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• HTTP POST with URL query parameters -- good idea or not?

  - by Steven Huwig

  I'm designing an API to go over HTTP and I am wondering if using the HTTP POST command, but with URL query parameters only and no request body, is a good way to go. Considerations: "Good Web design" requires non-idempotent actions to be sent via POST. This is a non-idempotent action. It is easier to develop and debug this app when the request parameters are present in the URL. The API is not intended for widespread use. It seems like making a POST request with no body will take a bit more work, e.g. a Content-Length: 0 header must be explicitly added. It also seems to me that a POST with no body is a bit counter to most developer's and HTTP frameworks' expectations. Are there any more pitfalls or advantages to sending parameters on a POST request via the URL query rather than the request body? Edit: The reason this is under consideration is that the operations are not idempotent and have side effects other than retrieval. See the HTTP spec: In particular, the convention has been established that the GET and HEAD methods SHOULD NOT have the significance of taking an action other than retrieval. These methods ought to be considered "safe". This allows user agents to represent other methods, such as POST, PUT and DELETE, in a special way, so that the user is made aware of the fact that a possibly unsafe action is being requested. ... Methods can also have the property of "idempotence" in that (aside from error or expiration issues) the side-effects of N 0 identical requests is the same as for a single request. The methods GET, HEAD, PUT and DELETE share this property. Also, the methods OPTIONS and TRACE SHOULD NOT have side effects, and so are inherently idempotent.

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• Entity Framework 5 Enum Naming

  - by Tyrel Van Niekerk

  I am using EF 5 with migrations and code first. It all works rather nicely, but there are some issues/questions I would like to resolve. Let's start with a simple example. Lets say I have a User table and a user type table. The user type table is an enum/lookup table in my app. So the user table has a UserTypeId column and a foreign key ref etc to UserType. In my poco, I have a property called UserType which has the enum type. To add the initial values to the UserType table (or add/change values later) and to create the table in the initial migrator etc. I need a UserType table poco to represent the actual table in the database and to use in the map files. I mapped the UserType property in the User poco to UserTypeId in the UserType poco. So now I have a poco for code first/migrations/context mapping etc and I have an enum. Can't have the same name for both, so do I have a poco called UserType and something else for the enum or have the poco for UserType be UserTypeTable or something? More importantly however, am I missing some key element in how code first works? I tried the example above, ran Add-Migration and it does not add the lookup table for the enum.

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• What Getters and Setters should and shouldn't do.

  - by cyclotis04

  I've run into a lot of differing opinions on Getters and Setters lately, so I figured I should make it into it's own question. A previous question of mine received an immediate comment (later deleted) that stated setters shouldn't have any side effects, and a SetProperty method would be a better choice. Indeed, this seems to be Microsoft's opinion as well. However, their properties often raise events, such as Resized when a form's Width or Height property is set. OwenP also states "you shouldn't let a property throw exceptions, properties shouldn't have side effects, order shouldn't matter, and properties should return relatively quickly." Yet Michael Stum states that exceptions should be thrown while validating data within a setter. If your setter doesn't throw an exception, how could you effectively validate data, as so many of the answers to this question suggest? What about when you need to raise an event, like nearly all of Microsoft's Control's do? Aren't you then at the mercy of whomever subscribed to your event? If their handler performs a massive amount of information, or throws an error itself, what happens to your setter? Finally, what about lazy loading within the getter? This too could violate the previous guidelines. What is acceptable to place in a getter or setter, and what should be kept in only accessor methods?

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• DDSteps date question.

  - by Srini

  DDStep Date Question: Currently trying to pass just the date from excel. But getting the below error while doing it. Failed to convert property value of type [java.lang.String] to required type [java.util.Date] for property ...no matching editors or conversion strategy found spring for date conversion I even tried to add customEditorConfigurer in the ddsteps-context file. Still getting error. But in their pet store example looks like it works fine. Any help is appreciated. <entry key="java.util.Date"> <bean class="org.springframework.beans.propertyeditors.CustomDateEditor"> <constructor-arg> <bean class="java.text.SimpleDateFormat"> <constructor-arg value="yyyy-MM-dd" /> </bean> </constructor-arg> <constructor-arg value="false" /> </bean> </entry>

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• Strange JPA one-to-many behavior when trying to set the "many" on the "one" entity

  - by errr

  I've mapped two entities using JPA (specifically Hibernate). Those entities have a one-to-many relationship (I've simplified for presentation): @Entity public class A { @ManyToOne public B getB() { return b; } } @Entity public Class B { @OneToMany(mappedBy="b") public Set<A> getAs() { return as; } } Now, I'm trying to create a relationship between two instances of these entities by using the setter of the one-side/not-owner-side of the relationship (i.e the table being referenced to): em.getTransaction().begin(); A a = new A(); B b = new B(); Set<A> as = new HashSet<A>(); as.add(a); b.setAs(as); em.persist(a); em.persist(b); em.getTransaction().commit(); But then, the relationship isn't persisted to the DB (the row created for entity A isn't referencing the row created for entity B). Why is it so? I'd excpect it to work. Also, if I remove the "mappedBy" property from the @OneToMany annotation it will work. Again - why is it so? and what are the possible effects for removing the "mappedBy" property?

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• How can I use a custom configured RememberMeAuthenticationFilter in spring security?

  - by Sebastian

  I want to use a slightly customized rememberme functionality with spring security (3.1.0). I declare the rememberme tag like this: <security:remember-me key="JNJRMBM" user-service-ref="gymUserDetailService" /> As I have my own rememberme service I need to inject that into the RememberMeAuthenticationFilter which I define like this: <bean id="rememberMeFilter" class="org.springframework.security.web.authentication.rememberme.RememberMeAuthenticationFilter"> <property name="rememberMeServices" ref="gymRememberMeService"/> <property name="authenticationManager" ref="authenticationManager" /> </bean> I have spring security integrated in a standard way in my web.xml: <filter-name>springSecurityFilterChain</filter-name> <filter-class>org.springframework.web.filter.DelegatingFilterProxy</filter-class> Everything works fine, except that the RememberMeAuthenticationFilter uses the standard RememberMeService, so I think that my defined RememberMeAuthenticationFilter is not being used. How can I make sure that my definition of the filter is being used? Do I need to create a custom filterchain? And if so, how can I see my current "implicit" filterchain and make sure I use the same one except my RememberMeAuthenticationFilter instead of the default one? Thanks for any advice and/or pointers!

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• Don't serealize a especific data member , but DESEREALIZE, any chance???

  - by CrazyJoe

  Im using DataContractJsonSerializer to serealize this class: public class User { public string id { get; set; } public string name { get; set; } public string password { get; set; } public string email { get; set; } public bool is_broker { get; set; } public string branch_id { get; set; } public string created_at { get; set; } public string updated_at { get; set; } public UserGroup UserGroup {get;set;} public UserAddress UserAddress { get; set; } public List<UserContact> UserContact {get; set;} public User() { UserGroup = new UserGroup(); UserAddress = new UserAddress(); UserContact = new List<UserContact>(); } } The question is when i serealize to json , the property UserGroup is serealized, but i dont need this, i like to serealize to json whitout UserGroup property. Obs: When Deserealize it´s all fine to have UserGroup, i need that!! Any Trick ?????? Thanks!!!

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• Titanium TableViewRow classname with custom rows

  - by pancake

  I would like to know in what way the 'className' property of a Ti.UI.TableViewRow helps when creating custom rows. For example, I populate a tableview with custom rows in the following way: function populateTableView(tableView, data) { var rows = []; var row; var title, image; var i; for (i = 0; i < data.length; i++) { title = Ti.UI.createLabel({ text : data[i].title, width : 100, height: 30, top: 5, left: 25 }); image = Ti.UI.createImage({ image : 'some_image.png', width: 30, height: 30, top: 5, left: 5 }); /* and, like, 5+ more views or whatever */ row = Ti.UI.createTableViewRow(); row.add(titleLabel); row.add(image); rows.push(row); } tableView.setData(rows); } Of course, this example of a "custom" row is easily created using the standard title and image properties of the TableViewRow, but that isn't the point. How is the allocation of new labels, image views and other child views of a table view prevented in favour of their reuse? I know in iOS this is achieved by using the method -[UITableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:] to fetch a row object from a 'reservoir' (so 'className' is 'identifier' here) that isn't currently being used for displaying data, but already has the needed child views laid out correctly in it, thus only requiring to update the data contained within (text, image data, etc). As this system is so unbelievably simple, I have a lot of trouble believing the method employed by the Titanium API does not support this. After reading through the API and searching the web, I do however suspect this is the case. The 'className' property is recommended as an easy way to make table views more efficient in Titanium, but its relation to custom table view rows is not explained in any way. If anyone could clarify this matter for me, I would be very grateful.

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• Return value mapping on Stored Procedures in Entity Framework

  - by Yucel

  Hi, I am calling a stored procedure with EntityFramework. But custom property that i set in partial entity class is null. I have Entities in my edmx (I called edmx i dont know what to call for this). For example I have a "User" table in my database and so i have a "User" class on my Entity. I have a stored procedure called GetUserById(@userId) and in this stored procedure i am writing a basic sql statement like below "SELECT * FROM Users WHERE Id=@userId" in my edmx i make a function import to call this stored procedure and set its return value to Entities (also select User from dropdownlist). It works perfectly when i call my stored procedure like below User user = Context.SP_GetUserById(123456); But i add a custom new column to stored procedure to return one more column like below SELECT *, dbo.ConcatRoles(U.Id) AS RolesAsString FROM membership.[User] U WHERE Id = @id Now when i execute it from SSMS new column called RolesAsString appear in result. To work this on entity framework i added a new property called RolesAsString to my User class like below. public partial class User { public string RolesAsString{ get; set; } } But this field isnt filled by stored procedure when i call it. I look to the Mapping Detail windows of my SP_GetUserById there isnt a mapping on this window. I want to add but window is read only i cant map it. I looked to the source of edmx cant find anything about mapping of SP. How can i map this custom field?

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• Setting synthesized arrays causing memory leaks using nested arrays

  - by webtoad

  Hello: Why is the following code causing a memory leak in an iPhone App? All of the initted objects below leak, including the arrays, the strings and the numbers. So, I'm thinking it has something to do with the the synthesized array property not releasing the object when I set the property again on the second and subsequent time this piece of code is called. Here is the code: "controller" (below) is my custom view controller class, which I have a reference to, and I am setting with this code snippet: sqlite3_stmt *statement; NSMutableArray *foo_IDs = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSMutableArray *foo_Names = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSMutableArray *foo_IDsBySection = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSMutableArray *foo_NamesBySection = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; // Get data: NSString *sql = @"select distinct p.foo_ID, p.foo_Name from foo as p "; if (sqlite3_prepare_v2(...) == SQLITE_OK) { while (sqlite3_step(statement) == SQLITE_ROW) { int p_id; NSString *foo_Name; p_id = sqlite3_column_int(statement, 0); char *str2 = (char *)sqlite3_column_text(statement, 1); foo_Name = [NSString stringWithCString:str2]; [foo_IDs addObject:[NSNumber numberWithInt:p_id]]; [foo_Names addObject:foo_Name]; } sqlite3_finalize(statement); } // Pass the array itself into another array: // (normally there is more than one array in each array) [foo_IDsBySection addObject: foo_IDs]; [foo_NamesBySection addObject: foo_Names]; [foo_IDs release]; [foo_Names release]; // Set some synthesized properties (of type NSArray, nonatomic, // retain) in controller: controller.foo_IDsBySection = foo_IDsBySection; controller.foo_NamesBySection = foo_NamesBySection; [foo_IDsBySection release]; [foo_NamesBySection release]; Thanks for any help!

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• Exception when retrieving record using Nhibernate

  - by Muhammad Akhtar

  I am new to NHibernate and have just started right now. I have very simple table contain Id(Int primary key and auto incremented), Name(varchar(100)), Description(varchar(100)) Here is my XML <class name="DevelopmentStep" table="DevelopmentSteps" lazy="true"> <id name="Id" type="Int32" column="Id"> </id> <property name="Name" column="Name" type="String" length="100" not-null="false"/> <property name="Description" column="Description" type="String" length="100" not-null="false"/> here is how I want to get all the record public List<DevelopmentStep> getDevelopmentSteps() { List<DevelopmentStep> developmentStep; developmentStep = Repository.FindAll<DevelopmentStep>(new OrderBy("Name", Order.Asc)); return developmentStep; } But I am getting exception The element 'id' in namespace 'urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2' has incomplete content. List of possible elements expected: 'urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2:meta urn:nhibernate-mapping- 2.2:column urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2:generator'. Please Advise me --- Thanks

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• nHibernate storage of an object with self referencing many children and many parents

  - by AdamC

  I have an object called MyItem that references children in the same item. How do I set up an nhibernate mapping file to store this item. public class MyItem { public virtual string Id {get;set;} public virtual string Name {get;set;} public virtual string Version {get;set;} public virtual IList<MyItem> Children {get;set;} } So roughly the hbm.xml would be: <class name="MyItem" table="tb_myitem"> <id name="Id" column="id" type="String" length="32"> <generator class="uuid.hex" /> </id> <property name="Name" column="name" /> <property name="Version" column="version" /> <bag name="Children" cascade="all-delete-orphan" lazy="false"> <key column="children_id" /> <one-to-many class="MyItem" not-found="ignore"/> </bag> </class> This wouldn't work I don't think. Perhaps I need to create another class, say MyItemChildren and use that as the Children member and then do the mapping in that class? This would mean having two tables. One table holds the MyItem and the other table holds references from my item. NOTE: A child item could have many parents.

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• Regarding the ViewModel

  - by mizipzor

  Im struggling to understand the ViewModel part of the MVVM pattern. My current approach is to have a class, with no logic whatsoever (important), except that it implements INotifyPropertyChanged. The class is just a collection of properties, a struct if you like, describing an as small part of the data as possible. I consider this my Model. Most of the WPF code I write are settings dialogs that configure said Model. The code-behind of the dialog exposes a property which returns an instance of the Model. In the XAML code I bind to subproperties of that property, thereby binding directly to the Model's properties. Which works quite well since it implements the INotifyPropertyChanged. I consider this settings dialog the View. However, I havent really been able to figure out what in all this is the ViewModel. The articles Ive read suggests that the ViewModel should tie the View and the Model together, providing the logic the Model lacks but is still to complex to go directly into the View. Is this correct? Would, in my example, the code-behind of the settings dialog be considered the ViewModel? I just feel a bit lost and would like my peers to debunk some of my assumptions. Am I completely off track here?

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• How do you compare using .NET types in an NHibernate ICriteria query for an ICompositeUserType?

  - by gabe

  I have an answered StackOverflow question about how to combine to legacy CHAR database date and time fields into one .NET DateTime property in my POCO here (thanks much Berryl!). Now i am trying to get a custom ICritera query to work against that very DateTime property to no avail. here's my query: ICriteria criteria = Session.CreateCriteria<InputFileLog>() .Add(Expression.Gt(MembersOf<InputFileLog>.GetName(x => x.FileCreationDateTime), DateTime.Now.AddDays(-14))) .AddOrder(Order.Desc(Projections.Id())) .CreateCriteria(typeof(InputFile).Name) .Add(Expression.Eq(MembersOf<InputFile>.GetName(x => x.Id), inputFileName)); IList<InputFileLog> list = criteria.List<InputFileLog>(); And here's the query it's generating: SELECT this_.input_file_token as input1_9_2_, this_.file_creation_date as file2_9_2_, this_.file_creation_time as file3_9_2_, this_.approval_ind as approval4_9_2_, this_.file_id as file5_9_2_, this_.process_name as process6_9_2_, this_.process_status as process7_9_2_, this_.input_file_name as input8_9_2_, gonogo3_.input_file_token as input1_6_0_, gonogo3_.go_nogo_ind as go2_6_0_, inputfile1_.input_file_name as input1_3_1_, inputfile1_.src_code as src2_3_1_, inputfile1_.process_cat_code as process3_3_1_ FROM input_file_log this_ left outer join go_nogo gonogo3_ on this_.input_file_token=gonogo3_.input_file_token inner join input_file inputfile1_ on this_.input_file_name=inputfile1_.input_file_name WHERE this_.file_creation_date > :p0 and this_.file_creation_time > :p1 and inputfile1_.input_file_name = :p2 ORDER BY this_.input_file_token desc; :p0 = '20100401', :p1 = '15:15:27', :p2 = 'LMCONV_JR' The query is exactly what i would expect, actually, except it doesn't actually give me what i want (all the rows in the last 2 weeks) because in the DB it's doing a greater than comparison using CHARs instead of DATEs. I have no idea how to get the query to convert the CHAR values into a DATE in the query without doing a CreateSQLQuery(), which I would like to avoid. Anyone know how to do this?

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• Get Nhibernate entity and complete it from a web service.

  - by Nour Sabouny

  Hi every one. let's say that i have an order system. each "Order" references a "Customer" Object. when i fill the orders list in Data Access Layer, the customer object should be brought from a Customer Web Service "WCF". so i didn't map the Customer property in the Order mapping class, Id(o => o.OrderID).GeneratedBy.Identity(); //References(o => o.Customer).Not.Nullable().Column("CustomerID"); HasMany(o => o.Details).KeyColumn("OrderID").Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan(); Map(c => c.CustomerID).Not.Nullable(); and asked the nhibernate session to get me the orders list. and tried to loop on every order in the list to fill it's customer property, doe's any body have a good idea for this ???? IList<Order> lst = Session.CreateCriteria<Order>().List<Order>(); foreach (Order order in lst) order.Customer = serviceProxy.GetCustomerByID(order.CustomerID);

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• Cocoa - calling a VIEW method from the CONTROLLER

  - by eemerge

  Hello everyone, Got a little problem i asked about it before but maybe i didnt ask properly. I have a cocoa application, which amongst other things, must do the following task: - load some images from the disk, store them in an array and display them in a custom view. In the Interface Builder i have a CustomView and an OBJECT that points to TexturesController.h The custom view is a custom class, TextureBrowser. Below is the code for the controller and view: TexturesController #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> @class TextureBrowser; @interface TexturesController : NSObject { IBOutlet NSTextField *logWindow; IBOutlet TextureBrowser *textureView; NSMutableArray *textureList; } @property textureView; -(IBAction)loadTextures:(id)sender; -(IBAction)showTexturesInfo:(id)sender; @end TextureBrowser @interface TextureBrowser : NSView { NSMutableArray *textures; } @property NSMutableArray *textures; -(void)loadTextureList:(NSMutableArray *)source; @end These are just the headers. Now , what i need to do is: when loadTextures from the TexturesController is called, after i load the images i want to send this data to the view (TextureBrowser), for example, store it in the NSMutableArray *textures. I tried using the -(void)loadTextureList:(NSMutableArray*)source method from the view, but in the TextureController.m i get a warning : No -loadTextureList method found This is how i call the method : [textureView loadTextureList: textureList]; And even if i run it with the warning left there, the array in the view class doesnt get initialised. Maybe im missing something...maybe someone can give a simple example of what i need to do and how to do it (code). Thanks in advance.

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• Strange Effect with Overridden Properties and Reflection

  - by naacal

  I've come across a strange behaviour in .NET/Reflection and cannot find any solution/explanation for this: Class A { public string TestString { get; set; } } Class B : A { public override string TestString { get { return "x"; } } } Since properties are just pairs of functions (get_PropName(), set_PropName()) overriding only the "get" part should leave the "set" part as it is in the base class. And this is just what happens if you try to instanciate class B and assign a value to TestString, it uses the implementation of class A. But what happens if I look at the instantiated object of class B in reflection is this: PropertyInfo propInfo = b.GetType().GetProperty("TestString"); propInfo.CanRead ---> true propInfo.CanWrite ---> false(!) And if I try to invoke the setter from reflection with: propInfo.SetValue("test", b, null); I'll even get an ArgumentException with the following message: Property set method not found. Is this as expected? Because I don't seem to find a combination of BindingFlags for the GetProperty() method that returns me the property with a working get/set pair from reflection.

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• How to remove the small of padding around the ListBoxItem?

  - by Darf Zon

  I'm styling a listBox. i'm trying to clear the margins, so I realized which it, I set the padding of the style to 0 (left padding). But I can still seeing some margin in it, and I need to have no margin in it? Does you know which would be the problem? <ListBox ItemsSource="{Binding Partitions}"> <ListBox.ItemsPanel> <ItemsPanelTemplate> <Canvas /> </ItemsPanelTemplate> </ListBox.ItemsPanel> <ListBox.ItemContainerStyle> <Style TargetType="ListBoxItem"> <Setter Property="Padding" Value="0"/> <Setter Property="Canvas.Top"> ... </Setter> </Style> </ListBox.ItemContainerStyle> I mean, I can see an extra space around the item and I can't handle it to modify to 0.

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• Default entries on a first time creation for a serialized class

  - by MGSoto

  I have a class I am using for serializing various configuration options for an application I am working on. I'm adding a new property to the class that is a List, and I'd like it to fill this list if it does not exist already in a XML file. My first thought was to check if the list contained zero items, however this is not acceptable because there are times I want to have zero items in the list. In essence I want a file that has been serialized with an older version of the same class to be "upgraded" and have defaults automatically inserted for new properties. How can I do this? For a more visual example of what I'm trying to do, see below: When I deserialize an XML file that contains: <Item1>wtfe</Item1> <Item2>wtfe</Item2> and after I've added a list property it will serialze as: <Item1>wtfe</Item1> <Item2>wtfe</Item2> <Item3/> I want it to serialize as: <Item1>wtfe</Item1> <Item2>wtfe</Item2> <Item3> <DefaultSubItem/ Field="wtfe"> <DefaultSubItem/ Field="wtfe"> </Item3> But allow me to change it to: <Item1>wtfe</Item1> <Item2>wtfe</Item2> <Item3></Item3>

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• flex 4 release changes to application are not showing up.

  - by guacamoly

  I just took over a clients flex project and I can't get the app to reflect even a simple trace statement. Before I took over, the project was last successfully built using the Flash Builder Beta 2 environment/sdk. I have the latest release version of Flash Builder 4. Upon importing the project into FB4, I got a ton of errors. Most of them mostly because of the changes made to the sdk from beta2 to release. Some of the things I corrected: - mx namespace from library://ns.adobe.com/flex/halo to library://ns.adobe.com/flex/mx - video player skinning: a lot of the state names for the video player component had been changed, more required states had been added. also there were other video related component and property names that had to be updated. But I fixed all that and the application was finally able to compile (although with some warnings mostly of the duplicate variable type) The only thing now is that whatever change I make to the project doesn't get reflected in the build (debug or release). I changed existing traces, added additional traces. Nothing shows up. I even removed the applicationComplete property in the main.mxml. Everything still ran like nothing changed. Also I can't seem to debug the app. Whenever I try to debug.. flash builder says.. "Swf Application doesn't contain the required debugging information ... " Anyone have any idea how I need to even begin tackling all this? Any help or pointers would be greatly appreciated.

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• Behavior difference between UIView.subviews and [NSView subviews]

  - by zpasternack

  I have a piece of code in an iPhone app, which removes all subviews from a UIView subclass. It looks like this: NSArray* subViews = self.subviews; for( UIView *aView in subViews ) { [aView removeFromSuperview]; } This works fine. In fact, I never really gave it much thought until I tried nearly the same thing in a Mac OS X app (from an NSView subclass): NSArray* subViews = [self subviews]; for( NSView *aView in subViews ) { [aView removeFromSuperview]; } That totally doesn’t work. Specifically, at runtime, I get this: *** Collection <NSCFArray: 0x1005208a0> was mutated while being enumerated. I ended up doing it like so: NSArray* subViews = [[self subviews] copy]; for( NSView *aView in subViews ) { [aView removeFromSuperview]; } [subViews release]; That's fine. What’s bugging me, though, is why does it work on the iPhone? subviews is a copy property: @property(nonatomic,readonly,copy) NSArray *subviews; My first thought was, maybe @synthesize’d getters return a copy when the copy attribute is specified. The doc is clear on the semantics of copy for setters, but doesn’t appear to say either way for getters (or at least, it’s not apparent to me). And actually, doing a few tests of my own, this clearly does not seem to be the case. Which is good, I think returning a copy would be problematic, for a few reasons. So the question is: how does the above code work on the iPhone? NSView is clearly returning a pointer to the actual array of subviews, and perhaps UIView isn’t. Perhaps it’s simply an implementation detail of UIView, and I shouldn’t get worked up about it. Can anyone offer any insight?

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• The use of getters and setters for different programming languages [closed]

  - by leonhart88

  So I know there are a lot of questions on getters and setters in general, but I couldn't find something exactly like my question. I was wondering if people change the use of get/set depending on different languages. I started learning with C++ and was taught to use getters and setters. This is what I understand: In C++ (and Java?), a variable can either be public or private, but we cannot have a mix. For example, I can't have a read-only variable that can still be changed inside the class. It's either all public (can read and change it), or all private (can't read and can only change inside the class). Because of this (and possibly other reasons), we use getters and setters. In MATLAB, I can control the "setaccess" and "getaccess" properties of variables, so that I can make things read-only (can directly access the property, but can't overwrite it). In this case, I don't feel like I need a getter because I can just do class.property. Also, in Python it is considered "Pythonic" to not use getters/setters and to only put things into properties if needed. I don't really understand why its OK to have all public variables in Python, because that's opposite of what I learned when I started with C++. I'm just curious what other people's thoughts are on this. Would you use getters and setters for all languages? Would you only use it for C++/Java and do direct access in MATLAB and Python (which is what I am currently doing)? Is the second option considered bad? For my purposes, I am only referring to simple getters and setters (just return/set the value and do not do anything else). Thanks!

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• iPhone app. Creating a custom UIView that contains UITextField and UIButton.

  - by Dmitry Burchik

  Hi all. I am new to iPhone programming. And I have an issue. I need to create a custom user control that I will add to my UIScrollView dinamically. The control has an UITextField and an UIButton. See the code below: #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface FieldWithValueControl : UIView { UITextField *txtTagName; UIButton *addButton; } @property (nonatomic, readonly) UITextField *txtTagName; @property (nonatomic, readonly) UIButton *addButton; @end #import "FieldWithValueControl.h" #define ITEM_SPACING 10 #define ITEM_HEIGHT 20 #define SWITCHBOX_WIDTH 100 #define SCREEN_WIDTH 320 #define ITEM_FONT_SIZE 14 #define TEXTBOX_WIDTH 150 @implementation FieldWithValueControl @synthesize txtTagName; @synthesize addButton; - (id)initWithFrame:(CGRect)frame { if (self = [super initWithFrame:frame]) { // Initialization code txtTagName = [[UITextField alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, TEXTBOX_WIDTH, ITEM_HEIGHT)]; txtTagName.borderStyle = UITextBorderStyleRoundedRect; addButton = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeContactAdd]; [addButton setFrame:CGRectMake(ITEM_SPACING + TEXTBOX_WIDTH, 0, ITEM_HEIGHT, ITEM_HEIGHT)]; [addButton addTarget:self action:@selector(addButtonTouched:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; [self addSubview:txtTagName]; [self addSubview:addButton]; } return self; } - (void)addButtonTouched:sender { UIButton *button = (UIButton*)sender; NSString *title = [button titleLabel].text; } - (void)drawRect:(CGRect)rect { // Drawing code } - (void)dealloc { [txtTagName release]; [addButton release]; [super dealloc]; } @end In my code I create an object of that class and add it to scrollView on form. FieldWithValueControl *newTagControl = (FieldWithValueControl*)[[FieldWithValueControl alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(ITEM_SPACING, currentOffset + ITEM_SPACING, 0, 0)]; [scrollView addSubview:newTagControl]; The control looks fine, but if I click to the textbox or to the button nothing happens. Keyboard doesn't appear, the button is not clickable etc.

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• Ability to switch Persistence Unit dynamically within the application (JPA)

  - by MVK

  My application data access layer is built using Spring and EclipseLink and I am currently trying to implement the following feature - Ability to switch the current/active persistence unit dynamically for a user. I tried various options and finally ended up doing the following. In the persistence.xml, declare multiple PUs. Create a class with as many EntityManagerFactory attributes as there are PUs defined. This will act as a factory and return the appropriate EntityManager based on my logic public class MyEntityManagerFactory { @PersistenceUnit(unitName="PU_1") private EntityManagerFactory emf1; @PersistenceUnit(unitName="PU_2") private EntityManagerFactory emf2; public EntityManager getEntityManager(int releaseId) { // Logic goes here to return the appropriate entityManeger } } My spring-beans xml looks like this.. <!-- First persistence unit --> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean" id="emFactory1"> <property name="persistenceUnitName" value="PU_1" /> </bean> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.JpaTransactionManager" id="transactionManager1"> <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="emFactory1"/> </bean> <tx:annotation-driven transaction-manager="transactionManager1"/> The above section is repeated for the second PU (with names like emFactory2, transactionManager2 etc). I am a JPA newbie and I know that this is not the best solution. I appreciate any assistance in implementing this requirement in a better/elegant way! Thanks!

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• "Most popular" GROUP BY in LINQ?

  - by tags2k

  Assuming a table of tags like the stackoverflow question tags: TagID (bigint), QuestionID (bigint), Tag (varchar) What is the most efficient way to get the 25 most used tags using LINQ? In SQL, a simple GROUP BY will do: SELECT Tag, COUNT(Tag) FROM Tags GROUP BY Tag I've written some LINQ that works: var groups = from t in DataContext.Tags group t by t.Tag into g select new { Tag = g.Key, Frequency = g.Count() }; return groups.OrderByDescending(g => g.Frequency).Take(25); Like, really? Isn't this mega-verbose? The sad thing is that I'm doing this to save a massive number of queries, as my Tag objects already contain a Frequency property that would otherwise need to check back with the database for every Tag if I actually used the property. So I then parse these anonymous types back into Tag objects: groups.OrderByDescending(g => g.Frequency).Take(25).ToList().ForEach(t => tags.Add(new Tag() { Tag = t.Tag, Frequency = t.Frequency })); I'm a LINQ newbie, and this doesn't seem right. Please show me how it's really done.

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