Search Results

Search found 6542 results on 262 pages for 'undocumented behavior'.

Page 220/262 | < Previous Page | 216 217 218 219 220 221 222 223 224 225 226 227  | Next Page >

  • How to specify allowed exceptions in WCF's configuration file?

    - by tucaz
    Hello! I´m building a set of WCF services for internal use through all our applications. For exception handling I created a default fault class so I can return treated message to the caller if its the case or a generic one when I have no clue what happened. Fault contract: [DataContract(Name = "DefaultFault", Namespace = "http://fnac.com.br/api/2010/03")] public class DefaultFault { public DefaultFault(DefaultFaultItem[] items) { if (items == null || items.Length== 0) { throw new ArgumentNullException("items"); } StringBuilder sbItems = new StringBuilder(); for (int i = 0; i Specifying that my method can throw this exception so the consuming client will be aware of it: [OperationContract(Name = "PlaceOrder")] [FaultContract(typeof(DefaultFault))] [WebInvoke(UriTemplate = "/orders", BodyStyle = WebMessageBodyStyle.Bare, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, Method = "POST")] string PlaceOrder(Order newOrder); Most of time we will use just .NET to .NET communication with usual binds and everything works fine since we are talking the same language. However, as you can see in the service contract declaration I have a WebInvoke attribute (and a webHttp binding) in order to be able to also talk JSON since one of our apps will be built for iPhone and this guy will talk JSON. My problem is that whenever I throw a FaultException and have includeExceptionDetails="false" in the config file the calling client will get a generic HTTP error instead of my custom message. I understand that this is the correct behavior when includeExceptionDetails is turned off, but I think I saw some configuration a long time ago to allow some exceptions/faults to pass through the service boundaries. Is there such thing like this? If not, what do u suggest for my case? Thanks a LOT!

    Read the article

  • Determine whether app is communicating with APNS sandbox or production environment

    - by goldierox
    I have push notifications set up in my app. I'm trying to determine whether the device token I've received from APNS in the application:didRegisterForRemoteNotificationsWithDeviceToken: method came from the sandbox or development environment. If I can distinguish which environment initialized the token, I'll be able to tell my server to which environment to send the push notification. I've tried using the DEBUG macro to determine this, but I've seen some strange behavior with this and don't trust it to be 100% correct. #ifdef DEBUG BOOL isProd = YES; #else BOOL isProd = NO; #endif Ideally, I'd be able to examine the aps-environment entitlement (value is Development or Production) in code, but I'm not sure if this is even possible. What's the proper way to determine whether your app is communicating with the APNS sandbox or production environments? I'm assuming that the server needs to know this in the first place. Please correct me if this is assumption is incorrect. Edited: Apple's documentation on Provider Communication with APNS details the difference between communicating with the sandbox and production. However, the documentation doesn't give information on how to be consistent with registering the token (from the iOS client app) and communicating with the server.

    Read the article

  • Rails Model inheritance in forms

    - by Tiago
    I'm doing a reporting system for my app. I created a model ReportKind for example, but as I can report a lot of stuff, I wanted to make different groups of report kinds. Since they share a lot of behavior, I'm trying to use inheritance. So I have the main model: model ReportKind << ActiveRecord::Base end and created for example: model UserReportKind << ReportKind end In my table report_kinds I've the type column, and until here its all working. My problem is in the forms/controllers. When I do a ReportKind.new, my form is build with the '*report_kind*' prefix. If a get a UserReportKind, even through a ReportKind.find, the form will build the 'user_report_kind' prefix. This mess everything in the controllers, since sometimes I'll have params[:report_kind], sometimes params[:user_report_kind], and so on for every other inheritance I made. Is there anyway to force it to aways use the 'report_kind' prefix? Also I had to force the attribute 'type' in the controller, because it didn't get the value direct from the form, is there a pretty way to do this? Routing was another problem, since it was trying to build routes based in the inherited models names. I overcome that by adding the other models in routes pointing to the same controller.

    Read the article

  • Refactor link to show/hide a table row

    - by abatishchev
    I have a table with row which cab be hidden by user. It's implemented this way: Markup: <table> <tr> <td> <table style="margin-left: auto; text-align: right;"> <tr> <td class="stats-hide"> <a href="#" onclick="hideStats();">Hide</a> </td> <td class="stats-show" style="display: none;"> <a href="#" onclick="showStats();">Show</a> </td> </tr> </table> </td> </tr> <tr class="stats-hide"> <td> <!-- data --> </td> </tr> </table> And jQuery code: <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> function hideStats() { hideControls(true, $('.stats-hide')); hideControls(false, $('.stats-show')); } function showStats() { hideControls(false, $('.stats-hide')); hideControls(true, $('.stats-show')); } function hideControls(value, arr) { $(arr).each(function () { if (value) { $(this).hide(); } else { $(this).show(); } }); } </script> How to implement the same behavior with one, single link and one, probably, CSS class? My idea - store somewhere a boolean variable and toggle controls visibility relatively to this variable. Are there more?

    Read the article

  • Nose2 multiprocess error on Windows7

    - by tt293
    I was looking into nose2 as a way to get around the restrictions of having both xunit output and multiprocessing in nose1.3. However, when always-on is set to False in the [multiprocess] section, I can only get a single process running, while when running with always-on set to True, I get the following error: ---------------------------------------------------------------------- Ran 0 tests in 0.043s OK Traceback (most recent call last): File "C:\dev\testing\Tests\PythonTests\venv\Scripts\nose2-script.py", line 8, in <module> load_entry_point('nose2==0.4.7', 'console_scripts', 'nose2')() File "C:\dev\testing\Tests\PythonTests\venv\lib\site-packages\nose2-0.4.7-py2. 7.egg\nose2\main.py", line 284, in discover return main(*args, **kwargs) File "C:\dev\testing\Tests\PythonTests\venv\lib\site-packages\nose2-0.4.7-py2. 7.egg\nose2\main.py", line 98, in __init__ super(PluggableTestProgram, self).__init__(**kw) File "C:\dev\testing\Tests\PythonTests\venv\lib\site-packages\unittest2-0.5.1- py2.7.egg\unittest2\main.py", line 98, in __init__ self.runTests() File "C:\dev\testing\Tests\PythonTests\venv\lib\site-packages\nose2-0.4.7-py2. 7.egg\nose2\main.py", line 260, in runTests self.result = runner.run(self.test) File "C:\dev\testing\Tests\PythonTests\venv\lib\site-packages\nose2-0.4.7-py2. 7.egg\nose2\runner.py", line 53, in run executor(test, result) File "C:\dev\testing\Tests\PythonTests\venv\lib\site-packages\nose2-0.4.7-py2. 7.egg\nose2\plugins\mp.py", line 60, in _runmp ready, _, _ = select.select(rdrs, [], [], self.testRunTimeout) select.error: (10038, 'An operation was attempted on something that is not a soc ket') This is running python 2.7.5 (32bit) on Windows 7 in a virtualenv with six-1.1.0, unittest2-0.5.1 and nose2-0.4.7 (I get the same behavior outside of the venv, so I don't think that is the issue here).

    Read the article

  • JSP:Include not rendering the page correctly

    - by sreekanth
    am having trouble with including a jsp page with tag. This is what is happening. I making changes to a portlet application running on Websphere 7 server. This is the hierarchy of the jsp pages. blankPage.jsp --bookingViewTabs.jsp -- availableRooms.jsp meaning blankPage is included in bookingViewTabs which is inturn included in availableRooms.jsp I have 2 problems with this. (1). The blankPage.jsp does not render correctly on the screen. It gets cutoff (2). The other is in blankPage.jsp there is a form called "guestProfileSearchResultsFormId". this form has several hidden fields for data. example, "guestId" which is a child of that form and can be accessed formname.fieldname, but when i include that page into another jsp as the first include(there are several includes on the page) under the another form tag, the form field is not being rendered as a child of the form, but as a sibling of the form. If i change the order and include some other page and include this, it is working as it is supposed to have. meaning with children intact. I don't understand this behavior. I HAVE ATTACHED A GIF IMAGE OF WHAT I SEE ON THE BROWSER Any help is greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Opening URL in New Tab doesn't work in existing, programmatically-opened New Window (Firefox)

    - by seth
    I am building a web app, for myself, to control some servers on my home network, and discovered what I think is very odd behavior in Firefox. If you open a pop-up, via javascript, in Firefox, is it then impossible to open a new tab, via javascript in that pop-up? If not impossible, how do you do it? Given a clean, default Firefox 3.6.3 installation... If I open a page in Firefox and then call var my_window = window.open('http://www.google.com','_blank','top=10'); A brand new "pop-up" window opens. However, if instead I call var my_window = window.open('http://www.google.com'); A get a new tab. HOWEVER... If I call the first version var my_window = window.open('http://www.google.com','_blank','top=10'); And then in the new "pop-up" that opens, I call var my_window = window.open('http://www.google.com'); It opens a new tab in the original window, not a new tab in the pop-up. This seems very odd, and not intuitive at all. Why would the call in the pop-up open a tab in the "parent" window?

    Read the article

  • Android Webkit Input elements buggy with CSS3 translate3D

    - by Dansl
    I'm having a couple issues with the Input element in a Webkit Android App i'm developing. Testing on 2.X, but 3.x doesn't seem to have these issues... The app works by having separate Div's for each "page", and I'm using CSS3 translate3D to animate between the pages. Some of those pages include Input elements. When I tap on the input to gain focus, any of my "position:fixed" Div's will shift about 5px from the top, and 5px left. Now the kicker... it will eventually fix itself, and then never happen again when you tap on an input, its only that first time... My other problem, the Input elements are screwy with keyboards, for instance, spell corrections/autocomplete will not input text, and when using Swype Keyboard, you can't "swipe" the word, ONLY individual taps for each letter will input text into the Input element. I've read that a lot of these might be caused by CSS3 Translate3D. But, I've tried just about everything to fix these issues, and I've searched just about every site for a solution, but havent been able to find a fix, or find anyone else with this issue... Does anyone else have these issues, or know of a fix? (Possible solution??) Anyone know of a way to override the default behavior of Input elements in the webkit? I wonder if I can generate my own TextView and position it over these input fields...? Any help is greatly appreciated :)

    Read the article

  • bool as object vs string as object testing equality

    - by Ray Pendergraph
    I am relatively new to C# and I noticed something interesting today that I guess I have never noticed or perhaps I am missing something. Here is an NUnit test to give an example: object boolean1 = false; object booloan2 = false; Assert.That(boolean1 == booloan2); This unit test fails, but this one passes: object string1 = "string"; object string2 = "string"; Assert.That(string1 == string2); I'm not that surprised in and of itself that the first one fails seeing as boolean1 and boolean2 are different references. But it is troubling to me that the first one fails and the second one passes. I read (on MSDN somewhere) that some magic was done to the String class to facilitate this. I think my question really is why wasn't this behavior replicated in bool? As a note... if the boolean1 and 2 are declared as "bool" then there is no problem. Does anyone know the reason for these differences or why it was implemented that way? Can anyone think of a situation where you would want to reference a bool object for anything except its value?

    Read the article

  • How do I implement configurations and settings?

    - by Malvolio
    I'm writing a system that is deployed in several places and each site needs its own configurations and settings. A "configuration" is a named value that is necessary to a particular site (e.g., the database URL, S3 bucket name); every configuration is necessary, there is not usually a default, and it's typically string-valued. A setting is a named value but it just tweaks the behavior of the system; it's often numeric or Boolean, and there's usually some default. So far, I've been using property files or thing like them, but it's a terrible solution. Several times, a developer has added a requirement for a configuration but not added the value to file for the live configuration, so the new release passed all the tests, then failed when released to live. Better, of course, for every file to be compiled — so if there's a missing configuration, or one of the wrong type, it won't get past the compiler — and inject the site-specific class into the build for each site. As a bones, a Scala file can easy model more complex values, especially lists, but also maps and tuples. The downside is, the files are sometimes maintained by people who aren't developers, so it has to be pretty self-explanatory, which was the advantage of property files. (Someone explain XML configurations to me: all the complexity of a compilable file but the run-time risk of a property file.) What I'm looking for is an easy pattern for defining a group required names and allowable values. Any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • FileReference.browse() stops playback on some Flash Players

    - by Christophe Herreman
    We have an issue were the server session associated with a Flex client times out when the browse file dialog is open for a time longer then the configured session timeout. It seems that on some players, the playback is stopped when browse or download on a FileReference is executing. This also causes remote calls to be blocked and hence our manual keep-alive messages are not sent to the server, resulting in a session timeout. I searched for some info on this in the docs and found a notice of it, but it does not explicitly list the players it does (not) work. Would anyone know were I could find a complete list? PS: here are the links that mention this behavior: http://livedocs.adobe.com/flex/3/html/help.html?content=17_Networking_and_communications_7.html While calls to the FileReference.browse(), FileReferenceList.browse(), or FileReference.download() method are executing, most players will continue SWF file playback. http://livedocs.adobe.com/flex/3/langref/flash/net/FileReference.html While calls to the FileReference.browse(), FileReferenceList.browse(), or FileReference.download() methods are executing, SWF file playback pauses in stand-alone and external versions of Flash Player and in AIR for Linux and Mac OS X 10.1 and earlier Anyone knows what is meant with an "external Flash Player"? PPS: we tested this on Linux (10.0.x and 10.1.x) in Firefox where it seems to stop playback and on Windows (10.0.x) in IE where playback seems to continue.

    Read the article

  • How to prevent ADO.NET from altering double values when it reads from Excel files

    - by Khnle
    I have the following rows in my Excel input file: Column1 Column2 0-5 3.040 6 2.957 7 2.876 and the following code which uses ADO.NET to read it: string fileName = "input.xls"; var connectionString = string.Format("Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0; data source={0}; Extended Properties=Excel 8.0;", fileName); var dbConnection = new OleDbConnection(connectionString); dbConnection.Open(); try { var dbCommand = new OleDbCommand("SELECT * FROM [Sheet1$]", dbConnection); var dbReader = dbCommand.ExecuteReader (); while (dbReader.Read()) { string col1 = dbReader.GetValue(0).ToString(); string col2 = dbReader.GetValue(1).ToString(); } } finally { dbConnection.Close(); } The results are very disturbing. Here's why: The values of each column in the first time through the loop: col1 is empty (blank) col2 is 3.04016411633586 Second time: col1 is 6 col2 is 2.95722928448829 Third time: col1 is 7 col2 is 2.8763272933077 The first problem happens with col1 in the first iteration. I expect 0-5. The second problem happens at every iteration with col2 where ADO.NET obviously alters the values as it reads them. How to stop this mal-behavior?

    Read the article

  • How to use boost::transform_iterator to iterate over modifed std::map values?

    - by Frank
    I have an std::map, and I would like to define an iterator that returns modified values. Typically, a std::map<int,double>::iterator iterates over std::pair<int,double>, and I would like the same behavior, just the double value is multiplied by a constant. I tried it with boost::transform_iterator, but it doesn't compile: #include <map> #include <boost/iterator/transform_iterator.hpp> #include <boost/functional.hpp> typedef std::map<int,double> Map; Map m; m[100] = 2.24; typedef boost::binder2nd< std::multiplies<double> > Function; typedef boost::transform_iterator<Function, Map::value_type*> MultiplyIter; MultiplyIter begin = boost::make_transform_iterator(m.begin(), Function(std::multiplies<double>(), 4)); // now want to similarly create an end iterator // and then iterate over the modified map The error is: error: conversion from 'boost ::transform_iterator< boost::binder2nd<multiplies<double> >, gen_map<int, double>::iterator , boost::use_default, boost::use_default >' to non-scalar type 'boost::transform_iterator< boost::binder2nd<multiplies<double> >, pair<const int, double> * , boost::use_default, boost::use_default >' requested What is gen_map and do I really need it? I adapted the transform_iterator tutorial code from here to write this code ...

    Read the article

  • IntelliJ Doesn't Notice Changes in Interface

    - by yar
    [I've decided to give IntelliJ another go (to replace Eclipse), since its Groovy support is supposed to be the best. But back to Java...] I have an Interface that defines a constant public static final int CHANNEL_IN = 1; and about 20 classes in my Module that implement that interface. I've decided that this constant was a bad idea so I did what I do in Eclipse: I deleted the entire line. This should cause the Project tree to light up like a Christmas tree and all classes that implement that interface and use that constant to break. Instead, this is not happening. If I don't actually double-click on the relevant classes -- which I find using grep -- the module even builds correctly (using Build - Make Module). If I double-click on a relevant class, the error is shown both in the Project Tree and in the Editor. I am not able to replicate this behavior in small tests, but in large modules it works (incorrectly) this way. Is there some relevant setting in IntelliJ for this?

    Read the article

  • How to reduce the need for IISRESET for developing ASP.NET web app in IIS 5.1

    - by John Galt
    I have a web application project on my dev PC running WinXP and hence IIS 5.1. The changes I'm making to this site seem to "take effect" only after I do IISRESET. That is, I make a source change, Rebuild the project and then Start without Debugging (or with debugging). The newly changed code is not "visible" or in effect unless I intervene with an IISRESET. BTW, the "web" tab on the Properties display for the web app project is configured to use the Local IIS web server at project Url: http://localhost/myVirtualDirectory ... but I've noticed the same issue when using the VStudio Dev Server (i.e. I have to stop it by visiting the taskbar tray area in order to see my source changes take effect). Is this something I can change? EDIT UPDATE: Just wanting to clear this up if possible. Two answers diverge below; not sure how to move forward. One states this is to be expected (weakness of IIS 5.1 which in turn is the best WinXP can provide). Another states this is not expected behavior (and I tend to agree since this is the first I've encounted this on the same old WinXP dev platform I've had a long time). I suspect it may be something "deep inside" the Visual Studio 2008 web app which was upgraded to this new IDE from VStudio 2002 (ASP.NET 1.1). I've tried to add comment/questions down each answer path. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • MS Office Excel Ribbon - Cannot change/hide Editing group in Home tab

    - by A9S6
    I have a .net addin for Excel. The addin creates the Ribbon UI for Excel 2007 and re-purposes some existing commands such as Cut, Copy, Paste, Sort etc. For Cut, Copy and Paste I am just overriding their OnAction value to call my own procedure when the buttons are clicked. But for Sort, Sort Asc and Sort Desc commands the case is a little different. When either of the Sort, Sort Asc or Sort Desc buttons are clicked, I want to get notified and then call the default functionality. This was possible in Excel 2003 commandsbars by calling the Execute() method on the CommandBarControl. In Excel 2007, there is a ExecuteMso() method to programmatically click a ribbon element but when the OnAction is overridden, this ExecuteMso() method just executes my own procedure and not the default functionality of that button. So I thought that I will HIDE the Sort buttons in the "Editing" group in Home tab and add my own Sort, Sort Asc and Sort Desc buttons to it. The buttons will call into my procedure first from where I will call the default behavior. Now the problem is that I am unable to change/hide the Editing group (idMso="GroupEditing"). Is this built-in group not editable? I can however HIDE the Clipboard and other groups(but can't add buttons to them). <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="yes"?> <customUI xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/office/2006/01/customui"> <ribbon> <tabs> <tab idMso="TabHome"> <group idMso="GroupEditing" visible="false" /> </tab> </tabs> </ribbon> </customUI>

    Read the article

  • Zend hostname route doesn't match when it has child routes

    - by talisker
    I am implementing an Admin module, which contains the following routes: 'router' => array( 'routes' => array( 'admin' => array( 'type' => 'Zend\Mvc\Router\Http\Hostname', 'options' => array( 'route' => ':subdomain.mydomain.local', 'constraints' => array( 'subdomain' => 'admin', ), 'defaults' => array( 'module' => '__NAMESPACE__', 'controller' => 'Admin\Controller\Index', 'action' => 'index', ), ), 'priority' => 9000, 'may_terminate' => true, 'child_routes' => array( 'users' => array( 'type' => 'Zend\Mvc\Router\Http\Literal', 'options' => array( 'route' => '/users', 'defaults' => array( 'module' => '__NAMESPACE__', 'controller' => 'Admin\Controller\Users', 'action' => 'index', ), ), ), ) ), ), ), And this is the home route configuration: 'home' => array( 'type' => 'Zend\Mvc\Router\Http\Literal', 'options' => array( 'route' => '/', 'defaults' => array( 'controller' => 'Application\Controller\Index', 'action' => 'index', ), ), ), When I try to access to http://admin.mydomain.com, the route match always with the homeroute, but if I remove all the child routes from the admin route, the behavior is correct and a http://admin.mydomain.com matches with the adminroute. Any idea?

    Read the article

  • "Subforms" associated with tree view in VB

    - by knomdeguerre
    I am using VB Express 2008 to demonstrate my ideas for an improved UI for an existing product for my colleagues at work. The current UI has a certain page with ten tabs, allowing the user to define up to ten "things". The available choices for each of the ten "things" are all the same. On each of the ten tabs, there is a checkbox to enable that definition. Generally, a user will never use more than 5 or 6 unique definitions, the rest will remain disabled. So far, my prototype has a tree view control with one branch to contain this list of definitions, Add and Delete buttons. My idea is: there is one sub-branch to start with (corresponding to the first tab in the current UI); if the user wants addtional definitions, they click Add and other branches are added to the tree view, up to maximum of ten. I think I should be able to create a "class" that has a sub-UI (like a sub-form in Access) along with behavior code, that can be instantiated with each press of the Add button; each instantiation's settings can be set independently and is displayed in the main UI form )in a panel or frame) when selected in the tree view. For example, suppose the user Adds to make a total of three definitions: the tree view now has three sub-branches, each of which presents the same sub-UI with settings that can be set specific to the selected sub-branch. I'm sure it's possible but not sure how to do it. I know a comprehensive "answer" might be complicated and long, but I may just need some quick hints to get underway - don't be shy! Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Javascript Getting Objects to Fallback to One Another

    - by Ian
    Here's a ugly bit of Javascript it would be nice to find a workaround. Javascript has no classes, and that is a good thing. But it implements fallback between objects in a rather ugly way. The foundational construct should be to have one object that, when a property fails to be found, it falls back to another object. So if we want a to fall back to b we would want to do something like: a = {sun:1}; b = {dock:2}; a.__fallback__ = b; then a.dock == 2; But, Javascript instead provides a new operator and prototypes. So we do the far less elegant: function A(sun) { this.sun = sun; }; A.prototype.dock = 2; a = new A(1); a.dock == 2; But aside from elegance, this is also strictly less powerful, because it means that anything created with A gets the same fallback object. What I would like to do is liberate Javascript from this artificial limitation and have the ability to give any individual object any other individual object as its fallback. That way I could keep the current behavior when it makes sense, but use object-level inheritance when that makes sense. My initial approach is to create a dummy constructor function: function setFallback(from_obj, to_obj) { from_obj.constructor = function () {}; from_obj.constructor.prototype = to_obj; } a = {sun:1}; b = {dock:2}; setFallback(a, b); But unfortunately: a.dock == undefined; Any ideas why this doesn't work, or any solutions for an implementation of setFallback? (I'm running on V8, via node.js, in case this is platform dependent)

    Read the article

  • CSS Clearing Floats

    - by Frank
    I'm making more of an effort to separate my html structure from presentation, but sometimes when I look at the complexity of the hacks or workarounds to make things work cross-browser, I'm amazed at huge collective waste of productive hours that are put into this. As I understand it, floats were never created for creating layouts, but because many layouts need a footer, that's how they're often being used. To clear the floats, you can add an empty div that clears both sides (div class="clear"). That is simple and works cross browser, but it adds "non-semantic" html rather than solving the presentation problem within the CSS. I realize this, but after looking at all of the solutions with their benefits and drawbacks, it seems to make more sense to go with the empty div (predictable behavior across browsers), rather than create separate stylesheets, including various css hacks and workarounds, etc. which would also need to change as CSS evolves. Is it o.k. to do this as long as you do understand what you're doing and why you're doing it? Or is it better to find the CSS workarounds, hacks and separate structure from presentation at all costs, even when the CSS presentation tools provided are not evolved to the point where they can handle such basic layout issues?

    Read the article

  • Invoking a method overloaded where all arguments implement the same interface

    - by double07
    Hello, My starting point is the following: - I have a method, transform, which I overloaded to behave differently depending on the type of arguments that are passed in (see transform(A a1, A a2) and transform(A a1, B b) in my example below) - All these arguments implement the same interface, X I would like to apply that transform method on various objects all implementing the X interface. What I came up with was to implement transform(X x1, X x2), which checks for the instance of each object before applying the relevant variant of my transform. Though it works, the code seems ugly and I am also concerned of the performance overhead for evaluating these various instanceof and casting. Is that transform the best I can do in Java or is there a more elegant and/or efficient way of achieving the same behavior? Below is a trivial, working example printing out BA. I am looking for examples on how to improve that code. In my real code, I have naturally more implementations of 'transform' and none are trivial like below. public class A implements X { } public class B implements X { } interface X { } public A transform(A a1, A a2) { System.out.print("A"); return a2; } public A transform(A a1, B b) { System.out.print("B"); return a1; } // Isn't there something better than the code below??? public X transform(X x1, X x2) { if ((x1 instanceof A) && (x2 instanceof A)) { return transform((A) x1, (A) x2); } else if ((x1 instanceof A) && (x2 instanceof B)) { return transform((A) x1, (B) x2); } else { throw new RuntimeException("Transform not implemented for " + x1.getClass() + "," + x2.getClass()); } } @Test public void trivial() { X x1 = new A(); X x2 = new B(); X result = transform(x1, x2); transform(x1, result); }

    Read the article

  • WCF Custom SOAP Header Issues

    - by WayneC
    I'm trying to implement an endpoint behavior which injects a custom SOAP header into all messages to and from a service. I've gotten pretty close by implementing the approach from the accepted answer of this question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/986455/wcf-wsdl-soap-header-on-all-operations/995951#995951 After implementing that solution, my custom SOAP header does indeed show up in the WSDL; however, when I try to call the methods on my service, I get the following exception/fault: <ExceptionDetail xmlns="http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/System.ServiceModel" xmlns:i="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> <HelpLink i:nil="true" /> <InnerException i:nil="true" /> <Message>Index was outside the bounds of the array.</Message> <StackTrace> at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.DataContractSerializerOperationFormatter.AddHeadersToMessage(Message message, MessageDescription messageDescription, Object[] parameters, Boolean isRequest) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.OperationFormatter.SerializeReply(MessageVersion messageVersion, Object[] parameters, Object result) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.DispatchOperationRuntime.SerializeOutputs(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.DispatchOperationRuntime.InvokeBegin(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage5(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage4(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage3(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage2(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage1(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.MessageRpc.Process(Boolean isOperationContextSet)</StackTrace> <Type>System.IndexOutOfRangeException</Type> </ExceptionDetail> Looking in Reflector at the DataContractSerializerOperationFormatter.AddHeadersToMessage method thats throwing the exception, leads me to believe that the following snippet is causing the problem...but I'm not sure why. MessageHeaderDescription description = (MessageHeaderDescription) headerPart.Description; object parameterValue = parameters[description.Index]; I think the last line above is throwing the exception. The parameters variable is from IDispatchFormatter.SerializeReply What's going on?!?!! Any help would be greatly appreciated...

    Read the article

  • For loop index out of range ArgumentOutOfRangeException when multithreading

    - by Lirik
    I'm getting some strange behavior... when I iterate over the dummyText List in the ThreadTest method I get an index out of range exception (ArgumentOutOfRangeException), but if I remove the threads and I just print out the text, then everything works fine. This is my main method: public static Object sync = new Object(); static void Main(string[] args) { ThreadTest(); Console.WriteLine("Press any key to continue."); Console.ReadKey(); } This method throws the exception: private static void ThreadTest() { Console.WriteLine("Running ThreadTest"); Console.WriteLine("Running ThreadTest"); List<String> dummyText = new List<string>() { "One", "Two", "Three", "Four", "Five", "Six", "Seven", "Eight", "Nine", "Ten"}; for (int i = 0; i < dummyText.Count; i++) { Thread t = new Thread(() => PrintThreadName(dummyText[i])); // <-- Index out of range?!? t.Name = ("Thread " + (i)); t.IsBackground = true; t.Start(); } } private static void PrintThreadName(String text) { Random rand = new Random(DateTime.Now.Millisecond); while (true) { lock (sync) { Console.WriteLine(Thread.CurrentThread.Name + " running " + text); Thread.Sleep(1000+rand.Next(0,2000)); } } } This does not throw the exception: private static void ThreadTest() { Console.WriteLine("Running ThreadTest"); List<String> dummyText = new List<string>() { "One", "Two", "Three", "Four", "Five", "Six", "Seven", "Eight", "Nine", "Ten"}; for (int i = 0; i < dummyText.Count; i++) { Console.WriteLine(dummyText[i]); // <-- No exception here } } Does anybody know why this is happening?

    Read the article

  • In Google Chrome, how do I bring an existing popup window to the front using javascript from the par

    - by brahn
    I would like to have a button on a web page with the following behavior: On the first click, open a pop-up. On later clicks, if the pop-up is still open, just bring it to the front. If not, re-open. The below code works in Firefox (Mac & Windows), Safari (Mac & Windows), and IE8. (I have not yet tested IE6 or IE7.) However, in Google Chrome (both Mac & Windows) later clicks fail to bring the existing pop-up to the front as desired. How can I make this work in Chrome? <head> <script type="text/javascript"> var popupWindow = null; var doPopup = function () { if (popupWindow && !popupWindow.closed) { popupWindow.focus(); } else { popupWindow = window.open("http://google.com", "_blank", "width=200,height=200"); } }; </script> </head> <body> <button onclick="doPopup(); return false"> create a pop-up </button> </body> Background: I am re-asking this question specifically for Google Chrome, as I think I my code solves the problem at least for other modern browsers and IE8. If there is a preferred etiquette for doing so, please let me know.

    Read the article

  • How to check whether user is login in web application?

    - by Morgan Cheng
    I want to learn the whole details of web application authentication. So, I decided to write a CodeIgniter authentication library from scratch. Now, I have to make design decision about how to determine whether one user is login. Basically, after user input username & password pair. A cookie is set for this session, following navigations in the web application will not require username & password. The server side will check whether the session cookie is valid to determine whether current user is login. The question is: how to determine whether cookie is valid cookie issued from server side? I can image the most simple way is to have the cookie value stored in session status as well. For each HTTP request, compare the value from cookie and the value from server session. (Since CodeIgniter session library store session variables in cookies, it is not applicable without some tweak.) This method requires storage in server side. For huge web application that is deployed in multiple datacenters. It is possible that user input username & password when browsing in one datacenter, while he/she access the web application in another datacenter later. The expected behavior is that user just input username & password once. As a result, all datacenters should be able to access the session status. That is possible not applicable even the session status is stored in external storage such as database. I tried Google. I login Google with Asian proxy which is supposed to direct me to datacenters in Asian. Then I switch to North American proxy which should direct me to datacenters in North America. It recognize my login without asking username and password again. So, is there any way to determine whether user is login without server side session status?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 216 217 218 219 220 221 222 223 224 225 226 227  | Next Page >