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  • Quick MVC2 checkbox question

    - by kevinmajor1
    In order to get my EF4 EntityCollection to bind with check box values, I have to manually create the check boxes in a loop like so: <p> <%: Html.Label("Platforms") %><br /> <% for(var i = 0; i < Model.AllPlatforms.Count; ++i) { %> <%: Model.AllPlatforms[i].Platform.Name %> <input type="checkbox" name="PlatformIDs" value="<%: Model.AllPlatforms[i].Platform.PlatformID %>" /><br /> <% } %> </p> It works, but it doesn't automatically populate the group of check boxes with existing values when I'm editing a model entity. Can I fudge it with something like? <p> <%: Html.Label("Platforms") %><br /> <% for(var i = 0; i < Model.AllPlatforms.Count; ++i) { %> <%: Model.AllPlatforms[i].Platform.Name %> <input type="checkbox" name="PlatformIDs" value="<%: Model.AllPlatforms[i].Platform.PlatformID %>" checked=<%: Model.GameData.Platforms.Any(p => PlatformID == i) ? "true" : "false" %> /><br /> <% } %> </p> I figure there has to be something along those lines which will work, and am just wondering if I'm on the right track. EDIT: I'm purposely staying away from MVC's check box HTML helper methods as they're too inflexible for my needs. My check boxes use integers as their values by design.

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  • XSLT: Transforming into non-xml content?

    - by Ian Boyd
    Is it possible to use XSLT to transform XML into something other than XML? e.g. i want the final non-xml content: <HTML> <BODY> <IMG src="file1.png"><BR> <IMG src="file2.png"><BR> ... <IMG src="filen.png"><BR> </BODY> </HTML> You'll notice this document is HTML, because in HTML IMG and BR tags are forbidden from having a closing tag. This constrasts with xhtml, the reformulation of HTML using xml, where all elements are required from having a closing tag (because in xml every tag must be closed). Is it possible, using XSLT, to generate non-xml output? Another example of non-xml output might be: INSERT INTO Documents (Filename) VALUES ('file1.png') INSERT INTO Documents (Filename) VALUES ('file2.png') ... INSERT INTO Documents (Filename) VALUES ('file3.png') The reason i ask is that as soon as my XSLT contains an <IMG>, the stylesheet contains an error; no closing </IMG>.

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  • Am I a discoverer of a bug in the WPF engine?

    - by bitbonk
    We have a MFC 8 application compiled with /CLR that contains a larger amount of Windows Forms UserControls wich again contain WPF user controls using ElementHost. Due to the architecture of our software we can not use HwndHost directly. We observed an extremely strange behavior here that we can not make any sense of: When the CPU load is very high during startup of the application and there are a lot live of ElementHost instances, the whole property engine completely stops working. For example animations that usually just work fine now never update the values of the bound properties, they just stay at some random value after startup. When I set a property that is not bound to anything the value is correctly stored in the dependency property (calling the getter returns the new value) but the visual representation never reflects that. I set the background to red but the background color does not change. We tested this on a lot of different machines all running Windows XP SP2 and it is pretty reproducible. The funny thing here is, that there is in fact one situation where the bound properties actually pickup a new value from the animation and the visual gets updated based on the property values. It is when I resize the ElementHost or when I hide and reshow the parent native control. As soon as I do this, properties that are bound to an animation pickup a new value and the visuals rerender based on the new property values - but just once - if I want to see another update I have to resize the ElementHost. Do you have any explanation of what could be happening here or how I could approach this problem to find it out? What can I do to debug this? Is there a way I can get more information about what WPF actually does or where WPF might have crashed? To me it currently seems like a bug in WPF itself since it only happens at high CPU load at startup.

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  • Transform only one axis to log10 scale with ggplot2

    - by daroczig
    I have the following problem: I would like to visualize a discrete and a continuous variable on a boxplot in which the latter has a few extreme high values. This makes the boxplot meaningless (the points and even the "body" of the chart is too small), that is why I would like to show this on a log10 scale. I am aware that I could leave out the extreme values from the visualization, but I am not intended to. Let's see a simple example with diamonds data: m <- ggplot(diamonds, aes(y = price, x = color)) The problem is not serious here, but I hope you could imagine why I would like to see the values at a log10 scale. Let's try it: m + geom_boxplot() + coord_trans(y = "log10") As you can see the y axis is log10 scaled and looks fine but there is a problem with the x axis, which makes the plot very strange. The problem do not occur with scale_log, but this is not an option for me, as I cannot use a custom formatter this way. E.g.: m + geom_boxplot() + scale_y_log10() My question: does anyone know a solution to plot the boxplot with log10 scale on y axis which labels could be freely formatted with a formatter function like in this thread? Editing the question to help answerers based on answers and comments: What I am really after: one log10 transformed axis (y) with not scientific labels. I would like to label it like dollar (formatter=dollar) or any custom format. If I try @hadley's suggestion I get the following warnings: > m + geom_boxplot() + scale_y_log10(formatter=dollar) Warning messages: 1: In max(x) : no non-missing arguments to max; returning -Inf 2: In max(x) : no non-missing arguments to max; returning -Inf 3: In max(x) : no non-missing arguments to max; returning -Inf With an unchanged y axis labels:

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  • .each or search function, how can I make use of those?

    - by Noor
    I have a ul list, with 10 items, and I have a label that displays the selected li text. When I click a button, I need to check the label, versus all the list items to find the matching one, when it finds that I need to assign the corresponding number. I.e. list: Messi Cristiano Zlatan hidden values of list items: www.messi.com www.cronaldo.com www.ibra.com label: Zlatan script (thought)procces: get label text, search list for matching string, get the value of that string. (and if someone could point me in a direction to learn these basic(?) stuff. tried to be as specific as possible, thanks guys! edit: really sorry for not being clear. the li's are all getting a class dynamically (.listitem). the links can be stored in an array or in a hidden field (or other ul thats hidden) it doesn't really matter where the links are.. $('.listitem').click(function() { $("#elname").text($(this).text()); $("#such").attr("href", $(this).attr('value')); }); I was trying that with the li's having values but I realized that li's can't have values.. thanks again!

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  • Standard and reliable mouse-reporting with GLUT

    - by Victor
    Hello! I'm trying to use GLUT (freeglut) in my OpenGL application, and I need to register some callbacks for mouse wheel events. I managed to dig out a fairly undocumented function: api documentation But the man page and the API entry for this function both state the same thing: Note: Due to lack of information about the mouse, it is impossible to implement this correctly on X at this time. Use of this function limits the portability of your application. (This feature does work on X, just not reliably.) You are encouraged to use the standard, reliable mouse-button reporting, rather than wheel events. Fair enough, but how do I use this standard, reliable mouse-reporting? And how do I know which is the standard? Do I just use glutMouseFunc() and use button values like 4 and 5 for the scroll up and down values respectively, say if 1, 2 and 3 are the left, middle and right buttons? Is this the reliable method? Bonus question: it seems the `xev' tool is reporting different values for my buttons. My mouse buttons are numbered from 1 to 5 with xev, but glut is reporting buttons from 0 to 4, i.e. an off-by-one. Is this common?

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  • JoinColumn name not used in sql

    - by Vladimir
    Hi! I have a problem with mapping many-to-one relationship without exact foreign key constraint set in database. I use OpenJPA implementation with MySql database, but the problem is with generated sql scripts for insert and select statements. I have LegalEntity table which contains RootId column (among others). I also have Address table which has LegalEntityId column which is not nullable, and which should contain values referencing LegalEntity's "RootId" column, but without any database constraint (foreign key) set. Address entity is mapped: @Entity @Table(name="address") public class Address implements Serializable { ... @ManyToOne(fetch=FetchType.LAZY, optional=false) @JoinColumn(referencedColumnName="RootId", name="LegalEntityId", nullable=false, insertable=true, updatable=true, table="LegalEntity") public LegalEntity getLegalEntity() { return this.legalEntity; } } SELECT statement (when fetching LegalEntity's addresses) and INSERT statment are generated: SELECT t0.Id, .., t0.LEGALENTITY_ID FROM address t0 WHERE t0.LEGALENTITY_ID = ? ORDER BY t0.Id DESC [params=(int) 2] INSERT INTO address (..., LEGALENTITY_ID) VALUES (..., ?) [params=..., (int) 2] If I omit table attribute from mentioned statements are generated: SELECT t0.Id, ... FROM address t0 INNER JOIN legalentity t1 ON t0.LegalEntityId = t1.RootId WHERE t1.Id = ? ORDER BY t0.Id DESC [params=(int) 2] INSERT INTO address (...) VALUES (...) [params=...] So, LegalEntityId is not included in any of the statements. Is it possible to have relationship based on such referencing (to column other than primary key, without foreign key in database)? Is there something else missing? Thanks in advance.

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  • Parse a CSV file using python (to make a decision tree later)

    - by Margaret
    First off, full disclosure: This is going towards a uni assignment, so I don't want to receive code. :). I'm more looking for approaches; I'm very new to python, having read a book but not yet written any code. The entire task is to import the contents of a CSV file, create a decision tree from the contents of the CSV file (using the ID3 algorithm), and then parse a second CSV file to run against the tree. There's a big (understandable) preference to have it capable of dealing with different CSV files (I asked if we were allowed to hard code the column names, mostly to eliminate it as a possibility, and the answer was no). The CSV files are in a fairly standard format; the header row is marked with a # then the column names are displayed, and every row after that is a simple series of values. Example: # Column1, Column2, Column3, Column4 Value01, Value02, Value03, Value04 Value11, Value12, Value13, Value14 At the moment, I'm trying to work out the first part: parsing the CSV. To make the decisions for the decision tree, a dictionary structure seems like it's going to be the most logical; so I was thinking of doing something along these lines: Read in each line, character by character If the character is not a comma or a space Append character to temporary string If the character is a comma Append the temporary string to a list Empty string Once a line has been read Create a dictionary using the header row as the key (somehow!) Append that dictionary to a list However, if I do things that way, I'm not sure how to make a mapping between the keys and the values. I'm also wondering whether there is some way to perform an action on every dictionary in a list, since I'll need to be doing things to the effect of "Everyone return their values for columns Column1 and Column4, so I can count up who has what!" - I assume that there is some mechanism, but I don't think I know how to do it. Is a dictionary the best way to do it? Would I be better off doing things using some other data structure? If so, what?

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  • (PHP) Converting an array of arrays from one format into another

    - by Richard Carter
    Hi, I currently have an array, created from a database, an example of which looks like the following: Array( [0] => Array ( objectid => 2, name => title, value => apple ), [1] => Array ( objectid => 2, name => colour, value => red ), [2] => Array ( objectid => 3, name => title, value => pear ), [3] => Array ( objectid => 3, name => colour, value => green ) ) What I would like to do is group all the items in the array by their objectid, and convert the 'name' values into keys and 'value' values into values of an associative array....like below: Array ( [0] => Array ( objectid => 2, title => apple, colour => red ), [1] => Array ( objectid => 3, title => pear, colour => green ) ) I've tried a few things but haven't really got anywhere.. Any ideas? Thanks in advance

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  • How to copy generically superclass instances to subclass instances?

    - by gerry
    Hi @all, I have a class hierarchy / inheritance like this: public class A { private String name; // with getters & setters public void doAWithName(){ ... } } public class B extends A { public void doBWithName(){ // a differnt implementation to what I do in class A } } public class C extends B { public void doCWithName(){ // a differnt implementation to what I do in class A and B } } So at one time there is a instance of class A with the initialized field "name". Later I want this instance of A get wrapped into instance of B or C. So the superclasses should be get wrapped with a subclass! How can I make this most efficent with respect to DRY? I've thought about a constructor that does some copying with the getters/setters. But in this case I have to repeat myself - and this doesn't respect anymore to my initial requirement of DRY! So, how can I warp A to B by just initializing B's new fields (with default values) and delegating the rest to a method in A (which knows more than B about which fields of A should be accessed...). In the same way: If A should be wrapped into C only a method in c should init C's 'new' fields, delegate to B's wrap method (which therefore inits B's 'new' fields in C) and at last B delegates to A which copies it's fields to the fields of C). So in the end I have a new instance of C which has the values of A wrapped (and some default init values to the fields which the inheritance hierarchy has added).

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  • SQL Server 2005 - Building a WHERE clause

    - by user336786
    Hello, I have a stored procedure that is dynamically building a query. The where clause associated with this query is based on filter values selected by a user. No matter what I do though, the where clause does not seem to get set. -- Dynamically build the WHERE clause based on the filters DECLARE @whereClause as nvarchar(1024) IF (@hasSpouse > -1) BEGIN IF (@hasSpouse = 0) SET @whereClause='p.[HasSpouse]=0' ELSE SET @whereClause='(p.[HasSpouse]=1 OR p.[HasSpouse] IS NULL)' END -- Dynamically add the next filter if necessary IF (@isVegan > -1) BEGIN IF (LEN(@whereClause) > 0) BEGIN SET @whereClause = @whereClause + ' AND ' END IF (@isVegan = 0) SET @whereClause = @whereClause + 'c.[IsVegan]=0' ELSE SET @whereClause = @whereClause + '(c.[IsVegan]=1 OR c.[IsVegan] IS NULL)' END PRINT @whereClause The @whereClause never prints anything. In turn, the LEN(@whereClause) is always NULL. The @isVegan and @hasSpouse values are passed into the stored procedure. The values are what I expected. What am I doing wrong? Why is the @whereClause never being set? Thank you for your help! Thank you!

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  • sorting a gridview alphabetically when columns are codes

    - by nat
    hi there i have a gridview populated by a Web Service search function. some of the columns in the grid are templatefields, because the values coming back from the search (in a datatable) are ids - i then use these ids to lookup the values when the rowdatabound event is triggered and populate a label or some such. this means that my sorting function for these id/lookup columns sorts by the ids rather than the textual value that i have looked up and actually populated the grid with (although i do put the ids in the grids datakeys). what i want to do is top be able to sort by the looked up textual value rather than the codes for these particular columns. what i was going to do to get around this was to when the datatable comes back from the search, adding more columns the textual values and doing all the looking up then, thus being able to sort directly from the manually added columns. is there another way to do this? as that approach seems like a bit of a bodge. although i guess it does remove having to do the looking up in the rowdatabound event.... my sorting function works by sticking the datatable in the session and on each bind grabbing the sort column and binding the gridview to a DataView with the sort attribute set to the column - and the direction. thanks nat

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  • Reading strings and integers from .txt file and printing output as strings only

    - by screename71
    Hello, I'm new to C++, and I'm trying to write a short C++ program that reads lines of text from a file, with each line containing one integer key and one alphanumeric string value (no embedded whitespace). The number of lines is not known in advance, (i.e., keep reading lines until end of file is reached). The program needs to use the 'std::map' data structure to store integers and strings read from input (and to associate integers with strings). The program then needs to output string values (but not integer values) to standard output, 1 per line, sorted by integer key values (smallest to largest). So, for example, suppose I have a text file called "data.txt" which contains the following three lines: 10 dog -50 horse 0 cat -12 zebra 14 walrus The output should then be: horse zebra cat dog walrus I've pasted below the progress I've made so far on my C++ program: #include <fstream> #include <iostream> #include <map> using namespace std; using std::map; int main () { string name; signed int value; ifstream myfile ("data.txt"); while (! myfile.eof() ) { getline(myfile,name,'\n'); myfile >> value >> name; cout << name << endl; } return 0; myfile.close(); } Unfortunately, this produces the following incorrect output: horse cat zebra walrus If anyone has any tips, hints, suggestions, etc. on changes and revisions I need to make to the program to get it to work as needed, can you please let me know? Thanks!

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  • How to return a record from function executed by INSERT/UPDATE rule?

    - by seas
    Do the following scheme for my database: create sequence data_sequence; create table data_table { id integer primary key; field varchar(100); }; create view data_view as select id, field from data_table; create function data_insert(_new data_view) returns data_view as $$declare _id integer; _result data_view%rowtype; begin _id := nextval('data_sequence'); insert into data_table(id, field) values(_id, _new.field); select * into _result from data_view where id = _id; return _result; end; $$ language plpgsql; create rule insert as on insert to data_view do instead select data_insert(new); Then type in psql: insert into data_view(field) values('abc'); Would like to see something like: id | field ----+--------- 1 | abc Instead see: data_insert ------------- (1, "abc") Is it possible to fix this somehow? Thanks for any ideas. Ultimate idea is to use this in other functions, so that I could obtain id of just inserted record without selecting for it from scratch. Something like: insert into data_view(field) values('abc') returning id into my_variable would be nice but doesn't work with error: ERROR: cannot perform INSERT RETURNING on relation "data_view" HINT: You need an unconditional ON INSERT DO INSTEAD rule with a RETURNING clause. I don't really understand that HINT. I use PostgreSQL 8.4.

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  • Match subpatterns in any order

    - by Yaroslav
    I have long regexp with two complicated subpatters inside. How i can match that subpatterns in any order? Simplified example: /(apple)?\s?(banana)?\s?(orange)?\s?(kiwi)?/ and i want to match both of apple banana orange kiwi apple orange banana kiwi It is very simplified example. In my case banana and orange is long complicated subpatterns and i don't want to do something like /(apple)?\s?((banana)?\s?(orange)?|(orange)?\s?(banana)?)\s?(kiwi)?/ Is it possible to group subpatterns like chars in character class? UPD Real data as requested: 14:24 26,37 Mb 108.53 01:19:02 06.07 24.39 19:39 46:00 my strings much longer, but it is significant part. Here you can see two lines what i need to match. First has two values: length (14 min 24 sec) and size 26.37 Mb. Second one has three values but in different order: size 108.53 Mb, length 01 h 19 m 02 s and date June, 07 Third one has two size and length Fourth has only length There are couple more variations and i need to parse all values. I have a regexp that pretty close except i can't figure out how to match patterns in different order without writing it twice. (?<size>\d{1,3}\[.,]\d{1,2}\s+(?:Mb)?)?\s? (?<length>(?:(?:01:)?\d{1,2}:\d{2}))?\s* (?<date>\d{2}\.\d{2}))? NOTE: that is only part of big regexp that forks fine already.

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  • core data saving in textboxes in table view controller

    - by user1489709
    I have created a five column (text boxes) cell (row) in table view controller with an option of add button. When a user clicks on add button, a new row (cell) with five column (text boxe) is added in a table view controller with null values. I want that when user fills the text boxes the data should get saved in database or if he changes any data in previous text boxes also it get saved. this is my save btn coding.. -(void)textFieldDidEndEditing:(UITextField *)textField { row1=textField.tag; NSLog(@"Row is %d",row1); path = [NSIndexPath indexPathForRow:row1 inSection:0]; Input_Details *inputDetailsObject1=[self.fetchedResultsController objectAtIndexPath:path]; /* Update the Input Values from the values in the text fields. */ EditingTableViewCell *cell; cell = (EditingTableViewCell *)[self.tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:[NSIndexPath indexPathForRow:row1 inSection:0]]; inputDetailsObject1.mh_Up= cell.cell_MH_up.text; inputDetailsObject1.mh_down=cell.cell_MH_dn.text; inputDetailsObject1.sewer_No=[NSNumber numberWithInt:[cell.cell_Sewer_No.text intValue]]; inputDetailsObject1.mhup_gl=[NSNumber numberWithFloat:[cell.cell_gl_MHUP.text floatValue]]; inputDetailsObject1.mhdn_gl=[NSNumber numberWithFloat:[cell.cell_gl_MHDN.text floatValue]]; inputDetailsObject1.pop_Ln=[NSNumber numberWithInt:[cell.cell_Line_pop.text intValue]]; inputDetailsObject1.sew_len=[NSNumber numberWithFloat:[cell.cell_Sewer_len.text floatValue]]; [self saveContext]; NSLog(@"Saving the MH_up value %@ is saved in save at index path %d",inputDetailsObject1.mh_Up,row1); [self.tableView reloadData]; }

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  • Keeping cached browser data inside ASP update panel textboxes/dropdowns for browser back click

    - by pmlevere
    I'm new in VB.net/asp and am running a VB web application in a visual database program called IronSpeed designer. I'm primarily using IronSpeed in this case for its login/role security features. I have a basic two page setup for this app. The user logs in then is taken to AccountEntry.aspx, they enter data into textboxes and select some dropdown values that are linked to a sql database, then they click "submit" to move to Results.aspx. On Results.aspx, the user can change data and then generate several types of reports (PDF, Excel, etc). I'm used to setting up ASP controls inside ASPContent areas, and in these areas if a user performs a browser back click the previously entered data will still be on the page for potential user modification. However in this web app, IronSpeed is setting up the page and asp controls inside an asp update panel. It appears inside an asp update panel, cached values can't be seen on a browser back click. In this case, it's important that the orginally entered values still be there for the user experience if the user advances to Results.aspx then clicks browser back to modify a value on AccountEntry.aspx. If I have to I'll setup Session Variables and disable browser clicking, but that is last resort. Is there any way to save cached data inside an asp update panel and have it there for a browser back click?

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  • Filp route value in asp.net mvc routes

    - by Herman
    Hi all, I am new to asp.net mvc, so please bear with me. We have the following route dictionary setup. routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{language}/{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { language = "en", controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); for any given page in our app, we to render a link to the a french version of the same page. For example, the page: http://www.example.com/en/home should have link on that page that points to http://www.example.com/fr/home Now I have the following UrlHelper extension method public static string FilpLanguage(this UrlHelper urlHelper) { var data = urlHelper.RequestContext.RouteData; if (System.Threading.Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentCulture == CultureInfo.GetCultureInfoByIetfLanguageTag("en-CA")) data.Values["language"] = "fr"; else data.Values["language"] = "en"; return urlHelper.RouteUrl(data.Values.Where(item => item.Value != null)); } However, calling FilpLanguage on www.example.com/en/home will return the following URL: www.example.com/en/home?current=[,] Am I missing something here? where did the current parameter come from? Thanks in advance.

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  • Where clause on joined table used for user defined key/value pairs

    - by Steve Wright
    Our application allows administrators to add “User Properties” in order for them to be able to tailor the system to match their own HR systems. For example, if your company has departments, you can define “Departments” in the Properties table and then add values that correspond to “Departments” such as “Jewelry”, “Electronics” etc… You are then able to assign a department to users. Here is the schema: In this schema, a User can have only one UserPropertyValue per Property, but doesn’t have to have a value for the property. I am trying to build a query that will be used in SSRS 2005 and also have it use the PropertyValues as the filter for users. My query looks like this: SELECT UserLogin, FirstName, LastName FROM Users U LEFT OUTER JOIN UserPropertyValues UPV ON U.ID = UPV.UserID WHERE UPV.PropertyValueID IN (1, 5) When I run this, if the user has ANY of the property values, they are returned. What I would like to have is where this query will return users that have values BY PROPERTY. So if PropertyValueID = 1 is of Department (Jewelry), and PropertyValueID = 5 is of EmploymentType (Full Time), I want to return all users that are in Department Jewelry that are EmployeeType of Full Time, can this be done? Here's a full data example: User A has Department(Jewelry value = 1) and EmploymentType(FullTime value = 5)User B has Department(Electronics value = 2) and EmploymentType(FullTime value = 5)User C has Department(Jewelry value = 1) and EmployementType(PartTime value = 6) My query should only return User A using the above query UPDATE: I should state that this query is used as a dataset in SSRS, so the parameter passed to the query will be @PropertyIDs and it is defined as a multi-value parameter in SSRS. WHERE UPV.PropertyValueID IN (@PropertyIDs)

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  • ADO.NET DataTable/DataRow Thread Safety

    - by Allen E. Scharfenberg
    Introduction A user reported to me this morning that he was having an issue with inconsistent results (namely, column values sometimes coming out null when they should not be) of some parallel execution code that we provide as part of an internal framework. This code has worked fine in the past and has not been tampered with lately, but it got me to thinking about the following snippet: Code Sample lock (ResultTable) { newRow = ResultTable.NewRow(); } newRow["Key"] = currentKey; foreach (KeyValuePair<string, object> output in outputs) { object resultValue = output.Value; newRow[output.Name] = resultValue != null ? resultValue : DBNull.Value; } lock (ResultTable) { ResultTable.Rows.Add(newRow); } (No guarantees that that compiles, hand-edited to mask proprietery information.) Explanation We have this cascading type of locking code other places in our system, and it works fine, but this is the first instance of cascading locking code that I have come across that interacts with ADO .NET. As we all know, members of framework objects are usually not thread safe (which is the case in this situation), but the cascading locking should ensure that we are not reading and writing to ResultTable.Rows concurrently. We are safe, right? Hypothesis Well, the cascading lock code does not ensure that we are not reading from or writing to ResultTable.Rows at the same time that we are assigning values to columns in the new row. What if ADO .NET uses some kind of buffer for assigning column values that is not thread safe--even when different object types are involved (DataTable vs. DataRow)? Has anyone run into anything like this before? I thought I would ask here at StackOverflow before beating my head against this for hours on end :) Conclusion Well, the consensus appears to be that changing the cascading lock to a full lock has resolved the issue. That is not the result that I expected, but the full lock version has not produced the issue after many, many, many tests. The lesson: be wary of cascading locks used on APIs that you do not control. Who knows what may be going on under the covers!

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  • Address family not supported by protocol exception

    - by srg
    I'm trying to send a couple of values from an android application to a web service which I've setup. I'm using Http Post to send them but when I run the application I get the error- request time failed java.net.SocketException: Address family not supported by protocol. I get this while debugging with both the emulator as well as a device connected by wifi. I've already added the internet permission using: <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.INTERNET" /> This is the code i'm using to send the values void insertData(String name, String number) throws Exception { String url = "http://192.168.0.12:8000/testapp/default/call/run/insertdbdata/"; HttpClient client = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpPost post = new HttpPost(url); try { List<NameValuePair> params = new ArrayList<NameValuePair>(2); params.add(new BasicNameValuePair("a", name)); params.add(new BasicNameValuePair("b", number)); post.setEntity(new UrlEncodedFormEntity(params)); HttpResponse response = client.execute(post); }catch(Exception e){ e.printStackTrace(); } Also I know that my web service work fine because when I send the values from an html page it works fine - <form name="form1" action="http://192.168.0.12:8000/testapp/default/call/run/insertdbdata/" method="post"> <input type="text" name="a"/> <input type="text" name="b"/> <input type="submit"/> I've seen questions of similar problems but haven't really found a solution. Thanks

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  • How to return a record from function, executed by INSERT/UPDATE rule (trigger)?

    - by seas
    Do the following scheme for my database: create sequence data_sequence; create table data_table { id integer primary key; field varchar(100); }; create view data_view as select id, field from data_table; create function data_insert(_new data_view) returns data_view as $$declare _id integer; _result data_view%rowtype; begin _id := nextval('data_sequence'); insert into data_table(id, field) values(_id, _new.field); select * into _result from data_view where id = _id; return _result; end; $$ language plpgsql; create rule insert as on insert to data_view do instead select data_insert(new); Then type in psql: insert into data_view(field) values('abc'); Would like to see something like: id | field ----+--------- 1 | abc Instead see: data_insert ------------- (1, "abc") Is it possible to fix this somehow? Thanks for any ideas. Ultimate idea is to use this in other functions, so that I could obtain id of just inserted record without selecting for it from scratch. Something like: insert into data_view(field) values('abc') returning id into my_variable would be nice but doesn't work with error: ERROR: cannot perform INSERT RETURNING on relation "data_view" HINT: You need an unconditional ON INSERT DO INSTEAD rule with a RETURNING clause. I don't really understand that HINT. I use PostgreSQL 8.4.

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  • check properties of two objects for changes

    - by k-hoffmann
    Hi, i have to develop a mechanism to check two object properties for changes. All properties which are needed to check are marked with an attribute. Atm i - read all properties from acutal object via linq - read the corresponding property from old object - fill an own object with the two properties (old and new value) In Code the call to the workerclass looks like this public void CreateHistoryMap(BaseEntity actual, BaseEntity old) { CreateHistoryMap(actualEntity, oldEntity) .ForEach(mapEntry => CreateHistoryEntry(mapEntry), mapEntry => IfChangesDetected(mapEntry)); } CreateHistoryMap builds up the HistoryMapEntry which contains the two properties. CreateHistoryEntry build up the object which is saved to database, the IfChangesDetected check the object for changes. I have to handle own special application types to generate history values to database (like concatinating list values and so on). My problem is now, that i have to read the values of the properties twice - for change detection - and for the concreate CreateHistoryEntry How can i eliminate this problem or how can i implement the change tracking scenario with the nice c# 3.5 features? Thanks a lot.

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  • I want just the insert query for a temp table.

    - by John Stephen
    Hi..I am using C#.Net and Sql Server ( Windows Application ). I had created a temporary table. When a button is clicked, temporary table (#tmp_emp_details) is created. I am having another button called "insert Values" and also 5 textboxes. The values that are entered in the textbox are used and whenever com.ExecuteNonQuery(); line comes, it throws an error message Invalid object name '#tbl_emp_answer'.. Below is the set of code.. Please give me a solution. Code for insert (in insert value button): private void btninsertvalues_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { username = txtusername.Text; examloginid = txtexamloginid.Text; question = txtquestion.Text; answer = txtanswer.Text; useranswer = txtanswer.Text; SqlConnection con = new SqlConnection("Data Source=.;Initial Catalog=tempdb;Integrated Security=True;"); SqlCommand com = new SqlCommand("Insert into #tbl_emp_answer values('"+username+"','"+examloginid+"','"+question+"','"+answer+"','"+useranswer+"')", con); con.Open(); com.ExecuteNonQuery(); con.Close(); }

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  • Conditional insert as a single database transaction in HSQLDB 1.8?

    - by Kevin Pauli
    I'm using a particular database table like a "Set" data structure, i.e., you can attempt to insert the same row several times, but it will only contain one instance. The primary key is a natural key. For example, I want the following series of operations to work fine, and result in only one row for Oklahoma: insert into states_visited (state_name) values ('Oklahoma'); insert into states_visited (state_name) values ('Texas'); insert into states_visited (state_name) values ('Oklahoma'); I am of course getting an error due to the duplicate primary key on subsequent inserts of the same value. Is there a way to make the insert conditional, so that these errors are not thrown? I.e. only do the the insert if the natural key does not already exist? I know I could do a where clause and a subquery to test for the row's existence first, but it seems that would be expensive. That's 2 physical operations for one logical "conditional insert" operation. Anything like this in SQL? FYI I am using HSQLDB 1.8

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