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• wget not completely processing the http call

  - by user578458

  Here is a wget command that executes a HTML / PHP stack report suite that is hosted by a third party - we don't have control over the PHP or HTML page wget --no-check-certificate --http-user=/myacc --http-password=mypass -O /tmp/myoutput.csv "https://myserver.mydomain.com/mymodule.php?myrepcode=9999&action=exportcsv&admin=myappuserid&password=myappuserpass&startdate=2011-01-16&enddate=2011-01-16&reportby=mypreferredview" All the elements are working perfectly: --http-user / --http-pass as offered by a browsers standard popup for username and password prompt -O /tmp/myoutput.csv - the output file of interest https://myserver.mydomain.com/mymodule.php?myrepcode=9999&action=exportcsv&admin=myappuserid&password=myappuserpass&startdate=2011-01-16&enddate=2011-01-16&reportby=mypreferredview" The file generated on the fly by the parameters myrepcode=9999 - a reference to the report in question action=exportcsv internally written in the function admin=myappuserid the third party operats SSL to access the site - then internal username and password stored in a database to access the functions of the site) password=myappuserpass startdate=2011-01-16 this and end data are parameters specific to the report 9999 enddate=2011-01-16 reportby=mypreferredview This is an option in the report that facilitates different levels of detail or aggregation The problem is that the reportby parameter is a radio button selection in a list of 5 selections (sure I enough the default is highest level of aggregation , I want the last one which is the most detailed) Here is a sample of the HTML page code for the options of reportby View by The Default My Least Preferred My Second Least Preferred My Third Least Preferred My Preferred No matter which of the reportby items I select in the wget statement - thedefault is always executed. Questions 1) Has anyone come across this notation in HTML (id=inputname[inputelement]) I spoke to a senior web developer and he has never seen this notation for inputs (id=inputname[inputelement]) - and w3schools do not appear familiar with this either based on an extensive search 2) Can a wget command select a none default radio item when executing the command ? This probably will be initially received with a "Use CURL" response- however the wget approach works very well in the limited environment I am operating in - particularly as I need to download 10000 of these such items. Thanks ahead of response

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• call function inside a nested jquery plugin

  - by tchoesang

  There are many topics related to my question and i have been through most of them, but i haven't got it right. The closest post to my question is the following: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1042072/how-to-call-functions-that-are-nested-inside-a-jquery-plugin Below is the jquery plugin i am using. On resize, the element sizes are recalculated. I am now trying to call the function resizeBind() from outside of the jquery plugin and it gives me error I tried the following combinations to call the function $.fn.splitter().resizeBind() $.fn.splitter.resizeBind() Any ideas, where i am getting wrong? ;(function($){ $.fn.splitter = function(args){ //Other functions ...... $(window).bind("resize", function(){ resizeBind(); }); function resizeBind(){ var top = splitter.offset().top; var wh = $(window).height(); var ww = $(window).width(); var sh = 0; // scrollbar height if (ww <0 && !jQuery.browser.msie ) sh = 17; var footer = parseInt($("#footer").css("height")) || 26; splitter.css("height", wh-top-footer-sh+"px"); $("#tabsRight").css("height", splitter.height()-30+"px"); $(".contentTabs").css("height", splitter.height()-70+"px"); } return this.each(function() { }); }; })(jQuery);

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• Full and Partial Matching of Sets

  - by jeffrey

  I have several sets of the same type [Y, M, D] and am trying to write a function to search these sets and return an array of the available sets that fit my parameters. ReturnedSets = return_matches(Y,M,D); I want the three parameters of the function return_matches to be optional. Which means any combination of values can be used to return the sets. For example, one could write - return_matches(13,null,2); - and the function would look for all sets that contain [13, anyValue, 2]; I'm writing this in PHP, to allow users to manage dated files on my website, but I'd like to be able to use this function again for other uses. Thanks! edit: (This, or variations of this, is all I can come up with so far... There is something extra that I don't understand, because this function ends up / would not work to return sets that contain y and d, but leaving m arbitrary. if(y == s[0]){ if(m == s[1]){ if(d == s[2]){ print "day match"; } } else {print "month match";} } else {print "year match";} } else {print "no match";}

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• Code producing System.NullReferenceException error for Membership.GetUser(). This is VB.Net (ASP.Net 4)

  - by Derrek

  I have a Default.aspx page that is not static. I have added functionality with datalist and sqldatasources. When a user logins he/she will see items like saved workouts, saved equipment, total replys, etc... This is based on getting the currently logged in user UserID. Quite simply this works great when the user is logged in. However, I do not want to force a user to login to view the Default page because it does have functionality on it that does not require login. When a user is not logged in of course I receive the [System.NullReferenceException] error. I understand the error well but I do not know how to code to fix it. That is where I need help. I will admit I am more designer than developer. However, I do know the exception error I am receivving is caused by me not setting a value in my code when a user is not logged in. I do not know how to do that and have for a week made unsuccessful attempts at writing the code. Both sets of code below compile for VB.Net/ASP.Net 4/Visual Studio 2010 without errors. However, I still get the System.NullReferenceException error if not logged in. I know it can be done but I do not know the right syntax. If you can help please insert you code in mine or write it out. JUST TELLING ME WHERE TO GO TO FIND AN ANSWER WON'T HELP. I HAVE DONE THAT FOR 7 STRAIGHT DAYS. I APPRECIATE OUR HELP. Partial Class _Default Inherits System.Web.UI.Page Protected Sub SqlDataSource4_Selecting(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As SqlDataSourceCommandEventArgs) Handles SqlDataSource4.Selecting Dim MemUser As MembershipUser MemUser = Membership.GetUser() If Not MemUser Is DBNull.Value Then UserID.Text = MemUser.ProviderUserKey.ToString() e.Command.Parameters("@UserId").Value = MemUser.ProviderUserKey.ToString() End If End Sub -------------------------------------ORIGINAL CODE------------------------------- Partial Class _Default Inherits System.Web.UI.Page Protected Sub SqlDataSource4_Selecting(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As SqlDataSourceCommandEventArgs) Handles SqlDataSource4.Selecting Dim MemUser As MembershipUser MemUser = Membership.GetUser() UserID.Text = MemUser.ProviderUserKey.ToString() e.Command.Parameters("@UserId").Value = MemUser.ProviderUserKey.ToString() End Sub

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• How do I handle freeing unmanaged structures in C# on application close?

  - by LostKaleb

  I have a C# project in which i use several unmanaged C++ functions. More so, I also have static IntPtr that I use as parameters for those functions. I know that whenever I use them, I should implement IDisposable in that class and use a destructor to invoke the Dispose method, where I free the used IntPtr, as is said in the MSDN page. public void Dispose() { Dispose(true); GC.SuppressFinalize(this); } private void Dispose(bool disposing) { // Check to see if Dispose has already been called. if (!this.disposed) { if (disposing) { component.Dispose(); } CloseHandle(m_InstanceHandle); m_InstanceHandle = IntPtr.Zero; disposed = true; } } [System.Runtime.InteropServices.DllImport("Kernel32")] private extern static Boolean CloseHandle(IntPtr handle); However, when I terminate the application, I'm still left with a hanging process in TaskManager. I believe that it must be related to the used of the MarshalAs instruction in my structures: [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential, CharSet = CharSet.Ansi)] public struct SipxAudioCodec { [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.ByValTStr, SizeConst=32)] public string CodecName; public SipxAudioBandwidth Bandwidth; public int PayloadType; } When I create such a structure should I also be careful to free the space it allocs using a destructor? [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential, CharSet = CharSet.Ansi)] public struct SipxAudioCodec { [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.ByValTStr, SizeConst=32)] public string CodecName; public SipxAudioBandwidth Bandwidth; public int PayloadType; ~SipxAudioCodec() { Marshal.FreeGlobal(something...); } } Thanks in advance!

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• JavaScript: When does JavaScript evaluate a function, onload or when the function is called?

  - by Benj

  When does JavaScript evaluate a function? Is it on page load or when the function is called? The reason why I ask is because I have the following code: function scriptLoaded() { // one of our scripts finished loading, detect which scripts are available: var jQuery = window.jQuery; var maps = window.google && google.maps; if (maps && !requiresGmaps.called) { requiresGmaps.called = true; requiresGmaps(); } if (jQuery && !requiresJQuery.called) { requiresJQuery.called = true; requiresJQuery(); } if (maps && jQuery && !requiresBothJQueryGmaps.called) { requiresBothJQueryGmaps.called = true; requiresBothJQueryGmaps(); } } // asynch download of script function addScript(url) { var script = document.createElement('script'); script.src = url; // older IE... script.onreadystatechange=function () { if (this.readyState == 'complete') scriptLoaded.call(this); } script.onload=scriptLoaded; document.getElementsByTagName('head')[0].appendChild(script); } addScript('http://google.com/gmaps.js'); addScript('http://jquery.com/jquery.js'); // define some function dependecies function requiresJQuery() { // create JQuery objects } function requiresGmaps() { // create Google Maps object, etc } function requiresBothJQueryGmaps() { ... } What I want to do is perform asynchronous download of my JavaScript and start at the earliest possible time to begin executing those scripts but my code has dependencies on when the scripted have been obviously downloaded and loaded. When I try the code above, it appears that my browser is still attempting to evaluate code within my require* functions even before those functions have been called. Is this correct? Or am I misunderstanding what's wrong with my code?

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• How to catch this low level MySQL (?) error in PHP/Magento

  - by andnil

  When I'm executing the following statement in Magento with a really large $sku, the execution terminates without any errors thrown what so ever. There are no errors in either Magento's, Apache's or PHP's error logs. Mage::getModel('catalog/product')-loadByAttribute('sku', $sku); Question: How do I catch the error? I've tried to set custom error handlers, and for testing purposes I've also managed to trigger error situations where each of the error handler functions are invoked. But when running the previously mentioned Magento code with a large $sku, none of the error handling functions are executed. error_reporting( -1 ); set_error_handler( array( 'Error', 'captureNormal' ) ); set_exception_handler( array( 'Error', 'captureException' ) ); register_shutdown_function( array( 'Error', 'captureShutdown' ) ); For completeness, this is the $sku I'm passing to loadByAttribute(). (The sku is invalid, but that is not the issue) 1- 9685 0102046|1- 9685 1212100|1- 9685 1212092|1- 9685 1212096|1- 9685 1102100|1- 9685 1102108|1- 9685 1102112|1- 9685 1102092|1- 9685 0102048|1- 9685 0102054|1- 9685 0102056|1- 9685 0102058|1- 9685 1212104|1- 9685 1212108|1- 9685 0212058|1- 9685 0104050|1- 9685 0212050|1- 9685 0212056|1- 9685 0212044|1- 9685 0212048|1- 9685 0212052|1- 9685 0212054|1- 9685 1102104|1- 9685 1102124 Any insight into this matter is much appreciated! Update: Upon further investigation, this is the exact point in the code where execution terminates. when the foreach is executed I guess Magento goes into MySQL world and starts loading up data from the database. \Mage\Catalog\Model\Abstract.php public function loadByAttribute($attribute, $value, $additionalAttributes = '*') { $collection = $this->getResourceCollection() ->addAttributeToSelect($additionalAttributes) ->addAttributeToFilter($attribute, $value) ->setPage(1,1); foreach ($collection as $object) { // <--------------- HERE return $object; } return false; } Note, I'm ONLY interested in finding out how to properly CATCH these kinds of errors, not "fix" the logic. This is so that I can present a proper error message to the user. The example above with the malformed sku is contrived and I have no desire to make my Magento app work with those erroneous skus.

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• Is there a maximum number of input controls that can be used on an HTML form?

  - by Rich

  I have an ambitious requirement for an asp.net 2.0 web page that contains a table (gridview), and each row in the grid contains 6 select (dropdown) controls for data entry. The number of rows that will be displayed is dependent upon the user's search parameters, which are specified in another area of the page. Unfortunately, with the default (and even basic) search parameters specified, the grid could contain several hundred rows. I've noticed that the browser, in this case IE8, starts behaving rather erratically once I reach a large number of rows -- no documented evidence for the number of rows where this begins to be a problem. For example, trying to view the source of the page results in a message from IE stating that there was a problem with the page that forced the browser to reload it, and I never get the source. Obviously the page loads and renders rather slowly also. I know that my solution is probably going to involve paging the gridview such that it only displays 20 or so rows per page, and I'll have to write code to handle the saving of changes in the dropdown values when the user changes pages. I can probably turn off viewstate on the gridview also. However, the question I really want to pose is this -- has anyone seen a documented rule indicating the maximum number of input controls that an HTML browser form is supposed to be able to contain? I could not find anything on the Internet after doing a search, and I suspect the answer may be whatever the browser can handle based on the machine configuration it is running on. Any rules of thumb you use? Thanks for any suggestions. Rich

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• Best way to import a pack or "system" of new classes??

  - by Joe Blow

  Here's an Advanced question for Advanced developers. So I've written a largish "subsystem". It is essentially a UIViewController called CleverViewController which is a UIViewController. Now, there are a large number of supporting classes (about ten) that do the hard work: perform math functions, image processing, purely logical functions, build images or what have you with thousands of lines of code. (To do this, I simply started a new XCode project / app "Scratchpad" which does little other than load and launch the CleverViewController. So currently it works as an app, which launches CleverViewController. The ten or so classes I mention that are part of the "subsystem" simply sit there in that project/app.) So now, we will use CleverViewController, the new technology generally, in various apps. (Or perhaps friends would want to use it, etc.) What's the best way to "do" this? Have I screwed everything up, and really it should just be ONE (pretty big) class rather than a dozen classes? (I could understand that then as I would simply add that new (big) class where needed, like adding any other class.) Do I have to make a "framework" like the Apple frameworks? (If so, what the hell are they, how do you do it, etc?!?) In fact, do you just have to lamely include all of the dozen classes and that's that (obviously perhaps putting them in a grouped subfolder). What about all the headers and so on? (Currently I just have the dozen includes in the pch file of the scratchpad project.) Shouldn't it be easy to "maintain" this "subsystem" separately and so on? I'm afraid I know nothing about this: if the answer is obvious, hit me over the head and let me know. Thank you for any info on this !

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• Ordering z-indexes in an array

  - by Tom Gullen

  I have an array which looks something along the lines of resourceData[0][0] = "pic1.jpg"; resourceData[0][1] = 5; resourceData[1][0] = "pic2.jpg"; resourceData[1][1] = 2; resourceData[2][0] = "pic3.jpg"; resourceData[2][1] = 900; resourceData[3][0] = "pic4.jpg"; resourceData[3][1] = 1; The numeric represents the z-index of the image. Minimum z-index value is 1. Maximum (not really important) is 2000. I have all the rendering and setting z-indexes done fine. My question is, I want to have four functions: // Brings image to z front function bringToFront(resourceIndex) { // Set z-index to max + 1 resourceData[resourceIndex][1] = getBiggestZindex() + 1; // Change CSS property of image to bring to front $('#imgD' + resourceIndex).css("z-index", resourceData[resourceIndex][1]); } function bringUpOne(resourceIndex) { } function bringDownOne(resourceIndex) { } // Send to back z function sendToBack(resourceIndex) { } So given then index [3] (900 z): If we send it to the back, it will take the value 1, and [3] will have to go to 2, but that conflicts with [1] who has a 2 z-index so they need to go to three etc. Is there an easy programatical way of doing this because as soon as I start doing this it's going to get messy. It's important that the indexes of the array don't change. We can't sort the array unfortunately due to design. Update Thanks for answers, I'll post the functions here once they are written incase anyone comes across this in the future (note this code has zindex listed in [6]) // Send to back z function sendToBack(resourceIndex) { resourceData[resourceIndex][6] = 1; $('#imgD' + resourceIndex).css("z-index", 1); for (i = 0; i < resourceData.length; i++) { if (i != resourceIndex) { resourceData[i][6]++; $('#imgD' + i).css("z-index", resourceData[i][6]); } } }

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• MySQL Join/Comparison on a DATETIME column (<5.6.4 and > 5.6.4)

  - by Simon

  Suppose i have two tables like so: Events ID (PK int autoInc), Time (datetime), Caption (varchar) Position ID (PK int autoinc), Time (datetime), Easting (float), Northing (float) Is it safe to, for example, list all the events and their position if I am using the Time field as my joining criteria? I.e.: SELECT E.*,P.* FROM Events E JOIN Position P ON E.Time = P.Time OR, even just simply comparing a datetime value (taking into consideration that the parameterized value may contain the fractional seconds part - which MySQL has always accepted) e.g. SELECT E.* FROM Events E WHERE E.Time = @Time I understand MySQL (before version 5.6.4) only stores datetime fields WITHOUT milliseconds. So I would assume this query would function OK. However as of version 5.6.4, I have read MySQL can now store milliseconds with the datetime field. Assuming datetime values are inserted using functions such as NOW(), the milliseconds are truncated (<5.6.4) which I would assume allow the above query to work. However, with version 5.6.4 and later, this could potentially NOT work. I am, and only ever will be interested in second accuracy. If anyone could answer the following questions would be greatly appreciated: In General, how does MySQL compare datetime fields against one another (consider the above query). Is the above query fine, and does it make use of indexes on the time fields? (MySQL < 5.6.4) Is there any way to exclude milliseconds? I.e. when inserting and in conditional joins/selects etc? (MySQL 5.6.4) Will the join query above work? (MySQL 5.6.4) EDIT I know i can cast the datetimes, thanks for those that answered, but i'm trying to tackle the root of the problem here (the fact that the storage type/definition has been changed) and i DO NOT want to use functions in my queries. This negates all my work of optimizing queries applying indexes etc, not to mention having to rewrite all my queries. EDIT2 Can anyone out there suggest a reason NOT to join on a DATETIME field using second accuracy?

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• Make a PHP GET request from a PHP script and exit

  - by Abs

  Hello all, Is there something simpler than the following. I am trying to make a GET request to a PHP script and then exit the current script. I think this is a job for CURL but is there something simpler as I don't want to really worry about enabling the CURL php extension? In addition, will the below start the PHP script and then just come back and not wait for it to finish? //set GET variables $url = 'http://domain.com/get-post.php'; $fields = array( 'lname'=>urlencode($last_name), 'fname'=>urlencode($first_name) ); //url-ify the data for the GET foreach($fields as $key=>$value) { $fields_string .= $key.'='.$value.'&'; } rtrim($fields_string,'&'); //open connection $ch = curl_init(); //set the url, number of POST vars, POST data curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_URL,$url); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_GET,count($fields)); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_GETFIELDS,$fields_string); //execute GET $result = curl_exec($ch); //close connection curl_close($ch); I want to run the other script which contains functions when a condition is met so a simple include won't work as the if condition wraps around the functions, right? Please note, I am on windows machine and the code I am writing will only be used on a Windows OS. Thanks all for any help and advice

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• Force calling the derived class implementation within a generic function in C#?

  - by Adam Hardy

  Ok so I'm currently working with a set of classes that I don't have control over in some pretty generic functions using these objects. Instead of writing literally tens of functions that essentially do the same thing for each class I decided to use a generic function instead. Now the classes I'm dealing with are a little weird in that the derived classes share many of the same properties but the base class that they are derived from doesn't. One such property example is .Parent which exists on a huge number of derived classes but not on the base class and it is this property that I need to use. For ease of understanding I've created a small example as follows: class StandardBaseClass {} // These are simulating the SMO objects class StandardDerivedClass : StandardBaseClass { public object Parent { get; set; } } static class Extensions { public static object GetParent(this StandardDerivedClass sdc) { return sdc.Parent; } public static object GetParent(this StandardBaseClass sbc) { throw new NotImplementedException("StandardBaseClass does not contain a property Parent"); } // This is the Generic function I'm trying to write and need the Parent property. public static void DoSomething<T>(T foo) where T : StandardBaseClass { object Parent = ((T)foo).GetParent(); } } In the above example calling DoSomething() will throw the NotImplemented Exception in the base class's implementation of GetParent(), even though I'm forcing the cast to T which is a StandardDerivedClass. This is contrary to other casting behaviour where by downcasting will force the use of the base class's implementation. I see this behaviour as a bug. Has anyone else out there encountered this?

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• Work with function references

  - by Ockonal

  Hello, I have another one question about functions reference. For example, I have such definition: typedef boost::function<bool (Entity &handle)> behaviorRef; std::map< std::string, ptr_vector<behaviorRef> > eventAssociation; The first question is: how to insert values into such map object? I tried: eventAssociation.insert(std::pair< std::string, ptr_vector<behaviorRef> >(eventType, ptr_vector<behaviorRef>(callback))); But the error: no matching function for call to ‘boost::ptr_vector<boost::function<bool(Entity&)> >::push_back(Entity::behaviorRef&)’ And I undersatnd it, but can't make workable code. The second question is how to call such functions? For example, I have one object of behaviorRef, how to call it with boost::bind with passing my own values?

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• LNK4221 and LNK4006 Warnings!

  - by user295030

  Hi, I basically making a static library of my own. I have taken my code which works and now put it into a static library for another program to use. In my library I am using another static library which I don't want the people who will be using my API to know. Since, I want to hide that information from them I can't tell them to install the other static library. Anyway, I used the command line Lib.exe to extract and create a smaller lib file of just the obj's I used. However, I get a bunch of "LNK4006 :second definition ignored" linker warnings for each obj I use followed by "LNK4221 no public symbols found;archive member will be inaccessible". I am doing this work in vs2008 and I am not sure what I am doing wrong. I am using the #pragma comment line in my .cpp file I have also modified the librarian to add my smaller .lib along with its location. my code simply makes calls to a couple functions which it should be able to get from those Obj file in the smaller lib. All my functions are implemented in .cpp file and my header just have the includes of the third party header files and come standard c++ header files. nothing fancy. I have actually no function definitions in there atm. I was going to put the API definition in there and implement that in the .cpp for this static lib that i was going to make. However, I just wanted to build my code before I added more to it. s Any help would be appreciated. is this a vs2008 configuration issue? or a program issue I am not sure. thanks for the help!

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• What is a good RPC model for building a AJAX web app using PHP & JS?

  - by user366152

  I'm new to writing AJAX applications. I plan on using jQuery on the client side while PHP on the server side. I want to use something like XML-RPC to simplify my effort in calling server-side code. Ideally, I wouldn't care whether the transport layer uses XML or JSON or a format more optimized for the wire. If I was writing a console app I'd use some tool to generate function stubs which I would then implement on the RPC server while the client would natively call into those stubs. This provides a clean separation. Is there something similar available in the AJAX world? While on this topic, how would I proceed with session management? I would want it to be as transparent as possible. For example, if I try to hit an RPC end-point which needs a valid session, it should reject the request if the client doesn't pass a valid session cookie. This would really ease my application development. I'd then have to simply handle the frontend using native JS functions. While on the backend, I can simply implement the RPC functions. BTW I dont wish to use Google Web Toolkit. My app wont be extremely heavy on AJAX.

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• Delphi static method of a class returning property value

  - by mitko.berbatov

  I'm making a Delphi VCL application. There is a class TStudent where I have two static functions: one which returns last name from an array of TStudent and another one which returns the first name of the student. Their code is something like: class function TStudent.FirstNameOf(aLastName: string): string; var i : integer; begin for i := 0 to Length(studentsArray) - 1 do begin if studentsArray[i].LastName = aLastName then begin result := studentsArray[i].FirstName; Exit; end; end; result := 'no match was found'; end; class function TStudent.LastNameOf(aFirstName: string): string; var i : integer; begin for i := 0 to Length(studentsArray) - 1 do begin if studentsArray[i].FirstName = aFirstName then begin result := studentsArray[i].LastName; Exit; end; end; result := 'no match was found'; end; My question is how can I avoid writing almost same code twice. Is there any way to pass the property as parameter of the functions.

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• C++, inject additional data in a method

  - by justik

  I am adding the new modul in some large library. All methods here are implemented as static. Let mi briefly describe the simplified model: typedef std::vector<double> TData; double test ( const TData &arg ) { return arg ( 0 ) * sin ( arg ( 1 ) + ...;} double ( * p_test ) ( const TData> &arg) = &test; class A { public: static T f1 (TData &input) { .... //some computations B::f2 (p_test); } }; Inside f1() some computations are perfomed and a static method B::f2 is called. The f2 method is implemented by another author and represents some simulation algorithm (example here is siplified). class B { public: static double f2 (double ( * p_test ) ( const TData &arg ) ) { //difficult algorithm working p_test many times double res = p_test(arg); } }; The f2 method has a pointer to some weight function (here p_test). But in my case some additional parameters computed in f1 for test() methods are required double test ( const TData &arg, const TData &arg2, char *arg3.... ) { } How to inject these parameters into test() (and so to f2) to avoid changing the source code of the f2 methods (that is not trivial), redesign of the library and without dirty hacks :-) ? The most simple step is to override f2 static double f2 (double ( * p_test ) ( const TData &arg ), const TData &arg2, char *arg3.... ) But what to do later? Consider, that methods are static, so there will be problems with objects. Thanks for your help.

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• C++ Function pointers vs Switch

  - by Perfix

  What is faster: Function pointers or switch? The switch statement would have around 30 cases, consisting of enumarated unsigned ints from 0 to 30. I could do the following: class myType { FunctionEnum func; string argv[123]; int someOtherValue; }; // In another file: myType current; // Iterate through a vector containing lots of myTypes // ... for ( i=0; i < myVecSize; i ++ ) switch ( current.func ) { case 1: //... break; // ........ case 30: // blah break; } And go trough the switch with func every time. The good thing about switch would also be that my code is more organized than with 30 functions. Or I could do that (not so sure with that): class myType { myReturnType (*func); string argv[123]; int someOtherValue; }; I'd have 30 different functions then, at the beginning a pointer to one of them is assigned to myType. What is probably faster: Switch statement or function pointer? Calls per second: Around 10 million. I can't just test it out - that would require me to rewrite the whole thing. Currently using switch. I'm building an interpreter which I want to be faster than Python & Ruby - every clock cycle matters!

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• JQuery/AJAX: Loading external DIVs using dynamic content

  - by ticallian

  I need to create a page that will load divs from an external page using Jquery and AJAX. I have come across a few good tutorials, but they are all based on static content, my links and content are generated by PHP. The main tutorial I am basing my code on is from: http://yensdesign.com/2008/12/how-to-load-content-via-ajax-in-jquery/ The exact function i need is as follows: Main page contains a permanent div listing some links containing a parameter. Upon click, link passes parameter to external page. External page filters recordset against parameter and populates div with results. The new div contains a new set of links with new parameters. The external div is loaded underneath the main pages first div. Process can then be repeated creating a chain of divs under each other. The last div in the chain will then direct to a new page collating all the previously used querystrings. I can handle all of the PHP work with populating the divs on the main and external pages. It's the JQuery and AJAX part i'm struggling with. $(document).ready(function(){ var sections = $('a[id^=link_]'); // Link that passes parameter to external page var content = $('div[id^=content_]'); // Where external div is loaded to sections.click(function(){ //load selected section switch(this.id){ case "div01": content.load("external.php?param=1 #section_div01"); break; case "div02": content.load("external.php?param=2 #section_div02"); break; } }); The problem I am having is getting JQuery to pass the dynamically generated parameters to the external page and then retrieve the new div. I can currently only do this with static links (As above).

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• How to get VC# to rebuild auto-generated .cs files?

  - by Jive Dadson

  I imagine this question has been asked and answered, but I cannot find it. I wanted to make a simple GUI to interface to a windows 7 command. I usually use Wx, but since this was to be a windows-only thing, I decided to see if I could whip it out real fast using Visual C# 2010 Express, which I had never used before. Things started off just great. I created a form, put a few buttons and text boxes and such on it, and hit Debug. It came up and ran just like that. No muss, no fuss. So I then designed the form just the way I wanted it, renamed the controls from "Button1" and so forth to meaningful names. But now it's a mess. By clicking around, I discovered that VC# had auto-generated two files called Form1.cs and Form1.Designer.cs. The later contains the bindings between functions and the events generated from user-clicks etc., and the former contains no-op code for those functions, for me to complete. Problem is, the names are all still the original "Button1" and so forth, not the new ones, and the new controls I added after running the first time do not appear at all. I want it to regenerate all that stuff afresh from the finished form. How to?

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• Should I re-use UI elements across view controllers?

  - by Endemic

  In the iPhone app I'm currently working on, I'd like two navigation controllers (I'll call them A and B) to have toolbars that are identical in appearance and function. The toolbar in question will look like this: [(button) (flexible-space) (label)] For posterity's sake, the label is actually a UIBarButtonItem with a custom view. My design requires that A always appear directly before B on the navigation stack, so B will never be loaded without A having been loaded. Given this layout, I started wondering, "Is it worth it to re-use A's toolbar items in B's toolbar?" As I see it, my options are: 1. Don't worry about re-use, create the toolbar items twice 2. Create the toolbar items in A and pass them to B in a custom initializer 3. Use some more obscure method that I haven't thought of to hold the toolbar constant when pushing a view controller As far as I can see, option 1 may violate DRY, but guarantees that there won't be any confusion on the off chance that (for example) the button may be required to perform two different (no matter how similar) functions for either view controller in future versions of the app. Were that to happen, options 2 or 3 would require the target-action of the button to change when B is loaded and unloaded. Even if the button were never required to perform different functions, I'm not sure what its proper target would be under option 2. All in all, it's not a huge problem, even if I have to go with option 1. I'm probably overthinking this anyway, trying to apply the dependency injection pattern where it's not appropriate. I just want to know the best practice should this situation arise in a more extreme form, like if a long chain of view controllers need to use identical (in appearance and function) UI elements.

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• Tools for Automated Source Code Editing

  - by Steve

  I'm working on a research project to automatically modify code to include advanced mathematical concepts (like adding random effects into a loop or encapsulating an existing function with a new function that adds in a more advanced physical model). My question to the community is: are there are any good tools for manipulating source code directly? I want to do things like Swap out functions Add variable declarations wherever they are required Determine if a function is multiplied by anything Determine what functions are called on a line of code See what parameters are passed to a function and replace them with alternatives Introduce new function calls on certain lines of code Wherever possible just leaving the rest of the code untouched and write out the results I never want to actually compile the code I only want to understand what symbols are used, replace and add in a syntactically correct way, and be able to declare variables at the right position. I've been using a minimal flex/bison approach with some success but I do not feel the it is robust. I hate to take on writing a full language parser just to add some new info to the end of a line or the top of a function. It seems like this is almost what is going to be required but it also seems like there should be some tools out there to do these types of manipulations already. The code to be changed is in a variety of languages, but I'm particularly interested in FORTRAN. Any thoughts?

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• loading remote page into DOM with javascript

  - by scoobydoo

  I am trying to write a web widget which will allow users to display customized information (from my website) in their own web page. The mechanism I want to use (for creating the web widget) is javascript. So basically, I want to be able to write some javascript code like this (this is what the end user copies into their HTML page, to get my widget displayed in their page) <script type="text/javascript"> /* javascript here to fetch page from remote url and insert into DOM */ </script> I have two questions: how do I write a javascript code to fetch the page from the remote url? Ideally this will be PLAIN javascript (i.e. not using jQuery etc - since I dont want to force the user to get third party scripts jQuery which may conflict with other scripts on their page etc) The page I am fetching contains inline javascript, which gets executed in an body.onLoad event, as well as other functions which are used in response to user actions - my questions are: i). will the body.onLoad event be triggered for the retrieved document?. ii). If the retrieved page is dumped directly into the DOM, then the document will contain two <body> sections, which is no longer valid (X)HTML - however, I need the body.onLoad event to be triggered for the page to be setup correctly, and I also need the other functions in the retrieved page, for the retrieved page to be able to respond to the user interaction. Any suggestions/tips on how I can solve these problems?

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• pathogen#infect not updating the runtimepath

  - by Taylor Price

  I have started working with pathogen.vim with gvim on Windows, following Tim Pope's setup guide at his github repository here. However, I'm running into the problem that pathogen#infect() does not seem to be modifying the runtimepath (as seen by running :echo &runtimepath in gvim). The simple test case _vimrc that I came up with is as follows. Please note that pathogen gets loaded just fine. "Set a base directory. let $BASE_DIR='H:\development\github\vimrc' "Source pathogen since it's not in the normal autoload directory. source $BASE_DIR\autoload\pathogen.vim "Start up pathogen call pathogen#infect() "call pathogen#infect('$BASE_DIR\functions') Neither running pathogen#infect() without an argument (which should add the bundles directory under the vimfiles directory) nor specifying a directory to contain files works. Substituting the pathogen#infect() call with pathogen#runtime_prepend_subdirectories('$BASE_DIR\functions'), which is what pathogen#infect() does fails to change the runtimepath as well. Any ideas that I've missed? Any more information that would be helpful? My repository with the non-trivial example is here.

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