & Ready for Pickup Quote Rejected Arguably, some of these statuses can be normalised to tables like Couriered Items, Completed Jobs and Quotes (with Pending/Accepted/Rejected statuses), but that feels like unnecessary schema complication. Another common example would be order statuses that restrict the status of an order, eg: Pending Completed Shipped Cancelled Refunded The status titles and descriptions are in one place for editing and are easy to scaffold as a drop-down with a foreign key for dynamic data applications. This has worked well for me in the past. If the business rules dictate the creation of a new order status, I can just add it to OrderStatus table, without rebuilding my code.

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• How to Map Two Tables To One Class in Fluent NHibernate

  - by Richard Nagle

  I am having a problem with fluent nhiberbate mapping two tables to one class. I have the following database schema: TABLE dbo.LocationName ( LocationId INT PRIMARY KEY, LanguageId INT PRIMARY KEY, Name VARCHAR(200) ) TABLE dbo.Language ( LanguageId INT PRIMARY KEY, Locale CHAR(5) ) And want to build the following class definition: public class LocationName { public virtual int LocationId { get; private set; } public virtual int LanguageId { get; private set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual string Locale { get; set; } } Here is my mapping class: public LocalisedNameMap() { WithTable("LocationName"); UseCompositeId() .WithKeyProperty(x => x.LanguageId) .WithKeyProperty(x => x.LocationId); Map(x => x.Name); WithTable("Language", lang => { lang.WithKeyColumn("LanguageId"); lang.Map(x => x.Locale); }); } The problem is with the mapping of the Locale field being from another table, and in particular that the keys between those tables don't match. Whenever I run the application with this mapping I get the following error on startup: Foreign key (FK7FC009CCEEA10EEE:Language [LanguageId])) must have same number of columns as the referenced primary key (LocationName [LanguageId, LocationId]) How do I tell nHibernate to map from LocationName to Language using only the LanguageId field?

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• Applying correct bindings to WPF datatemplate to maximize reusability

  - by johncatfish

  Hi. I have a WPF application. I want to apply that datatemplate to a Listbox filled with records from Table02. Then, for each listboxitem I need to bind the combobox to the same database table (Table01), but for each listboxitem the selected item will vary. It will be a foreign key to Table01. <DataTemplate x:Key="Table01DataTemplate"> <Grid> <ComboBox ItemsSource="{Binding Model.IQueryable_Table01, RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type Window}}}" SelectedValue="{Binding Table01_ForeignKey}" DisplayMemberPath="name" SelectedValuePath="id" /> <!-- Other stuff --> </Grid> </DataTemplate> <ListBox x:Name="lbTest" ItemTemplate="{StaticResource Table01DataTemplate}" /> <!-- In .cs file lbTest.DataContext = this; --> Notes: Model.IQueryable_Table01 is a property which encapsulates a Linq-to-sql call returning a IQueryable. lbTest will be filled by setting ItemsSource with a Linq-to-sql call. Is this a good way to do the bindings in a data template for a maximum reusability? I also thought of replacing AncestorType={x:Type Window} with lbTest.DataContext = this; AncestorType={x:Type Application} and lbTest.DataContext = App.Current; But it didn't work (Exception on loading) and I don't know if there's any caveats or down-sides to this approach. Is this good? Any suggestions or improvements? Thanks.

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• User input in Perl with IO::Socket

  - by David

  I am trying to make a perl program which allows a user to input the host and the port number of a foreign host to connect to using IO::Socket. It allows me to run the program and input a host and a port but it never connects and says "Could not connect to [host] at c:\users\USER\Documents\code\perl\sql.pl line 18, line 2." What am i doing wrong with this code shown below? And also, how can i have input validation on my host, which can either be a host name or an ip address? Thanks a bunch! Code Below use IO::Socket print "Host to connect to: "; chomp ($host = <STDIN>); print "Port to connect with: "; chomp ($port = <STDIN>); while(($port > 65535) || ($port <= 0)){ print "Port to connect with [Port > 0 < 65535] : "; chomp ($port = <STDIN>); } print "\nConnecting to host $host on port $port\n"; $socket = new IO::Socket::INET ( LocalHost => '$host', LocalPort => '$port', Proto => 'tcp', Listen => 5, Reuse => 1 ); die "Could not connect to $host";

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• Need help with many-to-many relationships....

  - by yuudachi

  I have a student and faculty table. The primary key for student is studendID (SID) and faculty's primary key is facultyID, naturally. Student has an advisor column and a requested advisor column, which are foreign key to faculty. That's simple enough, right? However, now I have to throw in dates. I want to be able to view who their advisor was for a certain quarter (such as 2009 Winter) and who they had requested. The result will be a table like this: Year | Term | SID | Current | Requested ------------------------------------------------ 2009 | Winter | 860123456 | 1 | NULL 2009 | Winter | 860445566 | 3 | NULL 2009 | Winter | 860369147 | 5 | 1 And then if I feel like it, I could also go ahead and view a different year and a different term. I am not sure how these new table(s) will look like. Will there be a year table with three columns that are Fall, Spring and Winter? And what will the Fall, Spring, Winter table have? I am new to the art of tables, so this is baffling me... Also, I feel I should clarify how the site works so far now. Admin can approve student requests, and what happens is that the student's current advisor gets overwritten with their request. However, I think I should not do that anymore, right?

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• Select rows from table1 and all the children from table2 into an object

  - by Patrick

  I want to pull data from table "Province_Notifiers" and also fetch all corresponding items from table "Province_Notifier_Datas". The table "Province_Notifier" has a guid to identify it (PK), table "Province_Notifier_Datas" has a column called BelongsToProvinceID witch is a foreign key to the "Province_Notifier" tables guid. I tried something like this: var records = from data in ctx.Province_Notifiers where DateTime.Now >= data.SendTime && data.Sent == false join data2 in ctx.Province_Notifier_Datas on data.Province_ID equals data2.BelongsToProvince_ID select new Province_Notifier { Email = data.Email, Province_ID = data.Province_ID, ProvinceName = data.ProvinceName, Sent = data.Sent, UserName = data.UserName, User_ID = data.User_ID, Province_Notifier_Datas = (new List<Province_Notifier_Data>().AddRange(data2)) }; This line is not working and i am trying to figure out how topull the data from table2 into that Province_Notifier_Datas variable. Province_Notifier_Datas = (new List<Province_Notifier_Data>().AddRange(data2)) I can add a record easily by adding the second table row into the Province_Notifier_Datas but i can't fetch it back. Province_Notifier dbNotifier = new Province_Notifier(); // set some values for dbNotifier dbNotifier.Province_Notifier_Datas.Add( new Province_Notifier_Data { BelongsToProvince_ID = userInput.Value.ProvinceId, EventText = GenerateNotificationDetail(notifierDetail) }); This works and inserts the data correctly into both tables. Edit: These error messages is thrown: Cannot convert from 'Province_Notifier_Data' to 'System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable' If i look in Visual Studio, the variable "Province_Notifier_Datas" is of type System.Data.Linq.EntitySet The best overloaded method match for 'System.Collections.Generic.List.AddRange(System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable)' has some invalid arguments Edit: var records = from data in ctx.Province_Notifiers where DateTime.Now >= data.SendTime && data.Sent == false join data2 in ctx.Province_Notifier_Datas on data.Province_ID equals data2.BelongsToProvince_ID into data2list select new Province_Notifier { Email = data.Email, Province_ID = data.Province_ID, ProvinceName = data.ProvinceName, Sent = data.Sent, UserName = data.UserName, User_ID = data.User_ID, Province_Notifier_Datas = new EntitySet<Province_Notifier_Data>().AddRange(data2List) }; Error 3 The name 'data2List' does not exist in the current context.

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• Do I need to write a trigger for such a simple constraint?

  - by Paul Hanbury

  I really had a hard time knowing what words to put into the title of my question, as I am not especially sure if there is a database pattern related to my problem. I will try to simplify matters as much as possible to get directly to the heart of the issue. Suppose I have some tables. The first one is a list of widget types: create table widget_types ( widget_type_id number(7,0) primary key, description varchar2(50) ); The next one contains icons: create table icons ( icon_id number(7,0) primary key, picture blob ); Even though the users get to select their preferred widget, there is a predefined subset of widgets that they can choose from for each widget type. create table icon_associations ( widget_type_id number(7,0) references widget_types, icon_id number(7,0) references icons, primary key (widget_type_id, icon_id) ); create table icon_prefs ( user_id number(7,0) references users, widget_type_id number(7,0), icon_id number(7,0), primary key (user_id, widget_type_id), foreign key (widget_type_id, icon_id) references icon_associations ); Pretty simple so far. Let us now assume that if we are displaying an icon to a user who has not set up his preferences, we choose one of the appropriate images associated with the current widget. I'd like to specify the preferred icon to display in such a case, and here's where I run into my problem: alter table icon_associations add ( is_preferred char(1) check( is_preferred in ('y','n') ) ) ; I do not see how I can enforce that for each widget_type there is one, and only one, row having is_preferred set to 'y'. I know that in MySQL, I am able to write a subquery in my check constraint to quickly resolve this issue. This is not possible with Oracle. Is my mistake that this column has no business being in the icon_associations table? If not where should it go? Is this a case where, in Oracle, the constraint can only be handled with a trigger? I ask only because I'd like to go the constraint route if at all possible. Thanks so much for your help, Paul

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• Adding Categories to my Articles in my Rails app (Small Help)

  - by user214038

  I'm currently building a semi-small ruby app for a project. The problem I'm currently facing is the following: I want to be Able to fit the Article into the Categories. I've already accomplish this by having two models. An article model with a foreign key of category_id and my Category model with the name of the category. With a has_one and belogs_to relationship. (We're assuming you can only fit an article into one category). Here's the piece of code. This is the new method, where i create a new article and load up all the categories. def new @article = Article.new @categories = Category.find(:all) end The problem comes when i try to get the category from a combo box in order to insert it along with the article. This is the combo box code : f.select(:category_id,@categories) And this is the create method: def create @category = Category.find(params[:id]) @article = @category.articles.new(params[:article]) if @article.save flash[:notice] = "Article Submitted Sucessfully" redirect_to user_path else render :action = 'new' end end I believe that the problem i have is in this line when i try to load up the selected category "@category = Category.find(params[:id])" because whenever i hardcode the this line into @category = Category.find(1) It Works perfectly

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• Help dealing with data dependency between two registration forms

  - by franko75

  I have a tricky issue here with a registration of both a user and his/her pet. Both the user and the pet are treated as separate entities and both require separate registration forms. However, the user's pet has to be linked to the user via a foreign key in the database. The process is basically that when a new user joins the site, firstly they register their pet, then they register themselves. The reason for this order is to check their pet's eligibility for the site (there are some criteria to be met) first, instead of getting the user to sign up only to then find out their pet is ineligible. It is this ordering of the form submissions which is causing me a bit of a headache, as follows... The site is being developed with an MVC framework, and the User registration process is managed via a method in a User_form controller, while the pet registration process is managed via a method in the Pet_form controller. The pet registration form happens first, and the pet data can be saved without the owner_id at this stage, with the user id possibly being added (e.g by retrieving pet's id from session) following user registration. However, doing it this way could potentially result in redundant data, where pet records would be created in the database, but if the user doesn't actually register themselves too, then the pets will be ownerless records in the DB. Other option is to serialize the new pet's data at the pet registration stage, don't save it to the DB until the user fills out their registration form. Once the user is created, i can pass serialised data AND the owner_id to a method in the Pet Model which can update the DB. However, I also need to set the newly created $pet to $this-pet which I then access for a sequence of other related forms. Should I just set the session variable in the model method? Then in the Pet controller constructor, do a check for pet stored in session, if yes, assign to $this-pet... If this makes any sense to anybody and you have some advice, i'd be grateful to hear it!

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• Entity framework self referencing loop detected

  - by Lyd0n

  I have a strange error. I'm experimenting with a .NET 4.5 Web API, Entity Framework and MS SQL Server. I've already created the database and set up the correct primary and foreign keys and relationships. I've created a .edmx model and imported two tables: Employee and Department. A department can have many employees and this relationship exists. I created a new controller called EmployeeController using the scaffolding options to create an API controller with read/write actions using Entity Framework. In the wizard, selected Employee as the model and the correct entity for the data context. The method that is created looks like this: // GET api/Employee public IEnumerable<Employee> GetEmployees() { var employees = db.Employees.Include(e => e.Department); return employees.AsEnumerable(); } When I call my API via /api/Employee, I get this error: ...The 'ObjectContent`1' type failed to serialize the response body for content type 'application/json; ...System.InvalidOperationException","StackTrace":null,"InnerException":{"Message":"An error has occurred.","ExceptionMessage":"Self referencing loop detected with type 'System.Data.Entity.DynamicProxies.Employee_5D80AD978BC68A1D8BD675852F94E8B550F4CB150ADB8649E8998B7F95422552'. Path '[0].Department.Employees'.","ExceptionType":"Newtonsoft.Json.JsonSerializationException","StackTrace":" ... Why is it self referencing [0].Department.Employees? That doesn't make a whole lot of sense. I would expect this to happen if I had circular referencing in my database but this is a very simple example. What could be going wrong?

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• Databinding expression for retrieving value of related collection using LINQ

  - by joshb

  I have a GridView that is bound to a LINQDataSource control that is returning a collection of customers. Within my DataGrid I need to display the home phone number of a customer, if they have one. The phone numbers of a customer are stored in a separate table with a foreign key pointing to the customer table. The following binding expression gets me the first phone number for a customer: <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="LastName" SortExpression="LastName"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="PhoneLabel" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("Phones[0].PhoneNumber") %>'></asp:Label> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> I need to figure out how to get the home phone number specifically (filter based on phone type) and handle the scenario where the customer does not have a home phone in the database. Right now it's throwing an out of range exception if the customer does not have any phone numbers. I've tried using the Where operator with a lambda expression to filter the phone type but it doesn't work: <%# Eval("Phones.Where(p => p.PhoneTypeId == 2).PhoneNumber") %> Solutions or links to any good articles on the subject would be much appreciated.

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