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• Code producing System.NullReferenceException error for Membership.GetUser(). This is VB.Net (ASP.Net 4)

  - by Derrek

  I have a Default.aspx page that is not static. I have added functionality with datalist and sqldatasources. When a user logins he/she will see items like saved workouts, saved equipment, total replys, etc... This is based on getting the currently logged in user UserID. Quite simply this works great when the user is logged in. However, I do not want to force a user to login to view the Default page because it does have functionality on it that does not require login. When a user is not logged in of course I receive the [System.NullReferenceException] error. I understand the error well but I do not know how to code to fix it. That is where I need help. I will admit I am more designer than developer. However, I do know the exception error I am receivving is caused by me not setting a value in my code when a user is not logged in. I do not know how to do that and have for a week made unsuccessful attempts at writing the code. Both sets of code below compile for VB.Net/ASP.Net 4/Visual Studio 2010 without errors. However, I still get the System.NullReferenceException error if not logged in. I know it can be done but I do not know the right syntax. If you can help please insert you code in mine or write it out. JUST TELLING ME WHERE TO GO TO FIND AN ANSWER WON'T HELP. I HAVE DONE THAT FOR 7 STRAIGHT DAYS. I APPRECIATE OUR HELP. Partial Class _Default Inherits System.Web.UI.Page Protected Sub SqlDataSource4_Selecting(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As SqlDataSourceCommandEventArgs) Handles SqlDataSource4.Selecting Dim MemUser As MembershipUser MemUser = Membership.GetUser() If Not MemUser Is DBNull.Value Then UserID.Text = MemUser.ProviderUserKey.ToString() e.Command.Parameters("@UserId").Value = MemUser.ProviderUserKey.ToString() End If End Sub -------------------------------------ORIGINAL CODE------------------------------- Partial Class _Default Inherits System.Web.UI.Page Protected Sub SqlDataSource4_Selecting(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As SqlDataSourceCommandEventArgs) Handles SqlDataSource4.Selecting Dim MemUser As MembershipUser MemUser = Membership.GetUser() UserID.Text = MemUser.ProviderUserKey.ToString() e.Command.Parameters("@UserId").Value = MemUser.ProviderUserKey.ToString() End Sub

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• undefined method `output_data' for #<EventManager:0x007fa4220320c8> (NoMethodError)

  - by Roger Camps

  I keep getting this error: event_manager.rb:83:in': undefined method output_data' for #<EventManager:0x007fc5018320c0> (NoMethodError) I am following the exercise on this website: Here is my code (My error comes towards the end with DEF OUTPUT_DATA ...): # Dependencies require "csv" # Class Definition class EventManager INVALID_PHONE_NUMBER = "0000000000" INVALID_ZIPCODE = "00000" def initialize puts "EventManager Initialized." filename = "event_attendees.csv" @file = CSV.open(filename, {:headers => true, :header_converters => :symbol}) end def print_names @file.each do |line| puts line.inspect puts line[2] + " " + line[3] end end #printing home phone number method def print_numbers @file.each do |line| number = clean_number(line[:homephone]) puts number end end #cleaning numbers method def clean_number(number) cleaner= number.delete('.' + ')' + '(' + '-') if cleaner.length == 10 # Do Nothing elsif cleaner.length == 11 if cleaner.start_with?("1") cleaner = cleaner[1..-1] else cleaner = INVALID_PHONE_NUMBER end else cleaner = INVALID_PHONE_NUMBER end return cleaner end def clean_zipcode(original) if original.nil? zipcode = INVALID_ZIPCODE elsif original.length < 5 while original.length < 5 original = original.insert(0, "0") end else return original end return zipcode end def print_zipcodes @file.each do |line| zipcode = clean_zipcode(line[:zipcode]) puts zipcode end def output_data output = CSV.open("event_attendees_clean.csv", "w") @file.each do |line| output << line end end end end # Script manager = EventManager.new #manager.print_numbers #manager.print_zipcodes manager.output_data I've tried several things, checked all through the internet and I just can't figure it out myself. I will really appreciate any help. Thank you in advance!

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• How to select "child" entities in subview?

  - by Andy

  I am trying to manage a drill-down list of data. I've got an entity, Contact, that has a to-many relationship with another entity, Rule. In my root view controller, I use a fetched results controller to manage and display the list of Contacts. When a Contact is tapped, I push a new view controller onto the stack with a list of the Contact's Rules. I have not been able to figure out how to use a second fetched results controller to display the Rules, so I'm using the following: // create a set of the contact's rules rules = [NSMutableSet set]; rules = [self.contact mutableSetValueForKey:@"rule"]; // create an array of rules from the set arrayOfRules = [NSMutableArray arrayWithCapacity:[rules count]]; for (id oneObject in rules) [arrayOfRules addObject:oneObject]; // sort the array of rules NSSortDescriptor *descriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"phoneLabel" ascending:YES]; [arrayOfRules sortUsingDescriptors:[NSArray arrayWithObject:descriptor]]; [descriptor release]; I create a set of Rules, then use that to create an array of Rules for sorting. I then use these two collections to populate the grouped table view. All of this appears to be working correctly. Here's my problem: There are several different actions a user can take in this view, and most of them require that I know which Rule was tapped. But I can't figure out how to get that. For instance, say a user wants to delete a Rule. It seems to me the proper approach is something like... [rules removeObject:ruleObjectToBeRemoved] ...but I can't figure out how to specifiy ruleObjectToBeRemoved. I hope all of this makes sense. As usual, thanks in advance for any advice you can offer.

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• SQL -- How is DISTINCT so fast without an index?

  - by Jonathan

  Hi, I have a database with a table called 'links' with 600 million rows in it in SQLite. There are 2 columns in the database - a "src" column and a "dest" column. At present there are no indices. There are a fair number of common values between src and dest, but also a fair number of duplicated rows. The first thing I'm trying to do is remove all the duplicate rows, and then perform some additional processing on the results, however I've been encountering some weird issues. Firstly, SELECT * FROM links WHERE src=434923 AND dest=5010182. Now this returns one result fairly quickly and then takes quite a long time to run as I assume it's performing a tablescan on the rest of the 600m rows. However, if I do SELECT DISTINCT * FROM links, then it immediately starts returning rows really quickly. The question is: how is this possible?? Surely for each row, the row must be compared against all of the other rows in the table, but this would require a tablescan of the remaining rows in the table which SHOULD takes ages! Any ideas why SELECT DISTINCT is so much quicker than a standard SELECT?

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• Best Approach for Checking and Inserting Records

  - by nevets1219

  In one of our existing C programs which purpose is: Open connection to DB for record in all_record: if record contain certain data: if record is NOT in table A: // see #1 insert record information into table A and B // see #2 Close connection to DB select field from table where field=XXX 2 inserts This is typically done every X months to sync everything up or so I'm told. I've also been told that this process takes roughly a couple of days. There is (currently) at most 2.5million records (though not necessarily all 2.5m will be inserted). One of the table contains 10 fields and the other 5 fields. There isn't much to be done about iterating through the records since that part can't be changed at the moment. What I would like to do is speed up the part where I query MySQL. I'm not sure if I have left out any important details -- please let me know! I'm also no SQL expert so feel free to point out the obvious. I thought about: Putting all the inserts into a transaction (at the moment I'm not sure how important it is for the transaction to be all-or-none or if this affects performance) Using Insert X Where Not Exists Y LOAD DATA INFILE (but that would require I create a (possibly) large temp file) I read that (hopefully someone can confirm) I should drop indexes so they aren't re-calculated. mysql Ver 14.7 Distrib 4.1.22, for sun-solaris2.10 (sparc) using readline 4.3

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• How can I use SQL Server's full text search across multiple rows at once?

  - by Morbo

  I'm trying to improve the search functionality on my web forums. I've got a table of posts, and each post has (among other less interesting things): PostID, a unique ID for the individual post. ThreadID, an ID of the thread the post belongs to. There can be any number of posts per thread. Text, because a forum would be really boring without it. I want to write an efficient query that will search the threads in the forum for a series of words, and it should return a hit for any ThreadID for which there are posts that include all of the search words. For example, let's say that thread 9 has post 1001 with the word "cat" in it, and also post 1027 with the word "hat" in it. I want a search for cat hat to return a hit for thread 9. This seems like a straightforward requirement, but I don't know of an efficient way to do it. Using the regular FREETEXT and CONTAINS capabilities for N'cat AND hat' won't return any hits in the above example because the words exist in different posts, even though those posts are in the same thread. (As far as I can tell, when using CREATE FULLTEXT INDEX I have to give it my index on the primary key PostID, and can't tell it to index all posts with the same ThreadID together.) The solution that I currently have in place works, but sucks: maintain a separate table that contains the entire concatenated post text of every thread, and make a full text index on THAT. I'm looking for a solution that doesn't require me to keep a duplicate copy of the entire text of every thread in my forums. Any ideas? Am I missing something obvious?

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• Dynamic External Program in debug tab vs2008

  - by Justin Holbrook

  I am playing with NServiceBus using the generic host; specifically I'm working on having 2 different configurations, a debug configuration that logs to the console and a release version that logs to metabase (I'm using VS2008). I had just made some code changes (commented out a logging statement), but it was still showing in the log when I ran my solution. I eventually figured out that I had switched configuration to release, made my change, then built. I think the change isn’t being picked up because in the debug tab of my project properties I have the following (abbreviated) path to the generic host: C:...\Inventory\bin\Debug\NServiceBus.Host.exe Notice it specifically points to the debug directory. So basically even though I’m in release config it’s firing up the host in the debug directory which I think is then using the dll's in the debug directory (which is why my changes didn't get picked up). I tried to come up with a workaround, but have been unsuccessful. VS Macros (like $(Configuration)) and relative pathing are not allowed here. http://connect.microsoft.com/VisualStudio/feedback/details/422223/relative-path-not-allowed-in-c-project-debug-properties-window Any ideas? I hope this doesn’t require a custom build task.

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• JavaScript: When does JavaScript evaluate a function, onload or when the function is called?

  - by Benj

  When does JavaScript evaluate a function? Is it on page load or when the function is called? The reason why I ask is because I have the following code: function scriptLoaded() { // one of our scripts finished loading, detect which scripts are available: var jQuery = window.jQuery; var maps = window.google && google.maps; if (maps && !requiresGmaps.called) { requiresGmaps.called = true; requiresGmaps(); } if (jQuery && !requiresJQuery.called) { requiresJQuery.called = true; requiresJQuery(); } if (maps && jQuery && !requiresBothJQueryGmaps.called) { requiresBothJQueryGmaps.called = true; requiresBothJQueryGmaps(); } } // asynch download of script function addScript(url) { var script = document.createElement('script'); script.src = url; // older IE... script.onreadystatechange=function () { if (this.readyState == 'complete') scriptLoaded.call(this); } script.onload=scriptLoaded; document.getElementsByTagName('head')[0].appendChild(script); } addScript('http://google.com/gmaps.js'); addScript('http://jquery.com/jquery.js'); // define some function dependecies function requiresJQuery() { // create JQuery objects } function requiresGmaps() { // create Google Maps object, etc } function requiresBothJQueryGmaps() { ... } What I want to do is perform asynchronous download of my JavaScript and start at the earliest possible time to begin executing those scripts but my code has dependencies on when the scripted have been obviously downloaded and loaded. When I try the code above, it appears that my browser is still attempting to evaluate code within my require* functions even before those functions have been called. Is this correct? Or am I misunderstanding what's wrong with my code?

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• Is there a point to have multiple VS projects for an ASP.NET MVC application?

  - by mare

  I'm developing MVC application where I currently have 3 projects in solution. Core (it is supposed to be for Repositories, Business Classes, Models, HttpModules, HttpFilters, Settings, etc.) Data access (Data provider, for instance SqlDataProvider for working with SQL Server datastore - implements Repository interfaces, XmlDataProvider - also implements Repository interfaces but for local XML files as datastore) ASP.NET MVC project (all the typical stuff, UI, controllers, content, scripts, resources and helpers). I have no Models in my ASP.NET MVC project. I've just run into a problem because of that coz I want to use the new DataAnnotation feature in MVC 2 on my Bussiness class, which are, as said in Core, however I have I want to be able to localize the error messages. This where my problem starts. I cannot use my Resources from MVC project in Core. The MVC project references Core and it cannot be vice-versa. My options as I see them are: 1) Move Resources out but this would require correcting a whole bunch of Views and Controllers where I reference them, 2) Make a complete restructure of my app What are your thoughts on this? Also, Should I just move everything business related into Models folder in MVC project?? Does it even make any sense to have it structured like that, because we can just make subfolders for everything under MVC project? The whole Core library is not intended to ever be used for anything else, so there actually no point of compiling it to a separate DLL. Suggestions appreciated.

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• What is the proper way to wait a script loaded completely before another

  - by FatDogMark

  I am making a website that is divided by several sections <div id='section-1' class='section'>web content</div> <div id='section-2' class='section'>web content</div> I have like ten sections on my webpage ,each sections height is set to the user window height when document is ready by javascript $('.section').height($(window).height()); Some effects like slideshows on my webpage require the calculated height of the section in order to work properly. Therefore I always use something like this at document ready as a solution. setTimeout(startslideshow,1000); setTimeout(startanimations,1000); ...etc To make sure the section height is the user window height before the slideshow's code start because the sections cannot change to user window height instantly once the webpage loaded will generate serious problems in my slideshow code,like wrong calculated positions. Therefore there will be a situation that's after the page loaded, there will be about a second everything is messed up,before everything can works properly, how could I avoid that being seen by the user? I tried to $(document).hide(),or $('html,body').hide(), then fade in after a second,but I get other weird problems, especially on ipad,my fixed position top navigation bar will always become 'not fixed' while user is scrolling. As I am a self-learner, I afraid my method is not typical. I want to know what is the common ways of real web programmers usually do when they have to divide his webpage into different sections and set its height to window height , then make sure the other effects that's depends on the section height works properly and avoid to wait the height change for a second?

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• Is it possible to reference remote content from chrome.manifest? (XULRunner)

  - by siemaa

  Hi, I have a xulrunner application and I've been trying to reference remote content from chrome.manifest file. Tt's an application for the company I work in; it's run on a number of computers (most of them are used by other employees as well) as a kind of an internet monitoring service. The problem I'd like to solve is this: updating the code of such application usually requires me to manually copy the modified files to every computer that the application is running on (I've had no luck trying to make automatic updates via xulrunner platform). This process has become very tedious. What I'd like to have is a web server, where all of the xul and js files would be accessible, so that every application could reference them from there. This would require me only to update the code on that server, and the applications (when restarted) would automatically get the latest code. What I managed to do: I can reference js scripts from a xul file using http based urls and everything works fine (I can use local, binary components etc.), although the xul file has to be local - that I'd like to change. But when I write in chrome.manifest a line like: content my_app http://path/to/app/files/ and then use the line in default/preferences/pref.js pref("toolkit.defaultChromeURI", "chrome://my_app/content/my_app.xul"); it just opens a console window (to test I manually run the application with the -console option) and no code gets executed. The file can be downloaded remotely using wget so I guess this isn't the web server issue. The applications work on Windows machines. Is there some kind of security issue causing such behavior or am I doing something wrong? Is it even possible to register remote, http based content as chrome?

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• Why does false invalidate validates_presence_of?

  - by DJTripleThreat

  Ok steps to reproduce this: prompt> rails test_app prompt> cd test_app prompt> script/generate model event_service published:boolean then go into the migration and add not null and default published to false: class CreateEventServices < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :event_services do |t| t.boolean :published, :null => false, :default => false t.timestamps end end def self.down drop_table :event_services end end now migrate your changes and run your tests: prompt>rake db:migrate prompt>rake You should get no errors at this time. Now edit the model so that you validate_presence_of published: class EventService < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :published end Now edit the unit test event_service_test.rb: require 'test_helper' class EventServiceTest < ActiveSupport::TestCase test "the truth" do e = EventServer.new e.published = false assert e.valid? end end and run rake: prompt>rake You will get an error in the test. Now set e.published to true and rerun the test. IT WORKS! I think this probably has something to do with the field being boolean but I can't figure it out. Is this a bug in rails? or am I doing something wrong?

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• what is the wrong with this spec and controller code?

  - by user1609468

  I'm trying to test an existing rails project with rspec. And I want to test a controller but getting an error which I can't solve :S Here is the my spec code ; require 'spec_helper' describe BriefNotesController do before(:all) do @customer=Factory(:customer) @project=Factory(:project_started, :owner => @customer) end context 'get :new' do it 'should redirect to login page for not signed in users' do get :new, :project_id => @project.id response.should redirect_to("/kullanici-girisi") end it 'should be success and render new brief note page for project owner' do sign_in @customer get :new, :project_id => @project.id response.should be_success end end end Here is the my controller code ; class BriefNotesController < ApplicationController before_filter :authenticate_user! before_filter :find_project def new @brief_note = @project.brief_notes.new end def create @brief_note = @project.brief_notes.build(params[:brief_note]) if @brief_note.save redirect_to brief_project_path(@project) else render :action => :new end end private def find_project @project = current_user.projects.find_by_cached_slug([params[:project_id]]) end end I think current_user.projects.find_by_cached_slug method don't work. So this is the error; Failures: 1) BriefNotesController get :new should be success and render new brief note page for project owner Failure/Error: get :new, :project_id => @project.id NoMethodError: undefined method `brief_notes' for nil:NilClass # ./app/controllers/brief_notes_controller.rb:6:in `new' # ./spec/controllers/brief_notes_controller_spec.rb:19:in `block (3 levels) in <top (required)>'

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• C++: Switch statement within while loop?

  - by Jason

  I just started C++ but have some prior knowledge to other languages (vb awhile back unfortunately), but have an odd predicament. I disliked using so many IF statements and wanted to use switch/cases as it seemed cleaner, and I wanted to get in the practice.. But.. Lets say I have the following scenario (theorietical code): while(1) { //Loop can be conditional or 1, I use it alot, for example in my game char something; std::cout << "Enter something\n -->"; std::cin >> something; //Switch to read "something" switch(something) { case 'a': cout << "You entered A, which is correct"; break; case 'b': cout << "..."; break; } } And that's my problem. Lets say I wanted to exit the WHILE loop, It'd require two break statements? This obviously looks wrong: case 'a': cout << "You entered A, which is correct"; break; break; So can I only do an IF statement on the 'a' to use break;? Am I missing something really simple? This would solve a lot of my problems that I have right now.

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• How is machine code understood by the machine

  - by Kraken

  I have a very naive question here, and I would like you to correct me on whatever wrong concepts I put out here. The question is as follows: I have ubuntu installed on my machine, now I write a helloWorld.c program in C language. Now, on the operating system I have a compiler installed, when I execute my helloWorld.c program, the OS schedules the compiler and that basically compiles my code into machine code, which eventually, I execute. Now my kernel code is written in C, then how does my machine interprets that code? Say my kernel code is helloWorld.c, now would not I require any compiler, to compile this code. Also, if I hardcode a compiler in maybe ROM or something, then what language is it written in? Assembly language? Let me know if I have made myself clear with the problem. Thanks. EDIT: By kernel code I mean, the code for operating system. Operating System code. I guess it is written in C right?

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• Search for values in nested array

  - by dardub

  I have an array as follows array(2) { ["operator"] => array(2) { ["qty"] => int(2) ["id"] => int(251) } ["accessory209"] => array(2) { ["qty"] => int(1) ["id"] => int(209) } ["accessory211"] => array(2) { ["qty"] => int(1) ["id"] => int(211) } } I'm trying to find a way to verify an id value exists within the array and return bool. I'm trying to figure out a quick way that doesn't require creating a loop. Using the in_array function did not work, and I also read that it is quite slow. In the php manual someone recommended using flip_array() and then isset(), but I can't get it to work for a 2-d array. doing something like if($array['accessory']['id'] == 211) would also work for me, but I need to match all keys containing accessory -- not sure how to do that Anyways, I'm spinning in circles, and could use some help. This seems like it should be easy. Thanks.

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• Background loading javascript into iframe without using jQuery/Ajax?

  - by user210099

  I'm working on an offline only help system which requires loading a large amount of search-related data into an iframe before the search functionality can be used. Due to the folder structure of the project, I am unable to use Ajax-related background load methods, since the files I need are loaded a few directories "up and over." I have written some code which delays the loading of the help data until the rest of the webpage is loaded. The help data consists of a bunch of javascript files which have information about the terms, ect that exist in the help books which are installed on the system. The webpage works fine, until I start to load this help data into a hidden iframe. While the javascript files are loading, I can not use any of the webpage. Links that require a small files be downloaded for hover over effects don't show up, javascript (switching tabs on the page) has no effect. I'm wondering if this is just a limitation of the way javascript works, or if there's something else going on here. Once all the files are loaded for the help system, the webpage works as expected. function test(){ var MGCFrame = eval("parent.parent"); if((ALLFRAMESLOADED == true)){ t2 = MGCFrame.setTimeout("this.IHHeader.frames[0].loadData()",1); } else{ t1 = MGCFrame.setTimeout("this.IHHeader.frames[0].test()",1000); } } Load data simply starts the data loading process. Thanks for any help you can provide.

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• Using Gem Dependencies if a server is 2.0 instead of 2.1

  - by user548744

  At work for internal Rails applications, the server is running Rails 2.0.4 and Ruby 1.86. As far as I know, that's not going to change anytime soon and I have no control over it. I was going to try and test this out between a couple of computers and was curious if anyone knew what would happen. Being the server is on 2.0.4, I'd like to build Rails 2.3.5 applications for that server if at all possible. From what I understand so far, it won't be a problem if I freeze gems and upack dependancies. Does that sound right? Also, the internal work server has no gems beyond what Rails installs. What I'm wondering is, if I can successfully run a 2.3.5 application on the 2.0.4 server, can I also use extra gems and unpack those to use even though the server doesn't have them? I know that it was version 2.1 that introduced Gem Dependencies so would a 2.3.5 Rails app running on a 2.0.4 server be able to use required gems that are unpacked into an application? One of the worst things with this situation is even if the above stuff works, the server being on 1.86 would exclude me from using a lot of really cool gems that require Ruby 1.87 (like Formtastic). Thanks

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• Is there any good reason for private methods existence in C# (and OOP in general)?

  - by Piotr Lopusiewicz

  I don't mean to troll but I really don't get it. Why would language designers allow private methods instead of some naming convention (see __ in Python) ? I searched for the answer and usual arguments are: a) To make the implementation cleaner/avoid long vertical list of methods in IDE autocompletion b) To announce to the world which methods are public interface and which may change and are just for implementation purpose c) Readability Ok so now, all of those could be achieved by naming all private methods with __ prefix or by "private" keyword which doesn't have any implications other than be information for IDE (don't put those in autocompletion) and other programers (don't use it unless you really must). Hell, one could even require unsafe-like keyword to access private methods to really discourage this. I am asking this because I work with some c# code and I keep changing private methods to public for test purposes as many in-between private methods (like string generators for xml serialization) are very useful for debugging purposes (like writing some part of string to log file etc.). So my question is: Is there anything which is achieved by access restriction but couldn't be achieved by naming conventions without restricting the access ?

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• Maximum length of a std::basic_string<_CharT> string

  - by themoondothshine

  Hey all, I was wondering how one can fix an upper limit for the length of a string (in C++) for a given platform. I scrutinized a lot of libraries, and most of them define it arbitrarily. The GNU C++ STL (the one with experimental C++0x features) has quite a definition: size_t npos = size_t(-1); /*!< The maximum value that can be stored in a variable of type size_t */ size_t _S_max_len = ((npos - sizeof(_Rep_base))/sizeof(_CharT) - 1) / 4; /*!< Where _CharT is a template parameter; _Rep_base is a structure which encapsulates the allocated memory */ Here's how I understand the formula: The size_t type must hold the count of units allocated to the string (where each unit is of type _CharT) Theoretically, the maximum value that a variable of type size_t can take on is the total number of units of 1 byte (ie, of type char) that may be allocated The previous value minus the overhead required to keep track of the allocated memory (_Rep_base) is therefore the maximum number of units in a string. Divide this value by sizeof(_CharT) as _CharT may require more than a byte Subtract 1 from the previous value to account for a terminating character Finally, that leave the division by 4. I have absolutely no idea why! I looked at a lot of places for an explanation, but couldn't find a satisfactory one anywhere (that's why I've been trying to make up something for it! Please correct me if I'm wrong!!).

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• Agile web development with rails

  - by Steve

  Hi.. This code is from the agile web development with rails book.. I don't understand this part of the code... User is a model which has name,hashed_password,salt as its fields. But in the code they are mentioning about password and password confirmation, while there are no such fields in the model. Model has only hashed_password. I am sure mistake is with me. Please clear this for me :) User Model has name,hashed_password,salt. All the fields are strings require 'digest/sha1' class User < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :name validates_uniqueness_of :name attr_accessor :password_confirmation validates_confirmation_of :password validate :password_non_blank def self.authenticate(name, password) user = self.find_by_name(name) if user expected_password = encrypted_password(password, user.salt) if user.hashed_password != expected_password user = nil end end user end def password @password end def password=(pwd) @password = pwd return if pwd.blank? create_new_salt self.hashed_password = User.encrypted_password(self.password, self.salt) end private def password_non_blank errors.add(:password,"Missing password")if hashed_password.blank? end def create_new_salt self.salt = self.object_id.to_s + rand.to_s end def self.encrypted_password(password, salt) string_to_hash = password + "wibble" + salt Digest::SHA1.hexdigest(string_to_hash) end end

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• What are the potential problems with exposing the Facebook API secret?

  - by genehack

  I'm writing a little web utility that posts status updates to Twitter and/or Facebook. That involved creating 'applications' with both those services in order to get API keys and 'secrets'. My question is how protected I really need to keep those secrets -- in order for this to work at all, you seem to need the secret to interact with the authentication part of the service to grant the app access to your account and/or grant it permission to post updates on your behalf. Facebook's documentation says to protect the secret, but at least one other Facebook utility distributes the API key and secret in the source. It's important to note: this isn't your standard Facebook 'application' that runs within the context of Facebook, nor is it a standard "desktop"-style compiled app -- it's a web-based application intended to be run on your own web server. The audience for this is probably small and somewhat more sophisticated than average -- so, one technical alternative would be to require people to obtain their own API key and secret to use the app. That seems like a lot of work, however, and a fairly large barrier to entry to anybody using this. Anybody know or have any insight on what sort of trouble I'm letting myself in for if I put both the secrets and the API keys in the config for my app and check it into Github for all the world to see?

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• Should I re-use UI elements across view controllers?

  - by Endemic

  In the iPhone app I'm currently working on, I'd like two navigation controllers (I'll call them A and B) to have toolbars that are identical in appearance and function. The toolbar in question will look like this: [(button) (flexible-space) (label)] For posterity's sake, the label is actually a UIBarButtonItem with a custom view. My design requires that A always appear directly before B on the navigation stack, so B will never be loaded without A having been loaded. Given this layout, I started wondering, "Is it worth it to re-use A's toolbar items in B's toolbar?" As I see it, my options are: 1. Don't worry about re-use, create the toolbar items twice 2. Create the toolbar items in A and pass them to B in a custom initializer 3. Use some more obscure method that I haven't thought of to hold the toolbar constant when pushing a view controller As far as I can see, option 1 may violate DRY, but guarantees that there won't be any confusion on the off chance that (for example) the button may be required to perform two different (no matter how similar) functions for either view controller in future versions of the app. Were that to happen, options 2 or 3 would require the target-action of the button to change when B is loaded and unloaded. Even if the button were never required to perform different functions, I'm not sure what its proper target would be under option 2. All in all, it's not a huge problem, even if I have to go with option 1. I'm probably overthinking this anyway, trying to apply the dependency injection pattern where it's not appropriate. I just want to know the best practice should this situation arise in a more extreme form, like if a long chain of view controllers need to use identical (in appearance and function) UI elements.

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• How do you protect yourself from runaway memory consumption bringing down the PC?

  - by romkyns

  Every now and again I find myself doing something moderately dumb that results in my program allocating all the memory it can get and then some. This kind of thing used to cause the program to die fairly quickly with an "out of memory" error, but these days Windows will go out of its way to give this non-existent memory to the application, and in fact is apparently prepared to commit suicide doing so. Not literally of course, but it will starve itself of usable physical RAM so badly that even running the task manager will require half an hour of swapping (after all the runaway application is still allocating more and more memory all the time). This doesn't happen too often, but when it does it's disastrous. I usually have to reset my machine, causing data loss from time to time and generally a lot of inconvenience. Do you have any practical advice on making the consequences of such a mistake less dire? Perhaps some registry tweak to limit the max amount of virtual memory an app is allowed to allocate? Or some CLR flag that will limit this only for the current application? (It's usually in .NET that I do this to myself.) ("Don't run out of RAM" and "Buy more RAM" are no use - the former I have no control over, and the latter I've already done.)

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• Memory interleaving

  - by Tim Green

  Hello, I have this question that has me rather confused. Suppose that a 1G x 32-bit main memory is built using 256M x 4-bit RAM chips and that this memory is byte-addressable. I have deduced that one would require 4*1G = 2^2*2*30 = 2^32 - so 32 bits to address the full memory. My problem now comes with, say, if you had memory (byte) address "14", determine which memory module this would go into. (There would have to be 8 chips per module to make the 32-bit wide memory, and 4 modules overall giving 32 chips in total. Modules are numbered from 0). In high-order interleave, it appears trivial that it's the first (0) memory module given a lot of the first few bits are 0. However, low-order interleave has me stumped. I can't figure out (for sure) how many bits are used to determine a memory module (possibly 2, given there are 4 in total?). The given solution is Module 3. This is not homework in the same sense so I will not be tagging it as such.

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