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• VLAN Tagging Traffic on Cisco Switch

  - by David W

  I have a situation where I'm setting up multiple VLANS on a pfSense firewall on the same physical interface for a client. So in pfSense, I now have VLAN 100 (employees) and VLAN 200 (students - student computer lab). Downstream from pfSense, I have a Cisco SG200 switch, and coming off of the SG200 is the student lab (running on a Catalyst 2950. Yes, that's old, but it works, and this is a poor nonprofit we're talking about). What I'd like to do is tag everything on the network as VLAN 100, except for the student computer lab. Earlier today when I was on-site with the client, I went into to the old Catalyst 2950, and assigned all of its ports to access VLAN 200 (switchport mode access vlan 200) without setting up a trunk on the Catalyst or on the SG200. Looking back on it, I now understand why internet in the lab broke. I reverted the lab back to the default VLAN1 (we're still running on a different firewall - we haven't deployed pfSense -, and the traffic is still separated physically). So my question is, what do I need to do in order to properly deploy this scenario? I believe the correct answer is: Ensure VLANs 100 and 200 are setup in pfSense, and that DHCP is operating correctly (on separate subnets) Setup a trunkport VLAN that allows both 100 & 200 traffic, and plug that port directly into pfSense. Setup a VLAN 200 trunkport on the SG200 (It's not running iOS, but if it were, the command would be switchport trunk native vlan 200), which will then plug into the Catalyst 2950. Setup a VLAN 200 trunkport on the Catalyst 2950 (that is plugged into the SG200 VLAN200 port with the same command - switchport trunk native vlan 200) Setup the rest of the ports on the old Catalyst 2950 in the lab to be access ports on VLAN200. Is there anything that I'm missing, or do I need to tweak any of these steps, in order to properly segment the network traffic?

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• Packets being dropped by iptables

  - by Shadyabhi

  I am trying to create a Software Access Point in linux. I followed the blog here. Steps I performed: Started dhcp server on wlan0. Properly configured hostapd.conf Enabled packet forwarding & masquerading. Two commands executed regarding iptables: iptables --table nat --append POSTROUTING --out-interface eth0 -j MASQUERADE iptables --append FORWARD --in-interface wlan0 -j ACCEPT I enabled logging on iptables & I get this in everything.log Jun 29 19:42:03 MBP-archlinux kernel: [10480.180356] IN=eth0 OUT=wlan0 MAC=c8:bc:c8:9b:c4:3c:00:13:80:40:cd:80:08:00 SRC=195.143.92.150 DST=10.0.0.3 LEN=44 TOS=0x00 PREC=0x00 TTL=52 ID=38025 PROTO=TCP SPT=80 DPT=53570 WINDOW=46185 RES=0x00 ACK URGP=0 Jun 29 19:42:03 MBP-archlinux kernel: [10480.389102] IN=eth0 OUT=wlan0 MAC=c8:bc:c8:9b:c4:3c:00:13:80:40:cd:80:08:00 SRC=195.143.92.150 DST=10.0.0.3 LEN=308 TOS=0x00 PREC=0x00 TTL=52 ID=14732 PROTO=TCP SPT=80 DPT=53570 WINDOW=46185 RES=0x00 ACK PSH URGP=0 Jun 29 19:42:03 MBP-archlinux kernel: [10480.389710] IN=eth0 OUT=wlan0 MAC=c8:bc:c8:9b:c4:3c:00:13:80:40:cd:80:08:00 SRC=195.143.92.150 DST=10.0.0.3 LEN=44 TOS=0x00 PREC=0x00 TTL=52 ID=14988 PROTO=TCP SPT=80 DPT=53570 WINDOW=46185 RES=0x00 ACK FIN URGP=0 Jun 29 19:42:03 MBP-archlinux kernel: [10480.621118] IN=eth0 OUT=wlan0 MAC=c8:bc:c8:9b:c4:3c:00:13:80:40:cd:80:08:00 SRC=195.143.92.150 DST=10.0.0.3 LEN=44 TOS=0x00 PREC=0x00 TTL=52 ID=63378 PROTO=TCP SPT=80 DPT=53570 WINDOW=46185 RES=0x00 ACK FIN URGP=0 I have almost no knowledge of iptables, all I did was through googling. So, can anyone help me in making me understand what wrong is happening here? I have tried running tcpdump on wlan0 & http packets are being sent from wlan0.

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• Need a way to determine if a file is done being written to.

  - by Khorkrak

  The situation I'm in is this - there's a process that's writing to a file, sometimes the file is rather large say 400 - 500MB. I need to know when it's done writing. How can I determine this? If I look in the directory I'll see it there but it might not be done being written. Plus this needs to be done remotely - as in on the same internal LAN but not on the same computer and typically the process that wants to know when the file writing is done is running on a Linux box with a the process that's writing the file and the file itself on a windows box. No samba isn't an option. xmlrpc communication to a service on that windows box is an option as well as using snmp to check if that's viable. Ideally Works on either Linux or Windows - meaning the solution is OS independent. Works for any type of file. Good enough: Works just on windows but can be done through some library or whatever that can be accessed with Python. Works only for PDF files. Current best idea is to periodically open the file in question from some process on the windows box and look at the last bytes checking for the PDF end tag and accounting for the eol differences because the file may have been created on Linux or Windows.

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• Set "Start With" value for Oracle sequence dynamically

  - by Allan

  I'm trying to create a release script that can be deployed on multiple databases, but where the data can be merged back together at a later date. The obvious way to handle this is to set the sequence numbers for production data sufficiently high in subsequent deployments to prevent collisions. The problem is in coming up with a release script that will accept the environment number and set the "Start With" value of the sequences appropriately. Ideally, I'd like to use something like this: ACCEPT EnvironNum PROMPT 'Enter the Environment Number: ' --[more scripting] CREATE SEQUENCE seq1 START WITH &EnvironNum*100000; --[more scripting] This doesn't work because you can't evaluate a numeric expression in DDL. Another option is to create the sequences using dynamic SQL via PL/SQL. ACCEPT EnvironNum PROMPT 'Enter the Environment Number: ' --[more scripting] EXEC execute immediate 'CREATE SEQUENCE seq1 START WITH ' || &EnvironNum*100000; --[more scripting] However, I'd prefer to avoid this solution as I generally try to avoid issuing DDL in PL/SQL. Finally, the third option I've come up with is simply to accept the Start With value as a substitution variable, instead of the environment number. Does anyone have a better thought on how to go about this?

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• Hudson Maven build fails using workspace POM, works when pointing to development copy

  - by Deejay

  I'm developing a series of web applications using Eclipse IDE, Maven, SVN, and Hudson for CI. When I specify the "Root POM" option in my Hudson job to be the copy of pom.xml in its workspace directory, the build fails citing compilation failure due to missing classpath entries. [ERROR] BUILD FAILURE [INFO] ------------------------------------------------------------------------ [INFO] Compilation failure C:\Users\djones\.hudson\jobs\Store\workspace\trunk\src\main\java\com\app\store\model\User.java:[24,42] package org.hibernate.validator.constraints does not exist C:\Users\djones\.hudson\jobs\Store\workspace\trunk\src\main\java\com\app\store\dao\UserGroupHibernateSupportDao.java:[8,20] package org.hibernate does not exist C:\Users\djones\.hudson\jobs\Store\workspace\trunk\src\main\java\com\app\store\dao\UserGroupHibernateSupportDao.java:[10,49] package org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.support does not exist When I specify the "Root POM" to be the copy of pom.xml in my Eclipse workspace, it builds just fine. It builds fine from Eclipse too. I want to move Hudson over to a separate machine so several developers can use it, so I can't very well point to my own development workspace to give it a POM. If I try putting an SVN URL in the "root pom.xml" option, it says file not found. What should I be entering here for a project worked on by several developers, and hosted in an SVN repository?

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• Why is my code slower using #import "progid:typelib" than using "MFC Class From TypeLib"?

  - by Pakman

  I am writing an automation client in Visual C++ with MFC. If I right-click on my solution » Add » Class, I have the option to select MFC Class From TypeLib. Selecting this option generates source/header files for all interfaces. This allows me to write code such as: #include "CApplication.h" #include "CDocument.h" // ... connect to automation server ... CApplication *myApp = new CApplication(pDisp); CDocument myDoc = myApp->get_ActiveDocument(); Using this method, my benchmarking function that makes about 12000 automation calls takes 1 second. Meanwhile, the following code: #import "progid:Library.Application" Library::IApplicationPtr myApp; // ... connect to automation server ... Library::IDocumentPtr myDoc = myApp->GetActiveDocument(); takes about 2.4 seconds for the same benchmark. I assume the smart-pointer implementation is slowing me down, but I don't know why. Even worse, I'm not sure how to use #import construct to achieve the speeds that the first method yields. Is this possible? How or why not? Thanks for your time!

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• JQuery Progress Bar Inline Text

  - by Craig

  Hello, I am trying to use the basic progress bar however I am unable to figure out the css/command to actually put some text inside the bar. I am using this progress bar: http://docs.jquery.com/UI/Progressbar however I am open to other ones if they are just as simple to implement. I want it to display in the left corner some static information and then a percentage of complete somewhere in the right section. All css I attempted to do just made the information display below or to the side of. As well I am unsure how to actually have this CSS change based on a JQuery method (new to JQuery). below is my actual JQuery. Don't try to understand the url value just assume it returns 0-100. <script type="text/javascript"> var url = "%%$protocol_url%%/bin/task_status?id=%%$tid%%&cmd=percent_done"; $(function() { var progress = 0; //alert("some value" + value, value); $("#progressbar").progressbar({ progress: 0 }); setTimeout(updateProgress, 500); }); function updateProgress() { var progress; $.get(url, function(data) { // data contains whatever that page returns if (data < 100) { $("#progressbar") .progressbar("option", "value", data); setTimeout(updateProgress, 500); } else { $("#progressbar") .progressbar("option", "value", 100); } }); } Thanks

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• Stage untracked files for commit without staging tracked file changes

  - by Blair Holloway

  Oftentimes, when using git, I find myself in this situation: I have changes to several files, but I only want to commit parts of them. I have added several untracked files, which I want to track and commit. Solving the first part is easy; I run: git add -p Then, I choose which hunks to stage, and which hunks remain in my working tree, but unstaged. However, git's patch mode skips over untracked files. What I would like to do is something like: git add --untracked But no such option appears to exist. If I have, say, six untracked files, I could stage them using add in interactive mode and the add untracked option, like so: git add -i a<CR> 1<CR> 2<CR> 3<CR> 4<CR> 5<CR> 6<CR> <CR> q<CR> I feel like there is, or should be, a quicker way of doing this, though. What am I missing?

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• Primary key/foreign Key naming convention

  - by Jeremy

  In our dev group we have a raging debate regarding the naming convention for Primary and Foreign Keys. There's basically two schools of thought in our group: 1) Primary Table (Employee) Primary Key is called ID Foreign table (Event) Foreign key is called EmployeeID 2) Primary Table (Employee) Primary Key is called EmployeeID Foreign table (Event) Foreign key is called EmployeeID I prefer not to duplicate the name of the table in any of the columns (So I prefer option 1 above). Conceptually, it is consisted with a lot of the recommended practices in other languages, where you don't use the name of the object in its property names. I think that naming the foreign key EmployeeID (or Employee_ID might be better) tells the reader that it is the ID column of the Employee Table. Some others prefer option 2 where you name the primary key prefixed with the table name so that the column name is the same throughout the database. I see that point, but you now can not visually distinguish a primary key from a foreign key. Also, I think it's redundant to have the table name in the column name, because if you think of the table as an entity and a column as a property or attribute of that entity, you think of it as the ID attribute of the Employee, not the EmployeeID attribute of an employee. I don't go an ask my coworker what his PersonAge or PersonGender is. I ask him what his Age is. So like I said, it's a raging debate and we go on and on and on about it. I'm interested to get some new perspective.

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• Can't find PC on network

  - by Simon Verbeke

  I just got myself a new laptop, and set it up. It is connected to the wireless internet in my home. I then wanted to create a homegroup between the laptop and my desktop, but they can't find each other. Probably because the desktop has a wired connection to the router and the laptop is connected to a wireless access point. The router and the AP are connected to a switch in the middle by cable. A sketch of the network: Laptop - - - Wireless Access Point ----- Switch ----- Router ----- Desktop ^ ^ ^ ^ Wireless Wired Wired Wired They both point to the same gateway and DHCP-server (on 192.168.0.1). And I can ping to that address from both PCs. When I try to ping either of the PCs the pings time out. The subnets are also the same (255.255.255.0) and the IPs are in the same range (192.168.0.114 laptop, 192.168.0.205 desktop). So I don't really understand what I need to do to be able to access either computer from the other. The weird thing is that Synergy (to use mouse and keyboard over the network) works, just by using the IPs assigned to both PCs. The acces point is a linksys WAP54g, but I'm unsure of the Router, it has a custom casing from our ISP and hides any clues for identifying the product. I'm going to google a bit so I can add that info later. Both PC's are Windows 7 64 bit. The desktop is Ultimate, the laptop Professional.

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• UDP blocked by Windows XP Firewall when sending to local machine

  - by user36367

  Hi there, I work for a software development company but the issue doesn't seem to be programming-related. Here is my setup: - Windows XP Professional with Service Pack 3, all updated - Program that sends UDP datagrams - Program that receives UDP datagrams - Windows Firewall set to allow inbound UDP datagrams on a specific port (Scope: Subnet) If I send a UDP datagram on any port to other, similar machines, it goes through. If I send the UDP datagram to the same computer running the program that sends (whether using broadcast, localhost IP or the specific IP of the machine), the receiver program gets nothing. I've traced the problem down to the Windows XP Firewall, as Windows 7 does not have this problem (and I do not wish to sully my hands with Vista). If the exception I create for that UDP port in the WinXP firewall is set for a Scope of Subnet the datagram is blocked, but if I set it to All Computers or specifically enter my network settings (192.168.2.161 or 192.168.2.0/255.255.255.0) it works fine. Using different UDP ports makes no difference. I've tried different programs to reproduce this problem (ServerTalk to send and either IP Port Spy or PortPeeker to receive) to make sure it's not our code that's the issue, and those programs' datagrams were blocked as well. Also, that computer only has one network interface, so there are no additional network weirdness. I receive my IP from a DHCP server, so this is a straightforward setup. Given that it doesn't happen in Windows 7 I must assume it's a defect in the Windows XP Firewall, but I'd think someone else would have encountered this problem before. Has anyone encountered anything like this? Any ideas? Thanks in advance!

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• Windows 2003 DC to Windows 2008 R2 DC with same name and same IP

  - by TheCleaner

  Environment = Windows 2003 native domain with 8 DCs I've got an old domain controller that is running 2003, CA Enterprise role, DHCP, DNS, a few GPO scripts that point to shares on it, and some other minor functions. All our servers point to it as their primary DNS, and there's lots of references to its IP or name throughout the domain at this point (8+ years later). I really don't feel like manually changing all of this, it would be a pretty massive undertaking. I want to follow this guide: http://msmvps.com/blogs/acefekay/archive/2010/10/09/remove-an-old-dc-and-introduce-a-new-dc-with-the-same-name-and-ip-address.aspx to hopefully end up with basically an "in-place upgrade" so to say. I considered just doing a P2V of the box, but we don't really want to keep it around running 2003 to be honest. I also considered using a CNAME and adding a 2nd IP (the old one) but again, it seemed like it would be cleaner using the attached link. My actual question: Any gotchas or big caution signs when doing what the link suggests? Anyone gone down this road and have advice on how to proceed?

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• Internet Problem: Wireless connected but no connection to internet

  - by Josh K

  Hey i have a interesting network setup on a laptop here and for some reason the internet isnt working. I am connected to a secure network via wireless router and taskbar says i am connected and with good signal strength but in my internet browser i cant connect to any websites, the error is: This webpage is not available. (Chrome) I am using Chrome, but websites dont work on IE either. Heres a little background on the setup i have. I have a Ethernet connected to the laptop with a static ip, and then i have the wireless setup with DHCP enabled. I am using the ethernet to connect to the network (for remote desktop) but the wireless for internet (to avoid the network firewalls). this set up has worked fine for a few months, but i cant figure out what is going on now. Might be worth it to note it is a Lenovo Thinkpad and i just uninstalled ThinkVantage Access Connections (as it was giving me ample problems prior to this one, which i consider a step up) Tried repairing connection as well, let me know if you guys have any ideas please! EDIT: Solved-Dead Modem in the server room.... Sorry guys didn't have access to that myself

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• D-LINK DIR-615 router keeps giving my wireless devices bad ip addresses

  - by mlsteeves

  I have a D-LINK DIR-615 router, and wired devices have no problem getting an IP, however; wireless devices end up with a 169.254.. address (subsequently, they cannot access the internet through the router). I have removed all wired connections from the router, so there is no other dhcp server running. I've also gone back to the store, and replaced it with another, thinking that maybe it was defective. According to the router, it gave 192.168.0.101 to the wireless device. According to the wireless device it got 169.254.67.71. I've tried both a laptop and an iPod Touch, both exhibit the same behaviour. Has anyone seen this type of behaviour, or have any ideas of stuff to try? NEW INFORMATION I looked at the logs on the router, and when the wireless device tries to connect, this is what is logged: Sep 10 18:13:39 UDHCPD sending OFFER of 192.168.0.111 Sep 10 18:13:31 UDHCPD sending OFFER of 192.168.0.111 Sep 10 18:13:26 UDHCPD sending OFFER of 192.168.0.111 Sep 10 18:13:23 UDHCPD sending OFFER of 192.168.0.111 Sep 10 18:13:21 UDHCPD sending OFFER of 192.168.0.111 I connected a computer directly to the router, and here is what it looks like: Sep 10 18:14:18 UDHCPD Inform: add_lease 192.168.0.110 Sep 10 18:14:14 UDHCPD sending ACK to 192.168.0.110 Sep 10 18:14:14 UDHCPD sending OFFER of 192.168.0.110 Not sure if that helps or not.

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• How to use setTimeout / .delay() to wait for typing between characters

  - by Darcy

  Hi all, I am creating a simple listbox filter that takes the user input and returns the matching results in a listbox via javascript/jquery (roughly 5000+ items in listbox). Here is the code snippet: var Listbox1 = $('#Listbox1'); var commands = document.getElementById('DatabaseCommandsHidden'); //using js for speed $('#CommandsFilter').bind('keyup', function() { Listbox1.children().remove(); for (var i = 0; i < commands.options.length; i++) { if (commands.options[i].text.toLowerCase().match($(this).val().toLowerCase())) { Listbox1.append($('<option></option>').val(i).html(commands.options[i].text)); } } }); This works pretty well, but slows down somewhat when the 1st/2nd char's are being typed since there are so many items. I thought a solution I could use would be to add a delay to the textbox that prevents the 'keyup' event from being called until the user stops typing. The problem is, I'm not sure how to do that, or if its even a good idea or not. Any suggestions/help is greatly appreciated.

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• How to properly set relationships in Core Data when using setValue and data already exists

  - by ern

  Let's say I have two objects: Articles and Categories. For the sake of this example all relevant categories have already been added to the data store. When looping through data that holds edits for articles, there is category relationship information that needs to be saved. I was planning on using the -setValue method in the Article class in order to set the relationships like so: - (void)setValue:(id)value forUndefinedKey:(NSString *)key { if([key isEqualToString:@"categories"]){ NSLog(@"trying to set categories..."); } } The problem is that value isn't a Category, it is just a string (or array of strings) holding the title of a category. I could certainly do a lookup within this method for each category and assign it, but that seems inefficient when processing a whole bunch of articles at once. Another option is to populate an array of all possible categories and just filter, but my question is where to store that array? Should it be a class method on Article? Is there a way to pass in additional data to the -setValue method? Is there another, better option for setting the relationship I'm not thinking of? Thanks for your help.

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• Isolating a computer in the network

  - by Karma Soone

  I've got a small network and want to isolate one of the computers from the whole network. My Network: <----> Trusted PC 1 ADSL Router --> Netgear dg834g <----> Trusted PC 2 <----> Untrusted PC I want to isolate this untrusted PC in the network. That means the network should be secure against : * ARP Poisoning * Sniffing * Untrusted PC should not see / reach any other computers within the network but can go out the internet. Static DHCP and switch usage solves the problem of sniffing/ARP poisoning. I can enable IPSec between computers but the real problem is sniffing the traffic between the router and one of the trusted computers. Against getting a new IP address (second IP address from the same computer) I need a firewall with port security (I think) or I don't think my ADSL router supports that. To summarise I'm looking for a hardware firewall/router which can isolate one port from the rest of the network. Could you recommend such a hardware or can I easily accomplish that with my current network?

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• Connect trough remote computer connection

  - by Didac

  First, sorry for my english and my poor knowlodge of this subject. I have a dedicated server placed in Germany (windows 2008 R2) and I live in spain. I would like to access internet from my home computer (Windows 7 Pro x64), trough my server in Germany, so I can use a German IP, what I need some times. I have complete acces in to both computers, but I just don't know where to start. (My knwoledge is limited to software development :/ ) I'd like to know where to start, if I need to create a VPN and so.. Thanks in advance! Update 1 I tried a lot of options of OpenVPN, but I sadly I know nothing abuot networking, so I have to accept I do not know what I'm doing :( Here are my config files (note most of the options are from the sample config files). server.conf #server config file start port 1194 proto udp dev tun server 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.224 #you may choose any subnet. 10.0.0.x is used for this example. ca "C:\\Program Files (x86)\\OpenVPN\\easy-rsa\\keys\\ca.crt" cert "C:\\Program Files (x86)\\OpenVPN\\easy-rsa\\keys\\server.crt" key "C:\\Program Files (x86)\\OpenVPN\\easy-rsa\\keys\\server.key" dh "C:\\Program Files (x86)\\OpenVPN\\easy-rsa\\keys\\dh1024.pem" push "redirect-gateway def1" push "dhcp-option DNS 8.8.8.8" #the following commands are optional keepalive 10 120 comp-lzo persist-key persist-tun verb 5 #config file ends client.conf #client config file start client dev tun proto udp remote 176.9.99.180 1194 resolv-retry infinite nobind persist-key persist-tun ca "C:\\Program Files (x86)\\OpenVPN\\easy-rsa\\keys\\ca.crt" cert "C:\\Program Files (x86)\\OpenVPN\\easy-rsa\\keys\\client1.crt" key "C:\\Program Files (x86)\\OpenVPN\\easy-rsa\\keys\\client1.key" ns-cert-type server comp-lzo verb 5 explicit-exit-notify 2 ping 10 ping-restart 60 route-method exe route-delay 2 # end of client config file And here's the server's network settings: IP address: 176.9.99.180 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 176.9.99.161 Preferred DNS server: 127.0.0.1

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• Implementing an isolated guest WLAN via IPSec VPN on Windows

  - by sysadmin1138

  We are attempting to set up a guest WLAN network that is isolated from the rest of our network. This is proving difficult due to a couple of technical reasons. My first choice was to use a separate VLAN, on which our Firewall's handy WLAN port would handle DHCP, DNS and the network isolation we need. Unfortunately, due to the fact that our main office and our Internet connection itself are in different locations connected by way of a Metro Ethernet connection, I'm at the mercy of our ISP for VLAN transit. They won't pass a second VLAN between our two sites. And my hardware doesn't support 802.1ad "Q-in-Q", which would also solve this problem. So I can't use the VLAN method for isolation. At least not without spending money. As our Firewall can handle IPSec site-to-site VPN connections, I hope it is possible to connect a Server 2008R2 (standard) server I have in the office location to the WLAN and provide gateway services to the firewall. Thusly: Unfortunately, I don't know if it is possible to connect the two this way. The firewall has a pretty flexible IPSec/L2TP implementation (I've used it to connect iPads in the wild), but is neither Kerberized or supports NTLM. The Connection Security Rules view on the Windows server seems to get close to what I think needs to be done, but I'm failing on figuring out how to get it to do what I need it to do. Is this even possible, or do I need to pursue alternate solution?

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• Flex Modules vs RSL

  - by nil

  Hi, I'm a little bit confused about when is better to use Flex Modules or RSL libriaries (in Flex 3.5). My goal is split my project in several unit projects, so I can test and work separately. Let's assume I have a Customer app and Vendor app. I also have a front-end panel with two buttons. Each button launches Customer app or Vendor app. These applications make different things. They share some .as functions and common components, too. I understand that if I make a main project (for user login and to show a first panel) and two modules (customer, vendor) I must have all that components in my Eclipse project, isn't it? Instead of doing modules, should I create SWC for Vendor and other for Customer app and call from main app by using RSL? So, which option is more suitable? What do you advise me? Which are the trade-offs of each option? On the other side, this flex application is integrated with Java through Blaze and ibatis for persistence managment, and hold by a web apache server. I considered also to create independent war files to keep this indpendence, but I thought this do not optimize flex code. I'm right? Thank you. Nil

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• Two hosts on same subnet can't see each other

  - by Joey Hewitt

  I've got two routers with two separate public IP addresses on the same subnet, but I can't get them to talk to each other. Both are connected to the internet (ISP-provided gateway) via Ethernet ports provided by the landlord, but I don't have access to or knowledge of how those are physically connected or the protocols used to get back to the ISP. I can ping either from the outside, but they can't ping each other. Traceroutes in and out look the same, and they receive the same gateway over DHCP. I can ping other IPs on the subnet, so I assume this is not any sort of intentional isolation for security/privacy. Since I'm in a setup where my landlord provides internet and we don't have contact with the ISP, I can't really ask the ISP for help (doubt the landlord would know much either.) The situation is similar to the diagram at this question, but instead of the two servers, there's another router coming off the (presumed) switch, and I don't have access to the switch. I've tried giving them static routes to each other with the ISP internet gateway as the gateway, but that's not working. One is a Linksys WRT54GL running DD-WRT, the other is a Netgear WGR614v7, although I could get something more capable if necessary. I'd like to keep them each connected directly to the ISP on their WAN ports, but I can have an ethernet cable between them if necessary - I'm wondering if there's a way without that, and if there isn't, I'd appreciate advice on how to get that working. Sorry this is so nitpicky; there are reasons for all the constraints, but they don't apply to the real question, so I left them out. ;) Thank you!

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• linux routing issue

  - by Duc To

  Hi! I have 2 linksys routers which has linux running on it and using tomato firmware.. both has internet lines plugged on but only 1 acts as DHCP server (router 1) What I am having to achieve is that all packets goes to router 1 from internal IPs want to access internet will go out to that internet line but from 1 specific port, if router 1 detects packets from a specific source port (for ex: http port: 80), it will redirect that packet to router 2 and goes out to the internet from there.. I have found some documents which give solution that I will need a linux servers with 2 ethernet cards and then we plug both internet lines on that server and routing base on it but I do not want to do that because my boss does not want to have an extra work mantaining that server, besides, he says that the router itself already a linux one so why.. I tend to agree his points.. Can it be done or a seperate linux server acting as a router is a must? Thank you all in advance and really look forward in your replies.. I am newbie to linux network and it seems to be something out of my capacity to solve :( Your sincerely! Duc To

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• How to suppress jqgrid from initially loading data?

  - by Steve Johnston

  I have a page that has a couple of jqGrids on it, along with a few other fields. I want to make one AJAX call myself that pulls back a JSON object that has the data that should be used to fill the entire page. So, I would like to make the call myself, populate the "other fields" and then pull a couple of collections off of the main JSON object that was returned and populate each of the jqGrids with those collections "manually". I have this much working, but I can't get jqGrid to stop attempting to make an AJAX request itself. Shouldn't there be a way to tell jqGrid to NOT attempt an AJAX call when it is initialized? I found a similar question asked here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1850159/how-to-suppress-jqgrid-from-initially-loading-data But I don't have the option that solved it for the poster. It seems pretty logical to me that some people may want to use this plugin without having the table attempt to get its own data upon initialization. Am I missing an option somewhere in the documentation (wiki - options)? Thanks.

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• Is Accessing USB from web application for cross browser cross os possible at all ?

  - by Ved

  Hey Guys, I am wondering if there is anyway we can achieve this. I heard different things about Silverlight 4 , Java Script or Active X control but not seen any demo of code for any of them. Does anyone know any web component that is available or how to write one. We really like capture client's USB drive via Web and read/write data on it. This has to work for ANY Operating system in Any web browser. Thanks UPDATED What about WPF in browser mode...I read that I can host my wpf apps inside browser and sort of like smart client. Here is a great example of doing this via silverlight 4 but author mentions about possibility of accessing USB on MAC via 1) Enable executing AppleScripts. This option will let us have the same amount of control on a mac machine as we do on a windows machine. 2) Add an overload to ComAutomationFactory.CreateObject() that calls the “Tell Application” command under the scenes and gets a AppleScript object. This option would work extremely well for Office automation. For any other operating system feature, you’ll have to code OS access twice.  I did not quite understand it. Has any tried this ?

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• echo -e acts differently when run in a script by root on ubuntu

  - by ekrub

  When running a bash script on ubuntu 9.10, I get different behavior from bash echo's "-e" option depending on whether or not I'm running as root. Consider this script: $ cat echo-test if [ "`whoami`" = "root" ]; then echo "Running as root" fi echo Testing /bin/echo -e /bin/echo -e "foo\nbar" echo Testing bash echo -e echo -e "foo\nbar" When run as non-root user, I see this output: $ ./echo-test Testing /bin/echo -e foo bar Testing bash echo -e foo bar When run as root, I see this output: $ sudo ./echo-test Running as root Testing /bin/echo -e foo bar Testing bash echo -e -e foo bar Notice the "-e" being echoed in the last case ("-e foo" instead of "foo" on the second-to-last line). When running a script as root, the echo command runs as if "-e" was given and, if -e is given, the option itself is echoed. I can understand some subtle differences in behavior between /bin/echo and bash echo, but I would expect bash echo to behave the same no matter which user invokes it. Anyone know why this is the case? Is this a bug in bash echo? FYI -- I'm running GNU bash, version 4.0.33(1)-release (x86_64-pc-linux-gnu)

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