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  • what is a RoR best practice? match by id or different column?

    - by Omnipresent
    I had a terrible morning. Lots of emails floating around about why things don't work. Upon investigating I found that there is a data mismatch which is causing errors. Scenario Customer and Address are two tables. Customer contains class Customer < ActiveRecord::Base has_one :address, :foreign_key => "id" end Address Contains class Address < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :customer, :foreign_key => "cid" end So the two tables match on id which is the default and that column is auto incremented. Problem on the edit Page we have some code like this. params[:line1] = @customer.first.address.line1 It fails because no matching record is found for a customer in the address table. I don't know why this is happening. It seems that over time a lot of records did not get added to Address table. Now problem is that when a new Customer is added (say with id 500) the Address will be added with some other id (say 425) ...now you don't know which address belongs to which customer. Question Being new to Rails, I am asking whether it is always considered good to create an extra column for joining of the records, rather than depending on the column that is automatically incremented? If I had a seperate column in Address table where I would manually insert the recently added customers id then this issue would not have come up.

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  • rename an html page according to an image within it

    - by Jake
    Hi, firstly I'll give some background regarding the situation. I have a website containing approximately 56k pages each page contain a mapped sketch of a machine part. this machine part is made out of smaller parts which are outlined in the image and hold a certain number. when you hover over the numbers a box with the part item code shows up. I order parts according to this item codes but recently a lot of the items codes have changed, therefore I am looking for a solution. now I own a database with data on all the 56k parts and I want to link the relevant webpage to each record according to the name of the part(a column in my database), the problem is that the webpages names has no logic name that could connect with the part name in any way but the image that is displayed in the page has the exact name of the part. I want to rename all the html files I has according to the Images displayed within them. how can I achieve that without renaming all the 56k pages manually? additionally how can I add the links to all the 56k pages automatically to my database after all the above is done? Thank you for your patience I know it was long.

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  • wpf 4 datagrid not highlighting row.

    - by SteveCav
    I have a shiny new wpf 4 datagrid, and no matter what I do I can't make the row highlight when the user clicks on a cell. It works on the empty "new record" row on the bottom, but not on rows with data (yes I've tried with and without readonly). My XAML is: <DataGrid AutoGenerateColumns="False" Background="Beige" Height="353" SelectionUnit="FullRow" SelectionMode="Single" AlternatingRowBackground="lightcyan" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Name="dgJobs" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="1160"> <DataGrid.Columns> <DataGridTextColumn Header="Job ID" Width="80" Binding="{Binding JobID}" IsReadOnly="True"></DataGridTextColumn> <DataGridTextColumn Header="Site" Width="SizeToCells" Binding="{Binding AssetName}" IsReadOnly="True"></DataGridTextColumn> <DataGridTextColumn Header="Category" Width="SizeToCells" Binding="{Binding CategoryName}" IsReadOnly="True"></DataGridTextColumn> <DataGridTextColumn Header="Status" Width="SizeToCells" Binding="{Binding JobStatusDesc}" IsReadOnly="True"></DataGridTextColumn> <DataGridTextColumn Header="Reason" Width="SizeToCells" Binding="{Binding Reason}" IsReadOnly="True"></DataGridTextColumn> </DataGrid.Columns> </DataGrid> Nothing too fancy, it's quite plain really. I had themes enabled because I'm using a Fluent Ribbon elsewhere and it forces you to, but I tried turning that off and it had no effect. I have a 3.5 form in another app which is also very plain and you can highlight the row on it. Why on earth isn't this one working?

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  • injection attack (I thought I was protected!) <?php /**/eval(base64_decode( everywhere

    - by Cyprus106
    I've got a fully custom PHP site with a lot of database calls. I just got injection hacked. This little chunk of code below showed up in dozens of my PHP pages. <?php /**/ eval(base64_decode(big string of code.... I've been pretty careful about my SQL calls and such; they're all in this format: $query = sprintf("UPDATE Sales SET `Shipped`='1', `Tracking_Number`='%s' WHERE ID='%s' LIMIT 1 ;", mysql_real_escape_string($trackNo), mysql_real_escape_string($id)); $result = mysql_query($query); mysql_close(); For the record, I rarely use mysql_close() at the end though. That just happened to be the code I grabbed. I can't think of any places where I don't use mysql_real_escape_string(), (although I'm sure there's probably a couple. I'll be grepping soon to find out) There's also no places where users can put in custom HTML or anything. In fact, most of the user-accessible pages, if they use SQL calls at all, are almost inevitably "SELECT * FROM" pages that use a GET or POST, depending. Obviously I need to beef up my security, but I've never had an attack like this and I'm not positive what I should do. I've decided to put limits on all my inputs and go through looking to see if i missed a mysql_real_escape_string somewhere... Anybody else have any suggestions? Also... what does this type of code do? Why is it there?

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  • How to manage data access / preloading efficiently using web services in C# ?

    - by Amadeus45
    Hello all, Ok, this is very "generic" question. We currently have a SQL Server database for which we need to develop an application in ASP.NET with will contain all the business logic in C# Web Services. The thing is that, architecturally speaking, I'm not sure how to design the web service and the data management. There are many things to consider : We need have very rapid access to data. Right now, we have over a million "sales" and "purchases" record from which we need to often calculate and load the current stock for a given day according to a serie of parameter. I'm not sure how we should preload the data and keep the data in the Web Service. Doing a stock calculation within a SQL query will be very lengthy. They currently have a stock calculation application that preloads all sales and purchases for the day and afterwards calculate the stock on the code-side. We want to develop powerful reporting tools. We want to implement a "pivot table" but not sure how to implement it and have good performances. For the reasons above, I'm not sure how to design the data model. Anybody can give me any guidelines on how to start, or from their personnal experiences (what have you done in the past ?) I'm not sure if it's possible to make a bounty even though the question is new (I'd put 300 rep on it, since I really need something). If you know how, let me know. Thanks

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  • need help fixing unique key in rails. rails is adding id causing duplicate key

    - by railsnew
    I need some help in fixing the below issue. I had transaction blocks in my rails code like below: @sqlcontact = "INSERT INTO contacts (id,\"cid\", \"hphone\", mphone, provider, cemail, email, sms , mail, phone) VALUES ('"+@id1+"','" + @id1 + "', '"+ params[:hphone] + "', '"+params[:mphone]+ "', '" + params[:provider] + "', '" + params[:cemail]+ "', '" + @varemail+ "', '"+@varsms+ "', '"+ @varmail+"', '"+@varphone+"')" my app was deployed to heroku so I was advised by them to remove transaction blocks. So I changed the above to: @cont = Contact.new(:id => @id1, :cid => @id1, :hphone => params[:hphone], :mphone => params[:mphone], :provider => params[:provider], :cemail => params[:cemail], :email => @varemail, :sms => @varsms, :mail => @varmail, :phone => @varphone) @cont.save My app also already had data stored. Now the problem is that when I try to save a record ...I keep getting the error: duplicate key value violates unique constraint "contacts_pkey" The error also shows the sql query trying to insert data ...however, in that sql query i Do not see id value. As you can see from my code that I am passing the id. then why is rails not accepting it? does it always include its own sequential id? can I not overwrite the default rails magic? and if it does that...does it not look at data that is already in the DB?? I am really stuck here. What should I do? should I just go back to my transaction block

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  • PHP 5.2 Function needed for GENERIC sorting FOLLOWUP

    - by donbriggs
    OK, you guys gave me a great solution for sorting a recordset array last Friday. (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2884325/php-5-2-function-needed-for-generic-sorting-of-a-recordset-array) But now when I implement it, I end up with an extra element in the recordset array. I won't wast space reposting the same info, as the link is above. But the bottom line is that when I sort an array of 5 records, the resulting array has 6 records. The last element in the array is not a record array, but rather just a element containing an integer value of 1. I presume that it is somehow getting the output value of the "strnatcasecmp" function, but I have no idea how it is happening. Here is the function that you fine folks provided last week: function getSortCommand($field, $sortfunc) { return create_function('$var1, $var2', 'return '.$sortfunc.'($var1["'.$field.'"], $var2["' .$field .'"]);'); } And here is the line I am calling to sort the array: $trek[] = usort($trek, getSortCommand('name', 'strnatcasecmp')); This produces the following output, with an extra element tacked on to the end. Array ( [0] = Array ( [name] = Kirk [shirt] = Gold [assign] = Bridge ) [1] => Array ( [name] => McCoy [shirt] => Blue [assign] => Sick Bay ) [2] => Array ( [name] => Scotty [shirt] => Red [assign] => Engineering ) [3] => Array ( [name] => Spock [shirt] => Blue [assign] => Bridge ) [4] => Array ( [name] => Uhura [shirt] => Red [assign] => Bridge ) [5] => 1 )

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  • How to solve this simple PHP forloop issue?

    - by Londonbroil Wellington
    Here is the content of my flat file database: Jacob | Little | 22 | Male | Web Developer * Adam | Johnson | 45 | Male | President * Here is my php code: <?php $fopen = fopen('db.txt', 'r'); if (!$fopen) { echo 'File not found'; } $fread = fread($fopen, filesize('db.txt')); $records = explode('|', $fread); ?> <table border="1" width="100%"> <tr> <thead> <th>First Name</th> <th>Last Name</th> <th>Age</th> <th>Sex</th> <th>Occupation</th> </thead> </tr> <?php $rows = explode('*', $fread); for($i = 0; $i < count($rows) - 1; $i++) { echo '<tr>'; echo '<td>'.$records[0].'</td>'; echo '<td>'.$records[1].'</td>'; echo '<td>'.$records[2].'</td>'; echo '<td>'.$records[3].'</td>'; echo '<td>'.$records[4].'</td>'; echo '</tr>'; } fclose($fopen); ?> </table> Problem is I am getting the output of the first record repeated twice instead of 2 records one for Jacob and one for Adam. How to fix this?

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  • How to compare 2 lists and merge them in Python/MySQL?

    - by NJTechGuy
    I want to merge data. Following are my MySQL tables. I want to use Python to traverse though a list of both Lists (one with dupe = 'x' and other with null dupes). For instance : a b c d e f key dupe -------------------- 1 d c f k l 1 x 2 g h j 1 3 i h u u 2 4 u r t 2 x From the above sample table, the desired output is : a b c d e f key dupe -------------------- 2 g c h k j 1 3 i r h u u 2 What I have so far : import string, os, sys import MySQLdb from EncryptedFile import EncryptedFile enc = EncryptedFile( os.getenv("HOME") + '/.py-encrypted-file') user = enc.getValue("user") pw = enc.getValue("pw") db = MySQLdb.connect(host="127.0.0.1", user=user, passwd=pw,db=user) cursor = db.cursor() cursor2 = db.cursor() cursor.execute("select * from delThisTable where dupe is null") cursor2.execute("select * from delThisTable where dupe is not null") result = cursor.fetchall() result2 = cursor2.fetchall() for cursorFieldname in cursor.description: for cursorFieldname2 in cursor2.description: if cursorFieldname[0] == cursorFieldname2[0]: ### How do I compare the record with same key value and update the original row null field value with the non-null value from the duplicate? Please fill this void... cursor.close() cursor2.close() db.close() Thanks guys!

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  • [C++] Multiple inclusion in multiple files

    - by Amumu
    Hi everyone, I am making a small game. In BattleRecord.h: #ifndef _CHARACTER_H_ #define _CHARACTER_H_ #include "Character.h" #endif class BattleRecord { public: Character Attacker; Character Defender; Status status; int DamageDealt; int GoldEarned; int ExpGained; }; In Character.h: #ifndef _EQUIPMENT_H_ #define _EQUIPMENT_H_ #include "Equipment.h" #endif class BattleRecord; class Character { BattleRecord AttackEnemy(Character &Enemy); } In BattleRecord.h: #ifndef _CHARACTER_H_ #define _CHARACTEr_H_ #include "Character.h" #endif #ifndef _BATLE_RECORD_H_ #define _BATLE_RECORD_H_ #include "BattleRecord.h" #endif class GUI { public: //GUI Methods, and two of these: void ViewStats(Character &Player); void Report(BattleRecord Record) } The problem here is, my Character.h and BattleRecord.h need to include each other, and this definitely will cause multiple redefinition problem. Therefore, I used forward declaration in Character.h by adding: class BattleRecord; The problem is sovled. But then, the GUI.h needs BattleRecord.h again for reporting the battle, so I have to include BattleRecord.h into the GUI.h. I also have to include the Character.h in order to pass into the ViewStat function. I got error and stuck with this up to this piont.

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  • How do I use price data in one table for a calculation that is stored in another table?

    - by shane
    I'm still leanring PHP/MySQL but have learned quite a bit thanks to codies on StackOverflow. I'm trying to setup a sort of room reservations system using two tables: SETUP: Room price table: Has, prices for a type room a client may want to rent as well as the dates (day of week) they wish to use it. Pricing varies based on day of the week and per room. I've setup a different table for each room type as each room type carries different pricing for each day of the week. So, There is an Alpha room table, Bravo room, etc. Within Alpha table are headers for the days of the week with pricing pre-entered into the rows. Client info table: Has the name, address, date of room use, etc data for the specific client. EXAMPLE: Alpha-room price table: Sun = $100; Mon = $200; Tue=$300 and so on. Bravo-room price table: Sun = $100; Mon = $200; Tue=$300 and so on. Client data table: ClientName; date-of-room-use; address; day_subtotal; grand_total. QUESTION: I'm trying to find PHP code that will: look at the date of room use in the client data table, look up the associated cost for that date in the specific room pricing table, record that unit cost in the day subtotal of the client data table and sum a grand total in the grand total row of the client data table (assuming the room may be used more than one day by the customer). I know there's something to do with join but I'm finding it difficult to grasp the concept and, if someone can demonstrate using this example, I think I will have a better understanding of how to work this sort of transaction. Thank you ALL in advance for your suggestions or alternatvie approaches.

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  • How to prevent PHP variables from being arrays?

    - by MJB
    I think that (the title) is the problem I am having. I set up a MySQL connection, I read an XML file, and then I insert those values into a table by looping through the elements. The problem is, instead of inserting only 1 record, sometimes I insert 2 or 3 or 4. It seems to depend on the previous values I have read. I think I am reinitializing the variables, but I guess I am missing something -- hopefully something simple. Here is my code. I originally had about 20 columns, but I shortened the included version to make it easier to read. $ctr = 0; $sql = "insert into csd (id,type,nickname,hostname,username,password) ". "values (?,?,?,?,?,?)"; $cur = $db->prepare($sql); for ($ctr = 0; $ctr < $expected_count; $ctr++) { list ( $lbl, $type, $nickname, $hostname, $username, $password) = ""; $bind_vars = array(); $lbl = "csd_{$ctr}"; $type = $ref->itm->csds->$lbl->type; $nickname = $ref->itm->csds->$lbl->nickname; $hostname = $ref->itm->csds->$lbl->hostname; $username = $ref->itm->csds->$lbl->username; $password = $ref->itm->csds->$lbl->password; $bind_vars = array($id,$type,$nickname,$hostname,$username,$password); $res = $db->execute($cur, $bind_vars); # this is a separate function which works, but which only # does SELECTS and cannot be the problem. I include it because I # want to count the total rows. printf ("%d CSDs on that ITEM now.\n", CountCSDs($id_to_sync)); } P.S. I also tagged this SimpleXML because that is how I am reading the file, though that code is not included above. It looks like this: $Ref = simplexml_load_file($file);

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  • Weird MySQL behavior, seems like a SQL bug

    - by Daniel Magliola
    I'm getting a very strange behavior in MySQL, which looks like some kind of weird bug. I know it's common to blame the tried and tested tool for one's mistakes, but I've been going around this for a while. I have 2 tables, I, with 2797 records, and C, with 1429. C references I. I want to delete all records in I that are not used by C, so i'm doing: select * from i where id not in (select id_i from c); That returns 0 records, which, given the record counts in each table, is physically impossible. I'm also pretty sure that the query is right, since it's the same type of query i've been using for the last 2 hours to clean up other tables with orphaned records. To make things even weirder... select * from i where id in (select id_i from c); DOES work, and brings me the 1297 records that I do NOT want to delete. So, IN works, but NOT IN doesn't. Even worse: select * from i where id not in ( select i.id from i inner join c ON i.id = c.id_i ); That DOES work, although it should be equivalent to the first query (i'm just trying mad stuff at this point). Alas, I can't use this query to delete, because I'm using the same table i'm deleting from in the subquery. I'm assuming something in my database is corrupt at this point. In case it matters, these are all MyISAM tables without any foreign keys, whatsoever, and I've run the same queries in my dev machine and in the production server with the same result, so whatever corruption there might be survived a mysqldump / source cycle, which sounds awfully strange. Any ideas on what could be going wrong, or, even more importantly, how I can fix/work around this? Thanks! Daniel

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  • What's the difference between these LINQ queries ?

    - by SnAzBaZ
    I use LINQ-SQL as my DAL, I then have a project called DB which acts as my BLL. Various applications then access the BLL to read / write data from the SQL Database. I have these methods in my BLL for one particular table: public IEnumerable<SystemSalesTaxList> Get_SystemSalesTaxList() { return from s in db.SystemSalesTaxLists select s; } public SystemSalesTaxList Get_SystemSalesTaxList(string strSalesTaxID) { return Get_SystemSalesTaxList().Where(s => s.SalesTaxID == strSalesTaxID).FirstOrDefault(); } public SystemSalesTaxList Get_SystemSalesTaxListByZipCode(string strZipCode) { return Get_SystemSalesTaxList().Where(s => s.ZipCode == strZipCode).FirstOrDefault(); } All pretty straight forward I thought. Get_SystemSalesTaxListByZipCode is always returning a null value though, even when it has a ZIP Code that exists in that table. If I write the method like this, it returns the row I want: public SystemSalesTaxList Get_SystemSalesTaxListByZipCode(string strZipCode) { var salesTax = from s in db.SystemSalesTaxLists where s.ZipCode == strZipCode select s; return salesTax.FirstOrDefault(); } Why does the other method not return the same, as the query should be identical ? Note that, the overloaded Get_SystemSalesTaxList(string strSalesTaxID) returns a record just fine when I give it a valid SalesTaxID. Is there a more efficient way to write these "helper" type classes ? Thanks!

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  • Executing logic before save or validation with EF Code-First Models

    - by Ryan Norbauer
    I'm still getting accustomed to EF Code First, having spent years working with the Ruby ORM, ActiveRecord. ActiveRecord used to have all sorts of callbacks like before_validation and before_save, where it was possible to modify the object before it would be sent off to the data layer. I am wondering if there is an equivalent technique in EF Code First object modeling. I know how to set object members at the time of instantiation, of course, (to set default values and so forth) but sometimes you need to intervene at different moments in the object lifecycle. To use a slightly contrived example, say I have a join table linking Authors and Plays, represented with a corresponding Authoring object: public class Authoring { public int ID { get; set; } [Required] public int Position { get; set; } [Required] public virtual Play Play { get; set; } [Required] public virtual Author Author { get; set; } } where Position represents a zero-indexed ordering of the Authors associated to a given Play. (You might have a single "South Pacific" Play with two authors: a "Rodgers" author with a Position 0 and a "Hammerstein" author with a Position 1.) Let's say I wanted to create a method that, before saving away an Authoring record, it checked to see if there were any existing authors for the Play to which it was associated. If no, it set the Position to 0. If yes, it would find set the Position of the highest value associated with that Play and increment by one. Where would I implement such logic within an EF code first model layer? And, in other cases, what if I wanted to massage data in code before it is checked for validation errors? Basically, I'm looking for an equivalent to the Rails lifecycle hooks mentioned above, or some way to fake it at least. :)

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  • Do you feel threatened by younger developers?

    - by bobsmith123
    When an opportunity for a new project in my company presented itself, I volunteered with a little bit of skepticism but a lot of excitement. I have been working with this company for 5 years on a different project in which I was a team lead for several releases. I have a consistent track record of delivering good quality projects. The new project has a team that is built from ground up and the management decided to hire new developers. The technologies used are the latest ones that are different from the previous project I had worked on (although they both are in .NET). The newer and the younger developers in the team have more experience with the latest technologies from their previous gigs. The younger developers have a lot more energy, can work 14 hours a day (they remind me of my early 20s) and live on ramen noodles. Since they are new, I feel they are obligated to show what they are made of and to prove their mettle. I feel like I am sidelined in this project and the management obviously like the younger developers as they bring more to the table. I know ageism is rampant in our field and the more I think about this, the more it makes me feel that there are very few transferable skills from one project to the other and one day you could be a team lead managing a number of developers, the next day some one you hired becomes your boss. Do you see yourself in situations like this very often? What plans do you have to make yourself valuable in a long term perspective?

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  • Special characters stripped by mySQL/PHP JSON

    - by Will Gill
    Hi, I have a simple PHP script to extract data from a mySQL database and encode it as JSON. The problem is that special characters (for example German ä or ß characters) are stripped from the JSON response. Everything after the first special character for any single field is just stripped. The fields are set to utf8_bin, and in phpMyAdmin the characters display correctly. The PHP script looks like this: <?php header("Content-type: application/json; charset=utf-8"); $con = mysql_connect('database', 'username', 'password'); if (!$con) { die('Could not connect: ' . mysql_error()); } mysql_select_db("sql01_5789willgil", $con); $sql="SELECT * FROM weightevent"; $result = mysql_query($sql); $row = mysql_fetch_array($result); $events = array(); while($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { $eventid = $row['eventid']; $userid = $row['userid']; $weight = $row['weight']; $sins = $row['sins']; $gooddeeds = $row['gooddeeds']; $date = $row['date']; $event = array("eventid"=>$eventid, "userid"=>$userid, "weight"=>$weight, "sins"=>$sins, "gooddeeds"=>$gooddeeds, "date"=>$date); array_push($events, $event); } $myJSON = json_encode($events); echo $myJSON; mysql_close($con); ?> Sample output: [{"eventid":"2","userid":"1","weight":"70.1","sins":"Weihnachtspl","gooddeeds":"situps! lots and lots of situps!","date":"2011-01-02"},{"eventid":"3","userid":"2","weight":"69.9","sins":"A second helping of pasta...","gooddeeds":"I ate lots of salad","date":"2011-01-01"}] -- in the first record the value for field 'sins' should be "Weihnachtsplätzchen". thanks very much!

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  • ASP MVC - Routing Required?

    - by evo_9
    I've been reading up on MVC2 which came in VS2010 and it sounds pretty interesting. I'm actually in the middle of a large multi-tenant application project, and have just started coding the UI. I'm considering changing to MVC as I'm not that far along at this point. I have some questions about the Routing capabilities, namely are they required to use MVC or can I more or less ignore Routing? Or do I have to setup a default routing record that will make things work like standard ASPX (as far as routing alone is concerned)? The reason why I don't want to use Routing is because I've already defined a custom URL 'rewrite' mechanism of my own (which fires on session_start). In addition, I'm using jquery and opens-standards for the entire UI, and MVC's aspx overhead-free approach seems like a better fit based on how I've already started to build the application (I am not using viewstate at all, for example). I guess my big concern is whether the routing can be ignored, of if I will have to re-implement my custom URL rewriting to work with MVC, and if that's the case, how would I do that? As a new Routing routine, or stick with the session_start (if that's even possible?). Lastly, I don't want to use anything even remotely 'intelligent/readable' for the url - for a site like StackOverflow, the readability of the URL is a positive, but the opposite is true if it's not a public website like this one. In fact, it would seem to me that the more friendly MVC routing URL (which indirectly show method names) could pose a security risk on a private, non-public website app like I'm developing. For all these reasons I would love to use the lightweight aspects of MVC but skip the Routing entirely - is this possible?

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  • Remove the Parent tag in xml using php

    - by Wasim
    I am facing a problem in editing a xml file. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <urlset> <url> <loc>http://www.abc.com/</loc> <lastmod>2010-04-17T17:23:57+00:00</lastmod> <changefreq>daily</changefreq> <priority>0.50</priority> </url> <url> <loc>http://www.abc.com/</loc> <lastmod>2010-04-17T17:23:57+00:00</lastmod> <changefreq>daily</changefreq> <priority>0.50</priority> </url> </urlset> I want to add one more set of records starting with <url> with its other tags, (i.e) "loc,lastmod,changefreq,priority" and than save the xml file.For adding the new record i need to remove the parent closing tag that is </urlset> and than add the rest of the records and close the main tag. Can anyone please help me solving my problem.Thanks

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  • Use continue or Checked Exceptions when checking and processing objects

    - by Johan Pelgrim
    I'm processing, let's say a list of "Document" objects. Before I record the processing of the document successful I first want to check a couple of things. Let's say, the file referring to the document should be present and something in the document should be present. Just two simple checks for the example but think about 8 more checks before I have successfully processed my document. What would have your preference? for (Document document : List<Document> documents) { if (!fileIsPresent(document)) { doSomethingWithThisResult("File is not present"); continue; } if (!isSomethingInTheDocumentPresent(document)) { doSomethingWithThisResult("Something is not in the document"); continue; } doSomethingWithTheSucces(); } Or for (Document document : List<Document> documents) { try { fileIsPresent(document); isSomethingInTheDocumentPresent(document); doSomethingWithTheSucces(); } catch (ProcessingException e) { doSomethingWithTheExceptionalCase(e.getMessage()); } } public boolean fileIsPresent(Document document) throws ProcessingException { ... throw new ProcessingException("File is not present"); } public boolean isSomethingInTheDocumentPresent(Document document) throws ProcessingException { ... throw new ProcessingException("Something is not in the document"); } What is more readable. What is best? Is there even a better approach of doing this (maybe using a design pattern of some sort)? As far as readability goes my preference currently is the Exception variant... What is yours?

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  • SpeechRecognizer causes ANR... I need help with Android speech API.

    - by Dondo Chaka
    I'm trying to use Android's speech recognition package to record user speech and translate it to text. Unfortunately, when I attempt initiate listening, I get an ANR error that doesn't point to anything specific. As the SpeechRecognizer API indicates, a RuntimeException is thrown if you attempt to call it from the main thread. This would make me wonder if the processing was just too demanding... but I know that other applications use the Android API for this purpose and it is typically pretty snappy. java.lang.RuntimeException: SpeechRecognizer should be used only from the application's main thread Here is a (trimmed) sample of the code I'm trying to call from my service. Is this the proper approach? Thanks for taking the time to help. This has been a hurdle I haven't been able to get over yet. Intent intent = new Intent(RecognizerIntent.ACTION_RECOGNIZE_SPEECH); intent.putExtra(RecognizerIntent.EXTRA_LANGUAGE_MODEL, RecognizerIntent.LANGUAGE_MODEL_FREE_FORM); intent.putExtra(RecognizerIntent.EXTRA_CALLING_PACKAGE, "com.domain.app"); SpeechRecognizer recognizer = SpeechRecognizer .createSpeechRecognizer(this.getApplicationContext()); RecognitionListener listener = new RecognitionListener() { @Override public void onResults(Bundle results) { ArrayList<String> voiceResults = results .getStringArrayList(RecognizerIntent.EXTRA_RESULTS); if (voiceResults == null) { Log.e(getString(R.string.log_label), "No voice results"); } else { Log.d(getString(R.string.log_label), "Printing matches: "); for (String match : voiceResults) { Log.d(getString(R.string.log_label), match); } } } @Override public void onReadyForSpeech(Bundle params) { Log.d(getString(R.string.log_label), "Ready for speech"); } @Override public void onError(int error) { Log.d(getString(R.string.log_label), "Error listening for speech: " + error); } @Override public void onBeginningOfSpeech() { Log.d(getString(R.string.log_label), "Speech starting"); } }; recognizer.setRecognitionListener(listener); recognizer.startListening(intent);

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  • Tree data in MySql database table

    - by Robert Koritnik
    I have a table that uses Adjacency list model for hierarchy storage. My most relevant columns in this table are therefore: ItemId // is auto_increment ParentId Level ParentTrail // in the form of "parentId/../parentId/itemId" then I created a before insert tigger, that populates columns Level and ParentTrail. Since the last column also includes current item's ID I had to use a trick in my trigger because auto_increment columns are not available in the before insert trigger. So I get that value from the information_schema.tables table. All works fine, until I try to write an update trigger, that would update my item and its descendants when the item changes its parent (ParentId has changed). But I can't make an update on my table inside the update trigger. All I can do is to change current record's values but not other's. I could use a separate table for hierarchy data, but that would mean that I would also have to create a view that would combine these two tables (1:1 relation) and I would like to avoid this is at all possible. Is there a way to have all these in the same table so that these fields (Level and ParetTrail) set/update themselves automagically using triggers?

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  • iphone coredata fetch-request sorting

    - by satyam
    I'm using core data and fetching the results successfully. I've few questions regarding core data 1. When I add a record, will it be added at the end or at the start of entity. 2. I'm using following code to fetch the data. Array is being populated with all the records. But they are not in the same order as I entered records into entity. why? on what basis default sorting is used? NSFetchRequest* allLatest = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; [allLatest setEntity:[NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Latest" inManagedObjectContext:[self managedObjectContext]]]; NSError* error = nil; NSArray* records = [managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:allLatest error:&error]; [allLatest release]; 3. The way that I enter the records, 1,2,3,4......... after some time, I want to delete the records that I entered first(i mean oldest data). Something like delete oldest two records. How to do it?

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  • How do you pass a generic delegate argument to a method in .NET 2.0 - UPDATED

    - by Seth Spearman
    Hello, I have a class with a delegate declaration as follows... Public Class MyClass Public Delegate Function Getter(Of TResult)() As TResult ''#the following code works. Public Shared Sub MyMethod(ByVal g As Getter(Of Boolean)) ''#do stuff End Sub End Class However, I do not want to explicitly type the Getter delegate in the Method call. Why can I not declare the parameter as follows... ... (ByVal g As Getter(Of TResult)) Is there a way to do it? My end goal was to be able to set a delegate for property setters and getters in the called class. But my reading indicates you can't do that. So I put setter and getter methods in that class and then I want the calling class to set the delegate argument and then invoke. Is there a best practice for doing this. I realize in the above example that I can set set the delegate variable from the calling class...but I am trying to create a singleton with tight encapsulation. For the record, I can't use any of the new delegate types declared in .net35. Answers in C# are welcome. Any thoughts? Seth

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  • How to model a mutually exclusive relationship in sql server

    - by littlechris
    Hi, I have to add functionality to an existing application and I've run into a data situation that I'm not sure how to model. I am being restricted to the creation of new tables and code. If I need to alter the existing structure I think my client may reject the proposal..although if its the only way to get it right this is what I will have to do. I have an Item table that can me link to any number of tables, and these tables may increase over time. The Item can only me linked to one other table, but the record in the other table may have many items linked to it. Examples of the tables/entities being linked to are "Person", "Vehicle", "Building", "Office". These are all separate tables. Example of Items are "Pen", "Stapler", "Cushion", "Tyre", "A4 Paper", "Plastic Bag", "Poster", "Decoration" For instance a "Poster" may be allocated to a "Person" or "Office" or "Building". In the future if they add a "Conference Room" table it may also be added to that. My intital thoughts are: Item { ID, Name } LinkedItem { ItemID, LinkedToTableName, LinkedToID } The LinkedToTableName field will then allow me to identify the correct table to link to in my code. I'm not overly happy with this solution, but I can't quite think of anything else. Please help! :) Thanks!

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