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  • Reordering columns (fields) in a ADO Recordset

    - by Sukotto
    I have a classic asp webpage written in vbscript that outputs the results from a third-party stored procedure. My user wants the page to display the columns of data in a different order than they come in from the database. Is there an easy and safe way to re-order the columns in an ADO recordset? I did not write this page and cannot change the SP. What is the minimum change I can make here to get the job done and not risk screwing up all the other stuff in the page? The code looks something like dim Conn, strSQL, RS Set Conn = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") Conn.Open ServerName Set strSQL = "EXEC storedProc @foo = " & Request("fooParam") 'This stored procedure returns a date column, an arbitrary ' ' number of data columns, and two summation columns. We ' ' want the two summation columns to move so they appear ' ' immediately after the data column ' Set RS = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.RecordSet") RS.ActiveConnection = Nothing RS.CursorLocation = adUseClient RS.CursorType = adOpenStatic RS.LockType = adLockBatchOptimistic RS.Open strSQL, Conn, adOpenDynamic, adLockOptimistic dim A ' ----- ' ' Insert some code here to move the columns of the RS around ' ' to suit the whim of my user ' ' ----- ' ' Several blocks of code that iterate over the RS and display it various ways ' RS.MoveFirst For A = 0 To RS.Fields.Count -1 ' do stuff ' Next ... RS.MoveFirst For A = 0 To RS.Fields.Count -1 ' do more stuff ' Next RS.Close : Set RS = Nothing Conn.Close : Set Conn = Nothing

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  • linux bash script: set date/time variable to auto-update (for inclusion in file names)

    - by user1859492
    Essentially, I have a standard format for file naming conventions. It breaks down to this: target_dateUTC_timeUTC_tool So, for instance, if I run tcpdump on a target of 'foo', then the file would be foo_dateUTC_timeUTC_tcpdump. Simple enough, but a pain for everyone to constantly (and consistently) enter... so I've tried to create a bash script which sets system variables like so: FILENAME=$TARGET\_$UTCTIME\_$TOOL Then, I can just call the variable at runtime, like so: tcpdump -w $FILENAME.lpc All of this works like a champ. I've got a menu-driven .sh which gives the user the options of viewing the current variables as well as setting them... file generation is a breeze. Unfortunately, by setting the date/time variable, it is locked to the value at the time of creation (naturally). I set the variable like so: UTCTIME=$(/bin/date --utc +"%Y%m%d_%H%M%Z") What I really need is either a way to create a variable which updates at runtime, or (more likely) another way to skin this cat. While scouring for solutions, I came across a similar issues... like this. But, to be honest, I'm stumped on how to marry the two approaches and create a simple, distributable solution. I can post the entire .sh if anyone cares to review (about 120 lines)

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  • IE and replaceWith not preserving radio button state

    - by copelco
    Hello, I've run into an issue regarding replaceWith not maintaining the state of a moved radio button input. I've prepared a simple example illustrating this issue. This works in FF and Chrome, but not IE. Is there a way around this? Thanks! jsbin: http://jsbin.com/unola4/2 code: <html> <head> <script class="jsbin" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.3.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <title>IE replaceWith issue</title> <script type='text/javascript'> $(function(){ $('a').click(function(e) { e.preventDefault(); $('#temp').replaceWith($('#window').children()); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <a href='#'>run replaceWith</a> <p>Select a radio button and then click "run replaceWith". The value persists in FF, but not IE.</p> <div id='window' style='background-color: #DDD; height: 100px;'> <input id="id_received_date-days_0" type="radio" name="received_date-days" value="30" /> <input id="id_received_date-days_1" type="radio" name="received_date-days" value="50" /> <input type='text' name='test-test' /> </div> <br /> <form id='foo' style='background-color: #EEE'> <div id='temp'></div> </form> </body> </html>

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  • Performing an action on Parent/Child elements independently.

    - by Matt Weldon
    I have HTML similar to the following in my page <div id="someDiv"> <img src="foo.gif" class="someImg" /> </div> The wrapper div is set up such that when it is clicked, it's background-color changes using the following jQuery code. $("div").click(function(event){ $(this).css("background-color", "blue"); }); I also have some jQuery associated with my img that will do some other function (for the sake of argument I am going to display and alert box) like so: $("img[class=someImg]").click(function(event){ alert("Image clicked"); }); The issue I have come across is that when I click on the img, the event associated with the div is also triggered. I'm pretty sure that this is due to the way that jQuery (or indeed JavaScript) is handling the two DOM elements - clicking the img would require you to also technically click the div, thus triggering both events. Two questions then really: Is my understanding of the DOM/JavaScript flawed in some way or is this actually how things are occurring? Are there any jQuery methods that would allow me to perform actions on a child element without invoking those associated with its parent?

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  • CodeIgniter -- unable to use an object

    - by Smandoli
    THE SUMMARY: When I call .../index.php/product, I receive: Fatal error: Call to a member function get_prod_single() on a non-object in /var/www/sparts/main/controllers/product.php on line 16 The offending Line 16 is: $data['pn_oem'] = $this->product_model->get_prod_single($product_id); Looks like I don't know how to make this a working object. Can you help me? THE CODE: In my /Models folder I have product_model.php: <?php class Product_model extends Model { function Product_model() { parent::Model(); } function get_prod_single($product_id) { //This will be a DB lookup ... return 'foo'; //stub to get going } } ?> In my /controllers folder I have product.php: <?php class Product extends Controller { function Product() { parent::Controller(); } function index() { $this->load->model('Product_model'); $product_id = 113; // will get this dynamically $data['product_id'] = $product_id; $data['pn_oem'] = $this->product_model->get_prod_single($product_id); $this->load->view('prod_single', $data); } } ?>

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  • JavaScript array random index insertion and deletion

    - by Tomi
    I'm inserting some items into array with randomly created indexes, for example like this: var myArray = new Array(); myArray[123] = "foo"; myArray[456] = "bar"; myArray[789] = "baz"; ... In other words array indexes do not start with zero and there will be "numeric gaps" between them. My questions are: Will these numeric gaps be somehow allocated (and therefore take some memory) even when they do not have assigned values? When I delete myArray[456] from upper example, would items below this item be relocated? EDIT: Regarding my question/concern about relocation of items after insertion/deletion - I want to know what happens with the memory and not indexes. More information from wikipedia article: Linked lists have several advantages over dynamic arrays. Insertion of an element at a specific point of a list is a constant-time operation, whereas insertion in a dynamic array at random locations will require moving half of the elements on average, and all the elements in the worst case. While one can "delete" an element from an array in constant time by somehow marking its slot as "vacant", this causes fragmentation that impedes the performance of iteration.

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  • CSS refuse to obey

    - by Frank
    Hi, I'll make this short, I got this webpage : <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <link rel="Stylesheet" type="text/css" href="css/style.css" /> <link rel="Stylesheet" type="text/css" href="css/nav.css" /> </head> <body> <div id="header"> <ul id="navList"> <li><a href="#" id="navActive">foo</a></li> <li><a href="#">bar</a></li> </ul> </div> </body> </html> With this CSS style.css body { padding:0; margin:0; background-color:#000000; background-repeat:no-repeat; background-image:url('../img/bg.jpg'); } nav.css #navList { padding:0; margin:0; background-image:url('../img/menu.png'); list-style-type:none; padding:12px 150px; } #navList li { display:inline; } #navList li a { color:#bfbfbf; padding:14px 25px; text-decoration:none; } #navList li a:hover { color:#000000; background-color:#bfbfbf; text-decoration:none; } #navActive { color:#000000; background-color:#bfbfbf; } It looks like the CSS from the navActive id is never being applied... Could someone tell me why and/or suggest me a way to correct this. Thanks.

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  • How can I pass a hash to a Perl subroutine?

    - by Vishalrix
    In one of my main( or primary) routines,I have two or more hashes. I want the subroutine foo() to recieve these possibly-multiple hashes as distinct hashes. Right now I have no preference if they go by value, or as references. I am struggling with this for the last many hours and would appreciate help, so that I dont have to leave perl for php! ( I am using mod_perl, or will be) Right now I have got some answer to my requirement, shown here From http://forums.gentoo.org/viewtopic-t-803720-start-0.html # sub: dump the hash values with the keys '1' and '3' sub dumpvals { foreach $h (@_) { print "1: $h->{1} 3: $h->{3}\n"; } } # initialize an array of anonymous hash references @arr = ({1,2,3,4}, {1,7,3,8}); # create a new hash and add the reference to the array $t{1} = 5; $t{3} = 6; push @arr, \%t; # call the sub dumpvals(@arr); I only want to extend it so that in dumpvals I could do something like this: foreach my %k ( keys @_[0]) { # use $k and @_[0], and others } The syntax is wrong, but I suppose you can tell that I am trying to get the keys of the first hash ( hash1 or h1), and iterate over them. How to do it in the latter code snippet above?

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  • in haskell, why do I need to specify type constraints, why can't the compiler figure them out?

    - by Steve
    Consider the function, add a b = a + b This works: *Main> add 1 2 3 However, if I add a type signature specifying that I want to add things of the same type: add :: a -> a -> a add a b = a + b I get an error: test.hs:3:10: Could not deduce (Num a) from the context () arising from a use of `+' at test.hs:3:10-14 Possible fix: add (Num a) to the context of the type signature for `add' In the expression: a + b In the definition of `add': add a b = a + b So GHC clearly can deduce that I need the Num type constraint, since it just told me: add :: Num a => a -> a -> a add a b = a + b Works. Why does GHC require me to add the type constraint? If I'm doing generic programming, why can't it just work for anything that knows how to use the + operator? In C++ template programming, you can do this easily: #include <string> #include <cstdio> using namespace std; template<typename T> T add(T a, T b) { return a + b; } int main() { printf("%d, %f, %s\n", add(1, 2), add(1.0, 3.4), add(string("foo"), string("bar")).c_str()); return 0; } The compiler figures out the types of the arguments to add and generates a version of the function for that type. There seems to be a fundamental difference in Haskell's approach, can you describe it, and discuss the trade-offs? It seems to me like it would be resolved if GHC simply filled in the type constraint for me, since it obviously decided it was needed. Still, why the type constraint at all? Why not just compile successfully as long as the function is only used in a valid context where the arguments are in Num? Thank you.

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  • Passing null child object from parent object to a partial view

    - by Mike
    I have an object which contains models for my ASP.NET MVC web app. The Model that is being passed into the view has sub models for "gadgets" on that particular view. Each of these sub models gets passed to a partial view (gadget). The problem is when I have a null model in the view model. See example below. View Model: public class FooBarHolder() { public FooBar1 FooBar1 { get; set; } public FooBar2 FooBar2 { get; set; } } We pass FooBarHolder into the view and inside the view we make calls such as <% Html.RenderPartial("Foo", Model.FooBar1); %> <% Html.RenderPartial("Foo2", Model.FooBar2); %> Now say for instance that Model.FooBar2 was null. What I am experiencing from the strongly typed partial view is an error that says "This view expected a model of type FooBar2 but got a model of type FooBarHolder." Why is this happening instead of just passing in a null?

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  • Is it OK to set state within Event Raising methods?

    - by Greg
    I ran across this pattern in the code of a library I'm using. It sets state within the event raising method, but only if the event is not null. protected virtual void OnMyEvent(EventArgs e) { if(MyEvent != null) { State = "Executing"; // Only sets state if MyEvent != null. MyEvent(this,e); } } Which means that the state is not set when overriding the method: protected override void OnMyEvent(EventArgs e) { base.OnMyEvent(e); Debug.Assert( State == "Executing" ); // This fails } but is only set when handling the event: foo.MyEvent += (o, args) => Debug.Assert(State == "Executing"); // This passes Setting state within the if(MyEvent != null) seems like bad form, but I've checked the Event Design Guidelines and it doesn't mention this. Do you think this code is incorrect? If so, why? (Reference to design guidelines would be helpful). Edit for Context: It's a Control, I'm trying to create subclass of it, and the state that it's setting is calling EnsureChildControls() conditionally based upon there being an event handler. I can call EnsureChildControls() myself, but I consider that something of a hack.

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  • How to construct objects based on XML code?

    - by the_drow
    I have XML files that are representation of a portion of HTML code. Those XML files also have widget declarations. Example XML file: <message id="msg"> <p> <Widget name="foo" type="SomeComplexWidget" attribute="value"> inner text here, sets another attribute or inserts another widget to the tree if needed... </Widget> </p> </message> I have a main Widget class that all of my widgets inherit from. The question is how would I create it? Here are my options: Create a compile time tool that will parse the XML file and create the necessary code to bind the widgets to the needed objects. Advantages: No extra run-time overhead induced to the system. It's easy to bind setters. Disadvantages: Adds another step to the build chain. Hard to maintain as every widget in the system should be added to the parser. Use of macros to bind the widgets. Complex code Find a method to register all widgets into a factory automatically. Advantages: All of the binding is done completely automatically. Easier to maintain then option 1 as every new widget will only need to call a WidgetFactory method that registers it. Disadvantages: No idea how to bind setters without introducing a maintainability nightmare. Adds memory and run-time overhead. Complex code What do you think is better? Can you guys suggest a better solution?

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  • Memory allocation patterns in C++

    - by Mahatma
    I am confused about the memory allocation in C++ in terms of the memory areas such as Const data area, Stack, Heap, Freestore, Heap and Global/Static area. I would like to understand the memory allocation pattern in the following snippet. Can anyone help me to understand this. If there any thing more apart from the variable types mentioned in the example to help understand the concept better please alter the example. class FooBar { int n; //Stored in stack? public: int pubVar; //stored in stack? void foo(int param) //param stored in stack { int *pp = new int; //int is allocated on heap. n = param; static int nStat; //Stored in static area of memory int nLoc; //stored in stack? string str = "mystring"; //stored in stack? .. if(CONDITION) { static int nSIf; //stored in static area of memory int loopvar; //stored in stack .. } } } int main(int) { Foobar bar; //bar stored in stack? or a part of it? Foobar *pBar; //pBar is stored in stack pBar = new Foobar(); //the object is created in heap? What part of the object is stored on heap } EDIT: What confuses me is, if pBar = new Foobar(); stores the object on the heap, how come int nLoc; and int pubVar;, that are components of the object stored on stack? Sounds contradictory to me. Shouldn't the lifetime of pubvar and pBar be the same?

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  • Utility to indexing a directory?

    - by achacha
    Here is what I am trying to do: I have a directory (with sub-directories) with source files, I need to index them so I can find files fast (find as I type) so I can open them for compare/analysis. I don't want it to scan the content, just filename index for quick lookup. I do this when trying to determine if a class exists in a given tree (we maintain directory trees for each release which has a lot of files) and sometimes I want to quickly check files to see how something was implemented, etc. Most of these directories are on remote servers (sometimes on the other side of the world) or on a VM (which is on a server far away), so I only want to read the directory trees once, which is why running find every time is way too slow and doing 'find . foo.txt' and then searching that is a bit tedious. It's kind of like how "Find Resource" works in eclipse after it indexes all files, but it's a bit of a chore to import/remove directories into eclipse every time. Eclipse is also very slow when dealing with remote volumes. Any suggestions are appreciated :)

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  • Getting started with MIT Proto

    - by Charles
    MIT Proto lacks a basic getting started guide. How do I find a shell that accepts commands like (def foo...) and proto -n 1000 -l -m ...? http://groups.csail.mit.edu/stpg/proto.html I can run in my bash shell: ./proto -n 1000 -s 0.1 -T -l "(red (gradient (= (mid) 0)))" I can't figure out how to run e.g. channel.proto: (def channel (src dst width) (let* ((d (distance src dst)) (trail (<= (+ (gradient src) (gradient dst)) (+ d 0.01))) ;; float error ;; (trail (= (+ (gradient src) (gradient dst)) d)) ) (dilate trail width))) ;; To see a channel calculated from geometric primitives, run: ;; proto -n 1000 -l -m -s 0.5 "(blue (channel (sense 1) (sense 2) 10))" ;; click on a device and hit 't' to set up the source, then click on ;; another device and hit 'y' to designate the destination. At first ;; every device will be blue, but then it should clear and you should ;; see a thick blue path connecting the two devices you selected. Thanks! P.S. Somebody please tag this mit-proto. I can't.

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  • Batch Inserts And Prepared Query Error

    - by ircmaxell
    Ok, so I need to populate a MS Access database table with results from a MySQL query. That's not hard at all. I've got the program written to where it copies a template .mdb file to a temp name and opens it via odbc. No problem so far. I've noticed that Access does not support batch inserting (VALUES (foo, bar), (second, query), (third query)). So that means I need to execute one query per row (there are potentially hundreds of thousands of rows). Initial performance tests show a rate of around 900 inserts/sec into Access. With our largest data sets, that could mean execution times of minutes (Which isn't the end of the world, but obviously the faster the better). So, I tried testing a prepared statement. But I keep getting an error (Warning: odbc_execute() [function.odbc-execute]: SQL error: [Microsoft][ODBC Microsoft Access Driver]COUNT field incorrect , SQL state 07001 in SQLExecute in D:\....php on line 30). Here's the code I'm using (Line 30 is odbc_execute): $sql = 'INSERT INTO table ([field0], [field1], [field2], [field3], [field4], [field5]) VALUES (?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?)'; $stmt = odbc_prepare($conn, $sql); for ($i = 200001; $i < 300001; $i++) { $a = array($i, "Field1 $", "Field2 $i", "Field3 $i", "Field4 $i", $i); odbc_execute($stmt, $a); } So my question is two fold. First, is there any idea on why I'm getting that error (I've checked, and the number in the array matches the field list which matches the number of parameter ? markers)? And second, should I even bother with this or just use the straight INSERT statements? Like I said, time isn't critical, but if it's possible, I'd like to get that time as low as possible (Then again, I may be limited by disk throughput, since 900 operations/sec is high already)... Thanks

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  • Concatenate an each loop inside another

    - by Lothar
    I want to to concatenate the results of a jquery each loop inside of another but am not getting the results I expect. $.each(data, function () { counter++; var i = 0; var singlebar; var that = this; tableRow = '<tr>' + '<td>' + this.foo + '</td>' + $.each(this.bar, function(){ singlebar = '<td>' + that.bar[i].baz + '</td>'; tableRow + singlebar; }); '</tr>'; return tableRow; }); The portion inside the nested each does not get added to the string that is returned. I can console.log(singlebar) and get the expected results in the console but I cannot concatenate those results inside the primary each loop. I have also tried: $.each(this.bar, function(){ tableRow += '<td>' + that.bar[i].baz + '</td>'; }); Which also does not add the desired content. How do I iterate over this nested data and add it in the midst of the table that the primary each statement is building?

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  • Problem in homemade function to merge objects

    - by Eric
    I'm trying to make a function that merges arrays. The reason is, I have a function that supposed to get the settings of an entity, and merge them with the global defaults. //So for example, let's say globalOptions is something like this var globalOptions={opt1:'foo',opt2:'something'}; //and this is entityOptions var entityOptions={opt1:'foofoo',opt2:null}; The only difference is it has objects in objects and objects in objects in objects, so what I made was a function that loops through all objects, thinking I would later, easily be able to loop through it all. Please ignore the array thing. That is defected, but unneeded. function loopObj(obj, call, where, objcall, array) { if ($.isArray(obj) || $.isPlainObject(obj)) { for (i in obj) { if ($.isArray(obj)) { if (array) { loopObj(obj[i], call, where[where.length] = i, true); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } else { loopObj(obj[i], call, where+'['+i+']', false); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } } else { if (array) { loopObj(obj[i], call, where[where.length] = parseInt(i), true); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } else { loopObj(obj[i], call, where+'[\''+i+'\']', false); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } } } } else { return call(obj,where); } } Then I made this program to convert it: function mergeObj(a,b) { temp.retd = new Object(); loopObj(a,function (c,d) { if (c) { eval(d.replace('%par%','temp.retd'))=c; } else { eval(d.replace('%par%','temp.retd'))=eval(d.replace('%par%','b')); } },'%par%', true); return temp.retd(); } I get the error: Uncaught ReferenceError: Invalid left-hand side in assignment (anonymous function)base.js:51 loopObjbase.js:40 loopObjbase.js:31 mergeObjbase.js:46 (anonymous function)base.js:72 I know what it means, the eval returns an anonomys variable (copy of the variable), so I can't set it, only get it.

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  • Simply tag-based highlighting with Javascript

    - by nkd
    Hello, I got this code which works: <html> <head> <title>JS highlighting test</title> <script type="text/javascript"> function highlight() { var t = document.getElementById('highlight').innerHTML; t = t.replace(/(if|switch|for|while)\s*(\()/gi, "<b>$1</b>$2"); document.getElementById('highlight').innerHTML = t; } </script> </head> <body onload="javascript:highlight();"> <pre id="highlight"> 1 if(foo) { 2 bar(); 3 } 4 3 while(--baz) { 5 oof(); 6 } </pre> </body> </html> I would like to have it for all <pre> tags instead of just one with some specific and unique id as it works now. The best would be to have an combination of a specific tag with a specific id. Is it possible to extend the small JS function above to work this way (using some document.getElementsByTag(tag).getElementsById(id).innerHTML or something alike (I don't know what exactly suites the need) in a loop? I tried myself but with no real success. I need only as simple solution as possible, nothing really special. Thank you for your ideas. -- nkd

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  • How to update a number in html via javascript?

    - by Will Merydith
    After a voter votes, I want to update the count. <form class="vote-form" action=""> <div id="{{key}}" class="vote-count">{{votes}}</div> <input class="vote-button" type="submit" class="text-button" value="vote+"/> <input type="hidden" class="brag" name="brag" value="{{key}}"> <input type="hidden" class="voter" name="voter" value="{{current_user.fb_id}}"> </form> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $('.error').hide(); $(".vote-form").submit(function() { var inputs = $(this).find('input:hidden'); var key = $('input.brag', this).val(); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/bean", data: inputs, success: function() { //not sure how to do this, I want to increment {{votes}} $('#' + key).innerHTML = "foo"; } }); return false; }); }); </script>

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  • Generics Java and Shadowing of type parameters

    - by rubixibuc
    This code seems to work fine class Rule<T> { public <T>Rule(T t) { } public <T> void Foo(T t) { } } Does the method type parameter shadow the class type parameter? Also when you create an object does it use the type parameter of the class? example Rule<String> r = new Rule<String>(); Does this normally apply to the type parameter of the class, in the situation where they do not conflict? I mean when only the class has a type parameter, not the constructor, or does this look for a type parameter in the constructor? If they do conflict how does this change? SEE DISCUSSION BELOW if I have a function call x = <Type Parameter>method(); // this is a syntax error even inside the function or class ; I must place a this before it, why is this, and does everything still hold true. Why don't I need to prefix anything for the constructor call. Shouldn't Oracle fix this.

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  • sqlobject: No connection has been defined for this thread or process

    - by Claudiu
    I'm using sqlobject in Python. I connect to the database with conn = connectionForURI(connStr) conn.makeConnection() This succeeds, and I can do queries on the connection: g_conn = conn.getConnection() cur = g_conn.cursor() cur.execute(query) res = cur.fetchall() This works as intended. However, I also defined some classes, e.g: class User(SQLObject): class sqlmeta: table = "gui_user" username = StringCol(length=16, alternateID=True) password = StringCol(length=16) balance = FloatCol(default=0) When I try to do a query using the class: User.selectBy(username="foo") I get an exception: ... File "c:\python25\lib\site-packages\SQLObject-0.12.4-py2.5.egg\sqlobject\main.py", line 1371, in selectBy conn = connection or cls._connection File "c:\python25\lib\site-packages\SQLObject-0.12.4-py2.5.egg\sqlobject\dbconnection.py", line 837, in __get__ return self.getConnection() File "c:\python25\lib\site-packages\SQLObject-0.12.4-py2.5.egg\sqlobject\dbconnection.py", line 850, in getConnection "No connection has been defined for this thread " AttributeError: No connection has been defined for this thread or process How do I define a connection for a thread? I just realized I can pass in a connection keyword which I can give conn to to make it work, but how do I get it to work if I weren't to do that?

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  • mailto: anchor links unloading html5 video in Chrome

    - by Robin Pyon
    I have a very simple page with a <video> tag and an email anchor link: http://jsfiddle.net/6GquX/3/ Clicking the email link in Chrome (OS X 10.8 + Win7, 23.0.1271.97) invokes the beforeunloadchange event and causes the video to unload, which isn't the desired outcome. Curiously enough, if I let the video buffer a bit and then click the email link, the video keeps playing and doesn't unload. To my knowledge this only occurs in Chrome and I'm truly at a loss. Visiting any HTML5 video player site (videojs, flowplayer etc), starting a HTML5 video and then immediately simulating an email click with document.location.href = "mailto:[email protected]" in the dev console yields the same error. However, I'm inclined to think it's the way in which the video has been encoded as I'm unable to recreate the above with a video downloaded from YouTube's HTML5 player: http://jsfiddle.net/6GquX/4/ (source) 1. Is it possible that YouTube are encoding their videos in a particular way to combat this? 2. Are there any strategies / hacks I can employ to get around this?

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  • Entities used to serialize data have changed. How can the serialized data be upgraded for the new entities?

    - by i8abug
    Hi, I have a bunch of simple entity instances that I have serialized to a file. In the future, I know that the structure of these entities (ie, maybe I will rename Name to Header or something). The thing is, I don't want to lose the data that I have saved in all these old files. What is the proper way to either load the data from the old entities into new entities upgrade the old files so that they can be used with new entities Note: I think I am stuck with binary serialization, not xml serialization. Thanks in advance! Edit: So I have an answer for the case I have described. I can use a dataContractSerializer and do something like [DataMember("bar")] private string foo; and change the name in the code and keep the same name that was used for serialization. But what about the following additional cases: The original entity has new members which can be serialized Some serialized members that were in the original entity are removed Some members have actually changed in function (suppose that the original class had a FirstName and LastName member and it has been refactored to have only a FullName member which combines the two) To handle these, I need some sort of interpreter/translator deserialization class but I have no idea what I should use

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  • What is a good solution to log the deletion of a row in MySQL?

    - by hobodave
    Background I am currently logging deletion of rows from my tickets table at the application level. When a user deletes a ticket the following SQL is executed: INSERT INTO alert_log (user_id, priority, priorityName, timestamp, message) VALUES (9, 4, 'WARN', NOW(), "TICKET: David A. deleted ticket #6 from Foo"); Please do not offer schema suggestions for the alert_log table. Fields: user_id - User id of the logged in user performing the deletion priority - Always 4 priorityName - Always 'WARN' timestamp - Always NOW() message - Format: "[NAMESPACE]: [FullName] deleted ticket #[TicketId] from [CompanyName]" NAMESPACE - Always TICKET FullName - Full name of user identified by user_id above TicketId - Primary key ID of the ticket being deleted CompanyName - Ticket has a Company via tickets.company_id Situation/Questions Obviously this solution does not work if a ticket is deleted manually from the mysql command line client. However, now I need to. The issues I'm having are as follows: Should I use a PROCEDURE, FUNCTION, or TRIGGER? -- Analysis: TRIGGER - I don't think this will work because I can't pass parameters to it, and it would trigger when my application deleted the row too. PROCEDURE or FUNCTION - Not sure. Should I return the number of deleted rows? If so, that would require a FUNCTION right? How should I account for the absence of a logged in user? -- Possibilities: Using either a PROC or FUNC, require the invoker to pass in a valid user_id Require the user to pass in a string with the name Use the CURRENT_USER - meh Hard code the FullName to just be "Database Administrator" Could the name be an optional parameter? I'm rather green when it comes to sprocs. Assuming I went with the PROC/FUNC approach, is it possible to outright restrict regular DELETE calls to this table, yet still allow users to call this PROC/FUNC to do the deletion for them? Ideally the solution is usable by my application as well, so that my code is DRY.

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