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  • UPDATE query that fixes orphaned records

    - by Jed
    I have an Access database that has two tables that are related by PK/FK. Unfortunately, the database tables have allowed for duplicate/redundant records and has made the database a bit screwy. I am trying to figure out a SQL statement that will fix the problem. To better explain the problem and goal, I have created example tables to use as reference: You'll notice there are two tables, a Student table and a TestScore table where StudentID is the PK/FK. The Student table contains duplicate records for students John, Sally, Tommy, and Suzy. In other words the John's with StudentID's 1 and 5 are the same person, Sally 2 and 6 are the same person, and so on. The TestScore table relates test scores with a student. Ignoring how/why the Student table allowed duplicates, etc - The goal I'm trying to accomplish is to update the TestScore table so that it replaces the StudentID's that have been disabled with the corresponding enabled StudentID. So, all StudentID's = 1 (John) will be updated to 5; all StudentID's = 2 (Sally) will be updated to 6, and so on. Here's the resultant TestScore table that I'm shooting for (Notice there is no longer any reference to the disabled StudentID's 1-4): Can you think of a query (compatible with MS Access's JET Engine) that can accomplish this goal? Or, maybe, you can offer some tips/perspectives that will point me in the right direction. Thanks.

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  • Make winform run away from the mouse.

    - by JACK IN THE CRACK
    Okay so I'm trying to make a little gag program that will "run away" from the mouse. So, to get the mouse coordinates for the whole screen and not just the form control I had to create a little helper: static class MouseHelper { [DllImport("user32.dll")] [return: MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.Bool)] internal static extern bool GetCursorPos(ref Point pt); public static Point GetPosition() { Point w32Mouse = new Point(); GetCursorPos(ref w32Mouse); return w32Mouse; } } Now I thought I was going to use the MouseMove event... but that doesn't work for outside the form control either so I have an auto-enabled timer on a 10ms loop called timerMouseMove. public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } private bool CollisionCheck() { Point win32Mouse = MouseHelper.GetPosition(); if (win32Mouse.X <= Location.X || win32Mouse.X >= (Location.X + Width)) return false; if (win32Mouse.Y <= Location.Y || win32Mouse.Y >= (Location.Y + Height)) return false; return true; } private void timerMouseMove_Tick(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (CollisionCheck()) Location = new Point(Location.X + 1, Location.Y + 1); } } So this works out nicely, at least I have the collision checking working and whatnot. But now, how should I go about figuring which side of the form the mouse has collided with, so that I can update its location to move in the opposite direction the mouse collides with it? And such halp

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  • Issue while adding 'Cc' Field in 'TTMessageController' (Three 20)

    - by Deepika
    Hi All I am using the TTMessageController class for compose mail.There is only 'To' recepients Field in this class. I added the Cc Field in it. I have used this code: - (id)initWithNibName:(NSString *)nibNameOrNil bundle:(NSBundle *)nibBundleOrNil { if (self = [super initWithNibName:nibNameOrNil bundle:nibBundleOrNil]) { _fields = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects: [[[TTMessageRecipientField alloc] initWithTitle: TTLocalizedString(@"To:", @"") required: YES] autorelease], [[[TTMessageRecipientField alloc] initWithTitle: TTLocalizedString(@"Cc:", @"") required: YES] autorelease], [[[TTMessageSubjectField alloc] initWithTitle: TTLocalizedString(@"Subject:", @"") required: NO] autorelease], nil]; self.title = TTLocalizedString(@"New Message", @""); self.navigationItem.leftBarButtonItem = [[[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithTitle: TTLocalizedString(@"Cancel", @"") style: UIBarButtonItemStyleBordered target: self action: @selector(cancel)] autorelease]; self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = [[[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithTitle: TTLocalizedString(@"Send", @"") style: UIBarButtonItemStyleDone target: self action: @selector(send)] autorelease]; self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem.enabled = NO; } return self; } When I type anything in 'To' or 'Cc' field , two lists are appearing as search result:- One for 'To' field and second for 'Cc' Field. I want to show only one list according to 'To' or 'Cc' Field. Please suggest me any idea how can I resolve it or some other better way to implement my requirements? Thanks Deepika

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  • iPhone app rejection for using ICU (Unicode extensions)

    - by nickbit
    I received the following mail form Apple, considering my application: *Thank you for submitting your update to ??µ??es?a to the App Store. During our review of your application we found it is using private APIs, which is in violation of the iPhone Developer Program License Agreement section 3.3.1; "3.3.1 Applications may only use Documented APIs in the manner prescribed by Apple and must not use or call any private APIs." While your application has not been rejected, it would be appropriate to resolve this issue in your next update. The following non-public APIs are included in your application: u_isspace ubrk_close ubrk_current ubrk_first ubrk_next ubrk_open If you have defined methods in your source code with the same names as the above mentioned APIs, we suggest altering your method names so that they no longer collide with Apple's private APIs to avoid your application being flagged with future submissions. Please resolve this issue in your next update to ??µ??es?a. Sincerely, iPhone App Review Team* The functions mentioned in this mail are used in the ICU library (International Components for Unicode). Although my app is not rejected at this point, I don't feel very secure for the future of my app, because it relies heavily on the Unicode protocol and on this components in particular. Another thing is that I do not call these functions directly, but they are called by a custom 'sqlite' build (with FTS3 extensions enabled). Am I missing something here? Any suggestions?

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  • php sessions not working

    - by Elwhis
    Hey guys, I have a problem, tried to google some sollutions but without success. I am working with wamp2.0 - PHP 5.3, apache 2.2.11 but my sessions are not storing data. I have a page that accepts a parameter, which (simplified version) I wanna store in a session, so I when I come to www.example.com/home.php?sessid=db_session_id the script looks like: session_start(); $sessid = @$_GET['sessid']; if ($sessid) { $_SESSION['sessid'] = $sessid; } var_dump($_SESSION); and outputs: array(1) { [0]=> string(13) "db_session_id" } which is fine, but then, when I go to www.example.com/home.php (without the sessid parameter) the $_SESSION array is empty. I've event tried to comment the $_SESSION['sessid'] = $sessid; line before going to the page without the parameter, but still it didin't work. I've checked the session_id() output and the session id remains the same. Session settings from phpinfo() Session Support enabled Registered save handlers files user Registered serializer handlers php php_binary wddx Directive Local Value Master Value session.auto_start Off Off session.bug_compat_42 On On session.bug_compat_warn On On session.cache_expire 180 180 session.cache_limiter nocache nocache session.cookie_domain no value no value session.cookie_httponly Off Off session.cookie_lifetime 0 0 session.cookie_path / / session.cookie_secure Off Off session.entropy_file no value no value session.entropy_length 0 0 session.gc_divisor 1000 1000 session.gc_maxlifetime 1440 1440 session.gc_probability 1 1 session.hash_bits_per_character 5 5 session.hash_function 0 0 session.name PHPSESSID PHPSESSID session.referer_check no value no value session.save_handler files files session.save_path c:/wamp/tmp c:/wamp/tmp session.serialize_handler php php session.use_cookies On On session.use_only_cookies On On session.use_trans_sid 0 0 EDIT: $_SESSION and $_COOKIE var dumps right after session_start() Session: array(1) { ["sessid"]=> string(0) "" } Cookie: array(6) { ["ZONEuser"]=> string(10) "3974260089" ["PHPSESSID"]=> string(26) "qhii6udt0cghm4mqilctfk3t44" ["__utmz"]=> string(91) "1.1294313834.54.3.utmcsr=u.cz|utmccn=(referral)|utmcmd=referral|utmcct=/registered/packages" ["__utma"]=> string(48) "1.1931776919.1287349233.1294266869.1294313834.54" ["__utmc"]=> string(1) "1" ["__utmb"]=> string(18) "1.49.10.1294313834" }

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  • Wordpress XML-RPC call from Objective C: wp.newComment

    - by radesix
    I'm using Eric Czarny's Cocoa XML-RPC framework to make a call to the Wordpress API's. I've downloaded the sample app from Wordpress which gives some good examples. Unfortunately the good examples are for every call EXCEPT wp.newComment. I'm trying to post a comment using the code below and I keep getting an error with a localized description that tells me to check my input parameters. I've checked and rechecked and I don't understand what is wrong. Any ideas? NSDictionary *commentStructure = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys:[NSNumber numberWithInt:0], @"comment_parent", @"xmlrpc anonymous comments plugin now enabled", @"content", @"Test Author", @"author", @"http://iphone.someurl.com", @"author_url", @"[email protected]", @"author_email", nil]; NSArray *args = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:[NSNumber numberWithInt:0], @"", @"", [NSNumber numberWithInt:[self.parentFeedItem.postID intValue]], commentStructure, nil]; // the param(s) NSString *server = [[[NSString alloc] initWithString:@"http://www.someurl.com/xmlrpc.php"] autorelease]; // the server NSString *method = [[[NSString alloc] initWithString:@"wp.newComment"] autorelease]; // the method XMLRPCRequest *request = [[XMLRPCRequest alloc] initWithHost:[NSURL URLWithString:server]]; [request setMethod:method withObjects:args]; id response = [self executeXMLRPCRequest:request]; [request release]; if( [response isKindOfClass:[NSError class]] ) { //return nil; NSLog(@"There was a problem"); NSLog([response localizedDescription]); }

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  • Installing sfJqueryTreeDoctrineManagerPlugin to Symfony 1.4

    - by Christine Q.
    I have faced serious difficulties while installing sfJqueryTreeDoctrineManagerPlugin to Symfony 1.4 w/ Doctrine ORM. The installation directly from the server did not work out like with previous plugins that I have installed: C:\pathsymfony plugin:install sfJqueryTreeDoctrineManagerPlugin plugin installing plugin "sfJqueryTreeDoctrineManagerPlugin" No release available for plugin "sfJqueryTreeDoctrineManagerPlugin" This is why I needed to install the plugin by downloading the tgz-archive and install it manually like this: C:\pathsymfony plugin:install "C:\path\to\downloads\sfJqueryTreeDoctrineManagerPlugin-1.2.4.tgz" plugin installing plugin "C:\path\to\downloads\sfJqueryTreeDoctrineManagerPlugin-1.2.4.tgz" sfSymfonyPluginManager Installing web data for plugin I guess everything should be fine this far? After that I edited \apps\admin\config\settings.yml like instructed in the plugins readme file. all: .settings: enabled_modules: [default, sfJqueryTreeDoctrineManager] I also checked that the plugin was enabled in \config\ProjectConfiguration.class.php like this: $this->enablePlugins(array( // other plugins, 'sfJqueryTreeDoctrineManagerPlugin' )); I published assets and cleared cache: C:\pathsymfony plugin:publish-assets >> plugin Configuring plugin - sfJqueryTreeDoctrineManagerPlugin C:\pathsymfony cc Finally I added the required helper to the newly created apps\admin\modules\category\templates\indexSuccess.php <?php use_helper("sfJqueryTreeDoctrine"); echo get_nested_set_manager("Category", "name"); When loading the page I unfortunately get the following error: 500 | Internal Server Error | InvalidArgumentException Unable to load "sfJqueryTreeDoctrineHelper.php" helper in: SF_ROOT_DIR\apps\admin\modules/businessunitgroup/lib/helper, SF_ROOT_DIR\apps\admin\lib/helper, SF_ROOT_DIR\lib/helper, SF_SYMFONY_LIB_DIR/helper. The file sfJqueryTreeDoctrineHelper.php exists indeed but not in any previously mentioned folder. The file can only be found in the folder \plugins\sfJqueryTreeDoctrineManagerPlugin\lib\helper. I guess that Symfony doesn't look to that folder while finding helpers? I have tried to move the helper file to one of the previously mentioned folders. As expected, that changes the error. Now I get: 500 | Internal Server Error | sfConfigurationException The component does not exist: "sfJqueryTreeDoctrineManager", "manager". Unfortunately I can't figure out how should I be able to retrieve the "missing" component from the correct folder. I would be very grateful for any advice to help me forward. By the way, I am aware that there are other nested-set / tree plugins available for Symfony (like sfDoctrineTreePlugin and caPropelTreePlugin) but unluckily those are either uncompatible or too limited for my needs.

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  • Can't send an email using a google apps account with PHPMailer

    - by Chris
    I'm trying to simply send an email using my google apps account with php. I am able to send an email in a .net application using the port 587 host smtp.googlemail.com and SSL enabled. The username is my full email address. require_once('PHPMailer_v5.1\class.phpmailer.php'); try { $mail = new PHPMailer(); $mail->Mailer = 'smtp'; $mail->SMTPSecure = 'tls'; $mail->Host = $host; $mail->Port = 587; $mail->SMTPAuth = true; $mail->Username = $from; $mail->Password = $password; $mail->AddAddress($to, $to_name); $mail->From = $from; $mail->FromName = $from_name; $mail->Subject = $subject; $mail->MsgHTML($body); $mail->IsHTML(true); $mail->Send(); } catch (phpmailerException $e) { echo $e->errorMessage(); } catch (Exception $e) { echo $e->getMessage(); } Haven't been able to get this to work, but I've tried several different variations of this. $mail->SMTPSecure = 'ssl'; // Error: Could not connect to SMTP host. $mail->SMTPSecure = 'tls'; // Takes forever, then I get "this stream does not support SSL/crypto PHPMailer_v5.1\class.smtp.php" I don't care how, but I need to send an email using gmail here. It can be with this library or a different one.

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  • How close can I get C# to the performance of C++ for small intensive tasks?

    - by SLC
    I was thinking about the speed difference of C++ to C# being mostly about C# compiling to byte-code that is taken in by the JIT compiler (is that correct?) and all the checks C# does. I notice that it is possible to turn a lot of these functions off, both in the compile options, and possibly through using the unsafe keyword as unsafe code is not verifiable by the common language runtime. Therefore if you were to write a simple console application in both languages, that flipped an imaginary coin an infinite number of times and displayed the results to the screen every 10,000 or so iterations, how much speed difference would there be? I chose this because it's a very simple program. I'd like to test this but I don't know C++ or have the tools to compile it. This is my C# version though: static void Main(string[] args) { unsafe { Random rnd = new Random(); int heads = 0, tails = 0; while (true) { if (rnd.NextDouble() > 0.5) heads++; else tails++; if ((heads + tails) % 1000000 == 0) Console.WriteLine("Heads: {0} Tails: {1}", heads, tails); } } } Is the difference enough to warrant deliberately compiling sections of code "unsafe" or into DLLs that do not have some of the compile options like overflow checking enabled? Or does it go the other way, where it would be beneficial to compile sections in C++? I'm sure interop speed comes into play too then. To avoid subjectivity, I reiterate the specific parts of this question as: Does C# have a performance boost from using unsafe code? Do the compile options such as disabling overflow checking boost performance, and do they affect unsafe code? Would the program above be faster in C++ or negligably different? Is it worth compiling long intensive number-crunching tasks in a language such as C++ or using /unsafe for a bonus? Less subjectively, could I complete an intensive operation faster by doing this?

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  • Unable to change the system zone setting on Windows Server 2008 R2.

    - by Ganesh
    Hi All, I have an MFC application that tries to change the system zone setting on the Windows Server 2008 R2. I am using the SetTimeZoneInformation() API which fails with the error code 1314 .i.e. “A required privilege is not held by the client.”. Please refer the sample code below: TIME_ZONE_INFORMATION l_TimeZoneInfo; DWORD l_dwRetVal = 0; ZeroMemory(&l_TimeZoneInfo, sizeof(TIME_ZONE_INFORMATION)); l_TimeZoneInfo.Bias = -330; l_TimeZoneInfo.StandardBias = 0; l_TimeZoneInfo.StandardDate.wDay = 0; l_TimeZoneInfo.StandardDate.wDayOfWeek = 0; l_TimeZoneInfo.StandardDate.wHour = 0; l_TimeZoneInfo.StandardDate.wMilliseconds = 0; l_TimeZoneInfo.StandardDate.wMinute = 0; l_TimeZoneInfo.StandardDate.wMonth = 0; l_TimeZoneInfo.StandardDate.wSecond = 0; l_TimeZoneInfo.StandardDate.wYear = 0; CString l_csDaylightName = _T("India Daylight Time"); CString l_csStdName = _T("India Standard Time"); wcscpy(l_TimeZoneInfo.DaylightName,l_csDaylightName.GetBuffer(l_csDaylightName.GetLength())); wcscpy(l_TimeZoneInfo.StandardName,l_csStdName.GetBuffer(l_csStdName.GetLength())); ::SetLastError(0); if(0 == ::SetTimeZoneInformation(&l_TimeZoneInfo)) { l_dwRetVal = ::GetLastError(); CString l_csErr = _T(""); l_csErr.Format(_T("%d"),l_dwRetVal); } The MFC application has been developed using Visual Studio 2008 and is UAC aware i.e. the application has UAC enabled in its manifest file with the UAC execution level set to “HighestAvailable”. I have administrator privileges and when I run the application it still fails to change the system zone setting. Thanks in Advance, Ganesh

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  • Qt Socket blocking functions required to run in QThread where created. Any way past this?

    - by Alexander Kondratskiy
    The title is very cryptic, so here goes! I am writing a client that behaves in a very synchronous manner. Due to the design of the protocol and the server, everything has to happen sequentially (send request, wait for reply, service reply etc.), so I am using blocking sockets. Here is where Qt comes in. In my application I have a GUI thread, a command processing thread and a scripting engine thread. I create the QTcpSocket in the command processing thread, as part of my Client class. The Client class has various methods that boil down to writing to the socket, reading back a specific number of bytes, and returning a result. The problem comes when I try to directly call Client methods from the scripting engine thread. The Qt sockets randomly time out and when using a debug build of Qt, I get these warnings: QSocketNotifier: socket notifiers cannot be enabled from another thread QSocketNotifier: socket notifiers cannot be disabled from another thread Anytime I call these methods from the command processing thread (where Client was created), I do not get these problems. To simply phrase the situation: Calling blocking functions of QAbstractSocket, like waitForReadyRead(), from a thread other than the one where the socket was created (dynamically allocated), causes random behaviour and debug asserts/warnings. Anyone else experienced this? Ways around it? Thanks in advance.

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  • Call WCF Service Through Javascript, AJAX, or JQuery

    - by obautista
    I created a number of standard WCF Services (Service Contract and Host (svc) are in separate assemblies). I fired up a Web Site in IIS to host the Services (i.e., address is http://services:1000/wcfservices.svc). Then in my Web Site project I added the reference. I am able to call the services normally. I am needed to call some of the services client side. Not sure if I should be looking at articles calling WCF services through AJAX, JQuery, or JSON enabled WCF Services. Can anyone provide any thoughts or experience with configuring as such? Some of the changes I made was adding the following to the Operation Contract: [OperationContract] [WebInvoke(Method = "POST", UriTemplate = "SetFoo")] void SetFoo(string Id); Then this above the implementation of the interface: [AspNetCompatibilityRequirements(RequirementsMode = AspNetCompatibilityRequirementsMode.Allowed)] Then in the service webconfig I have this (parens are angle brackets): <serviceHostingEnvironment aspNetCompatibilityEnabled="true"> <baseAddressPrefixFilters> <add prefix="http://services:1000/wcfservices.svc/"/>> </baseAddressPrefixFilters> </serviceHostingEnvironment> <serviceHostingEnvironment multipleSiteBindingsEnabled="false" /> Then in the client side I attempted this: <asp:ScriptManagerProxy ID="ScriptManagerProxy1" runat="server"> <compositeScript> <Scripts> <asp:ScriptReference Path="http://Flixsit:1000/FlixsitWebServices.svc" /> </Scripts> </CompositeScript> </asp:ScriptManagerProxy> I am attempting to call the service like this in javascript: wcfservices.SetFoo(string Id); Nothing is working. If it is idea or a better solution to call JSON enable, JQuery, etc....I am willing to make any changes. Thanks for any suggestions/tips provided....

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  • How to use HSQLDB in Oracle query syntax mode?

    - by Jan Algermissen
    I am trying to use HSQLDB as an embedded database in a spring application (for testing). As the target production database is Oracle, I would like to use HSQLDBs Oracle syntax mode feature. In the Spring config I use <jdbc:embedded-database type="HSQL" id="dataSource"> </jdbc:embedded-database> <jdbc:initialize-database data-source="dataSource" enabled="true"> <jdbc:script location="classpath:schema.sql"/> </jdbc:initialize-database> And in schema.sql at the top I wrote: SET DATABASE SQL SYNTAX ORA TRUE; However, when running my test, I get the following error: java.sql.SQLException: Unexpected token: DATABASE in statement [SET DATABASE SQL SYNTAX ORA TRUE] Is this a syntax error or a permissions error or something entirely different? Thanks - also for any pointers that might lead to the answer. Given that HSQL is the Spring default for jdbc:embedded-database and given the target is Oracle, this scenario should actually be very common. However, I found nothing on the Web even touching the issue.

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  • EAGLContext, EAGLSharegroups, RenderBuffers, FrameBuffers, oh my!

    - by quixoto
    Hi all, I'm trying to wrap my head around the OpenGL object model on iPhone OS. I'm currently rendering into a few different UIViews (build on CAEAGLayers) on the screen. I currently have each of these as using separate EAGLContext, each of which has a color renderbuffer and a framebuffer. I'm rendering similar things in them, and I'd like to share textures between these instances to save memory overhead. My current understanding is that I could use the same setup (some number of contexts, each with a FBO/RBO) but if I spawn the later ones using the EAGLShareGroup of the first one, then I can simply use the texture names (GLuints) from the first one in the later ones. Is this accurate? If this is the case, I guess the followup question is: what's the benefit to having it be a "sharegroup"? Could I just reuse the same context, and attach multiple FBOs/RBOs to that context? I think I'm struggling with the abstraction layer of a sharegroup, which seems to share "objects" (textures and other named things) but not "state" (matrices, enabled/disabled states) which are owned by the context. What's the best way to think of this? Thanks for any enlightenment!

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  • C# client to Java web service

    - by tomislavg
    I have received wsdl file from outside company. I'm using VS2005 c#. With wsdl.exe I have created class containing methods and types for the given web service. To connect to the service outside company requires that certificate from the smart card is inputed in the header. I think i have achieved this with service.ClientCertificates.Add("Path to exported cert" - at least for now, after probably later i will take it from Certificate Store When service is called there are three steps that are taken and visible by the Fidller(Web Debugging Proxy)). service is called on the url http://test.company.com/webservice.wsdl service redirects the request to certificate server and pin needs to be inputed to get cookie for the server service is again redirected to url http://test.company.com/webservice.wsdl At point 1. I can see that my request send to the server contains .... but at point 3. i can not see request` just a empty string. The exception is thrown Msg: Possible SOAP version mismatch: Envelope namespace http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/wsdl/ was unexpected. Expecting http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/. Does somebody have an example how to connect to java web service with certificate and AlowRedirect enabled for the web service? Any ideas what i am doing wrong are more that welcome.

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  • Display: Custom Control

    - by pipelinecache
    Hi folks, I've made a simple custom control: base.Style[HtmlTextWriterStyle.Position] = "absolute"; if (this.Expanded) // If the Calendar is expanded. this.Style[HtmlTextWriterStyle.Display] = "block"; else this.Style[HtmlTextWriterStyle.Display] = "none"; //create the containing table Panel pnl = new Panel(); pnl.ID = "pnl_" + this.ClientID; pnl.Enabled = true; SherlockIIITextBox txtCalendar = new SherlockIIITextBox(); txtCalendar.ID = "Cal_" + this.ClientID; pnl.Controls.Add(txtCalendar); ImageButton imgButton = new ImageButton(); imgButton.ImageUrl = ""; imgButton.ID = "img_" + this.ClientID; imgButton.BorderStyle = BorderStyle.NotSet; imgButton.OnClientClick = "o = document.getElementById('" + this.ClientID + "');if (o.style.display=='none'){o.style.display='block';}else{o.style.display='none';}"; pnl.Controls.Add(imgButton); pnl.RenderControl(writer); When I click the ImageButton it should render the calendar. But when I click the ImageButton nothing happens. Anyone got an idea?

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  • Odd DOM Problem with Firefox

    - by Bob
    Hello. I'm experiencing an odd problem when trying to navigate through a table's rows and cells in a while loop using javascript. I'm using Firefox 3.5.7 on Win7 with Firebug enabled. I have this markup: <table> <tbody> <tr id='firstRow'><td>a</td><td>b</td><td>c</td></tr> <tr><td>a</td><td>b</td><td>c</td></tr> <tr><td>a</td><td>b</td><td>c</td></tr> </tbody> </table> And this javascript: var row = document.getElementById('firstRow'); console.log(row); // Row call 1 while (row) { console.log(row); // Row call 2 row = row.nextSibling; } The problem I'm having is that on the line commented "Row call 1", Firebug is outputting <tr id='firstRow'> as expected. However, in the while loop, Firebug is giving me <tr id='firstRow'> <TextNode textContent="\n"> It is giving me different output for the exact same row, even immediately after the while loop begins executing and nothing else touched the row. For subsequent rows, it of course does not have id='firstRow' as an attribute. The bigger problem this is giving me is that if I'm in the while loop, and I want to access a particular cell of the current row using row.cells[0], Firebug will give me an error that row.cells is undefined. I want to know if someone could shed some light on this situation I am experiencing.

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  • Flex AS3: ComboBox set visible to false doesn't hide

    - by jolierouge
    I have a combobox in a view that receives information about application state changes, and then is supposed to show or hide it's children based on the whole application state. It receives state change messages, it traces the correct values, it does what it's supposed to do, however, it just doesn't seem to work. Essentially, all it needs to do is hide a combobox during one state, and show it again during another state. Here is the code: public function updateState(event:* = null):void { trace("Project Panel Updating State"); switch(ApplicationData.getSelf().currentState) { case 'login': this.visible = false; break; case 'grid': this.visible = true; listProjects.includeInLayout = false; listProjects.visible = false; trace("ListProjects: " + listProjects.visible); listLang.visible = true; break; default: break; } } Here is the MXML: <mx:HBox> <mx:Button id="btnLoad" x="422" y="84" label="Load" enabled="true" click="loadProject();"/> <mx:ComboBox id="listProjects" x="652" y="85" editable="true" change="listChange()" color="#050CA8" fontFamily="Arial" /> <mx:Label x="480" y="86" text="Language:" id="label3" fontFamily="Arial" /> <mx:ComboBox id="listLang" x="537" y="84" editable="true" dataProvider="{langList}" color="#050CA8" fontFamily="Arial" width="107" change="listLangChange(event)"/> <mx:CheckBox x="830" y="84" label="Languages in English" id="langCheckbox" click='toggleLang()'/> </mx:HBox>

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  • Modifying my website to allow anonymous comments

    - by David
    I write the code for my own website as an educational/fun exercise. Right now part of the website is a blog (like every other site out there :-/) which supports the usual basic blog features, including commenting on posts. But I only have comments enabled for logged-in users; I want to alter the code to allow anonymous comments - that is, I want to allow people to post comments without first creating a user account on my site, although there will still be some sort of authentication involved to prevent spam. Question: what information should I save for anonymous comments? I'm thinking at least display name and email address (for displaying a Gravatar), and probably website URL because I eventually want to accept OpenID as well, but would anything else make sense? Other question: how should I modify the database to store this information? The schema I have for the comment table is currently comment_id smallint(5) // The unique comment ID post_id smallint(5) // The ID of the post the comment was made on user_id smallint(5) // The ID of the user account who made the comment comment_subject varchar(128) comment_date timestamp comment_text text Should I add additional fields for name, email address, etc. to the comment table? (seems like a bad idea) Create a new "anonymous users" table? (and if so, how to keep anonymous user ids from conflicting with regular user ids) Or create fake user accounts for anonymous users in my existing users table? Part of what's making this tricky is that if someone tries to post an anonymous comment using an email address (or OpenID) that's already associated with an account on my site, I'd like to catch that and prompt them to log in.

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  • Squid handling of concurrent cache misses

    - by Oliver H-H
    We're using a Squid cache to off-load traffic from our web servers, ie. it's setup as a reverse-proxy responding to inbound requests before they hit our web servers. When we get blitzed with concurrent requests for the same request that's not in the cache, Squid proxies all the requests through to our web ("origin") servers. For us, this behavior isn't ideal: our origin servers gets bogged down trying to fulfill N identical requests concurrently. Instead, we'd like the first request to proxy through to the origin server, the rest of the requests to queue at the Squid layer, and then all be fulfilled by Squid when the origin server has responded to that first request. Does anyone know how to configure Squid to do this? We've read through the documentation multiple times and thoroughly web-searched the topic, but can't figure out how to do it. We use Akamai too and, interestingly, this is its default behavior. (However, Akamai has so many nodes that we still see lots of concurrent requests in certain traffic spike scenarios, even with Akamai's super-node feature enabled.) This behavior is clearly configurable for some other caches, eg. the Ehcache documentation offers the option "Concurrent Cache Misses: A cache miss will cause the filter chain, upstream of the caching filter to be processed. To avoid threads requesting the same key to do useless duplicate work, these threads block behind the first thread." Some folks call this behavior a "blocking cache," since the subsequent concurrent requests block behind the first request until it's fulfilled or timed-out. Thx for looking over my noob question! Oliver

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  • Bizarre Javascript JSON undefined error

    - by Nate C-K
    I'm experiencing an error that I haven't been able to find any mention of anywhere. I'm developing an AJAX-enabled WCF web service with ASP.NET. In my ASP.NET master page's , I included the json.js file, copied fresh from json.org. When I run the page, it fails (VS 2008 catches a Javascript exception) on the first line of code in json.js (following lots of comments), which is: JSON = JSON || {}; The error says that JSON is undefined: Microsoft JScript runtime error: 'JSON' is undefined Well, duh! That's why the line is testing if it's defined and if so setting it to an empty object! It is supposed to be undefined, right? Last I heard it was not an error in Javascript to perform such an operation on an undefined variable. Can anyone give me a clue as to what's going on here? I suspect it's something gone wrong elsewhere that's somehow causing this problem. I don't have deep experience with either Javascript or ASP.NET so it might be that I'm missing some common gotcha in the setup.

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  • Uncaught TypeError: Object [object Object] has no method 'onAdded'

    - by user3604227
    I am using ExtJS4 with Java servlets. I am following the MVC architecture for ExtJS. I am trying a simple example of displaying a border layout but it doesnt work and I get the following error in ext-all.js in the javascript console: Uncaught TypeError: Object [object Object] has no method 'onAdded' Here is my code: app.js Ext.Loader.setConfig({ enabled : true }); Ext.application({ name : 'IN', appFolder : 'app', controllers : [ 'Items' ], launch : function() { console.log('in LAUNCH-appjs'); Ext.create('Ext.container.Viewport', { items : [ { xtype : 'borderlyt' } ] }); } }); Items.js (controller) Ext.define('IN.controller.Items', { extend : 'Ext.app.Controller', views : [ 'item.Border' ], init : function() { this.control({ 'viewport > panel' : { render : this.onPanelRendered } }); }, onPanelRendered : function() { console.log('The panel was rendered'); } }); Border.js (view) Ext.define('IN.view.item.Border',{extend : 'Ext.layout.container.Border', alias : 'widget.borderlyt', title : 'Border layout' , autoShow : true, renderTo : Ext.getBody(), defaults : { split : true, layout : 'border', autoScroll : true, height : 800, width : 500 }, items : [ { region : 'north', html : "Header here..", id : 'mainHeader' }, { region : 'west', width : 140, html : "Its West..", }, { region : 'south', html : "This is my temp footer content", height : 30, margins : '0 5 5 5', bodyPadding : 2, id : 'mainFooter' }, { id : 'mainContent', collapsible : false, region : 'center', margins : '5', border : true, } ] }); The folder structure for the Webcontent is as follows: WebContent app controller Items.js model store view item Border.js ext_js resources src ext_all.js index.html app.js Can someone help me resolve this error? Thanks in advance

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  • Devise routes to only use custom sign in page

    - by eblume
    I am trying to learn Devise and seem to have hit a problem that is nearly the same as many, many questions here on SO but just slightly different enough that I am not getting much traction following those questions' threads. I have a very simple application. Users can sign in and sign out (and also the devise 'forgot password' stuff is enabled - I am not concerned about it at this time) and that is it. They can't register, they can't edit their profile other than to change their password, they can't do anything except sign in and sign out. (Account creation will, for now, be handled manually at the command line.) I would vastly prefer that the only page that users can log in from was "/" (root_path). I already have it working where you can log in from "/", and that is great. The problem I am having is that if you type in your user/password combination incorrectly from the root_path login page, it automatically sends you to the Devise sign-in page to continue trying to sign in. How can I make Devise redirect to root_path on sign-in failure? Here are my routes - they are probably not optimal or correctly configured and I would appreciate pointers on fixing them: root to: "core_pages#splash" devise_for :users, skip: [:sessions] as :user do # get 'signin' => 'devise/sessions#new', as: :new_user_session post 'signin' => 'devise/sessions#create', as: :user_session delete 'signout' => 'devise/sessions#destroy', as: :destroy_user_session, via: Devise.mappings[:user].sign_out_via end match '/home' => 'core_pages#home' Note the commented-out 'get signin' line. The system works without this line but, surprisingly (to me), "GET /signin" results in a HTTP 400 (OK) response and renders the Devise login template. I would prefer it return some sort of 'invalid request' or just silently redirect the user to root_path. Running rake routes on these routes gives: root / core_pages#splash user_password POST /users/password(.:format) devise/passwords#create new_user_password GET /users/password/new(.:format) devise/passwords#new edit_user_password GET /users/password/edit(.:format) devise/passwords#edit PUT /users/password(.:format) devise/passwords#update user_session POST /signin(.:format) devise/sessions#create destroy_user_session DELETE /signout(.:format) devise/sessions#destroy home /home(.:format) core_pages#home Thanks!

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  • ASP.net drop down dynamically styling and then remembering the styles on aborted submit

    - by peacedog
    So, I've got an ASP drop down list (this is .net 2.0). I'm binding it with data. Basically, when the page loads and it's not a post back we'll fetch record data, bind all the drop downs, and set them to their appropriate values (strictly speaking we: initialize page with basic set of data from DB, bind drop downs from DB, fetch actual record data from DB, set drown downs to appropriate settings at this time). What I want to do is selectively style the list options. So the database returns 3 items: ID, Text, and a flag indicating whether I the record is "active" (and I'll style appropriately). It's easy enough to do and I've done it. My problem is what happens when a form submission is halted. We have slightly extended the Page class and created an AddError() method, which will create a list of errors from failed business rule checks and then display them in a ValidationSummary. It works something like this, in the submit button's click event: CheckBizRules(); if(Page.IsValid) { SaveData(); } If any business rule check fails, the Page will not be valid. The problem is, when the page re-renders (viewsate is enabled, but no data is rebound) my beautiful conditional styling is now sadly gone, off to live in the land of the missing socks. I need to preserve it. I was hoping to avoid another DB call here (e.g. getting the list data back from the DB again if the page isn't valid, just for purposes of re-styling the list). But it's not the end of the world if that's my course of action. I was hoping someone might have an alternative suggestion. I couldn't think of how to phrase this question better, if anyone has any suggestions or needs clarification don't hesitate to get it, by force if need be. ;)

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  • ASP.NET application - Error when trying to connect to a SQL Server 2008 instance

    - by Pablo Dami
    Hi everyone! Despite that I’m a regular reader of this great forum, this is my first post on it. I believe that this community can help me with the following problem that I have. I’m trying to publish an ASP.NET website over an IIS 6.0 (Windows 2003 Server), and I have some troubles trying to connect to the database. Curiously, I have installed another ASP.NET website into the same IIS 6.0 with the same properties and security parameters and can connect without problems with the same database. The application that works fine is almost the same that the one that can’t connect with SQL Server (actually is the same but with several modifications). I’ll enumarate some information related to the problem: S.O: Windows 2003 Server SQL Server Engine: SQL Server 2008 SQL Server accept remote connections? Yes. ASP.NET version: 2.0.50727 The connections via TCP/IP are enabled to the SQL Server instance? Yes. The corresponding user that I have in the connection string, actually exists into the database with the “owner” role? Yes. ORM Tool used: nHibernate I get the following error when I try to run the aplication into the browser: Error while establishing a connection to the server. When connecting to SQL Server 2005, this failure may occur because the default settings SQL Server does not allow remote connections. (provider: Shared Memory Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server) In order to isolate the problem, I made some test. For example, using the web app that works fine I can connect without any problema with the database that uses the web app that can’t. With this evidence I concluded that the problem is within the web app and not into the SQL Server instance. I also google it my problem but sadly I can't find nothing usefull to solve it. If someone can help me I’ll appreciate that. Thank you so much for your time!

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