Search Results

Search found 15887 results on 636 pages for 'functions as parameters'.

Page 229/636 | < Previous Page | 225 226 227 228 229 230 231 232 233 234 235 236  | Next Page >

• Is there a maximum number of input controls that can be used on an HTML form?

  - by Rich

  I have an ambitious requirement for an asp.net 2.0 web page that contains a table (gridview), and each row in the grid contains 6 select (dropdown) controls for data entry. The number of rows that will be displayed is dependent upon the user's search parameters, which are specified in another area of the page. Unfortunately, with the default (and even basic) search parameters specified, the grid could contain several hundred rows. I've noticed that the browser, in this case IE8, starts behaving rather erratically once I reach a large number of rows -- no documented evidence for the number of rows where this begins to be a problem. For example, trying to view the source of the page results in a message from IE stating that there was a problem with the page that forced the browser to reload it, and I never get the source. Obviously the page loads and renders rather slowly also. I know that my solution is probably going to involve paging the gridview such that it only displays 20 or so rows per page, and I'll have to write code to handle the saving of changes in the dropdown values when the user changes pages. I can probably turn off viewstate on the gridview also. However, the question I really want to pose is this -- has anyone seen a documented rule indicating the maximum number of input controls that an HTML browser form is supposed to be able to contain? I could not find anything on the Internet after doing a search, and I suspect the answer may be whatever the browser can handle based on the machine configuration it is running on. Any rules of thumb you use? Thanks for any suggestions. Rich

  Read the article

• NULL pointer dereference in swiotlb_unmap_sg_attrs() on disk IO

  - by Inductiveload

  I'm getting an error I really don't understand when reading or writing files using a PCIe block device driver. I seem to be hitting an issue in swiotlb_unmap_sg_attrs(), which appears to be doing a NULL dereference of the sg pointer, but I don't know where this is coming from, as the only scatterlist I use myself is allocated as part of the device info structure and persists as long as the driver does. There is a stacktrace to go with the problem. It tends to vary a bit in exact details, but it always crashes in swiotlb_unmap_sq_attrs(). I think it's likely I have a locking issue, as I am not sure how to handle the locks around the IO functions. The lock is already held when the request function is called, I release it before the IO functions themselves are called, as they need an (MSI) IRQ to complete. The IRQ handler updates a "status" value, which the IO function is waiting for. When the IO function returns, I then take the lock back up and return to request queue handling. The crash happens in blk_fetch_request() during the following: if (!__blk_end_request(req, res, bytes)){ printk(KERN_ERR "%s next request\n", DRIVER_NAME); req = blk_fetch_request(q); } else { printk(KERN_ERR "%s same request\n", DRIVER_NAME); } where bytes is updated by the request handler to be the total length of IO (summed length of each scatter-gather segment).

  Read the article

• TDD approach for complex function

  - by jamie

  I have a method in a class for which they are a few different outcomes (based upon event responses etc). But this is a single atomic function which is to used by other applications. I have broken down the main blocks of the functionality that comprise this function into different functions and successfully taken a Test Driven Development approach to the functionality of each of these elements. These elements however aren't exposed for other applications would use. And so my question is how can/should i easily approach a TDD style solution to verifying that the single method that should be called does function correctly without a lot of duplication in testing or lots of setup required for each test? I have considered / looked at moving the blocks of functionality into a different class and use Mocking to simulate the responses of the functions used but it doesn't feel right and the individual methods need to write to variables within the main class (it felt really heath robinson). The code roughly looks like this (i have removed a lot of parameters to make things clearer along with a fair bit of irrelevant code). public void MethodToTest(string parameter) { IResponse x = null; if (function1(parameter)) { if (!function2(parameter,out x)) { function3(parameter, out x); } } // ... // more bits of code here // ... if (x != null) { x.Success(); } }

  Read the article

• How to catch this low level MySQL (?) error in PHP/Magento

  - by andnil

  When I'm executing the following statement in Magento with a really large $sku, the execution terminates without any errors thrown what so ever. There are no errors in either Magento's, Apache's or PHP's error logs. Mage::getModel('catalog/product')-loadByAttribute('sku', $sku); Question: How do I catch the error? I've tried to set custom error handlers, and for testing purposes I've also managed to trigger error situations where each of the error handler functions are invoked. But when running the previously mentioned Magento code with a large $sku, none of the error handling functions are executed. error_reporting( -1 ); set_error_handler( array( 'Error', 'captureNormal' ) ); set_exception_handler( array( 'Error', 'captureException' ) ); register_shutdown_function( array( 'Error', 'captureShutdown' ) ); For completeness, this is the $sku I'm passing to loadByAttribute(). (The sku is invalid, but that is not the issue) 1- 9685 0102046|1- 9685 1212100|1- 9685 1212092|1- 9685 1212096|1- 9685 1102100|1- 9685 1102108|1- 9685 1102112|1- 9685 1102092|1- 9685 0102048|1- 9685 0102054|1- 9685 0102056|1- 9685 0102058|1- 9685 1212104|1- 9685 1212108|1- 9685 0212058|1- 9685 0104050|1- 9685 0212050|1- 9685 0212056|1- 9685 0212044|1- 9685 0212048|1- 9685 0212052|1- 9685 0212054|1- 9685 1102104|1- 9685 1102124 Any insight into this matter is much appreciated! Update: Upon further investigation, this is the exact point in the code where execution terminates. when the foreach is executed I guess Magento goes into MySQL world and starts loading up data from the database. \Mage\Catalog\Model\Abstract.php public function loadByAttribute($attribute, $value, $additionalAttributes = '*') { $collection = $this->getResourceCollection() ->addAttributeToSelect($additionalAttributes) ->addAttributeToFilter($attribute, $value) ->setPage(1,1); foreach ($collection as $object) { // <--------------- HERE return $object; } return false; } Note, I'm ONLY interested in finding out how to properly CATCH these kinds of errors, not "fix" the logic. This is so that I can present a proper error message to the user. The example above with the malformed sku is contrived and I have no desire to make my Magento app work with those erroneous skus.

  Read the article

• JQuery to PHP function and back Ajaxed

  - by Xaris

  Hi all, i have a set of php function that i want to call on different events mostly onclick with jquery async (ajax). The first function is called on load $(document).ready(function() { $("#div2").hide('slow'); $("#div1").empty().html('<img src="ajax-loader.gif" />'); $.ajax( { type: "POST", url: "WebFunctions.php", data: {'func':'1'}, success: function(html) { $("#div1").show('slow').html(html) } }); The Data: {'func':'1'} -- is a switch statement on the php side switch($_POST['func']) { case '1': getParents(); break; case '2': getChilds(params); break; case '3': getChildObjects(params); break; default: } "This functions are calls to a soap server" <-- irrelevant. So when that function finishes i get an array which contains IDs and Names. I echo the names but i want the ID for reference so when i click on the echoed name i can call an other php function with parameter the ID of the name... How do i get rid of the switch statement?? How do i call properly php functions and pass params to it??? How can i save this IDs so when i click on an item with that id an other php function is called?? Plz feel free to ask any question, any answer is welcome :)

  Read the article

• Magic Method __set() on a Instanciated Object

  - by streetparade

  Ok i have a problem, sorry if i cant explaint it clear but the code speaks for its self. i have a class which generates objects from a given class name; Say we say the class is Modules: public function name($name) { $this->includeModule($name); try { $module = new ReflectionClass($name); $instance = $module->isInstantiable() ? $module->newInstance() : "Err"; $this->addDelegate($instance); } catch(Exception $e) { Modules::Name("Logger")->log($e->getMessage()); } return $this; } The AddDelegate Method: protected function addDelegate($delegate) { $this->aDelegates[] = $delegate; } The __call Method public function __call($methodName, $parameters) { $delegated = false; foreach ($this->aDelegates as $delegate) { if(class_exists(get_class($delegate))) { if(method_exists($delegate,$methodName)) { $method = new ReflectionMethod(get_class($delegate), $methodName); $function = array($delegate, $methodName); return call_user_func_array($function, $parameters); } } } The __get Method public function __get($property) { foreach($this->aDelegates as $delegate) { if ($delegate->$property !== false) { return $delegate->$property; } } } All this works fine expect the function __set public function __set($property,$value) { //print_r($this->aDelegates); foreach($this->aDelegates as $k=>$delegate) { //print_r($k); //print_r($delegate); if (property_exists($delegate, $property)) { $delegate->$property = $value; } } //$this->addDelegate($delegate); print_r($this->aDelegates); } class tester { public function __set($name,$value) { self::$module->name(self::$name)->__set($name,$value); } } Module::test("logger")->log("test"); // this logs, it works echo Module::test("logger")->path; //prints /home/bla/test/ this is also correct But i cant set any value to class log like this Module::tester("logger")->path ="/home/bla/test/log/"; The path property of class logger is public so its not a problem of protected or private property access. How can i solve this issue? I hope i could explain my problem clear.

  Read the article

• Delphi static method of a class returning property value

  - by mitko.berbatov

  I'm making a Delphi VCL application. There is a class TStudent where I have two static functions: one which returns last name from an array of TStudent and another one which returns the first name of the student. Their code is something like: class function TStudent.FirstNameOf(aLastName: string): string; var i : integer; begin for i := 0 to Length(studentsArray) - 1 do begin if studentsArray[i].LastName = aLastName then begin result := studentsArray[i].FirstName; Exit; end; end; result := 'no match was found'; end; class function TStudent.LastNameOf(aFirstName: string): string; var i : integer; begin for i := 0 to Length(studentsArray) - 1 do begin if studentsArray[i].FirstName = aFirstName then begin result := studentsArray[i].LastName; Exit; end; end; result := 'no match was found'; end; My question is how can I avoid writing almost same code twice. Is there any way to pass the property as parameter of the functions.

  Read the article

• call function inside a nested jquery plugin

  - by tchoesang

  There are many topics related to my question and i have been through most of them, but i haven't got it right. The closest post to my question is the following: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1042072/how-to-call-functions-that-are-nested-inside-a-jquery-plugin Below is the jquery plugin i am using. On resize, the element sizes are recalculated. I am now trying to call the function resizeBind() from outside of the jquery plugin and it gives me error I tried the following combinations to call the function $.fn.splitter().resizeBind() $.fn.splitter.resizeBind() Any ideas, where i am getting wrong? ;(function($){ $.fn.splitter = function(args){ //Other functions ...... $(window).bind("resize", function(){ resizeBind(); }); function resizeBind(){ var top = splitter.offset().top; var wh = $(window).height(); var ww = $(window).width(); var sh = 0; // scrollbar height if (ww <0 && !jQuery.browser.msie ) sh = 17; var footer = parseInt($("#footer").css("height")) || 26; splitter.css("height", wh-top-footer-sh+"px"); $("#tabsRight").css("height", splitter.height()-30+"px"); $(".contentTabs").css("height", splitter.height()-70+"px"); } return this.each(function() { }); }; })(jQuery);

  Read the article

• MySQL Join/Comparison on a DATETIME column (<5.6.4 and > 5.6.4)

  - by Simon

  Suppose i have two tables like so: Events ID (PK int autoInc), Time (datetime), Caption (varchar) Position ID (PK int autoinc), Time (datetime), Easting (float), Northing (float) Is it safe to, for example, list all the events and their position if I am using the Time field as my joining criteria? I.e.: SELECT E.*,P.* FROM Events E JOIN Position P ON E.Time = P.Time OR, even just simply comparing a datetime value (taking into consideration that the parameterized value may contain the fractional seconds part - which MySQL has always accepted) e.g. SELECT E.* FROM Events E WHERE E.Time = @Time I understand MySQL (before version 5.6.4) only stores datetime fields WITHOUT milliseconds. So I would assume this query would function OK. However as of version 5.6.4, I have read MySQL can now store milliseconds with the datetime field. Assuming datetime values are inserted using functions such as NOW(), the milliseconds are truncated (<5.6.4) which I would assume allow the above query to work. However, with version 5.6.4 and later, this could potentially NOT work. I am, and only ever will be interested in second accuracy. If anyone could answer the following questions would be greatly appreciated: In General, how does MySQL compare datetime fields against one another (consider the above query). Is the above query fine, and does it make use of indexes on the time fields? (MySQL < 5.6.4) Is there any way to exclude milliseconds? I.e. when inserting and in conditional joins/selects etc? (MySQL 5.6.4) Will the join query above work? (MySQL 5.6.4) EDIT I know i can cast the datetimes, thanks for those that answered, but i'm trying to tackle the root of the problem here (the fact that the storage type/definition has been changed) and i DO NOT want to use functions in my queries. This negates all my work of optimizing queries applying indexes etc, not to mention having to rewrite all my queries. EDIT2 Can anyone out there suggest a reason NOT to join on a DATETIME field using second accuracy?

  Read the article

• C vs C++ function questions

  - by james

  I am learning C, and after starting out learning C++ as my first compiled language, I decided to "go back to basics" and learn C. There are two questions that I have concerning the ways each language deals with functions. Firstly, why does C "not care" about the scope that functions are defined in, whereas C++ does? For example, int main() { donothing(); return 0; } void donothing() { } the above will not compile in a C++ compiler, whereas it will compile in a C compiler. Why is this? Isn't C++ mostly just an extension on C, and should be mostly "backward compatible"? Secondly, the book that I found (Link to pdf) does not seem to state a return type for the main function. I check around and found other books and websites and these also commonly do not specify return types for the main function. If I try to compile a program that does not specify a return type for main, it compiles fine (although with some warnings) in a C compiler, but it doesn't compile in a C++ compiler. Again, why is that? Is it better style to always specify the return type as an integer rather than leaving it out? Thanks for any help, and just as a side note, if anyone can suggest a better book that I should buy that would be great!

  Read the article

• C++, inject additional data in a method

  - by justik

  I am adding the new modul in some large library. All methods here are implemented as static. Let mi briefly describe the simplified model: typedef std::vector<double> TData; double test ( const TData &arg ) { return arg ( 0 ) * sin ( arg ( 1 ) + ...;} double ( * p_test ) ( const TData> &arg) = &test; class A { public: static T f1 (TData &input) { .... //some computations B::f2 (p_test); } }; Inside f1() some computations are perfomed and a static method B::f2 is called. The f2 method is implemented by another author and represents some simulation algorithm (example here is siplified). class B { public: static double f2 (double ( * p_test ) ( const TData &arg ) ) { //difficult algorithm working p_test many times double res = p_test(arg); } }; The f2 method has a pointer to some weight function (here p_test). But in my case some additional parameters computed in f1 for test() methods are required double test ( const TData &arg, const TData &arg2, char *arg3.... ) { } How to inject these parameters into test() (and so to f2) to avoid changing the source code of the f2 methods (that is not trivial), redesign of the library and without dirty hacks :-) ? The most simple step is to override f2 static double f2 (double ( * p_test ) ( const TData &arg ), const TData &arg2, char *arg3.... ) But what to do later? Consider, that methods are static, so there will be problems with objects. Thanks for your help.

  Read the article

• Use of Java [Interfaces / Abstract classes]

  - by Samuel

  Hello, Lately i decided to take a look at Java so i am still pretty new to it and also to the approach of OO programming, so i wanted to get some things straight before learning more, (i guess it's never to soon to start with good practices). I am programming a little 2D game for now but i think my question applies to any non trivial project. For the simplicity i'll provide examples from my game. I have different kinds of zombies, but they all have the same attributes (x, y, health, attack etc) so i wrote an interface Zombie which i implement by WalkingZombie, RunningZombie TeleportingZombie etc. Is this the best thing to do? Am i better of with an abstract class? Or with a super class? (I am not planning to partially implement functions - therefor my choice for an interface instead of an abstract class) I have one class describing the main character (Survivor) and since it is pretty big i wanted to write an interface with the different functions, so that i can easily see and share the structure of it. Is it good practice? Or is it simply a waste of space and time? I hope this question will not be rated as subjective because i thought that experienced programmers won't disagree about this kind of topic since the use of interfaces / super classes / abstract classes follows logical rules and is thereby not simply a personal choice. Thank you for your time -Samuel

  Read the article

• Best way to import a pack or "system" of new classes??

  - by Joe Blow

  Here's an Advanced question for Advanced developers. So I've written a largish "subsystem". It is essentially a UIViewController called CleverViewController which is a UIViewController. Now, there are a large number of supporting classes (about ten) that do the hard work: perform math functions, image processing, purely logical functions, build images or what have you with thousands of lines of code. (To do this, I simply started a new XCode project / app "Scratchpad" which does little other than load and launch the CleverViewController. So currently it works as an app, which launches CleverViewController. The ten or so classes I mention that are part of the "subsystem" simply sit there in that project/app.) So now, we will use CleverViewController, the new technology generally, in various apps. (Or perhaps friends would want to use it, etc.) What's the best way to "do" this? Have I screwed everything up, and really it should just be ONE (pretty big) class rather than a dozen classes? (I could understand that then as I would simply add that new (big) class where needed, like adding any other class.) Do I have to make a "framework" like the Apple frameworks? (If so, what the hell are they, how do you do it, etc?!?) In fact, do you just have to lamely include all of the dozen classes and that's that (obviously perhaps putting them in a grouped subfolder). What about all the headers and so on? (Currently I just have the dozen includes in the pch file of the scratchpad project.) Shouldn't it be easy to "maintain" this "subsystem" separately and so on? I'm afraid I know nothing about this: if the answer is obvious, hit me over the head and let me know. Thank you for any info on this !

  Read the article

• Declaration of struct variables in other class when obtained by getters

  - by liaK

  Hi, I am using Qt 4.5 so do C++. I have a class like this class CClass1 { private: struct stModelDetails { QString name; QString code; ..... // only variables and no functions over here }; QList<stModelDetails> m_ModelDetailsList; public: QList<stModelDetails> getModelDetailsList(); ... }; In this I have functions that will populate the m_ModelDetailsList; I have another class say CClassStructureUsage, where I will call the getModelDetailsList() function. Now my need is that I have to traverse the QList and obtain the name, code from each of the stModelDetails. Now the problem is even the CClass1's header file is included it is not able to identify the type of stModelDetails in CClassStructureUsage. When I get the structure list by QList<stModelDetails> ModelList = obj->getModelInformationList(); it says stModelDetails : undeclared identifier. How I can able to fetch the values from the structure? Am I doing anything wrong over here?

  Read the article

• Make a PHP GET request from a PHP script and exit

  - by Abs

  Hello all, Is there something simpler than the following. I am trying to make a GET request to a PHP script and then exit the current script. I think this is a job for CURL but is there something simpler as I don't want to really worry about enabling the CURL php extension? In addition, will the below start the PHP script and then just come back and not wait for it to finish? //set GET variables $url = 'http://domain.com/get-post.php'; $fields = array( 'lname'=>urlencode($last_name), 'fname'=>urlencode($first_name) ); //url-ify the data for the GET foreach($fields as $key=>$value) { $fields_string .= $key.'='.$value.'&'; } rtrim($fields_string,'&'); //open connection $ch = curl_init(); //set the url, number of POST vars, POST data curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_URL,$url); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_GET,count($fields)); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_GETFIELDS,$fields_string); //execute GET $result = curl_exec($ch); //close connection curl_close($ch); I want to run the other script which contains functions when a condition is met so a simple include won't work as the if condition wraps around the functions, right? Please note, I am on windows machine and the code I am writing will only be used on a Windows OS. Thanks all for any help and advice

  Read the article

• Code producing System.NullReferenceException error for Membership.GetUser(). This is VB.Net (ASP.Net 4)

  - by Derrek

  I have a Default.aspx page that is not static. I have added functionality with datalist and sqldatasources. When a user logins he/she will see items like saved workouts, saved equipment, total replys, etc... This is based on getting the currently logged in user UserID. Quite simply this works great when the user is logged in. However, I do not want to force a user to login to view the Default page because it does have functionality on it that does not require login. When a user is not logged in of course I receive the [System.NullReferenceException] error. I understand the error well but I do not know how to code to fix it. That is where I need help. I will admit I am more designer than developer. However, I do know the exception error I am receivving is caused by me not setting a value in my code when a user is not logged in. I do not know how to do that and have for a week made unsuccessful attempts at writing the code. Both sets of code below compile for VB.Net/ASP.Net 4/Visual Studio 2010 without errors. However, I still get the System.NullReferenceException error if not logged in. I know it can be done but I do not know the right syntax. If you can help please insert you code in mine or write it out. JUST TELLING ME WHERE TO GO TO FIND AN ANSWER WON'T HELP. I HAVE DONE THAT FOR 7 STRAIGHT DAYS. I APPRECIATE OUR HELP. Partial Class _Default Inherits System.Web.UI.Page Protected Sub SqlDataSource4_Selecting(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As SqlDataSourceCommandEventArgs) Handles SqlDataSource4.Selecting Dim MemUser As MembershipUser MemUser = Membership.GetUser() If Not MemUser Is DBNull.Value Then UserID.Text = MemUser.ProviderUserKey.ToString() e.Command.Parameters("@UserId").Value = MemUser.ProviderUserKey.ToString() End If End Sub -------------------------------------ORIGINAL CODE------------------------------- Partial Class _Default Inherits System.Web.UI.Page Protected Sub SqlDataSource4_Selecting(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As SqlDataSourceCommandEventArgs) Handles SqlDataSource4.Selecting Dim MemUser As MembershipUser MemUser = Membership.GetUser() UserID.Text = MemUser.ProviderUserKey.ToString() e.Command.Parameters("@UserId").Value = MemUser.ProviderUserKey.ToString() End Sub

  Read the article

• JavaScript: When does JavaScript evaluate a function, onload or when the function is called?

  - by Benj

  When does JavaScript evaluate a function? Is it on page load or when the function is called? The reason why I ask is because I have the following code: function scriptLoaded() { // one of our scripts finished loading, detect which scripts are available: var jQuery = window.jQuery; var maps = window.google && google.maps; if (maps && !requiresGmaps.called) { requiresGmaps.called = true; requiresGmaps(); } if (jQuery && !requiresJQuery.called) { requiresJQuery.called = true; requiresJQuery(); } if (maps && jQuery && !requiresBothJQueryGmaps.called) { requiresBothJQueryGmaps.called = true; requiresBothJQueryGmaps(); } } // asynch download of script function addScript(url) { var script = document.createElement('script'); script.src = url; // older IE... script.onreadystatechange=function () { if (this.readyState == 'complete') scriptLoaded.call(this); } script.onload=scriptLoaded; document.getElementsByTagName('head')[0].appendChild(script); } addScript('http://google.com/gmaps.js'); addScript('http://jquery.com/jquery.js'); // define some function dependecies function requiresJQuery() { // create JQuery objects } function requiresGmaps() { // create Google Maps object, etc } function requiresBothJQueryGmaps() { ... } What I want to do is perform asynchronous download of my JavaScript and start at the earliest possible time to begin executing those scripts but my code has dependencies on when the scripted have been obviously downloaded and loaded. When I try the code above, it appears that my browser is still attempting to evaluate code within my require* functions even before those functions have been called. Is this correct? Or am I misunderstanding what's wrong with my code?

  Read the article

• JQuery/AJAX: Loading external DIVs using dynamic content

  - by ticallian

  I need to create a page that will load divs from an external page using Jquery and AJAX. I have come across a few good tutorials, but they are all based on static content, my links and content are generated by PHP. The main tutorial I am basing my code on is from: http://yensdesign.com/2008/12/how-to-load-content-via-ajax-in-jquery/ The exact function i need is as follows: Main page contains a permanent div listing some links containing a parameter. Upon click, link passes parameter to external page. External page filters recordset against parameter and populates div with results. The new div contains a new set of links with new parameters. The external div is loaded underneath the main pages first div. Process can then be repeated creating a chain of divs under each other. The last div in the chain will then direct to a new page collating all the previously used querystrings. I can handle all of the PHP work with populating the divs on the main and external pages. It's the JQuery and AJAX part i'm struggling with. $(document).ready(function(){ var sections = $('a[id^=link_]'); // Link that passes parameter to external page var content = $('div[id^=content_]'); // Where external div is loaded to sections.click(function(){ //load selected section switch(this.id){ case "div01": content.load("external.php?param=1 #section_div01"); break; case "div02": content.load("external.php?param=2 #section_div02"); break; } }); The problem I am having is getting JQuery to pass the dynamically generated parameters to the external page and then retrieve the new div. I can currently only do this with static links (As above).

  Read the article

• Java servlet's request parameter's name set to entire json object

  - by Geren White

  I'm sending a json object through ajax to a java servlet. The json object is key-value type with three keys that point to arrays and a key that points to a single string. I build it in javascript like this: var jsonObject = {"arrayOne": arrayOne, "arrayTwo": arrayTwo, "arrayThree": arrThree, "string": stringVar}; I then send it to a java servlet using ajax as follows: httpRequest.open('POST', url, true); httpRequest.setRequestHeader("Content-type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); httpRequest.setRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); var jsonString = jsonObject.toJSONString(); httpRequest.send(jsonString); This will send the string to my servlet, but It isn't showing as I expect it to. The whole json string gets set to the name of one of my request's parameters. So in my servlet if I do request.getParameterNames(); It will return an enumeration with one of the table entries' key's to be the entire object contents. I may be mistaken, but my thought was that it should set each key to a different parameter name. So I should have 4 parameters, arrayOne, arrayTwo, arrayThree, and string. Am I doing something wrong or is my thinking off here? Any help is appreciated. Thanks

  Read the article

• Force calling the derived class implementation within a generic function in C#?

  - by Adam Hardy

  Ok so I'm currently working with a set of classes that I don't have control over in some pretty generic functions using these objects. Instead of writing literally tens of functions that essentially do the same thing for each class I decided to use a generic function instead. Now the classes I'm dealing with are a little weird in that the derived classes share many of the same properties but the base class that they are derived from doesn't. One such property example is .Parent which exists on a huge number of derived classes but not on the base class and it is this property that I need to use. For ease of understanding I've created a small example as follows: class StandardBaseClass {} // These are simulating the SMO objects class StandardDerivedClass : StandardBaseClass { public object Parent { get; set; } } static class Extensions { public static object GetParent(this StandardDerivedClass sdc) { return sdc.Parent; } public static object GetParent(this StandardBaseClass sbc) { throw new NotImplementedException("StandardBaseClass does not contain a property Parent"); } // This is the Generic function I'm trying to write and need the Parent property. public static void DoSomething<T>(T foo) where T : StandardBaseClass { object Parent = ((T)foo).GetParent(); } } In the above example calling DoSomething() will throw the NotImplemented Exception in the base class's implementation of GetParent(), even though I'm forcing the cast to T which is a StandardDerivedClass. This is contrary to other casting behaviour where by downcasting will force the use of the base class's implementation. I see this behaviour as a bug. Has anyone else out there encountered this?

  Read the article

• loading remote page into DOM with javascript

  - by scoobydoo

  I am trying to write a web widget which will allow users to display customized information (from my website) in their own web page. The mechanism I want to use (for creating the web widget) is javascript. So basically, I want to be able to write some javascript code like this (this is what the end user copies into their HTML page, to get my widget displayed in their page) <script type="text/javascript"> /* javascript here to fetch page from remote url and insert into DOM */ </script> I have two questions: how do I write a javascript code to fetch the page from the remote url? Ideally this will be PLAIN javascript (i.e. not using jQuery etc - since I dont want to force the user to get third party scripts jQuery which may conflict with other scripts on their page etc) The page I am fetching contains inline javascript, which gets executed in an body.onLoad event, as well as other functions which are used in response to user actions - my questions are: i). will the body.onLoad event be triggered for the retrieved document?. ii). If the retrieved page is dumped directly into the DOM, then the document will contain two <body> sections, which is no longer valid (X)HTML - however, I need the body.onLoad event to be triggered for the page to be setup correctly, and I also need the other functions in the retrieved page, for the retrieved page to be able to respond to the user interaction. Any suggestions/tips on how I can solve these problems?

  Read the article

• LNK4221 and LNK4006 Warnings!

  - by user295030

  Hi, I basically making a static library of my own. I have taken my code which works and now put it into a static library for another program to use. In my library I am using another static library which I don't want the people who will be using my API to know. Since, I want to hide that information from them I can't tell them to install the other static library. Anyway, I used the command line Lib.exe to extract and create a smaller lib file of just the obj's I used. However, I get a bunch of "LNK4006 :second definition ignored" linker warnings for each obj I use followed by "LNK4221 no public symbols found;archive member will be inaccessible". I am doing this work in vs2008 and I am not sure what I am doing wrong. I am using the #pragma comment line in my .cpp file I have also modified the librarian to add my smaller .lib along with its location. my code simply makes calls to a couple functions which it should be able to get from those Obj file in the smaller lib. All my functions are implemented in .cpp file and my header just have the includes of the third party header files and come standard c++ header files. nothing fancy. I have actually no function definitions in there atm. I was going to put the API definition in there and implement that in the .cpp for this static lib that i was going to make. However, I just wanted to build my code before I added more to it. s Any help would be appreciated. is this a vs2008 configuration issue? or a program issue I am not sure. thanks for the help!

  Read the article

• Work with function references

  - by Ockonal

  Hello, I have another one question about functions reference. For example, I have such definition: typedef boost::function<bool (Entity &handle)> behaviorRef; std::map< std::string, ptr_vector<behaviorRef> > eventAssociation; The first question is: how to insert values into such map object? I tried: eventAssociation.insert(std::pair< std::string, ptr_vector<behaviorRef> >(eventType, ptr_vector<behaviorRef>(callback))); But the error: no matching function for call to ‘boost::ptr_vector<boost::function<bool(Entity&)> >::push_back(Entity::behaviorRef&)’ And I undersatnd it, but can't make workable code. The second question is how to call such functions? For example, I have one object of behaviorRef, how to call it with boost::bind with passing my own values?

  Read the article

• What is a good RPC model for building a AJAX web app using PHP & JS?

  - by user366152

  I'm new to writing AJAX applications. I plan on using jQuery on the client side while PHP on the server side. I want to use something like XML-RPC to simplify my effort in calling server-side code. Ideally, I wouldn't care whether the transport layer uses XML or JSON or a format more optimized for the wire. If I was writing a console app I'd use some tool to generate function stubs which I would then implement on the RPC server while the client would natively call into those stubs. This provides a clean separation. Is there something similar available in the AJAX world? While on this topic, how would I proceed with session management? I would want it to be as transparent as possible. For example, if I try to hit an RPC end-point which needs a valid session, it should reject the request if the client doesn't pass a valid session cookie. This would really ease my application development. I'd then have to simply handle the frontend using native JS functions. While on the backend, I can simply implement the RPC functions. BTW I dont wish to use Google Web Toolkit. My app wont be extremely heavy on AJAX.

  Read the article

• PHP dynamic Page-level DocBlocks

  - by Obmerk Kronen

  I was wondering if there is a way to interact with the Page-level DocBlocks. My question is more specifically about wordpress plugin development, but this question has arised also in a non-wordpress environments. The reason is mainly the possibility to easily change VERSIONS and names throughout a large project with maybe a constant definition - but that will reflect also in the docblock.. The following example Docblock is from a wordpress plugin I write - /* Plugin Name: o99 Auxilary Functions v0.4.7 Plugin URI: http://www.myurl.com Description: some simple description that nobody reads. Version: 0.4.7 Author: my cool name Author URI: http://www.ok-alsouri.com */ Is there a way to transform it into : $ver = '0.4.7'; $uri = 'http://www.myurl.com'; $desc = 'some simple description that nobody reads.'; $mcn = 'my cool name'; etc.. etc.. /* Plugin Name: o99 Auxilary Functions ($ver) Plugin URI: ($uri) Description: ($desc) Version: ($ver) Author: ($mcn) Author URI: ($$uri) */ obviously for echo to work I would need to break the docblock itself, and I can not WRITE the docblock directly into it´s own file . In shorts : can I "generate" a docblock with php itself somehow (I would think that the answer is - "no" for the page itself.. But maybe I am wrong and someone has some neat hack :-) ) Is that even possible ?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 225 226 227 228 229 230 231 232 233 234 235 236  | Next Page >