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  • Common Lisp condition system for transfer of control

    - by Ken
    I'll admit right up front that the following is a pretty terrible description of what I want to do. Apologies in advance. Please ask questions to help me explain. :-) I've written ETLs in other languages that consist of individual operations that look something like: // in class CountOperation IEnumerable<Row> Execute(IEnumerable<Row> rows) { var count = 0; foreach (var row in rows) { row["record number"] = count++; yield return row; } } Then you string a number of these operations together, and call The Dispatcher, which is responsible for calling Operations and pushing data between them. I'm trying to do something similar in Common Lisp, and I want to use the same basic structure, i.e., each operation is defined like a normal function that inputs a list and outputs a list, but lazily. I can define-condition a condition (have-value) to use for yield-like behavior, and I can run it in a single loop, and it works great. I'm defining the operations the same way, looping through the inputs: (defun count-records (rows) (loop for count from 0 for row in rows do (signal 'have-value :value `(:count ,count @,row)))) The trouble is if I want to string together several operations, and run them. My first attempt at writing a dispatcher for these looks something like: (let ((next-op ...)) ;; pick an op from the set of all ops (loop (handler-bind ((have-value (...))) ;; records output from operation (setq next-op ...) ;; pick a new next-op (call next-op))) But restarts have only dynamic extent: each operation will have the same restart names. The restart isn't a Lisp object I can store, to store the state of a function: it's something you call by name (symbol) inside the handler block, not a continuation you can store for later use. Is it possible to do something like I want here? Or am I better off just making each operation function explicitly look at its input queue, and explicitly place values on the output queue?

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  • OptimisticLockException in inner transaction ruins outer transaction

    - by Pace
    I have the following code (OLE = OptimisticLockException)... public void outer() { try { middle() } catch (OLE) { updateEntities(); outer(); } } @Transactional public void middle() { try { inner() } catch (OLE) { updateEntities(); middle(); } @Transactional public void inner() { //Do DB operation } inner() is called by other non-transactional methods which is why both middle() and inner() are transactional. As you can see, I deal with OLEs by updating the entities and retrying the operation. The problem I'm having is that when I designed things this way I was assuming that the only time one could get an OLE was when a transaction closed. This is apparently not the case as the call to inner() is throwing an OLE even when the stack is outer()->middle()->inner(). Now, middle() is properly handling the OLE and the retry succeeds but when it comes time to close the transaction it has been marked rollbackOnly by Spring. When the middle() method call finally returns the closing aspect throws an exception because it can't commit a transaction marked rollbackOnly. I'm uncertain what to do here. I can't clear the rollbackOnly state. I don't want to force create a transaction on every call to inner because that kills my performance. Am I missing something or can anyone see a way I can structure this differently? EDIT: To clarify what I'm asking, let me explain my main question. Is it possible to catch and handle OLE if you are inside of an @Transactional method? FYI: The transaction manager is a JpaTransactionManager and the JPA provider is Hibernate.

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  • Rate Limit Calls To Api Using Cache

    - by namtax
    Hi I am using coldfusion to call the last.fm api, using a cfc bundle sourced from here I am concerned about going over the request limit, which is 5 requests per originating IP address per second, averaged over a 5 minute period. The cfc bundle has a central component which calls all the other components, which are split up into sections like "artist", "track" etc...This central component "lastFmApi.cfc." is initiated in my application, and persisted for the lifespan of the application // Application.cfc example <cffunction name="onApplicationStart"> <cfset var apiKey = '[your api key here]' /> <cfset var apiSecret = '[your api secret here]' /> <cfset application.lastFm = CreateObject('component', 'org.FrankFusion.lastFm.lastFmApi').init(apiKey, apiSecret) /> </cffunction> Now if I want to call the api through a handler/controller, for example my artist handler...I can do this <cffunction name="artistPage" cache="5 mins"> <cfset qAlbums = application.lastFm.user.getArtist(url.artistName) /> </cffunction> I am a bit confused towards caching, but am caching each call to the api in this handler for 5 mins, but does this make any difference, because each time someone hits a new artist page wont this still count as a fresh hit against the api? Wondering how best to tackle this Thanks

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  • Closures in Ruby

    - by Isaac Cambron
    I'm kind of new to Ruby and some of the closure logic has me a confused. Consider this code: array = [] for i in (1..5) array << lambda {j} end array.map{|f| f.call} => [5, 5, 5, 5, 5] This makes sense to me because i is bound outside the loop, so the same variable is captured by each trip through the loop. It also makes sense to me that using an each block can fix this: array = [] (1..5).each{|i| array << lambda {i}} array.map{|f| f.call} => [1, 2, 3, 4, 5] ...because i is now being declared separately for each time through. But now I get lost: why can't I also fix it by introducing an intermediate variable? array = [] for i in 1..5 j = i array << lambda {j} end array.map{|f| f.call} => [5, 5, 5, 5, 5] Because j is new each time through the loop, I'd think a different variable would be captured on each pass. For example, this is definitely how C# works, and how -- I think-- Lisp behaves with a let. But in Ruby not so much. It almost looks like = is aliasing the variable instead of copying the reference, but that's just speculation on my part. What's really happening?

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  • Best way to catch a WCF exception in Silverlight?

    - by wahrhaft
    I have a Silverlight 2 application that is consuming a WCF service. As such, it uses asynchronous callbacks for all the calls to the methods of the service. If the service is not running, or it crashes, or the network goes down, etc before or during one of these calls, an exception is generated as you would expect. The problem is, I don't know how to catch this exception. Because it is an asynchronous call, I can't wrap my begin call with a try/catch block and have it pick up an exception that happens after the program has moved on from that point. Because the service proxy is automatically generated, I can't put a try/catch block on each and every generated function that calls EndInvoke (where the exception actually shows up). These generated functions are also surrounded by External Code in the call stack, so there's nowhere else in the stack to put a try/catch either. I can't put the try/catch in my callback functions, because the exception occurs before they would get called. There is an Application_UnhandledException function in my App.xaml.cs, which captures all unhandled exceptions. I could use this, but it seems like a messy way to do it. I'd rather reserve this function for the truly unexpected errors (aka bugs) and not end up with code in this function for every circumstance I'd like to deal with in a specific way. Am I missing an obvious solution? Or am I stuck using Application_UnhandledException? [Edit] As mentioned below, the Error property is exactly what I was looking for. What is throwing me for a loop is that the fact that the exception is thrown and appears to be uncaught, yet execution is able to continue. It triggers the Application_UnhandledException event and causes VS2008 to break execution, but continuing in the debugger allows execution to continue. It's not really a problem, it just seems odd.

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  • Software to report internet traffic for home user

    - by Mehper C. Palavuzlar
    I need a freeware to monitor my internet activity, especially upload and download amounts over time. For instance, I like to see a graph or table that shows the downloaded and uploaded amounts per day, week or month and in total for a selected period. OS: Windows XP, Vista, 7 Edit: I don't need to see the traffic program by program. I'm not interested in which program accesses the internet, but I'm interested in monitoring my incoming and outgoing data amounts using a light-weight freeware.

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  • C# / IronPython Interop with shared C# Class Library

    - by Adam Haile
    I'm trying to use IronPython as an intermediary between a C# GUI and some C# libraries, so that it can be scripted post compile time. I have a Class library DLL that is used by both the GUI and the python and is something along the lines of this: namespace MyLib { public class MyClass { public string Name { get; set; } public MyClass(string name) { this.Name = name; } } } The IronPython code is as follows: import clr clr.AddReferenceToFile(r"MyLib.dll") from MyLib import MyClass ReturnObject = MyClass("Test") Then, in C# I would call it as follows: ScriptEngine engine = Python.CreateEngine(); ScriptScope scope = null; scope = engine.CreateScope(); ScriptSource source = engine.CreateScriptSourceFromFile("Script.py"); source.Execute(scope); MyClass mc = scope.GetVariable<MyClass>("ReturnObject ") When I call this last bit of code, source.Execute(scope) runs returns successfully, but when I try the GetVariable call, it throw the following exception Microsoft.Scripting.ArgumentTypeException: expected MyClass , got MyClass So, you can see that the class names are exactly the same, but for some reason it thinks they are different. The DLL is in a different directory than the .py file (I just didn't bother to write out all the path setup stuff), could it be that there is an issue with the interpreter for IronPython seeing these objects as difference because it's somehow seeing them as being in a different context or scope?

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  • Python modules not updating after restarting the main module.

    - by Ian
    I've recently come back to a project having had to stop for about 6 months, and after reinstalling my operating system and coming back to it I'm having all kinds of crazy things happen. I made sure to install the same version(2.6) of python that I was using before. It started by giving me strange tkinter error that I hadn't had trouble with before, the program is relatively simple and the 2 or 3 bugs that were left when i quit, I had documented and weren't related to the interface. Things got even weirder when the same error would pop up even after I had removed the offending section of code. In fact, the traceback pointed to a line that didn't even exist in the module it was referencing, eg: line 262 when the module was only 200 lines long. After just starting a completely new file for the main module and copy/pasting it finally recognized that the offending code was gone and I stopped getting the error only to find that any updates to the code I made in another module didn't show up when I restarted the program through the shell. (I didn't forget to save.) After fiddling with this, of course, the old interface error came back, only in a different section of code that had been working previously. In fact, if I revert back to the files I had six months ago, the program works fine. As soon as I change anything in the main module, however, the interface bug comes back. Here's the original error: Exception in Tkinter callback Traceback (most recent call last): File "C:\Python26\lib\lib-tk\Tkinter.py", line 1410, in __call__ return self.func(*args) File "C:\PyStuff\interface.py", line 202, in dispOne __main__.top.destroy() File "C:\Python26\lib\lib-tk\Tkinter.py", line 1938, in destroy self.tk.call('destroy', self._w) TclError: can't invoke "destroy" command: application has been destroyed I'm guessing something else is going on here other than my own poor programming. Anyone have any ideas?

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  • Mapping Vectors

    - by Dan Snyder
    Is there a good way to map vectors? Here's an example of what I mean: vec0 = [0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0] vec1 = [1,4,2,7,3,2] vec2 = [0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0] vec2 = [7,2,7,9,9,6,1,0,4] vec4 = [0,0,0,0,0,0] mainvec = [0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,1,4,2,7,3,2,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,7,2,7,9,9,6,1,0,4,0,0,0,0,0,0] Lets say mainvec doesn't exist (I'm just showing it to you so you can see the general data structure in mind. Now say I want mainvec(12) which would be 4. Is there a good way to map the call of these vectors without just stitching them together into a mainvec? I realize I could make a bunch of if statements that test the index of mainvec and I can then offset each call depending on where the call is within one of the vectors, so for instance: mainvec(12) = vec1(1) which I could do by: mainvec(index) if (index >=13) vect1(index-11); I wonder if there's a concise way of doing this without if statements. Any Ideas?

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  • How would I go about sharing variables in a C++ class with Lua?

    - by Nicholas Flynt
    I'm fairly new to Lua, I've been working on trying to implement Lua scripting for logic in a Game Engine I'm putting together. I've had no trouble so far getting Lua up and running through the engine, and I'm able to call Lua functions from C and C functions from Lua. The way the engine works now, each Object class contains a set of variables that the engine can quickly iterate over to draw or process for physics. While game objects all need to access and manipulate these variables in order for the Game Engine itself to see any changes, they are free to create their own variables, a Lua is exceedingly flexible about this so I don't forsee any issues. Anyway, currently the Game Engine side of things are sitting in C land, and I really want them to stay there for performance reasons. So in an ideal world, when spawning a new game object, I'd need to be able to give Lua read/write access to this standard set of variables as part of the Lua object's base class, which its game logic could then proceed to run wild with. So far, I'm keeping two separate tables of objects in place-- Lua spawns a new game object which adds itself to a numerically indexed global table of objects, and then proceeds to call a C++ function, which creates a new GameObject class and registers the Lua index (an int) with the class. So far so good, C++ functions can now see the Lua object and easily perform operations or call functions in Lua land using dostring. What I need to do now is take the C++ variables, part of the GameObject class, and expose them to Lua, and this is where google is failing me. I've encountered a very nice method here which details the process using tags, but I've read that this method is deprecated in favor of metatables. What is the ideal way to accomplish this? Is it worth the hassle of learning how to pass class definitions around using libBind or some equivalent method, or is there a simple way I can just register each variable (once, at spawn time) with the global lua object? What's the "current" best way to do this, as of Lua 5.1.4?

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  • where did the _syscallN macros go in <linux/unistd.h>?

    - by Evan Teran
    It used to be the case that if you needed to make a system call directly in linux without the use of an existing library, you could just include <linux/unistd.h> and it would define a macro similar to this: #define _syscall3(type,name,type1,arg1,type2,arg2,type3,arg3) \ type name(type1 arg1,type2 arg2,type3 arg3) \ { \ long __res; \ __asm__ volatile ("int $0x80" \ : "=a" (__res) \ : "0" (__NR_##name),"b" ((long)(arg1)),"c" ((long)(arg2)), \ "d" ((long)(arg3))); \ if (__res>=0) \ return (type) __res; \ errno=-__res; \ return -1; \ } Then you could just put somewhere in your code: _syscall3(ssize_t, write, int, fd, const void *, buf, size_t, count); which would define a write function for you that properly performed the system call. It seems that this system has been superseded by something (i am guessing that "[vsyscall]" page that every process gets) more robust. So what is the proper way (please be specific) for a program to perform a system call directly on newer linux kernels? I realize that I should be using libc and let it do the work for me. But let's assume that I have a decent reason for wanting to know how to do this :-).

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  • Matplotlib plotting non uniform data in 3D surface

    - by Raj Tendulkar
    I have a simple code to plot the points in 3D for Matplotlib as below - from mpl_toolkits.mplot3d import axes3d import matplotlib.pyplot as plt import numpy as np from numpy import genfromtxt import csv fig = plt.figure() ax = fig.add_subplot(111, projection='3d') my_data = genfromtxt('points1.csv', delimiter=',') points1X = my_data[:,0] points1Y = my_data[:,1] points1Z = my_data[:,2] ## I remove the header of the CSV File. points1X = np.delete(points1X, 0) points1Y = np.delete(points1Y, 0) points1Z = np.delete(points1Z, 0) # Convert the array to 1D array points1X = np.reshape(points1X,points1X.size) points1Y = np.reshape(points1Y,points1Y.size) points1Z = np.reshape(points1Z,points1Z.size) my_data = genfromtxt('points2.csv', delimiter=',') points2X = my_data[:,0] points2Y = my_data[:,1] points2Z = my_data[:,2] ## I remove the header of the CSV File. points2X = np.delete(points2X, 0) points2Y = np.delete(points2Y, 0) points2Z = np.delete(points2Z, 0) # Convert the array to 1D array points2X = np.reshape(points2X,points2X.size) points2Y = np.reshape(points2Y,points2Y.size) points2Z = np.reshape(points2Z,points2Z.size) ax.plot(points1X, points1Y, points1Z, 'd', markersize=8, markerfacecolor='red', label='points1') ax.plot(points2X, points2Y, points2Z, 'd', markersize=8, markerfacecolor='blue', label='points2') plt.show() My problem is that I tried to make a decent surface plot out of these data points that I have. I already tried to use ax.plot_surface() function to make it look nice. For this I eliminated some points, and recalculated the matrix kind of input needed by this function. However, the graph I generated was far more difficult to interpret and understand. So there might be 2 possibilities: either I am not using the function correctly, or otherwise, the data I am trying to plot is not good for the surface plot. What I was expecting was 3D graph which would have an effect similar to that we have of 3D pie chart. We see that one piece (that which is extracted out) is part of another piece. I was not expecting it to be exactly same like that, but some kind of effect like that. What I would like to ask is: Do you think it will be possible to make such 3D graph? Is there any way better, I could express my data in 3 dimension? Here are the 2 files - points1.csv Dim1,Dim2,Dim3 3,8,1 3,8,2 3,8,3 3,8,4 3,8,5 3,9,1 3,9,2 3,9,3 3,9,4 3,9,5 3,10,1 3,10,2 3,10,3 3,10,4 3,10,5 3,11,1 3,11,2 3,11,3 3,11,4 3,11,5 3,12,1 3,12,2 3,13,1 3,13,2 3,14,1 3,14,2 3,15,1 3,15,2 3,16,1 3,16,2 3,17,1 3,17,2 3,18,1 3,18,2 4,8,1 4,8,2 4,8,3 4,8,4 4,8,5 4,9,1 4,9,2 4,9,3 4,9,4 4,9,5 4,10,1 4,10,2 4,10,3 4,10,4 4,10,5 4,11,1 4,11,2 4,11,3 4,11,4 4,11,5 4,12,1 4,13,1 4,14,1 4,15,1 4,16,1 4,17,1 4,18,1 5,8,1 5,8,2 5,8,3 5,8,4 5,8,5 5,9,1 5,9,2 5,9,3 5,9,4 5,9,5 5,10,1 5,10,2 5,10,3 5,10,4 5,10,5 5,11,1 5,11,2 5,11,3 5,11,4 5,11,5 5,12,1 5,13,1 5,14,1 5,15,1 5,16,1 5,17,1 5,18,1 6,8,1 6,8,2 6,8,3 6,8,4 6,8,5 6,9,1 6,9,2 6,9,3 6,9,4 6,9,5 6,10,1 6,11,1 6,12,1 6,13,1 6,14,1 6,15,1 6,16,1 6,17,1 6,18,1 7,8,1 7,8,2 7,8,3 7,8,4 7,8,5 7,9,1 7,9,2 7,9,3 7,9,4 7,9,5 and points2.csv Dim1,Dim2,Dim3 3,12,3 3,12,4 3,12,5 3,13,3 3,13,4 3,13,5 3,14,3 3,14,4 3,14,5 3,15,3 3,15,4 3,15,5 3,16,3 3,16,4 3,16,5 3,17,3 3,17,4 3,17,5 3,18,3 3,18,4 3,18,5 4,12,2 4,12,3 4,12,4 4,12,5 4,13,2 4,13,3 4,13,4 4,13,5 4,14,2 4,14,3 4,14,4 4,14,5 4,15,2 4,15,3 4,15,4 4,15,5 4,16,2 4,16,3 4,16,4 4,16,5 4,17,2 4,17,3 4,17,4 4,17,5 4,18,2 4,18,3 4,18,4 4,18,5 5,12,2 5,12,3 5,12,4 5,12,5 5,13,2 5,13,3 5,13,4 5,13,5 5,14,2 5,14,3 5,14,4 5,14,5 5,15,2 5,15,3 5,15,4 5,15,5 5,16,2 5,16,3 5,16,4 5,16,5 5,17,2 5,17,3 5,17,4 5,17,5 5,18,2 5,18,3 5,18,4 5,18,5 6,10,2 6,10,3 6,10,4 6,10,5 6,11,2 6,11,3 6,11,4 6,11,5 6,12,2 6,12,3 6,12,4 6,12,5 6,13,2 6,13,3 6,13,4 6,13,5 6,14,2 6,14,3 6,14,4 6,14,5 6,15,2 6,15,3 6,15,4 6,15,5 6,16,2 6,16,3 6,16,4 6,16,5 6,17,2 6,17,3 6,17,4 6,17,5 6,18,2 6,18,3 6,18,4 6,18,5 7,10,1 7,10,2 7,10,3 7,10,4 7,10,5 7,11,1 7,11,2 7,11,3 7,11,4 7,11,5 7,12,1 7,12,2 7,12,3 7,12,4 7,12,5 7,13,1 7,13,2 7,13,3 7,13,4 7,13,5 7,14,1 7,14,2 7,14,3 7,14,4 7,14,5 7,15,1 7,15,2 7,15,3 7,15,4 7,15,5 7,16,1 7,16,2 7,16,3 7,16,4 7,16,5 7,17,1 7,17,2 7,17,3 7,17,4 7,17,5 7,18,1 7,18,2 7,18,3 7,18,4 7,18,5

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  • Forcing Kernel::method_name to be called in Ruby

    - by Peter
    I want to add a foo method to Ruby's Kernel module, so I can write foo(obj) anywhere and have it do something to obj. Sometimes I want a class to override foo, so I do this: module Kernel private # important; this is what Ruby does for commands like 'puts', etc. def foo x if x.respond_to? :foo x.foo # use overwritten method. else # do something to x. end end end this is good, and works. but, what if I want to use the default Kernel::foo in some other object that overwrites foo? Since I've got an instance method foo, I've lost the original binding to Kernel::foo. class Bar def foo # override behaviour of Kernel::foo for Bar objects. foo(3) # calls Bar::foo, not the desired call of Kernel::foo. Kernel::foo(3) # can't call Kernel::foo because it's private. # question: how do I call Kernel::foo on 3? end end Is there any clean way to get around this? I'd rather not have two different names, and I definitely don't want to make Kernel::foo public.

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  • Xcode: Display Login View in applicationDidBecomeActive

    - by Patrick
    In my app I would like to show a login screen - which will be displayed when the app starts and when the app becomes active. For reference, I am using storyboards, ARC and it is a tabbed bar application. First off, I have this method which returns the topViewController. - (UIViewController *)topViewController:(UIViewController *)rootViewController { if (rootViewController.presentedViewController == nil) { return rootViewController; } if ([rootViewController.presentedViewController isMemberOfClass:[UINavigationController class]]) { UINavigationController *navigationController = (UINavigationController *)rootViewController.presentedViewController; UIViewController *lastViewController = [[navigationController viewControllers] lastObject]; return [self topViewController:lastViewController]; } UIViewController *presentedViewController = (UIViewController *)rootViewController.presentedViewController; return [self topViewController:presentedViewController]; } And I call this method here: - (void)applicationDidBecomeActive:(UIApplication *)application { if ( ... ) { // if the user needs to login PasswordViewController *passwordView = [[PasswordViewController alloc] init]; UIViewController *myView = [self topViewController:self.window.rootViewController]; [myView presentModalViewController:passwordView animated:NO]; } } To an extent this does work - I can call a method in viewDidAppear which shows an alert view to allow the user to log in. However, this is undesirable and I would like to have a login text box and other ui elements. If I do not call my login method, nothing happens and the screen stays black, even though I have put a label and other elements on the view. Does anyone know a way to resolve this? My passcode view is embedded in a Navigation Controller, but is detached from the main storyboard.

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  • Trouble with building up a string in Clojure

    - by Aki Iskandar
    Hi gang - [this may seem like my problem is with Compojure, but it isn't - it's with Clojure] I've been pulling my hair out on this seemingly simple issue - but am getting nowhere. I am playing with Compojure (a light web framework for Clojure) and I would just like to generate a web page showing showing my list of todos that are in a PostgreSQL database. The code snippets are below (left out the database connection, query, etc - but that part isn't needed because specific issue is that the resulting HTML shows nothing between the <body> and </body> tags). As a test, I tried hard-coding the string in the call to main-layout, like this: (html (main-layout "Aki's Todos" "Haircut<br>Study Clojure<br>Answer a question on Stackoverfolw")) - and it works fine. So the real issue is that I do not believe I know how to build up a string in Clojure. Not the idiomatic way, and not by calling out to Java's StringBuilder either - as I have attempted to do in the code below. A virtual beer, and a big upvote to whoever can solve it! Many thanks! ============================================================= ;The master template (a very simple POC for now, but can expand on it later) (defn main-layout "This is one of the html layouts for the pages assets - just like a master page" [title body] (html [:html [:head [:title title] (include-js "todos.js") (include-css "todos.css")] [:body body]])) (defn show-all-todos "This function will generate the todos HTML table and call the layout function" [] (let [rs (select-all-todos) sbHTML (new StringBuilder)] (for [rec rs] (.append sbHTML (str rec "<br><br>"))) (html (main-layout "Aki's Todos" (.toString sbHTML))))) ============================================================= Again, the result is a web page but with nothing between the body tags. If I replace the code in the for loop with println statements, and direct the code to the repl - forgetting about the web page stuff (ie. the call to main-layout), the resultset gets printed - BUT - the issue is with building up the string. Thanks again. ~Aki

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  • Performance of C# method polymorphism with generics

    - by zildjohn01
    I noticed in C#, unlike C++, you can combine virtual and generic methods. For example: using System.Diagnostics; class Base { public virtual void Concrete() {Debug.WriteLine("base concrete");} public virtual void Generic<T>() {Debug.WriteLine("base generic");} } class Derived : Base { public override void Concrete() {Debug.WriteLine("derived concrete");} public override void Generic<T>() {Debug.WriteLine("derived generic");} } class App { static void Main() { Base x = new Derived(); x.Concrete(); x.Generic<PerformanceCounter>(); } } Given that any number of versions of Generic<T> could be instantiated, it doesn't look like the standard vtbl approach could be used to resolve method calls, and in fact it's not. Here's the generated code: x.Concrete(); mov ecx,dword ptr [ebp-8] mov eax,dword ptr [ecx] call dword ptr [eax+38h] x.Generic<PerformanceCounter>(); push 989A38h mov ecx,dword ptr [ebp-8] mov edx,989914h call 76A874F1 mov dword ptr [ebp-4],eax mov ecx,dword ptr [ebp-8] call dword ptr [ebp-4] The extra code appears to be looking up a dynamic vtbl according to the generic parameters, and then calling into it. Has anyone written about the specifics of this implementation? How well does it perform compared to the non-generic case?

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  • Problem executing trackPageview with Google Analytics.

    - by dmrnj
    I'm trying to capture the clicks of certain download links and track them in Google Analytics. Here's my code var links = document.getElementsByTagName("a"); for (var i = 0; i < links.length; i++) { linkpath = links[i].pathname; if( linkpath.match(/\.(pdf|xls|ppt|doc|zip|txt)$/) || links[i].href.indexOf("mode=pdf") >=0 ){ //this matches our search addClickTracker(links[i]); } } function addClickTracker(obj){ if (obj.addEventListener) { obj.addEventListener('click', track , true); } else if (obj.attachEvent) { obj.attachEvent("on" + 'click', track); } } function track(e){ linkhref = (e.srcElement) ? e.srcElement.pathname : this.pathname; pageTracker._trackPageview(linkhref); } Everything up until the pageTracker._trackPageview() call works. In my debugging linkhref is being passed fine as a string. No abnormal characters, nothing. The issue is that, watching my http requests, Google never makes a second call to the tracking gif (as it does if you call this function in an "onclick" property). Calling the tracker from my JS console also works as expected. It's only in my listener. Could it be that my listener is not deferring the default action (loading the new page) before it has a chance to contact Google's servers? I've seen other tracking scripts that do a similar thing without any deferral.

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  • IIS to SQL Server kerberos auth issues

    - by crosan
    We have a 3rd party product that allows some of our users to manipulate data in a database (on what we'll call SvrSQL) via a website on a separate server (SvrWeb). On SvrWeb, we have a specific, non-default website setup for this application so instead of going to http://SvrWeb.company.com to get to the website we use http://application.company.com which resolves to SvrWeb and the host headers resolve to the correct website. There is also a specific application pool set up for this site which uses an Active Directory account identity we'll call "company\SrvWeb_iis". We're setup to allow delegation on this account and to allow it to impersonate another login which we want it to do. (we want this account to pass along the AD credentials of the person signed into the website to SQL Server instead of a service account. We also set up the SPNs for the SrvWeb_iis account via the following command: setspn -A HTTP/SrvWeb.company.com SrvWeb_iis The website pulls up, but the section of the website that makes the call to the database returns the message: Cannot execute database query. Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON'. I thought we had the SPN information set up correctly, but when I check the security event log on SrvWeb I see entries of my logging in, but it seems to be using NTLM and not kerberos: Logon Type: 3 Logon Process: NtLmSsp Authentication Package: NTLM Any ideas or articles that cover this setup in detail would be extremely appreciated! If it helps, we are using SQL Server 2005, and both the web and SQL servers are Windows 2003.

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  • Where does java.util.logging.Logger store their log

    - by Harry Pham
    This might be a stupid question but I am a bit lost with java Logger private static Logger logger = Logger.getLogger("order.web.OrderManager"); logger.info("Removed order " + id + "."); Where do I see the log? Also this quote from java.util.logging.Logger library: On each logging call the Logger initially performs a cheap check of the request level (e.g. SEVERE or FINE) against the effective log level of the logger. If the request level is lower than the log level, the logging call returns immediately. After passing this initial (cheap) test, the Logger will allocate a LogRecord to describe the logging message. It will then call a Filter (if present) to do a more detailed check on whether the record should be published. If that passes it will then publish the LogRecord to its output Handlers. Does this mean that if I have 3 request level log: logger.log(Level.FINE, "Something"); logger.log(Level.WARNING, "Something"); logger.log(Level.SEVERE, "Something"); And my log level is SEVERE, I can see all three logs, if my log level is WARNING, then I cant see SEVERE log, is that correct? And how do I set the log level?

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  • Create a linear trend line in Excel graphs with logarithmic scale

    - by Redsoft7
    I I have an Excel scatter chart with x and y values. I set the logarithmic scale in x-axis and y-axis. When I add a linear trend line to the graph, the line is not linear but appears like a curve. How can I make a linear trend line on a logarithmic-scaled chart? Sample data: x: 18449 22829 25395 36869 101419 125498 208144 2001508 14359478 17301785 y: 269,09 273,89 239,50 239,50 175,13 176,73 151,94 135,15 131,55 121,55

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  • Load PHP function with jQuery Ajax

    - by brandon14_99
    I have a file which is loaded at the top of my document, which is called Videos.php. Inside that file are several functions, such as getYoutubeVideos. On some pages, I need to call upon that function several times (up to 50), and it of course creates major lag on load times. So I have been trying to figure out how to call that function in, only when it is need (when someone clicks the show videos button). I have very little experience with jQuery's ajax abilities. I would like the ajax call to be made inside of something like this: jQuery('a[rel=VideoPreview1).click(function(){ jQuery ("a[rel=VideoPreview1]").hide(); jQuery ("a[rel=HideVideoPreview1]").show(); jQuery ("#VideoPreview1").show(); //AJAX STUFF HERE preventDefault(); }); Ok I have created this based on the responses, but it is still not working: jQuery Code: jQuery(document).ready(function(){ jQuery("a[rel=VideoPreview5]").click(function(){ jQuery("a[rel=VideoPreview5]").hide(); jQuery("a[rel=HideVideoPreview5]").show(); jQuery.post("/Classes/Video.php", {action: "getYoutubeVideos", artist: "Train", track: "Hey, Soul Sister"}, function(data){ jQuery("#VideoPreview5").html(data); }, 'json'); jQuery("#VideoPreview5").show(); preventDefault(); }); jQuery("a[rel=HideVideoPreview5]").click(function(){ jQuery("a[rel=VideoPreview5]").show(); jQuery("a[rel=HideVideoPreview5]").hide(); jQuery("#VideoPreview5").hide(); preventDefault(); }); }); And the PHP code: $Action = isset($_POST['action']); $Artist = isset($_POST['artist']); $Track = isset($_POST['track']); if($Action == 'getYoutubeVideos') { echo 'where are the videos'; echo json_encode(getYoutubeVideos($Artist.' '.$Track, 1, 5, 'relevance')); }

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  • exit /B 0 does not work

    - by murxx
    I have the following problem: I have created a batch script which calls itself in there (for being able to write a log in parallel). In the script I start another process (like start startServer.bat) which starts up a java process and keeps opened up all the time. In my original script I wait 30 seconds, check if the process is running and do an: exit /B 0 Unfortunately that does not work, the window shows that the exit /B 0 is being evaluated, but the window still keeps open. When I close the window with the other process (meaning the "child" processes started up in my .bat) my script continues its run. So: scriptA.bat -> in there I call: start startServer.bat -> wait 30 seconds -> check is server is started -> exit /B 0 Process hangs up! What's very odd, if I wrap another script around, like: scriptB.bat -> call scriptA.bat -----> in there I call: start startServer.bat -----> wait 30 seconds -----> check if server is started -----> exit /B 0 -> scriptA.bat continues without any hangup! I also tried the same with exit 0 (without /B) also, same result! In the first case it hangs up, in the second case my window closes as expected... Has anyone of you ever had such a problem before and knows what's wrong here? Process hangs up!

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  • Dynamically including multiple files within php for image descriptions

    - by Steve Jones
    Working on implementing image descriptions to a php run gallery and can't seem to figure out how to call each text file for each individual image. //total number of images $total = 77; //max number of thumbnails per page $max = 9; //what image do we want to start from? $startcount = $_GET["start"]; //if there is not a defined starting image, we start with the first if(empty($startcount)) { $startcount = 0; } //start off the loop at 1 $loop = 1; //start the loop while($loop <= $max) { //for the picture labels $num = $startcount + $loop; if($num > $total) { $num = $num - 1; break; } // Add class="last" to every third list item if(is_int($num / 3)) { $last = ' class="last"'; } else { $last = ""; } //the code for the image echo ' <li'.$last.'><a href="images/portfolio/pic-'.$num.'.jpg" rel="milkbox[gall1]"><img src="images/portfolio/thumbs/pic-'.$num.'-thumb.jpg" width="256" height="138" alt="Thumbnail of image '.$num.'" /></a><div>'.$num.'</div></li>'; I see that I can call the text files by number using '.$num.' (I have 77 individual text files with a phrase in each) but how do I tell it to call the files?

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  • nhibernate mapping: delete collection, insert new collection with old IDs

    - by npeBeg
    my issue lokks similar to this one: (link) but i have one-to-many association: <set name="Fields" cascade="all-delete-orphan" lazy="false" inverse="true"> <key column="[TEMPLATE_ID]"></key> <one-to-many class="MyNamespace.Field, MyLibrary"/> </set> (i also tried to use ) this mapping is for Template object. this one and the Field object has their ID generators set to identity. so when i call session.Update for the Template object it works fine, well, almost: if the Field object has an Id number, UPDATE sql request is called, if the Id is 0, the INSERT is performed. But if i delete a Field object from the collection it has no effect for the Database. I found that if i also call session.Delete for this Field object, everything will be ok, but due to client-server architecture i don't know what to delete. so i decided to delete all the collection elements from the DB and call session.Update with a new collection. and i've got an issue: nhibernate performs the UPDATE operation for the Field objects that has non-zero Id, but they are removed from DB! maybe i should use some other Id generator or smth.. what is the best way to make nhibernate perform "delete all"/"insert all" routine for the collection?

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  • Datareceived Serialport event stops raising after some seconds

    - by Mario
    Hi, I was hoping someone could help me out with this problem. I have a system (VB .NET) where I must read a person's weight (RS232 Sluice) and id (Fingerprint - 2 biometric reader, rs232) and compare it to a database. I have 3 serialports in my app, one for the sluice and the other 2 are to receive the id from the fingerprint readers, both of which call the same sub to get the id from the reader. I've been testing just one reader and it seemed to work fine, I got data from the datareceived and joined it together to get the id. The problem comes at this moment: I put a finger, sends the id, if it's ok sends a message, otherwise, writes the id to a textbox. But in-between reads, if I let 5 or 10 seconds pass without putting a finger on the reader it seems like I get no data at all anymore, the datareceived event nevers gets raised but if I keep putting a finger constantly it works pretty good, this is really weird to me. I was thinking of some things: **Maybe the port gets closed somehow after some time? I never call the CLose() method **The fact both datareceived eventhandlers call the same method and delegate **Maybe the connection settings are missing something? I tested with hyperterminal and the port keeps getting info even after time without activity and I use the same config with my application, maybe I need to change more settings like DTEenable and RTSenable? Please I need some help with this issue, it's to control access so it needs to be running 24/7 thanks in advance!

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