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  • T-SQL query with date range

    - by Moo
    Hi, I have a fairly weird 'bug' with a simple query, and I vaguely remember reading the reason for it somewhere a long time ago but would love someone to refresh my memory. The table is a basic ID, Datetime table. The query is: select ID, Datetime from Table where Datetime <= '2010-03-31 23:59:59' The problem is that the query results include results where the Datetime is '2010-04-01 00:00:00'. The next day. Which it shouldn't. Anyone? Cheers Moo

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  • Choose a XML node in SQL Server based on max value of a child element

    - by Jay
    I am trying to select from SQL Server 2005 XML datatype some values based on the max data that is located in a child node. I have multiple rows with XML similar to the following stored in a field in SQL Server: <user> <name>Joe</name> <token> <id>ABC123</id> <endDate>2013-06-16 18:48:50.111</endDate> </token> <token> <id>XYX456</id> <endDate>2014-01-01 18:48:50.111</endDate> </token> </user> I want to perform a select from this XML column where it determines the max date within the token element and would return the datarows similar to the result below for each record: Joe XYZ456 2014-01-01 18:48:50.111 I have tried to find a max function for xpath that would all me to select the correct token element but I couldn't find one that would work. I also tried to use the SQL MAX function but I wasn't able to get it working with that method either. If I only have a single token it of course works fine but when I have more than one I get a NULL, most likely because the query doesn't know which date to pull. I was hoping there would be a way to specify a where clause [max(endDate)] on the token element but haven't found a way to do that. Here is an example of the one that works when I only have a single token: SELECT XMLCOL.query('user/name').value('.','NVARCHAR(20)') as name XMLCOL.query('user/token/id').value('.','NVARCHAR(20)') as id XMLCOL.query('user/token/endDate').value(,'xs:datetime(.)','DATETIME') as endDate FROM MYTABLE

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  • Stored procedure woes ... inserting binary ...

    - by Wardy
    Ok so I have this storedproc in my SQL 2008 database (works in 2005 too / used to) ... CREATE PROCEDURE [dbo].[SetBinaryContent] @Ref nvarchar(50), @Content varbinary(MAX), @ObjectID uniqueidentifier AS BEGIN DELETE ObjectContent WHERE ObjectId = @ObjectID AND Ref = @Ref IF DATALENGTH(@Content) > 5 BEGIN INSERT INTO ObjectContent (Ref,BinaryContent,ObjectId) VALUES (@Ref,@Content,@ObjectId) END UPDATE Objects SET [Status] = 1 WHERE ID = @ObjectID END Relatively simple, I take a byte array in C# and chuck it in @Content i then give it a guid and string for the other params and off we go. ... Great, it used to work ... but it don't anymore ... so erm ... What's wrong with this stored proc? I've stepped through my C# code thinking I screwed up somehow in that but it definately adds the params and gives them the correct values so what would cause the server to just stop executing this storedproc correctly? When called this proc executes but nothing changes in the db ... no new records are added to the ObjectContent table. Weird huh ...

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  • Query column and everything subordinate (hard to describe, non native speaker, PLS let me explain)

    - by MAD9
    A few weeks ago, I asked a question about how to generate hierarchical XML from a table, that has a parentID column. It all works fine. The point is, according to the hierarchy, I also want to query a table. I'll give you an example: Thats the table with the codes: ID CODE NAME PARENTID 1 ROOT IndustryCode NULL 2 IND Industry 1 3 CON Consulting 1 4 FIN Finance 1 5 PHARM Pharmaceuticals 2 6 AUTO Automotive 2 7 STRAT Strategy 3 8 IMPL Implementation 3 9 CFIN Corporate Finance 4 10 CMRKT Capital Markets 9 From which I generate (for displaying in a TreeViewControl) this XML: <record key="1" parentkey="" Code="ROOT" Name="IndustryCode"> <record key="2" parentkey="1" Code="IND" Name="Industry"> <record key="5" parentkey="2" Code="PHARM" Name="Pharmaceuticals" /> <record key="6" parentkey="2" Code="AUTO" Name="Automotive" /> </record> <record key="3" parentkey="1" Code="CON" Name="Consulting"> <record key="7" parentkey="3" Code="STRAT" Name="Strategy" /> <record key="8" parentkey="3" Code="IMPL" Name="Implementation" /> </record> <record key="4" parentkey="1" Code="FIN" Name="Finance"> <record key="9" parentkey="4" Code="CFIN" Name="Corporate Finance"> <record key="10" parentkey="9" Code="CMRKT" Name="Capital Markets" /> </record> </record> </record> As you can see, some codes are subordinate to others, for example AUTO << IND << ROOT What I want (and have absolutely no idea how to realise or even, where to start) is to be able to query another table (where one column is this certain code of course) for a code and get all records with the specific code and all subordinate codes For example: I query the other table for "IndustryCode = IND[ustry]" and get (of course) the records containing "IND", but also AUTO[motive] and PHARM[aceutical] (= all subordinates) Its an SQL Express Server 2008 with Advanced Services.

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  • 3 tier application pattern suggestion

    - by Maxim Gershkovich
    I have attempted to make my first 3 tier application. In the process I have run into one problem I am yet to find an optimal solution for. Basically all my objects use an IFillable interface which forces the implementation of a sub as follows Public Sub Fill(ByVal Datareader As Data.IDataReader) Implements IFillable.Fill This sub then expects the Ids from the datareader will be identical to the properties of the object as such. Me.m_StockID = Datareader.GetGuid(Datareader.GetOrdinal("StockID")) In the end I end up with a datalayer that looks something like this. Public Shared Function GetStockByID(ByVal ConnectionString As String, ByVal StockID As Guid) As Stock Dim res As New Stock Using sqlConn As New SqlConnection(ConnectionString) sqlConn.Open() res.Fill(StockDataLayer.GetStockByIDQuery(sqlConn, StockID)) End Using Return res End Function Mostly this pattern seems to make sense. However my problem is, lets say I want to implement a property for Stock called StockBarcodeList. Under the above mentioned pattern any way I implement this property I will need to pass a connectionstring to it which obviously breaks my attempt at layer separation. Does anyone have any suggestions on how I might be able to solve this problem or am I going about this the completely wrong way? Does anyone have any suggestions on how I might improve my implementation? Please note however I am deliberately trying to avoid using the dataset in any form.

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  • What is the scope of TRANSACTION in Sql server

    - by Shantanu Gupta
    I was creating a stored procedure and i got stuck in the writing methodology of me and my collegue. I am using SQL Server 2005 I was writing Stored procedure like this BEGIN TRAN BEGIN TRY INSERT INTO Tags.tblTopic (Topic, TopicCode, Description) VALUES(@Topic, @TopicCode, @Description) INSERT INTO Tags.tblSubjectTopic (SubjectId, TopicId) VALUES(@SubjectId, @@IDENTITY) COMMIT TRAN END TRY BEGIN CATCH DECLARE @Error VARCHAR(1000) SET @Error= 'ERROR NO : '+ERROR_NUMBER() + ', LINE NO : '+ ERROR_LINE() + ', ERROR MESSAGE : '+ERROR_MESSAGE() PRINT @Error ROLLBACK TRAN END CATCH And my collegue was writing it like the below one BEGIN TRY BEGIN TRAN INSERT INTO Tags.tblTopic (Topic, TopicCode, Description) VALUES(@Topic, @TopicCode, @Description) INSERT INTO Tags.tblSubjectTopic (SubjectId, TopicId) VALUES(@SubjectId, @@IDENTITY) COMMIT TRAN END TRY BEGIN CATCH DECLARE @Error VARCHAR(1000) SET @Error= 'ERROR NO : '+ERROR_NUMBER() + ', LINE NO : '+ ERROR_LINE() + ', ERROR MESSAGE : '+ERROR_MESSAGE() PRINT @Error ROLLBACK TRAN END CATCH Here the only difference that you will find is the position of writing Begin TRAN. According to me the methodology of my collegue should not work when an exception occurs i.e. Rollback should not get executed because TRAN does'nt have scope. But when i tried to run both the code, both was working in the same way. I am confused to know how does TRANSACTION works. Is it scope free or what ?

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  • T-SQL: How Do I Create A "Private" Function Inside A Stored Procedure

    - by RPM1984
    Okay so im writing a SQL Server 2008 Stored Procedure (maintenance script). In doing so, being a good boy i've done plenty of error handling, checking rowcounts, printing output messages, etc But in doing this, ive found myself writing over and over again something like this: SELECT @RowsAffected = @@ROWCOUNT IF @RowsAffected > 0 BEGIN PRINT CAST(@RowsAffected, NVARCHAR(2)) + 'rows updated.' END Or debug messages like this: PRINT 'User ' + CAST(@UserId AS NVARCHAR(5)) + ' modified successfully' Is there a way i can create a kind of 'subroutine' inside the stored procedure (like a private method) that can accept something as a parameter (doesnt have to though) and do some logic? I want to be able to do something like this: CheckRowCounts Or this: PrintUserUpatedMessage(@UserId) Which would then perform the above logic (check rowcount, print message, etc) And yes obviously i can create a UDF, but then i would need to create/drop it etc as this logic is only required for the life of the execution of this stored procedure. Getting sick and tired of writing the same code over and over again, and changing all the different areas ive used it when i get an error =) Can anyone help?

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  • Stored Procedure Does Not Fire Last Command

    - by jp2code
    On our SQL Server (Version 10.0.1600), I have a stored procedure that I wrote. It is not throwing any errors, and it is returning the correct values after making the insert in the database. However, the last command spSendEventNotificationEmail (which sends out email notifications) is not being run. I can run the spSendEventNotificationEmail script manually using the same data, and the notifications show up, so I know it works. Is there something wrong with how I call it in my stored procedure? [dbo].[spUpdateRequest](@packetID int, @statusID int output, @empID int, @mtf nVarChar(50)) AS BEGIN -- SET NOCOUNT ON added to prevent extra result sets from -- interfering with SELECT statements. SET NOCOUNT ON; DECLARE @id int SET @id=-1 -- Insert statements for procedure here SELECT A.ID, PacketID, StatusID INTO #act FROM Action A JOIN Request R ON (R.ID=A.RequestID) WHERE (PacketID=@packetID) AND (StatusID=@statusID) IF ((SELECT COUNT(ID) FROM #act)=0) BEGIN -- this statusID has not been entered. Continue SELECT ID, MTF INTO #req FROM Request WHERE PacketID=@packetID WHILE (0 < (SELECT COUNT(ID) FROM #req)) BEGIN SELECT TOP 1 @id=ID FROM #req INSERT INTO Action (RequestID, StatusID, EmpID, DateStamp) VALUES (@id, @statusID, @empID, GETDATE()) IF ((@mtf IS NOT NULL) AND (0 < LEN(RTRIM(@mtf)))) BEGIN UPDATE Request SET MTF=@mtf WHERE ID=@id END DELETE #req WHERE ID=@id END DROP TABLE #req SELECT @id=@@IDENTITY, @statusID=StatusID FROM Action SELECT TOP 1 @statusID=ID FROM Status WHERE (@statusID<ID) AND (-1 < Sequence) EXEC spSendEventNotificationEmail @packetID, @statusID, 'http:\\cpweb:8100\NextStep.aspx' END ELSE BEGIN SET @statusID = -1 END DROP TABLE #act END Idea of how the data tables are connected:

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  • SQL Distinct keyword in assignment statement

    - by Brandi
    I have a query that works: DECLARE @ProductID int SET @ProductID = '1234' SELECT DISTINCT TOP 12 a.ProductID FROM A a WHERE a.CategoryID IN (SELECT b.CategoryID FROM B b WHERE b.ProductID = @ProductID) AND a.ProductID != @ProductID It returns a list of 12 product numbers, all unique. I need to store these results in a variable, comma separated, because that's what 3rd party stored procedure needs. So I have this: DECLARE @ProductID int DECLARE @relatedprods varchar(8000) SET @ProductID = '1234' SET @relatedprods = '' SELECT TOP 12 @relatedprods = @relatedprods + CONVERT(VARCHAR(20), a.ProductID) + ', ' FROM A a WHERE a.CategoryID IN (SELECT b.CategoryID FROM B b WHERE B.ProductID = @ProductID) AND a.ProductID != @ProductID SELECT @relatedprods Now, none of these are distinct, but it is returning 12 rows. Now I add the 'distinct' back in, like in the first query: DECLARE @ProductID int DECLARE @relatedprods varchar(8000) SET @ProductID = '1234' SET @relatedprods = '' SELECT DISTINCT TOP 12 @relatedprods = @relatedprods + CONVERT(VARCHAR(20), a.ProductID) + ', ' FROM A a WHERE a.CategoryID IN (SELECT b.CategoryID FROM B b WHERE B.ProductID = @ProductID) AND a.ProductID != @ProductID SELECT @relatedprods Only one product is returned in the comma separated list! Does 'distinct' not work in assignment statements? What did I do wrong? Or is there a way to get around this? Thanks in advance!

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  • Random Number on SQL without using NewID()

    - by Angel Escobedo
    Hello I want to generate a Unique Random number with out using the follow statement : Convert(int, (CHECKSUM(NEWID()))*100000) AS [ITEM] Cause when I use joins clauses on "from" it generates double registers by using NEWID() Im using SQL Server 2000 *PD : When I use Rand() it probably repeat on probability 1 of 100000000 but this is so criticall so it have to be 0% of probability to repeat a random value generated My Query with NewID() and result on SELECT statement is duplicated (x2) My QUery without NewID() and using Rand() on SELECT statement is single (x1) but the probability of repeat the random value generated is uncertainly but exists! Thanks!

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  • SQL - Updating records based on most recent date

    - by Remnant
    I am having difficulty updating records within a database based on the most recent date and am looking for some guidance. By the way, I am new to SQL. As background, I have a windows forms application with SQL Express and am using ADO.NET to interact with the database. The application is designed to enable the user to track employee attendance on various courses that must be attended on a periodic basis (e.g. every 6 months, every year etc.). For example, they can pull back data to see the last time employees attended a given course and also update attendance dates if an employee has recently completed a course. I have three data tables: EmployeeDetailsTable - simple list of employees names, email address etc., each with unique ID CourseDetailsTable - simple list of courses, each with unique ID (e.g. 1, 2, 3 etc.) AttendanceRecordsTable - has 3 columns { EmployeeID, CourseID, AttendanceDate, Comments } For any given course, an employee will have an attendance history i.e. if the course needs to be attended each year then they will have one record for as many years as they have been at the company. What I want to be able to do is to update the 'Comments' field for a given employee and given course based on the most recent attendance date. What is the 'correct' SQL syntax for this? I have tried many things (like below) but cannot get it to work: UPDATE AttendanceRecordsTable SET Comments = @Comments WHERE AttendanceRecordsTable.EmployeeID = (SELECT EmployeeDetailsTable.EmployeeID FROM EmployeeDetailsTable WHERE (EmployeeDetailsTable.LastName =@ParameterLastName AND EmployeeDetailsTable.FirstName =@ParameterFirstName) AND AttendanceRecordsTable.CourseID = (SELECT CourseDetailsTable.CourseID FROM CourseDetailsTable WHERE CourseDetailsTable.CourseName =@CourseName)) GROUP BY MAX(AttendanceRecordsTable.LastDate) After much googling, I discovered that MAX is an aggregate function and so I need to use GROUP BY. I have also tried using the HAVING keyword but without success. Can anybody point me in the right direction? What is the 'conventional' syntax to update a database record based on the most recent date?

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  • UNIQUE CONSTRAINT on a column from foreign table in SQL Server 2008

    - by bodziec
    I have two tables: create table [dbo].[Main] ( [ID] [int] identity(1,1) primary key not null, [Sign] [char](1) not null ) create table [dbo].[Names] ( [ID_Main][int] primary key not null, [Name][nvarchar](128) not null, constraint [FK_Main_Users] foreign key ([ID_Main]) references [dbo].[Main]([ID]), constraint [CK_Name] unique ([Name], [Sign]) ) The problem is with the second constraint CK_Name Is there a way to make a constraint target column from a foreign table?

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  • SSIS Runs Okay Individual Tasks, Not Together

    - by davemackey
    I have a simple SSIS Project. In the control flow I have three steps: Step 1: Select Data from Db1.Table1 Step 2: Create Table2 in Db2 Step 3: Copy Data in Db1.Table1 to Db2.Table2 If I "Execute Task" one by one in order, it executes fine...but if I try running the entire project I receive the following error: Error at Copy Data from Table1 to DB2 dbo Table2 Task [OLE DB Destination[40]]: SSIS Error Code DTS_E_OLEDBERROR. An OLE DB error has occurred. Error code: 0x80040E37. An OLE DB record is available. Source: "Microsoft OLE DB Provider for SQL Server" Hresult: 0x80040E37 Description: "Invalid object name 'DB2.dbo.Table2".".

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  • Get all related products based on their full-text search relationship

    - by MikeJ
    I have a Product table with the fields Id, Title, Description, Keywords (just comma separated list of keywords). Table is full-text indexed. When I view one product, I do a query and search the full-text catalog for any related products based on the Keywords field. select * from Products where Contains(Products.*, @keywordsFromOneProduct) Works like a charm. Now I would like to list all products and all their related products in a big list and I want to avoid calling this method for each item. Any ideas how could I do it? I was thinking about a job that would go through products one by one and build a one-many mapping table (fields ProductId, RelatedProductId), but I wonder is there a better way?

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  • SQL Server 2008 FTS CONTAINSTABLE Not Returning More Than Five Rows

    - by Elijah Glover
    I have a single table called "Indexes", it contains one nvarchar and three ntext columns (all Full Text Indexes). Index is up to date. CONTAINSTABLE(Indexes, *), 'test', 5) //5 results No matter what I change the above keyword too, it only returns the first 3-5 results. It should roughly return 90-120 results, for the above query. SELECT count(*) FROM Indexes WHERE [Description] like '%test%' //122 results How would I start to troubleshoot this problem?

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  • Constructing T-SQL WHERE condition at runtime

    - by Nickson
    I would like to implement a search function where a user passes all the arguments to the "WHERE" clause at runtime. For example in query below, SELECT Col1, Col2, Col3, Col4 FROM MyTable WHERE Col2 = John 1.Now what i want is to give the user a dropdownlist of columnns such that the user selects a column to search by at runtime Also instead of precoding Col2 = John, i want the user to choose their own operator at runtime(such as choosing between =, <, <, <, LIKE, IN) i basically want to contruct a query like SELECT Col1, Col2, Col3, Col4 FROM MyTable WHERE (@FieldToSearchBy e.g Col3, @OperatorToUserInSearach e.g LIKE, @ValueToSearch e.g John) I want to pass @FieldToSearchBy, @OperatorToUserInSearach, @ValueToSearch) as user specified parameters at runtime I want to do this with a TableAdpter like in this example http://www.codeproject.com/KB/database/TableAdapter.aspx

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  • Handling Datetime with decimal '2010-02-14 20:18:58.313000000'

    - by AaronLS
    In SQL Server I have some textual data in varchar fields I am trying to convert to datetime's. The funny thing is this data at some point was in a datetime field, exported to flat file, and now I am reimporting it. The problem is it is in this format 2010-02-14 20:18:58.313000000 and the conversion to datetime fails. I have no idea how it ended up like this when it was originally extracted from a datetime column. Basically a table was exported to a flat file by someone else. The original table was lost. I am reimporting back from the flatfile. I could just drop the decimal but this would be like throwing out some of the data. I'd like to maintain as much precision as possible. How can I import this data from the varchar column back into a datetime column and preserve as much accuracy as possible?

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  • Asp.Net MVC best way to update cached table

    - by Eddy Mishiyev
    There are certain tables that get called often but updated rarely. One of these tables is Departments. So to save DB trips, I think it is ok to cache this table taking into consideration that the table has very small size. However, once you cached it an issue of keeping the table data fresh occurs. So what is the best way to determine that the table is dirty and therefore requires a reload and how that code should be invoked. I look for solution that will be scalable. So updating the cache right after inserting will not work. So if one machine inserted the record all other on network should get notified to reload the cache. I was thinking for calling corresponding web service from T-SQL but don't really like the idea of consuming recourses on sql server. So what are the best practices to resolve this type of problems. Thanks in advance Eddy

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  • Is there a way to delay compilation of a stored procedure's execution plan?

    - by Ian Henry
    (At first glance this may look like a duplicate of http://stackoverflow.com/questions/421275 or http://stackoverflow.com/questions/414336, but my actual question is a bit different) Alright, this one's had me stumped for a few hours. My example here is ridiculously abstracted, so I doubt it will be possible to recreate locally, but it provides context for my question (Also, I'm running SQL Server 2005). I have a stored procedure with basically two steps, constructing a temp table, populating it with very few rows, and then querying a very large table joining against that temp table. It has multiple parameters, but the most relevant is a datetime "@MinDate." Essentially: create table #smallTable (ID int) insert into #smallTable select (a very small number of rows from some other table) select * from aGiantTable inner join #smallTable on #smallTable.ID = aGiantTable.ID inner join anotherTable on anotherTable.GiantID = aGiantTable.ID where aGiantTable.SomeDateField > @MinDate If I just execute this as a normal query, by declaring @MinDate as a local variable and running that, it produces an optimal execution plan that executes very quickly (first joins on #smallTable and then only considers a very small subset of rows from aGiantTable while doing other operations). It seems to realize that #smallTable is tiny, so it would be efficient to start with it. This is good. However, if I make that a stored procedure with @MinDate as a parameter, it produces a completely inefficient execution plan. (I am recompiling it each time, so it's not a bad cached plan...at least, I sure hope it's not) But here's where it gets weird. If I change the proc to the following: declare @LocalMinDate datetime set @LocalMinDate = @MinDate --where @MinDate is still a parameter create table #smallTable (ID int) insert into #smallTable select (a very small number of rows from some other table) select * from aGiantTable inner join #smallTable on #smallTable.ID = aGiantTable.ID inner join anotherTable on anotherTable.GiantID = aGiantTable.ID where aGiantTable.SomeDateField > @LocalMinDate Then it gives me the efficient plan! So my theory is this: when executing as a plain query (not as a stored procedure), it waits to construct the execution plan for the expensive query until the last minute, so the query optimizer knows that #smallTable is small and uses that information to give the efficient plan. But when executing as a stored procedure, it creates the entire execution plan at once, thus it can't use this bit of information to optimize the plan. But why does using the locally declared variables change this? Why does that delay the creation of the execution plan? Is that actually what's happening? If so, is there a way to force delayed compilation (if that indeed is what's going on here) even when not using local variables in this way? More generally, does anyone have sources on when the execution plan is created for each step of a stored procedure? Googling hasn't provided any helpful information, but I don't think I'm looking for the right thing. Or is my theory just completely unfounded? Edit: Since posting, I've learned of parameter sniffing, and I assume this is what's causing the execution plan to compile prematurely (unless stored procedures indeed compile all at once), so my question remains -- can you force the delay? Or disable the sniffing entirely? The question is academic, since I can force a more efficient plan by replacing the select * from aGiantTable with select * from (select * from aGiantTable where ID in (select ID from #smallTable)) as aGiantTable Or just sucking it up and masking the parameters, but still, this inconsistency has me pretty curious.

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  • SQL Server and Table-Valued User-Defined Function optimizations

    - by John Leidegren
    If I have an UDF that returns a table, with thousands of rows, but I just want a particular row from that rowset, will SQL Server be able to handle this effciently? SELECT * FROM dbo.MyTableUDF() WHERE ID = 1 To what extent is the query optimizer capable of reasoning about this type of query? How are Table-Valued UDFs different from traidtional views if they take no parameters? Any gotchas I should know about?

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  • Why hasn't MSSQL made a WHERE clause mandatory by default?

    - by Josh Einstein
    It seems like a no brainer to me. I've heard countless stories about people forgetting the WHERE clause in an UPDATE or DELETE and trashing an entire table. I know that careless people shouldn't be issuing queries directly and all that... and that there are legitimate cases where you want to affect all rows, but wouldn't it make sense to have an option on by default that requires such queries to be written like: UPDATE MyTable SET MyColumn = 0 WHERE * Or without changing the language, UPDATE MyTable SET MyColumn = 0 WHERE 1 = 1 -- tacky, I know

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