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• Can TFS workspaces be used without being tied to a specific machine?

  - by GWLlosa

  So I've got a situation where we have a project with 10 developers. Each developer, when they come in for the day, is randomly issued a machine to use for development that day. The machine names are different, say DEV01 - DEV10. At the time that they are issued to the developers, the machines are identical, and no changes the developers make during the day are persisted on the machines (source code changes are stored in TFS, not locally). These are of course actually virtual machines, but that's not really relevant to the point at hand. The problem is that each morning, the developers run into 3 issues: 1) The machine that they are assigned may not be the same machine they were last assigned to. For example, DevMan A might have used DEV04 yesterday, and received DEV06 today. His workspace definitions are now tied to DEV06; he must create a new workspace, or migrate the old workspace to DEV04. 2) The machine that they are assigned may have been in use yesterday, and some of the mappings may conflict. For example, DevMan A might have DEV04 today, and wish to create a workspace mapping the project folder to "C:\MyProj\Solution". However, DevMan B had DEV04 yesterday, and he used the same project folder. TFS now complains. 3) This may be the first time they are on a given machine. They now need to recreate for this machine all of their source-control mappings for the new machine. All of these issues can be resolved in a straightforward fashion on a case-by-case basis, but it does sap some productivity from the morning. We'd much prefer if the TFS workspace definitions could be 'relaxed', such that they did not include the machine name in the definition somehow. Barring that, if anyone is aware of a solution to the above problems that can run automatically, or with limited user intervention, that would also be ideal.

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• How can I find the common ancestor of two nodes in a binary tree?

  - by Siddhant

  The Binary Tree here is not a Binary Search Tree. Its just a Binary Tree. The structure could be taken as - struct node { int data; struct node *left; struct node *right; }; The maximum solution I could work out with a friend was something of this sort - Consider this binary tree (from http://lcm.csa.iisc.ernet.in/dsa/node87.html) : The inorder traversal yields - 8, 4, 9, 2, 5, 1, 6, 3, 7 And the postorder traversal yields - 8, 9, 4, 5, 2, 6, 7, 3, 1 So for instance, if we want to find the common ancestor of nodes 8 and 5, then we make a list of all the nodes which are between 8 and 5 in the inorder tree traversal, which in this case happens to be [4, 9, 2]. Then we check which node in this list appears last in the postorder traversal, which is 2. Hence the common ancestor for 8 and 5 is 2. The complexity for this algorithm, I believe is O(n) (O(n) for inorder/postorder traversals, the rest of the steps again being O(n) since they are nothing more than simple iterations in arrays). But there is a strong chance that this is wrong. :-) But this is a very crude approach, and I'm not sure if it breaks down for some case. Is there any other (possibly more optimal) solution to this problem?

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• Is it bad practise to initialise fields outside of an explicit constructor

  - by MrTortoise

  So its monday and we are arguing about coding practises. The examples here are a litttle too simple, but the real deal has several constructors. In order to initialise the simple values (eg dates to their min value) I have moved the code out of the constructors and into the field definitions. public class ConstructorExample { string _string = "John"; } public class ConstructorExample2 { string _string; public ConstructorExample2() { _string = "John"; } } How should it be done by the book. I tend to be very case by case and so am maybe a little lax abotu this kind of thing. However i feel that accams razor tells me to move the initialisation out of multiple constructors. Of course I could always move this shared initialisation into a private method. The question is essentially ... is initialising fields where they are defined as opposed to the constructor bad in any way? The argument I am facing is one of error handling, but i do not feel it is relevant as there are no possible exceptions that won't be picked up at compile time.

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• NHibernate: What are child sessions and why and when should I use them?

  - by stefando

  In the comments for the ayende's blog about the auditing in NHibernate there is a mention about the need to use a child session:session.GetSession(EntityMode.Poco). As far as I understand it, it has something to do with the order of the SQL operation which session.Flush will emit. (For example: If I wanted to perform some delete operation in the pre-insert event but the session was already done with deleting operations, I would need some way to inject them in.) However I did not find documentation about this feature and behavior. Questions: Is my understanding of child sessions correct? How and in which scenarios should I use them? Are they documented somewhere? Could they be used for session "scoping"? (For example: I open the master session which will hold some data and then I create 2 child-sessions from the master one. I'd expect that the two child-scopes will be separated but the will share objects from the master session cache. Is this the case?) Are they first class citizens in NHibernate or are they just hack to support some edge-case scenarios? Thanks in advance for any info.

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• (Weak) ETags and Last-Modified

  - by Kai Moritz

  As far as I understand the specs, the ETag, which was introduced in RFC 2616 (HTTP/1.1) is a predecessor of the Last-Modified-Header, which is proposet to give the software-architect more controll over the cache-revalidating process. If both Cache-Validation-Headers (If-None-Match and If-Modified-Since) are present, according to RFC 2616, the client (i.e. the browser) should use the ETag when checking, if a resource has changed. According to section 14.26 of RFC 2616, the server MUST NOT respond with a 304 Not Modified, if the ETag presented in a If-None-Match-Header has changed, and the server has to ignore an additional If-Modified-Since-Header, if present. If the presented ETag matches, he MUST NOT perform the request, unless the Date in the Last-Modified-Header says so. (If the presented ETag matches, the server should respond with a 304 Not Modified in case of a GET- or HEAD-request...) This section leaves room for some speculations: A strong ETag is supposed to change ''everytime'', the resource changes. So, having to responde with something else as 304 Not Modified to a request with an unchanged ETag and an If-Modified-Since-Header, which dose not match is a bit of a contradiction, because the strong ETag says, that the resource was not modified. (Though, this is not that fatal, because the server can send the same unchanged resource again.) ... ... o.k. While I was writing this, the question was boiling down to this answer: The (small) contradiction stated above, was made because of Weak ETags. A resource marked with a Weak ETag may have changed, although the ETag has not. So, in case of a Weak ETag it would be wrong, to answer with 304 Not Modified, when the ETag has not changed, but the date presented in the If-Modified-Since does not match, right?

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• How To Read A Remote Text File

  - by XcodeDev

  Hi, I would like to read a remote text file called posts.txt on my website. An example of the insides of the posts.txt file would be this: <div style="width : 300px; position : relative"><font face="helvetica, geneva, sans serif" size="6"><b>2</b></font><font face="helvetica, geneva, sans serif" size="4"><i> scored by iSDK</i></font><br><img src="Bar.png" /></div><div style="width : 300px; position : relative"><font face="helvetica, geneva, sans serif" size="6"><b>2</b></font><font face="helvetica, geneva, sans serif" size="4"><i> scored by martin</i></font><br><img src="Bar.png" /></div> What I wanted to know is how can I get the score, and scored by text from the .txt file? The score is (in this case) the: <b>2</b>, and the scored by text in this case would be: "scored by iSDK". Any code telling me how to do this is twice as helpful! Thanks in advanced XcodeDev

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• FormStartPosition.CenterParent does not work

  - by kol

  In the following code, only the second method works for me (.NET 4.0). FormStartPosition.CenterParent does not center the child form over its parent. Why? Source: this SO question using System; using System.Drawing; using System.Windows.Forms; class Program { private static Form f1; public static void Main() { f1 = new Form() { Width = 640, Height = 480 }; f1.MouseClick += f1_MouseClick; Application.Run(f1); } static void f1_MouseClick(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { Form f2 = new Form() { Width = 400, Height = 300 }; switch (e.Button) { case MouseButtons.Left: { // 1st method f2.StartPosition = FormStartPosition.CenterParent; break; } case MouseButtons.Right: { // 2nd method f2.StartPosition = FormStartPosition.Manual; f2.Location = new Point( f1.Location.X + (f1.Width - f2.Width) / 2, f1.Location.Y + (f1.Height - f2.Height) / 2 ); break; } } f2.Show(f1); } }

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• In Java, is there a gain in using interfaces for complex models?

  - by Gnoupi

  The title is hardly understandable, but I'm not sure how to summarize that another way. Any edit to clarify is welcome. I have been told, and recommended to use interfaces to improve performances, even in a case which doesn't especially call for the regular "interface" role. In this case, the objects are big models (in a MVC meaning), with many methods and fields. The "good use" that has been recommended to me is to create an interface, with its unique implementation. There won't be any other class implementing this interface, for sure. I have been told that this is better to do so, because it "exposes less" (or something close) to the other classes which will use methods from this class, as these objects are referring to the object from its interface (all public method from the implementation being reproduced in the interface). This seems quite strange to me, as it seems like a C++ use to me (with header files). There I see the point, but in Java? Is there really a point in making an interface for such unique implementation? I would really appreciate some clarifications on the topic, so I could justify not following such kind of behavior, and the hassle it creates from duplicating all declarations.

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• MySQL query problem

  - by Luke

  Ok, I have the following problem. I have two InnoDB tables: 'places' and 'events'. One place can have many events, but event can be created without entering place. In this case event's foreign key is NULL. Simplified structure of the tables looks as follows: CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `events` ( `id` int(11) unsigned NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `name` varchar(255) COLLATE utf8_bin NOT NULL, `places_id` int(9) unsigned DEFAULT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), KEY `fk_events_places` (`places_id`), ) ENGINE=InnoDB; ALTER TABLE `events` ADD CONSTRAINT `events_ibfk_1` FOREIGN KEY (`places_id`) REFERENCES `places` (`id`) ON DELETE CASCADE ON UPDATE NO ACTION; CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `places` ( `id` int(9) unsigned NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `name` varchar(255) COLLATE utf8_bin NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), ) ENGINE=InnoDB; Question is, how to construct query which contains name of the event and name of the corresponding place (or no value, in case there is no place assigned?). I am able to do it with two queries, but then I am visibly separating events which have place assigned from the ones that are without place. Help really appreciated.

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• All Callbacks on GUI Thread - Multithreading issues possible?

  - by miguel

  We have an external data provider which, in its construtor, takes a callback thread for returning data upon. There are some issues in the system which I am suspicious are related to threading, however, in theory they cannot be, due to the fact that the callbacks should all be returned on the same thread. My question is, does code like this require thread synchronisation? class Foo { ExternalDataProvider _provider; public Foo() { // This is the c'tor for the xternal data provider, taking a callback loop as param _provider = new ExternalDataProvider(UILoop); _provider.DataArrived += ExternalProviderCallbackMethod; } public ExternalProviderCallbackMethod(...) { //...(code omitted) var itemArray[] = new String[4] { "item1", "item2", "item3", "item4" }; for (int i = 0; i < itemArray.Length; i++) { string s = itemArray[i]; switch(s) { case "item1": DoItem1Action(); break; case "item2": DoItem2Action(); break; default: DoDefaultAction(); break; } //...(code omitted) } } } The issue is that, very infrequently, DoItem2Action is executingwhen DoItem1Action should be exectuing. Is it at all possible threading is at fault here? In theory, as all callbacks are arriving on the same thread, they should be serialized, right? So there should be no need for thread sync here?

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• [android] setting wallpaper through code

  - by Javadid

  hi Friends, I was trying to make an app which also had the facility to let user select wallpaper he would like to set. I have managed this by calling the Gallery Intent. Once the user selects a specific image, the data path of the image is returned to me which then i preview to the user by setting the image onto an imageview. The problem crops up when the image size (and/or resolution) is greater than what android expects. This results in failure of my module. And as if this was not enough, wen the user tries to select some other wallpaper(and in my test case the "other" wallpaper was also of size 700kb) then the app crashes with the "OutOfMemoryException"... Helppp me here guys!!! For Gallery Intent i use: Intent intent = new Intent(); intent.setType("image/*"); intent.setAction(Intent.ACTION_GET_CONTENT); startActivityForResult(Intent.createChooser(intent, "Select Picture"),SELECT_IMAGE); For setting the wallpaper i use: InputStream is = getContentResolver().openInputStream(Uri.parse(uri_returned_from_intent)); Bitmap bgImage = BitmapFactory.decodeStream(is);//OutOfMemory error thrown here setWallpaper(bgImage); So i have 2 problems to deal with: How to crop the image before setting it as wallpaper... Cant understand y OutOfMemoryException is thrown, coz none of my image sizes exceed even 1mb... and i guess the VM budget in case Of N1 is 24Mb if m not mistaken...

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• Callbacks on GUI Thread

  - by miguel

  We have an external data provider which, in its construtor, takes a callback thread for returning data upon. There are some issues in the system which I am suspicious are related to threading, however, in theory they cannot be, due to the fact that the callbacks should all be returned on the same thread. My question is, does code like this require thread synchronisation? class Foo { ExternalDataProvider _provider; public Foo() { // This is the c'tor for the xternal data provider, taking a callback loop as param _provider = new ExternalDataProvider(UILoop); _provider.DataArrived += ExternalProviderCallbackMethod; } public ExternalProviderCallbackMethod() { var itemArray[] = new String[4] { "item1", "item2", "item3", "item4" }; for (int i = 0; i < itemArray.Length; i++) { string s = itemArray[i]; switch(s) { case "item1": DoItem1Action(); break; case "item2": DoItem2Action(); break; default: DoDefaultAction(); break; } } } } The issue is that, very infrequently, DoItem2Action is executingwhen DoItem1Action should be exectuing. Is it at all possible threading is at fault here? In theory, as all callbacks are arriving on the same thread, they should be serialized, right? So there should be no need for thread sync here?

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• Indirect property notification

  - by Carlo

  Hello, this question might look a little trivial, but it might not be. I'm just wondering which of the following two cases is better for indirect property notification, or perhaps there is an even better way. The scenario: I have two properties, the first one is an object called HoldingObject, the second one is a boolean called IsHoldingObject, which is false if HoldingObject == null, otherwise it's true. I'm just wondering what is the best notification mechanism for IsHoldingObject: Case (A) - Notify IsHoldingObject changed from the HoldingObject proeperty: public class NotifyingClass1 : INotifyPropertyChanged { private object _holdingObject; public object HoldingObject { get { return _holdingObject; } set { if (_holdingObject != value) { _holdingObject = value; NotifyPropertyChanged("HoldingObject"); // Notify from the property that is being checked NotifyPropertyChanged("IsHoldingObject"); } } } public bool IsHoldingObject { get { return this.HoldingObject == null; } } #region INotifyPropertyChanged Members public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; private void NotifyPropertyChanged(string propertyName) { if (this.PropertyChanged != null) this.PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName)); } #endregion } Case (B) - Notify IsHoldingObject changed from the IsHoldingObject directly, by setting it to false or true from HoldingObject property: public class NotifyingClass2 : INotifyPropertyChanged { private object _holdingObject; public object HoldingObject { get { return _holdingObject; } set { if (_holdingObject != value) { _holdingObject = value; NotifyPropertyChanged("HoldingObject"); // 1) Set the property here this.IsHoldingObject = _holdingObject != null; } } } private bool _isHoldingObject; public bool IsHoldingObject { get { return _isHoldingObject; } set { if (_isHoldingObject != value) { _isHoldingObject = value; // 2) Notify directly from the property NotifyPropertyChanged("IsHoldingObject"); } } } #region INotifyPropertyChanged Members public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; private void NotifyPropertyChanged(string propertyName) { if (this.PropertyChanged != null) this.PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName)); } #endregion } I personally lean to the first one because it requires less code, but I'm not sure how recommendable it is to do that. Let me know if there is another (better) way. Thanks!

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• exchange server 2010 with multiple domains

  - by air

  i have one exchange server 2010, which is working fine with one domain. my exchange is working as follows pop3 collector collect emails from one master catchall account and then deliver to exchange server, this working perfect. now what i want to add another domain to same exchange, i have added new domain as trusted domain & email policy and this new domain email account works fine with internal emails. now what i have done, i again forward new email account to same catchall account. but if i send email from any other external email address email is bounce, i can see email receive by pop3 collector but bounce by exchange server. to make you more clear let me explain logic on which i am working. i have 2 domains 1. domain1.com ([email protected]) 2. domain2.com ([email protected] -->[email protected]) now on my machine with exchange server i have pop3 collector which collect all emails from [email protected] and forward to exchange 2010 server. all emails to domain1.com is working perfect but when i send email to [email protected] this email redirect to [email protected] perfectly but when exchanger server receive this email, it bounce. i have also study the url link text and follow the whole process but no success. i also check that my DNS/MX is working fine as the bounce message is going from my exchange server. EDIT the only problem is with accepted domain, as email come to exchange server then bounce back. i just try this today i create one user called test, then i goto his properties -- email there was only one email account [email protected] i try to send email to [email protected] from internet (email bounce) then again i go to test user properties -- email and Add one email [email protected] again u try to send email to t*[email protected]* from internet (email received) i think the only problem is with accepted domain but in hub transport , it shows accepted is there any way to check does domain is properly accepted or not in exchange 2010 server. Thanks

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• Why initialize an object to empty

  - by ProgEnthu

  I am learning windows programming with the help of MSDN.Why would somebody initialize an object like the following? WNDCLASS wc = { }; Will this zero all the memory of the object? Whole source code is following: #ifndef UNICODE #define UNICODE #endif #include <windows.h> LRESULT CALLBACK WindowProc(HWND hwnd, UINT uMsg, WPARAM wParam, LPARAM lParam); int WINAPI wWinMain(HINSTANCE hInstance, HINSTANCE, PWSTR pCmdLine, int nCmdShow) { // Register the window class. const wchar_t CLASS_NAME[] = L"Sample Window Class"; WNDCLASS wc = { }; wc.lpfnWndProc = WindowProc; wc.hInstance = hInstance; wc.lpszClassName = CLASS_NAME; RegisterClass(&wc); // Create the window. HWND hwnd = CreateWindowEx( 0, // Optional window styles. CLASS_NAME, // Window class L"Learn to Program Windows", // Window text WS_OVERLAPPEDWINDOW, // Window style // Size and position CW_USEDEFAULT, CW_USEDEFAULT, CW_USEDEFAULT, CW_USEDEFAULT, NULL, // Parent window NULL, // Menu hInstance, // Instance handle NULL // Additional application data ); if (hwnd == NULL) { return 0; } ShowWindow(hwnd, nCmdShow); // Run the message loop. MSG msg = { }; while (GetMessage(&msg, NULL, 0, 0)) { TranslateMessage(&msg); DispatchMessage(&msg); } return 0; } LRESULT CALLBACK WindowProc(HWND hwnd, UINT uMsg, WPARAM wParam, LPARAM lParam) { switch (uMsg) { case WM_DESTROY: PostQuitMessage(0); return 0; case WM_PAINT: { PAINTSTRUCT ps; HDC hdc = BeginPaint(hwnd, &ps); FillRect(hdc, &ps.rcPaint, (HBRUSH) (COLOR_WINDOW+1)); EndPaint(hwnd, &ps); } return 0; } return DefWindowProc(hwnd, uMsg, wParam, lParam); }

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• Visual SourceSafe (VSS): "Access to file (filename) denied" error

  - by tk-421

  Hi, can anybody help with the above SourceSafe error? I've spent hours trying to find a fix. I've also Googled the heck out of it but couldn't find a scenario matching mine, because in my case only a few files (not all) are affected. Here's what I found: only a few files in my project generate this error other files in the same directory (for example, App_Code has one of the problem files) work fine I've tried checking out from both the VSS client and Visual Studio another developer can check out the main problem file without any problems This sounds like a permission issue for my user, right? However: I found the location of one of the problem files in VSS's data directory (using VSS's naming format, as in 'fddaaaaa.a') and checked its permissions; everything looks fine and its permissions match those of other files I can check out successfully I can see no differences in the file properties between working and non-working files What else can I check? Has anyone encountered this problem before and found a solution? Thanks. P.S.: SourceGear, svn or git are not options, unfortunately. P.P.S.: Tried unsuccessfully to add tag "sourcesafe." EDIT: Hey Paddy, I tried to click 'add comment' to respond to your comment, but I'm getting a javascript error when loading this page in IE8 ("jquery undefined," etc.) so this isn't working. This is when checking out files, and yes, I've obliterated my local copy more times than I can remember. ;) EDIT 2: Thanks for the responses, guys (again I can't 'add comment' due to jQuery not loading, maybe blocked as discussed in Meta). If the problem was caused by antivirus or a bad disk, would other users still be able to check out the file(s)? That's the case here, which makes me think it's a permission issue specific to my account. However I've looked at the permissions and they match both other users' settings and settings on other files which I can check out.

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• Stopping a MATLAB GUI callback

  - by leonhart88

  Dear All, I have a START and STOP button. When I hit START, i run a bunch of code in my callback. It's basically a sequential "script" that opens valves, dispenses water and then closes the valves...there is no while() loop and it doesn't repeat. I want to be able to stop this process at any time using the STOP button. Most of the related answers I've seen are in the cases where a while() loop is used. Some people have also suggested to periodically check if the STOP button was pressed (using a variable or handle variable). Since I do not have a while loop, I can't solve it that way. Also, I'd like to be able to exit immediately, without having to periodically check (because checking multiple times in my code would be ugly and confusing). Is there a way to terminate the callback which was interrupted by the STOP button? If not, is it possible to have the START button run a .m file and then have the STOP button terminate that .m file? The worst case scenario would be to check a variable periodically. UPDATE: Well, looks like the worst case scenario is what is suggested by MATLAB... http://www.mathworks.com/support/solutions/en/data/1-33IK85/index.html?product=ML&solution=1-33IK85 Thanks.

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• DLL Export C/C++ 6.00 function invoked by VB6

  - by nashth

  Hi all, I have been attemptng to create a DLL with C/C++ that can be accessed by VB6, and that's right I get error "453 Can't find DLL entry point myFunctionName in myDllName.dll" upon calling the function from a VB6 app. After searching the Web, including this site, I see that I am not alone, and I have tried the various solutions posted but error "453" is unexcapable. This is Not a COMM dll, and I believe that is possible when created via C/C++. In any case, please help, if you can. Please refer to the following simple test case below: The DLL created as a C/C++ 6.00 Win32 Dynamic-Link Library: #include // Note that I did try the line below rather than the def file, but to no avail... // #pragma comment(linker, "/EXPORT:ibask32=_ibask32@0") // Function definition extern "C" int __declspec(dllexport) __stdcall ibask32() { MessageBox(NULL,"String","Sample Code", NULL); return 0L; } The def file: LIBRARY "Gpib-32" EXPORTS ibask32 Now for the VB App: The following is the entire content of the startup Form1, Form_Load Option Explicit Private Sub Form_Load() Call ibask End Sub The following is a BAS module file that is added to the project: Option Explicit Declare Function ibask32 Lib "Gpib-32.dll" Alias "ibask" () As Long Sub ibask() Call ibask32 ' Note: This is the point of failure End Sub Thanks in advance if a workable solution can be provided, Tom

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• jQuery remove SELECT options based on another SELECT selected on change and on load

  - by John Sieber

  I'm using the following jQuery code to remove options from a select and it is working well. But instead of it only executing when the theOption2 select is changed I would also like it to work when the page is loaded depending on the selected item that is selected. I tried using the a copy of the script and changing the .change to .load and also tried using (window).load without the desired results. Essentially, I need the script to execute on change of the Options1 and on the loading of the page. Any help with this would be greatly appreciated. <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { //copy the second select, so we can easily reset it var selectClone = $('#theOptions2').clone(); $('#theOptions1').change(function() { var val = parseInt($(this).val()); //reset the second select on each change $('#theOptions2').html(selectClone.html()) switch(val) { //if 2 is selected remove C case 2 : $('#theOptions2').find('option:contains(c)').remove();break; //if 3 is selected remove A case 3 : $('#theOptions2').find('option:contains(a)').remove();break; } }); }); </script> <select id="theOptions1"> <option value="1">1</option> <option value="2" selected="selected">2</option> <option value="3">3</option> </select> <br /> <select id="theOptions2"> <option>a</option> <option>b</option> <option>c</option> </select>

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• How to support comparisons for QVariant objects containing a custom type?

  - by Tyler McHenry

  According to the Qt documentation, QVariant::operator== does not work as one might expect if the variant contains a custom type: bool QVariant::operator== ( const QVariant & v ) const Compares this QVariant with v and returns true if they are equal; otherwise returns false. In the case of custom types, their equalness operators are not called. Instead the values' addresses are compared. How are you supposed to get this to behave meaningfully for your custom types? In my case, I'm storing an enumerated value in a QVariant, e.g. In a header: enum MyEnum { Foo, Bar }; Q_DECLARE_METATYPE(MyEnum); Somewhere in a function: QVariant var1 = QVariant::fromValue<MyEnum>(Foo); QVariant var2 = QVariant::fromValue<MyEnum>(Foo); assert(var1 == var2); // Fails! What do I need to do differently in order for this assertion to be true? I understand why it's not working -- each variant is storing a separate copy of the enumerated value, so they have different addresses. I want to know how I can change my approach to storing these values in variants so that either this is not an issue, or so that they do both reference the same underlying variable. It don't think it's possible for me to get around needing equality comparisons to work. The context is that I am using this enumeration as the UserData in items in a QComboBox and I want to be able to use QComboBox::findData to locate the item index corresponding to a particular enumerated value.

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• uploading images with the help of arrays and fetch errors

  - by bonny

  i use a script to upload a couple of images to a directory. the code works great in case of just one picture will be uploaded. if i like to upload two images or more and have an extension that is not accepted, the script will upload the one with the extension that is allowed to upload and shows the errormessage for the one who is not accepted. but the upload takes place. that's my first problem. second problem will be: in case of an errormessage i would like to display a message in which it is said, which of the images will be not allowed. i do not know how to fetch this one that has an unaccepted ending into a variable that i can echo to the errormessage. here is the code i use: if(!empty($_FILES['image']['tmp_name'])){ $allowed_extension = array('jpg', 'jpeg', 'png', 'bmp', 'tiff', 'gif'); foreach($_FILES['image']['name'] as $key => $array_value){ $file_name = $_FILES['image']['name'][$key]; $file_size = $_FILES['image']['size'][$key]; $file_tmp = $_FILES['image']['tmp_name'][$key]; $file_extension = strtolower(end(explode('.', $file_name))); if (in_array($file_extension, $allowed_extension) === false){ $errors[] = 'its an unaccepted format in picture $variable_that_count'; continue; } if ($file_size > 2097152){ $errors[] = 'reached maxsize of 2MB per file in picture $variable_that_count'; } if (count($errors) == 0){ $path = "a/b/c/"; $uploadfile = $path."/".basename($_FILES['image']['name'][$key]); if (move_uploaded_file($_FILES['image']['tmp_name'][$key], $uploadfile)){ echo "success."; } } } } hope it will be clear what i like to approach. if there is someone who could help out i really would appreciate. thanks a lot.

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• Entity Framework does not map 2 columns from a SqlQuery calling a stored procedure

  - by user1783530

  I'm using Code First and am trying to call a stored procedure and have it map to one of my classes. I created a stored procedure, BOMComponentChild, that returns details of a Component with information of its hierarchy in PartsPath and MyPath. I have a class for the output of this stored procedure. I'm having an issue where everything except the two columns, PartsPath and MyPath, are being mapped correctly with these two properties ending up as Nothing. I searched around and from my understanding the mapping bypasses any Entity Framework name mapping and uses column name to property name. The names are the same and I'm not sure why it is only these two columns. The last part of the stored procedure is: SELECT t.ParentID ,t.ComponentID ,c.PartNumber ,t.PartsPath ,t.MyPath ,t.Layer ,c.[Description] ,loc.LocationID ,loc.LocationName ,CASE WHEN sup.SupplierID IS NULL THEN 1 ELSE sup.SupplierID END AS SupplierID ,CASE WHEN sup.SupplierName IS NULL THEN 'Scinomix' ELSE sup.SupplierName END AS SupplierName ,c.Active ,c.QA ,c.IsAssembly ,c.IsPurchasable ,c.IsMachined ,t.QtyRequired ,t.TotalQty FROM BuildProducts t INNER JOIN [dbo].[BOMComponent] c ON c.ComponentID = t.ComponentID LEFT JOIN [dbo].[BOMSupplier] bsup ON bsup.ComponentID = t.ComponentID AND bsup.IsDefault = 1 LEFT JOIN [dbo].[LookupSupplier] sup ON sup.SupplierID = bsup.SupplierID LEFT JOIN [dbo].[LookupLocation] loc ON loc.LocationID = c.LocationID WHERE (@IsAssembly IS NULL OR IsAssembly = @IsAssembly) ORDER BY t.MyPath and the class it maps to is: Public Class BOMComponentChild Public Property ParentID As Nullable(Of Integer) Public Property ComponentID As Integer Public Property PartNumber As String Public Property MyPath As String Public Property PartsPath As String Public Property Layer As Integer Public Property Description As String Public Property LocationID As Integer Public Property LocationName As String Public Property SupplierID As Integer Public Property SupplierName As String Public Property Active As Boolean Public Property QA As Boolean Public Property IsAssembly As Boolean Public Property IsPurchasable As Boolean Public Property IsMachined As Boolean Public Property QtyRequired As Integer Public Property TotalQty As Integer Public Property Children As IDictionary(Of String, BOMComponentChild) = New Dictionary(Of String, BOMComponentChild) End Class I am trying to call it like this: Me.Database.SqlQuery(Of BOMComponentChild)("EXEC [BOMComponentChild] @ComponentID, @PathPrefix, @IsAssembly", params).ToList() When I run the stored procedure in management studio, the columns are correct and not null. I just can't figure out why these won't map as they are the important information in the stored procedure. The types for PartsPath and MyPath are varchar(50).

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• mysql_affected_rows() returns 0 for UPDATE statement even when an update actually happens

  - by Alex Moore

  I am trying to get the number of rows affected in a simple mysql update query. However, when I run this code below, PHP's mysql_affected_rows() always equals 0. No matter if foo=1 already (in which case the function should correctly return 0, since no rows were changed), or if foo currently equals some other integer (in which case the function should return 1). $updateQuery = "UPDATE myTable SET foo=1 WHERE bar=2"; mysql_query($updateQuery); if (mysql_affected_rows() > 0) { echo "affected!"; } else { echo "not affected"; // always prints not affected } The UPDATE statement itself works. The INT gets changed in my database. I have also double-checked that the database connection isn't being closed beforehand or anything funky. Keep in mind, mysql_affected_rows doesn't necessarily require you to pass a connection link identifier, though I've tried that too. Details on the function: mysql_affected_rows Any ideas? SOLUTION The part I didn't mention turned out to be the cause of my woes here. This PHP file was being called ten times consecutively in an AJAX call, though I was only looking at the value returned on the last call, ie. a big fat 0. My apologies!

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• exit /B 0 does not work...

  - by murxx

  Hi, I have the following problem: I have created a batch script which calls itself in there (for being able to write a log in parallel). In the script I start another process (like start startServer.bat) which starts up a java process and keeps opened up all the time. In my original script I wait 30 seconds, check if the process is running and do an: exit /B 0 Unfortunately that does not work, the window shows that the exit /B 0 is being evaluated, but the window still keeps open. When I close the window with the other process (meaning the "child" processes started up in my .bat) my script continues its run. So: scriptA.bat - in there I call: start startServer.bat - wait 30 seconds - check is server is started - exit /B 0 Process hangs up! What's very odd, if I wrap another script around, like: scriptB.bat - call scriptA.bat ----- in there I call: start startServer.bat ----- wait 30 seconds ----- check is server is started ----- exit /B 0 - scriptA.bat continues without any hangup! I also tried the same with exit 0 (without /B) also, same result! In the first case it hangs up, in the second case my window closes as expected... Has anyone of you ever had such a problem before and knows what's wrong here? Process hangs up!

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• Is it possible that two requests at the same time double this code? (prevent double database entry)

  - by loostro

  1) The controller code (Symfony2 framework): $em = $this->getDoctrine()->getEntityManager(); // get latest toplist $last = $em->getRepository('RadioToplistBundle:Toplist')->findOneBy( array('number' => 'DESC') ); // get current year and week of the year $week = date('W'); $year = date('Y'); // if: // [case 1]: $last is null, meaning there are no toplists in the database // [case 2]: $last->getYear() or $last->getWeek() do not match current // year and week number, meaning that there are toplists in the // database, but not for current week // then: // create new toplist entity (for current week of current year) // else: // do nothing (return) if($last && $last->getYear() == $year && $last->getWeek() == $week) return; else { $new = new Toplist(); $new->setYear($year); $new->setWeek($week); $em->persist($new); $em->flush(); } This code is executed with each request to view toplist results (frontend) or list of toplists (backend). Anytime someone wants to access the toplist we first check if we should create a new toplist entity (for new week). 2) The question is: Is it possible that: User A goes to mydomain.com/toplist at 00:00:01 on Monday - the code should generate new entity the server slows down and it takes him 3 seconds to execute the code so new toplist entity is saved to database at 00:00:04 on Monday User B goes to mydomain.com/toplist at 00:00:02 on Monday at 00:00:02 there the toplist is not yet saved in database, thus UserB's request triggers the code to create another toplist entity And so.. after a few seconds we have 2 toplist entities for current week. Is this possible? How should I prevent this?

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