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  • getting active records to display as a plist

    - by phil swenson
    I'm trying to get a list of active record results to display as a plist for being consumed by the iphone. I'm using the plist gem v 3.0. My model is called Post. And I want Post.all (or any array or Posts) to display correctly as a Plist. I have it working fine for one Post instance: [http://pastie.org/580902][1] that is correct, what I would expect. To get that behavior I had to do this: class Post < ActiveRecord::Base def to_plist attributes.to_plist end end However, when I do a Post.all, I can't get it to display what I want. Here is what happens: http://pastie.org/580909 I get marshalling. I want output more like this: [http://pastie.org/580914][2] I suppose I could just iterate the result set and append the plist strings. But seems ugly, I'm sure there is a more elegant way to do this. I am rusty on Ruby right now, so the elegant way isn't obvious to me. Seems like I should be able to override ActiveRecord and make result-sets that pull back more than one record take the ActiveRecord::Base to_plist and make another to_plist implementation. In rails, this would go in environment.rb, right?

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  • iPhone producing strange results on 'if' statement

    - by Rob
    I have a UIPicker where the user inputs a specified time (i.e. 13:00, 13:01, 13:02, etc.) - which determines their score. Once they hit the button an alert comes up with the score that is determined through this 'if-else' statement. Everything seems to work great MOST of the time - but I am getting some erratic behavior. This is the code: //Gets my value from the UIPicker and then converts it into a format that can be used in the 'if' statement. NSInteger runRow = [runTimePicker selectedRowInComponent:2]; NSString *runSelected = [runTimePickerData objectAtIndex:runRow]; NSString *runSelectedFixed = [runSelected stringByReplacingOccurrencesOfString:@":" withString:@"."]; //The actual 'if' statment. if ([runSelectedFixed floatValue] <= 13.00) { runScore = 100; } else if ([runSelectedFixed floatValue] <= 13.06) { runScore = 99; } else if ([runSelectedFixed floatValue] <= 13.12) { runScore = 97; } else if ([runSelectedFixed floatValue] <= 13.18) { runScore = 96; } else if ([runSelectedFixed floatValue] <= 13.24) { runScore = 94; } else if ([runSelectedFixed floatValue] <= 13.30) { runScore = 93; } else if ([runSelectedFixed floatValue] <= 13.36) { runScore = 92; } else if ([runSelectedFixed floatValue] <= 13.42) { runScore = 90; } else if ([runSelectedFixed floatValue] <= 13.48) { runScore = 89; } else if ([runSelectedFixed floatValue] <= 13.54) { runScore = 88; } Now, when I test the program, I will get the expected result when I choose '13:00' which is '100'. I also get the expected result of '99' when I choose all of the times between '13:01 and 13:05'. BUT, when I choose '13:06' it gives me a score of '97'. I also get a score of '97' on '13:07 through 13:12' - which is the desired result. Why would I get a '97' right on '13:12' but not get a '99' right on '13:06'???? Could this be a memory leak or something???

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  • SetMatrix() does not copy all values to HLSL

    - by Tili
    Hi, I want to use the contents of a vector of D3DXMatrices to my shader. m_pLightMatrices->SetMatrixArray(&currentLightMatrices[0].m[0][0],0,numLights); As we know the internals of a vector this poses no problems (as it is just a dynamic array). Now when I access this matrix in hlsl to fill up a struct I get this strange behavior: struct LightTest { float3 LightPos; float LightRange; float4 LightDiffuse; float3 LightAtt; }; float4x4 currentLight = gLights[0]; LightTest lt; lt.LightPos = currentLight._m00_m01_m02; //{0,0,0} lt.LightDiffuse = currentLight[1].rgba; //{0,0,0,0} lt.LightRange = currentLight._m03; //this gives me a value lt.LightAtt = currentLight[2].xyz; //{0,0,0} While debugging I see that my matrix is nicely filled with the variables I want. When I try to hardcode check what is in the struct I get all zero's, except the LightRange. As you can see I tried different methods of accessing the float4x4 but without any other results. Why oh why is hlsl not copying all my variables ?

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  • How to make a piece of WPF content take up the entire application window

    - by Bojin Li
    I'm working on an application that contains a number of content areas. I want to implement a behavior such that in response to user input, any of these content areas can be toggled to fit the entire application window, and optionally back to its original position again. I experimented with several approaches and none of them seem optimal for me. Here's what I tried to do: Use the ClipToBoundsProperty on the content I want to make "Full Screen": Doesn't work because only the CanvasPanel seems to fully respect this property. The application need to be localized so I would really like to avoid the CanvasPanel. Use a Grid and collapse the other content areas, such that only the one I want to see is visible, hence taking up the entire screen: This will probably work but doesn't seem easy to implement nor maintain. The "Full Screen" content area could be several levels deep, for example residing inside a Tabcontrol, so I would have to hide the tab headers too etc. Reconstruct the content area in a separate view and display it while hiding the rest: Seems easy enough to do with DataTemplates and my ViewModel objects, but any GUI/View only states are not preserved using this approach. Somehow "lift" the GUI/View I want to "Full Screen" into the separate view and display it while hiding the rest: I don't know how to do this or even if this is possible. Anyway if anyone knows a better approach I would love to know about it. Thanks a lot!

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  • Are there concurrency problems when using -performSelector:withObject:afterDelay: ?

    - by mystify
    For example, I often use this: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:someDelay]; Now, lets say I call this 10 times to perform at the exact same delay, like: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; - (void)doSomethingAfterDelay:(id)someObject { /* access an array, read stuff, write stuff, do different things that would suffer in multithreaded environments .... all operations are nonatomic! */ } I have observed pretty strange behavior when doing things like this. For my understanding, this method schedules a timer to fire on the current thread, so in this case the main thread. But since it doesn't create new threads, it actually should not be possible to run into concurrency problems, right?

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  • Are there concurrency problems when using -performSelector:withObject:afterDelay: ?

    - by mystify
    For example, I often use this: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:someDelay]; Now, lets say I call this 10 times to perform at the exact same delay, like: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; - (void)doSomethingAfterDelay:(id)someObject { /* access an array, read stuff, write stuff, do different things that would suffer in multithreaded environments .... all operations are nonatomic! */ } I have observed pretty strange behavior when doing things like this. For my understanding, this method schedules a timer to fire on the current thread, so in this case the main thread. But since it doesn't create new threads, it actually should not be possible to run into concurrency problems, right?

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  • Modify url in browser using javascript?

    - by user246114
    Hi, Is it possible to change the url in the user's browser without actually loading a page, using javascript? I don't think it is (could lead to unwanted behavior), I'm in a situation where this would be convenient though: I have a web app which displays reports generated by users. Layout roughly looks like: ----------------------------------------------------------- Column 1 | Column 2 ----------------------------------------------------------- Report A | Report B | Currently selected report contents here. Report C | right now the user would be looking at a url like: www.mysite.com/user123 To see the above page. When the user clicks the report names in column 1, I load the contents of that report in column 2 using ajax. This is convenient for the user, but the url in their browser remains unchanged. The users want to copy the url for a report to share with friends, so I suppose I could provide a button to generate a url for them, but it would just be more convenient for them to have it already as the url in their browser, something like: www.mysite.com/user123/reportb the alternate is to not load the contents of the report in column 2 using ajax, but rather a full page refresh. This would at least have a linkable url ready for the user in their url bar, but not as convenient as using ajax. Thanks

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  • Is it possible to reference remote content from chrome.manifest? (XULRunner)

    - by siemaa
    Hi, I have a xulrunner application and I've been trying to reference remote content from chrome.manifest file. Tt's an application for the company I work in; it's run on a number of computers (most of them are used by other employees as well) as a kind of an internet monitoring service. The problem I'd like to solve is this: updating the code of such application usually requires me to manually copy the modified files to every computer that the application is running on (I've had no luck trying to make automatic updates via xulrunner platform). This process has become very tedious. What I'd like to have is a web server, where all of the xul and js files would be accessible, so that every application could reference them from there. This would require me only to update the code on that server, and the applications (when restarted) would automatically get the latest code. What I managed to do: I can reference js scripts from a xul file using http based urls and everything works fine (I can use local, binary components etc.), although the xul file has to be local - that I'd like to change. But when I write in chrome.manifest a line like: content my_app http://path/to/app/files/ and then use the line in default/preferences/pref.js pref("toolkit.defaultChromeURI", "chrome://my_app/content/my_app.xul"); it just opens a console window (to test I manually run the application with the -console option) and no code gets executed. The file can be downloaded remotely using wget so I guess this isn't the web server issue. The applications work on Windows machines. Is there some kind of security issue causing such behavior or am I doing something wrong? Is it even possible to register remote, http based content as chrome?

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  • Need help managing MySql connections

    - by David Jenings
    I'm having trouble finding a clear explanation of connection pooling. I'm building an app using the .NET connector I downloaded from mysql.com. The app only needs one db connection but will be running simultaneously on about 6 machines on my network. Normally, I'd create the connection at startup and just leave it. But I'm seeing lots of posts from people who say that's bad practice. Also I'm concerned about timeouts. My app will run 24/7 and there may be extended periods without database activity. I'm leaning toward the following: using (MySqlConnection conn = new MySqlConnection(connStr)) { conn.Open(); // use connection } But I'm not sure I understand what's going on in the background. Is this actually closing the connection and allowing gc to kill the object, or is there a built in pooling behavior that preserves the object and redelivers it the next time I try to create one? I certainly don't want the app reauthenticating across the network every time I hit the database. Can anyone offer me some advise?

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  • Should a "script" tag be allowed to remove itself?

    - by Nischal
    We've been having a discussion at our workplace on this with some for and some against the behavior. Wanted to hear views from you guys : <html> <body> <div> Test! <script> document.body.removeChild(document.getElementsByTagName('div')[0]); </script> </div> </body> </html> Should the above script work and do what it's supposed to do? First, let's see what's happening here : I have a javascript that's inside the <div> element. This javascript will delete the child node within body which happens to hold the div inside which the script itself exists. Now, the above script works fine in Firefox, Opera and IE8. But IE6 and IE7 give an alert saying they cannot open the page. Let's not debate on how IE should have handled this (they've accepted it as a bug and hence fixed it in IE8). The point here is since the 'SCRIPT' tag itself is a part of DOM, should it be allowed to do something like this? Should it even exist after such an operation? Edit: Firefox, Opera, IE9 etc. do not remove the 'script' tag if I run the above code. But, document.getElementsByTagName('script').length returns 0! To understand what I mean, add alert(document.getElementsByTagName('script').length); before and after document.body.removeChild(document.getElementsByTagName('div')[0]); in the code above.

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  • Unnecessary Redundancy with Tables.

    - by Stacey
    My items are listed as follows; This is just a summary of course. But I'm using a method shown for the "Detail" table to represent a type of 'inheritence', so to speak - since "Item" and "Downloadable" are going to be identical except that each will have a few additional fields relevant only to them. My question is in this design pattern. This sort of thing appears many, many times in our projects - is there a more intelligent way to handle it? I basically need to normalize the tables as much as possible. I'm extremely new to databases and so this is all very confusing to me. There are 5 items. Awards, Items, Purchases, Tokens, and Downloads. They are all very, very similar, except each has a few pieces of data relevant only to itself. I've tried to use a declaration field (like an enumerator 'Type' field) in conjunction with nullable columns, but I was told that is a bad approach. What I have done is take everything similar and place it in a single table, and then each type has its own table that references a column in the 'base' table. The problem occurs with relationships, or junctions. Linking all of these back to a customer. Each type takes around 2 additional tables to properly junction all of the data together- and as such, my database is growing very, very large. Is there a smarter practice for this kind of behavior? Item ID | GUID Name | varchar(64) Product ID | GUID Name | varchar(64) Store | GUID [ FK ] Details | GUID [FK] Downloadable ID | GUID Name | varchar(64) Url | nvarchar(2048) Details | GUID [FK] Details ID | GUID Price | decimal Description | text Peripherals [ JUNCTION ] ID | GUID Detail | GUID [FK] Store ID | GUID Addresses | GUID Addresses ID | GUID Name | nvarchar(64) State | int [FK] ZipCode | int Address | nvarchar(64) State ID | int Name | varchar(32)

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  • Must JsUnit Cases Reside Under the Same Directory as JsUnit?

    - by chernevik
    I have installed JsUnit and a test case as follows: /home/chernevik/Programming/JavaScript/jsunit /home/chernevik/Programming/JavaScript/jsunit/testRunner.html /home/chernevik/Programming/JavaScript/jsunit/myTests/lineTestAbs.html /home/chernevik/Programming/JavaScript/lineTestAbs.html When I open the test runner in a browser as a file, and test lineTestAbs.html from the jsunit/myTests directory, it passes. When I test the same file from the JavaScript directory, the test runner times out, asking if the file exists or is a test page. Questions: Am I doing something wrong here, or is this the expected behavior? Is it possible to put test cases in a different directory structure, and if so what is the proper path reference to to JsUnitCore.js? Would JsUnit behave differently if the files were retrieved from an HTTP server? <html> <head> <title>Test Page line(m, x, b)</title> <script language="JavaScript" src="/home/chernevik/Programming/JavaScript/jsunit/app/jsUnitCore.js"></script> <script language="JavaScript"> function line(m, x, b) { return m*x + b; } function testCalculationIsValid() { assertEquals("zero intercept", 10, line(5, 2, 0)); assertEquals("zero slope", 5, line(0, 2, 5)); assertEquals("at x = 10", 25, line(2, 10, 5)); } </script> </head> <body> This pages tests line(m, x, b). </body> </html>

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  • Gmail Sync on Android phone

    - by sunocky
    Android has the Gmail push features, which means the new message arrives in the mailbox without checking or refreshing the mailbox. As I understand, the sync processes are like these: 1) User turns on the sync 2) There will be a alert msg and the sync flag in the Gmail DB of this device will be True 3) When a new email reach the Gmail Server, it will check if the device sync value, if it's True then send the email OK, here, I don't quite understand how exactly does it work, For a WiFi and cell signal connection, does the phone has a TCP socket open keep listening to the Gmail Server, or when a new email arrives the Server send a SMS alert to the phone, and then it will open the data channel to fetch the email? Are the two ways of connections have different approaches? And second question is which method is the priority one? Say when you are in the middle of receiving data(emails), and suddenly the phone connect to a wireless network, will the data socket be closed and then reopened for the WiFi one? What's the behavior for the case when carrier's data channel and WiFi flips? I have also downloaded the source code, anyone knows which part should I be looking into in order to solves my questions? I found a folder called "email" inside the folder "package", should I be looking at its code? I know I asked quite some questions here, I'd appreciate if you know the answer for any of them, thanks very much!

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  • How can I load a div in rails in response to clicks on another div?

    - by mmr
    I'm very new to Rails (and web) programming, so I'm not even sure what technology I should be looking for for this. I've downloaded and run through the first five chapters of the Rails tutorial, but now have a very simple request. On the left hand side of a web page, I will have a table. If the user clicks on an element in that table, I want to have the right hand side of the page show something new. I already have a page to display the table, viz: <div class="center hero-unit"> <div class="container"> <h2>2012 Yearly Report</h2> <div class="row-fluid"> <div class="span12"> <div class="span4"> <table border="1"> </table> </div> <div class="span6"> <!-- load stuff here based on what someone clicks on in the table --> </div> </div> </div> </div> </div> And I'm using bootstrap layouts to display everything. I just don't understand how to change the contents of the 'span6' div based on user behavior in 'span4'.

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  • How can I bind the same dependency to many dependents in Ninject?

    - by Mike Bantegui
    Let's I have three interfaces: IFoo, IBar, IBaz. I also have the classes Foo, Bar, and Baz that are the respective implementations. In the implementations, each depends on the interface IContainer. So for the Foo (and similarly for Bar and Baz) the implementation might read: class Foo : IFoo { private readonly IDependency Dependency; public Foo(IDependency dependency) { Dependency = dependency; } public void Execute() { Console.WriteLine("I'm using {0}", Dependency.Name); } } Let's furthermore say I have a class Container which happens to contain instances of the IFoo, IBar and IBaz: class Container : IContainer { private readonly IFoo _Foo; private readonly IBar _Bar; private readonly IBaz _Baz; public Container(IFoo foo, IBar bar, IBaz baz) { _Foo = foo; _Bar = bar; _Baz = baz; } } In this scenario, I would like the implementation class Container to bind against IContainer with the constraint that the IDependency that gets injected into IFoo, IBar, and IBaz be the same for all three. In the manual way, I might implement it as: IDependency dependency = new Dependency(); IFoo foo = new Foo(dependency); IBar bar = new Bar(dependency); IBaz baz = new Baz(dependency); IContainer container = new Container(foo, bar, baz); How can I achieve this within Ninject? Note: I am not asking how to do nested dependencies. My question is how I can guarantee that a given dependency is the same among a collection of objects within a materialized service. To be extremely explicit, I understand that Ninject in it's standard form will generate code that is equivalent to the following: IContainer container = new Container(new Foo(new Dependency()), new Bar(new Dependency()), new Baz(new Dependency())); I would not like that behavior.

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  • WPF Calling a custom command on a custom control (from a viewmodel?)

    - by user190615
    I want to take a snap of the visual tree of a custom wpf control when the user clicks a button in a toolbar. The control is bound to a viewmodel. I have a BitmapSource dp in the custom control holding the snapped image which is bound to a property on my VM. The BitmapSource dp on the control is updated via a custom command on the control. I've tied the toolbar button's command to call the controls command which updates the BitmapSource. Now the problem is the end result I want is when the user clicks the button, the control updates its image and then the vm offers to save this image. I cant wrap my mind around an mvvm way of doing this. One inelegant solution is that control fires an event after the image is updated which is routed to the viewmodel as a command(command behavior) but then if i want to do something else with the image on some other button click, all the commands bound to the events will fire. All thoughts appreciated. EDIT The command on the control is a RoutedCommand and the commands in my vm are Prism delegate commands.

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  • android service using SystemClock.elapsedRealTime() instead of SystemClock.uptimeMillis() works in emulator but not in samsung captivate ?

    - by Aleadam
    First question here in stackoverflow :) I'm running a little android 2.2 app to log cpu frequency usage. It is set up as a service that will write the data every 10 seconds using a new thread. The code for that part is very basic (see below). It works fine, except that it would not keep track of time while the phone is asleep (which, I know, is the expected behavior). Thus, I changed the code to use SystemClock.elapsedRealTime() instead. Problem is, in emulator both commands are equivalent, but in the phone the app will start the thread but it will never execute the mHandler.postAtTime command. Any advice regarding why this is happening or how to overcome the issue is greatly appreciated. PS: stopLog() is not being called. That's not the problem. mUpdateTimeTask = new Runnable() { public void run() { long millis = SystemClock.uptimeMillis() - mStartTime; int seconds = (int) (millis / 1000); int minutes = seconds / 60; seconds = seconds % 60; String freq = readCPU (); if (freq == null) Toast.makeText(CPU_log_Service.this, "CPU frequency is unreadable.\nPlease make sure the file has read rights.", Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); String str = new String ((minutes*60 + seconds) + ", " + freq + "\n"); if (!writeLog (str)) stopLog(); mHandler.postAtTime(this, mStartTime + (((minutes * 60) + seconds + 10) * 1000)); }}; mStartTime = SystemClock.uptimeMillis(); mHandler.removeCallbacks(mUpdateTimeTask); mHandler.postDelayed(mUpdateTimeTask, 100);

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  • Kill process started with System.Diagnostic.Process.Start("FileName")

    - by PedroC88
    Hello; I am trying to create an app that will perform actions on specific times (much like the Windows Task Scheduler). I am currently using Process.Start() to lunch the file (or exe) required by the task. I am initiating a process by calling a file (an .mp3) and the process starts WMP (since it is the default application), so far so good. Now I wan't to kill that process. I know that it is normal behavior for the Process.Start(string, string) to return nothing (null in C#) in this case. So I am asking how can i close WMP when I called it through Process.Start(string, string)?? Edit: Please note that I am not opening WMP directly with Process.Start() and this is the line with which I run the process: VB: Me._procs.Add(Process.Start(Me._procInfo)) C#: this._procs.Add(Process.Start(this._procInfo)) _procInfo is a ProcessStartInfo instance. _procInfo.FileName is "C:\route\myFile.mp3". That is why WMP opens. In any case, all of the Start() methods, except for the instance-one which returns a boolean, return nothing (null in C#), because WMP is not the process that was directly created (please note that WMP is run and the song does play).

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  • Looking for PyQt4 embeddable terminal widget

    - by redShadow
    I wrote an application that, among other things, launches some "backend" processes to do some stuff. These subprocesses are very likely to fail or have unexpected behavior since they have to operate in quite hard conditions, so I prefer to give full control over them to the operator. NOTE: I am running these processes using a subprocess module based class instead of QProcess to have some more control functionality over the running process. At the moment, I'm using a QPlainTextEdit widget to which I append standard output/error from the subprocess, plus some buttons to quickly send some common signals (INT, STOP, CONT, KILL, ..), but: In some cases it would be useful to send some input too. Although it could be done with a text input box, I would prefer using something more "professional" Of course, there is no direct way to interpret special control characters, such as color codes, cursor movement, etc.. I had to implement an auto-scroll management of the console, but it is not guaranteed 100% to work nicely (sometimes the scroll locking doesn't work as expected, etc.) So: does anyone know something I could use to accomplish these needs? I found qtermwidget but it seems more oriented on handling a shell process (and the Python bindings seems to let you run /bin/bash only) by itself than communicating with an already existing process I/O.

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  • (iphone) How to access CGRect member variable inside c++ class?

    - by Eugene
    i have a c++ class with CGrect variable and i'm getting segfault when trying to access it. class Parent { //with some virtual functions/dtors }; class Child { public: void SetRect(CGRect rect) { mRect = rect; } CGRect GetRect() { return mRect; } int GetIndex() { return mIndex; } private: CGRect mRect; int mIndex; }; i'm doing CGRect rect = childPtr->GetRect(); from object c code and it segfaults. I printed *childPtr just before the call and rect looks fine with intended data value. int index = childPtr->GetIndex(); from same object c code(*.mm), works fine though. Any idea why I'm getting segfaults? Thank you edit - It's got something to do with virtual functions. (gdb) p singlePuzzlePiece-GetRect() Program received signal EXC_BAD_ACCESS, Could not access memory. Reason: KERN_PROTECTION_FAILURE at address: 0x00000001 0x00000001 in ?? () Cannot access memory at address 0x1 The program being debugged was signaled while in a function called from GDB. GDB remains in the frame where the signal was received. To change this behavior use "set unwindonsignal on" Evaluation of the expression containing the function (at 0x1) will be abandoned. (gdb) Somehow, the function is not properly compiled?

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  • C++ const-reference semantics?

    - by Kristoffer
    Consider the sample application below. It demonstrates what I would call a flawed class design. #include <iostream> using namespace std; struct B { B() : m_value(1) {} long m_value; }; struct A { const B& GetB() const { return m_B; } void Foo(const B &b) { // assert(this != &b); m_B.m_value += b.m_value; m_B.m_value += b.m_value; } protected: B m_B; }; int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { A a; cout << "Original value: " << a.GetB().m_value << endl; cout << "Expected value: 3" << endl; a.Foo(a.GetB()); cout << "Actual value: " << a.GetB().m_value << endl; return 0; } Output: Original value: 1 Expected value: 3 Actual value: 4 Obviously, the programmer is fooled by the constness of b. By mistake b points to this, which yields the undesired behavior. My question: What const-rules should you follow when designing getters/setters? My suggestion: Never return a reference to a member variable if it can be set by reference through a member function. Hence, either return by value or pass parameters by value. (Modern compilers will optimize away the extra copy anyway.)

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  • How to add a checkbox for each row in Rails 3.2 index page?

    - by user938363
    We would like to add a checkbox to each row on Rails index page to flag for the row. This checkbox is not part of the object (no checkbox boolean in database). When the index page shows, a user can check the box to trigger an event for the row in following process: #objects/checkbox_index.html.erb <table> <tr> <th>CheckBox</th> <th>Object Name</th> <th>Object ID</th> </tr> <%= @objects.each do |obj| %> <tr> <td><%= checkbox %></td> <td><%= obj.name %></td> <td><%= obj.id %></td> </tr> <% end %> </table> In controller, the process will be like this: @objects.each do |obj| some_event if obj.checked end There are a couple of questions we don't quite understand: 1. How to declare an array checkbox variable on the form and link it to each row of obj? We have been using `attr_accessor` to declare var for a form. 2. How to retrieve each row on checkbox_index form and pass them back to controller? We are using simple_form for new/edit. Can anyone point me towards any good examples of this sort of behavior, or suggest what we should be thinking about? Many Thanks.

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  • Perl Linux::Inotify2 - can't respond to events anymore

    - by alcy
    I am getting some really weird behavior when using Linux::Inotify2 module for watching a directory for any newly created files. I had made a test script to see how it worked, and once that was done, I went on to incorporating its usage in the other scripts, in which it didn't work. Then, when I tried my earlier test script again to find some information, strangely that stopped working as well. It hasn't worked since then. There were no package/distro upgrades during that time. The problem is that it has stopped responding to events. Here's the test script: #!/usr/bin/perl use strict; use warnings; use Linux::Inotify2; my $inotify = new Linux::Inotify2 or die "unable to create new inotify object: $!"; my $dir = "/my/dir"; $inotify->watch($dir, IN_CREATE, sub { my $e = shift; print $e->fullname; }) or die " Can't watch $!"; 1 while $inotify->poll; A strace on the running script kills the script. Otherwise when strace is used when starting the script, then it does seem to read the new events, but there's no response to those events. Any suggestions for debugging this further ?

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  • How do I make a shrinkable scrollbar?

    - by diadem
    What I want: <div style="overflow:scroll;width:100%;height:50%;"> &nbsp; <div style="height:500px;width:400px;border:solid 3px red;"> </div> </div> <div style="overflow:scroll;width:100%;HEIGHT:50%;"> &nbsp; <div style="height:500px;width:400px;border:solid 3px red;"> </div> </div> Notice how if I shrink the height of the window the scrollbars shrink. This is the functionality I want. The issue: I want to make something similar to the above, only with a fixed height of 100 pixels for the top div. If I do this in practice the bottom scrollbar no longer shrinks as I shrink the page - the system adds an outer scrollbar to manage both sections. I don't want this, I want to retain the behavior seen above. How do I do this?

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  • Strangest LINQ to SQL case I have ever seen

    - by kubaw
    OK, so this is the strangest issue in .net programming I have ever seen. It seems that object fields are serialized in .net web services in order of field initialization. It all started with Flex not accepting SOAP response from .net web service. I have found out that it was due to the order of serialized fields was statisfying the order of fields in declared serializable class. It had something to do with generic lists and LINQ to SQL but I can't find out what. This one is really hard to reproduce. Example to get the idea: [Serializable] public class SomeSample { public int A; public int B; public int C; } I was querying some data tables within asmx web service using linq and returning list of SomeSample objects: var r = (from ...... select new SomeSample { A = 1, C = 3 }).ToList(); Now the list was once more iterated and B field was applied some value (ex. 2). However the returned soap envelope contained following excerpt: <A>1</A><C>3</C><B>2</B> Please notice the order of serialization. If I initially initialized all fields: var r = (from ...... select new SomeSample { A = 1, B = 2, C = 3 }).ToList(); object was serialized in correct order. I must add, that in both cases the debugger shows exactly the same content of "r" variable. Am I losing my mind or is this normal behavior? Thanks in advance.

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