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  • Service Browser for AMF calls (Flex to Java)

    - by Tehsin
    Has anyone used or is aware of a service browser to test AMF calls? I am looking for a tool similar to ZamfBrowser ( http://www.zamfbrowser.org ), but one that works for the Java environment. ZamfBrowser is geared towards AMFPHP. The idea here is to provide a service browser, that allows developers to test Java services using the AMF protocol, without having to go through the Flex UI all the time. There has got to be something out there already for this, but I can't seem to locate anything..... It's kind of funny and strange that a service browser exists for AMFPHP but not for regular AMF calls in a Java environment. I would imagine something exists under Blaze or LCDS? ... Trying to find it in the docs but can't seem to find anything .... The best alternative I can think of at the moment is to use FlexMonkey to record stuff, and then to simulate it using that....which is okay I guess but still sucks because you have to go in and create the Flex UI first, whereas with something like ZamfBrowser, you simply point it at the service calls, it tells the server-side developers if their code works, etc. generates the required as3 classes for you... and makes the integration process much easier in a large team. Any help or insight would be appreciated :) Thanks!

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  • Trimming bit of the beginning off a recorder waveform

    - by Lowgain
    I've got a flash 10.1 app that lets me record microphone input to a wav without a media server, which I am saving to an Amazon S3 bucket. I have another process running on a server which gets wavs from this bucket, converts to mp3 using LAME and puts them into another bucket. This all works fine, but in converting wav mp3, about 0.1sec or so of silence is added to my sound. In the application this are being used in, perfect sync is critical, so I need to trim off that little bit. If I have to trim it off the original waveform that is okay, I don't expect anything important to happen in that first fraction of a second. What is the best way to go about this? I am using Adobe's WavWriter to convert by ByteArray into a proper waveform. Is there a way I can easily trim off the first few samples from my ByteArray without invalidating the structure? Alternatively, is there a good server-side tool I can use to trim the wav before running it through LAME, or an argument I can give LAME? Or, could I even trim that sound off the mp3 after it has been converted? Thanks!

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  • Find out which row caused the error

    - by Felipe Fiali
    I have a big fat query that's written dynamically to integrate some data. Basically what it does is query some tables, join some other ones, treat some data, and then insert it into a final table. The problem is that there's too much data, and we can't really trust the sources, because there could be some errored or inconsistent data. For example, I've spent almost an hour looking for an error while developing using a customer's database because somewhere in the middle of my big fat query there was an error converting some varchar to datetime. It turned out to be that they had some sales dating '2009-02-29', an out-of-range date. And yes, I know. Why was that stored as varchar? Well, the source database has 3 columns for dates, 'Month', 'Day' and 'Year'. I have no idea why it's like that, but still, it is. But how the hell would I treat that, if the source is not trustable? I can't HANDLE exceptions, I really need that it comes up to another level with the original message, but I wanted to provide some more info, so that the user could at least try to solve it before calling us. So I thought about displaying to the user the row number, or some ID that would at least give him some idea of what record he'd have to correct. That's also a hard job because there will be times when the integration will run up to 80000 records. And in an 80000 records integration, a single dummy error message: 'The conversion of a varchar data type to a datetime data type resulted in an out-of-range datetime value' means nothing at all. So any idea would be appreciated. Oh I'm using SQL Server 2005 with Service Pack 3.

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  • rails Rake and mysql ssh port forwarding.

    - by rube_noob
    Hello, I need to create a rake task to do some active record operations via a ssh tunnel. The rake task is run on a remote windows machine so I would like to keep things in ruby. This is my latest attempt. desc "Syncronizes the tablets DB with the Server" task(:sync => :environment) do require 'rubygems' require 'net/ssh' begin Thread.abort_on_exception = true tunnel_thread = Thread.new do Thread.current[:ready] = false hostname = 'host' username = 'tunneluser' Net::SSH.start(hostname, username) do|ssh| ssh.forward.local(3333, "mysqlhost.com", 3306) Thread.current[:ready] = true puts "ready thread" ssh.loop(0) { true } end end until tunnel_thread[:ready] == true do end puts "tunnel ready" Importer.sync rescue StandardError => e puts "The Database Sync Failed." end end The task seems to hang at "tunnel ready" and never attempts the sync. I have had success when running first a rake task to create the tunnel and then running the rake sync in a different terminal. I want to combine these however so that if there is an error with the tunnel it will not attempt the sync. This is my first time using ruby Threads and Net::SSH forwarding so I am not sure what is the issue here. Any Ideas!? Thanks

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  • jQuery ajax delete script not actually deleting.

    - by werm
    I have a little personal webapp that I'm working on. I have a link that, when clicked, is supposed to make an ajax call to a php that is supposed to delete that info from a database. For some unknown reason, it won't actually delete the row from the database. I've tried everything I know, but still nothing. I'm sure it's something incredibly easy... Here are the scripts involved. Database output: $sql = "SELECT * FROM bookmark_app"; foreach ($dbh->query($sql) as $row) { echo '<div class="box" id="',$row['id'],'"><img src="images/avatar.jpg" width="75" height="75" border="0" class="avatar"/> <div class="text"><a href="',$row['url'],'">',$row['title'],'</a><br/> </div> /*** Click to delete ***/ <a href="?delete=',$row['id'],'" class="delete">x</a></div> <div class="clear"></div>'; } $dbh = null; Ajax script: $(document).ready(function() { $("a.delete").click(function(){ var element = $(this); var noteid = element.attr("id"); var info = 'id=' + noteid; $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "includes/delete.php", data: info, success: function(){ element.parent().eq(0).fadeOut("slow"); } }); return false; }); }); Delete code: include('connect.php'); //delete.php?id=IdOfPost if($_GET['id']){ $id = $_GET['id']; //Delete the record of the post $delete = mysql_query("DELETE FROM `db` WHERE `id` = '$id'"); //Redirect the user header("Location:xxxx.php"); }

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  • Practical refactoring using unit tests

    - by awhite
    Having just read the first four chapters of Refactoring: Improving the Design of Existing Code, I embarked on my first refactoring and almost immediately came to a roadblock. It stems from the requirement that before you begin refactoring, you should put unit tests around the legacy code. That allows you to be sure your refactoring didn't change what the original code did (only how it did it). So my first question is this: how do I unit-test a method in legacy code? How can I put a unit test around a 500 line (if I'm lucky) method that doesn't do just one task? It seems to me that I would have to refactor my legacy code just to make it unit-testable. Does anyone have any experience refactoring using unit tests? And, if so, do you have any practical examples you can share with me? My second question is somewhat hard to explain. Here's an example: I want to refactor a legacy method that populates an object from a database record. Wouldn't I have to write a unit test that compares an object retrieved using the old method, with an object retrieved using my refactored method? Otherwise, how would I know that my refactored method produces the same results as the old method? If that is true, then how long do I leave the old deprecated method in the source code? Do I just whack it after I test a few different records? Or, do I need to keep it around for a while in case I encounter a bug in my refactored code? Lastly, since a couple people have asked...the legacy code was originally written in VB6 and then ported to VB.NET with minimal architecture changes.

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  • Can I use a specific model from within a behavior in CakePHP?

    - by Paul Willy
    I'm trying to write a behavior that will give my models access to a simple workflow engine I've devised. The workflow engine itself works as a CakePHP model, with workflow data stored in the database just as any other model data is stored. Basically what I want to do is have the behavior use the workflow model whenever an action is called on the base model. For example, if the edit() action is executed for Posts, then the Post (with the behavior attached) will trigger the workflow behavior with its own model name, action, and id as arguments (e.g. [Post, edit, 1]). Then the behavior will invoke the functionality of the Workflow model, which has a record for what to do when edit is run on Posts (e.g. send e-mail to users who are subscribed to that post) and will carry that out. My question is, what is the proper way to invoke model/controller methods from within the behavior? The model to be used from within the behavior will always be Workflow, but the behavior should be usable from basically any model (aside from Workflow itself). I know I could run SQL queries directly from the behavior, but of course this is not the Cake way :-) Or, am I going about this in the wrong way? I want to store a certain amount of logic in the database so that it is easily configurable by different users, and not have endless configuration checks within the model/controller logic itself so that workflow steps can be easily added/changed/removed in the future.

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  • Find items with belongs_to associations in Rails?

    - by dannymcc
    Hi Everyone, I have a model called Kase each "Case" is assigned to a contact person via the following code: class Kase < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :jobno has_many :notes, :order => "created_at DESC" belongs_to :company # foreign key: company_id belongs_to :person # foreign key in join table belongs_to :surveyor, :class_name => "Company", :foreign_key => "appointedsurveyor_id" belongs_to :surveyorperson, :class_name => "Person", :foreign_key => "surveyorperson_id" I was wondering if it is possible to list on the contacts page all of the kases that that person is associated with. I assume I need to use the find command within the Person model? Maybe something like the following? def index @kases = Person.Kase.find(:person_id) or am I completely misunderstanding everything again? Thanks, Danny EDIT: If I use: @kases= @person.kases I can successfully do the following: <% if @person.kases.empty? %> No Cases Found <% end %> <% if @person.kases %> This person has a case assigned to them <% end %> but how do I output the "jobref" field from the kase table for each record found?

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  • Why do System.IO.Log SequenceNumbers have variable length?

    - by Doug McClean
    I'm trying to use the System.IO.Log features to build a recoverable transaction system. I understand it to be implemented on top of the Common Log File System. The usual ARIES approach to write-ahead logging involves persisting log record sequence numbers in places other than the log (for example, in the header of the database page modified by the logged action). Interestingly, the documentation for CLFS says that such sequence numbers are always 64-bit integers. Confusingly, however, the .Net wrapper around those SequenceNumbers can be constructed from a byte[] but not from a UInt64. It's value can also be read as a byte[], but not as a UInt64. Inspecting the implementation of SequenceNumber.GetBytes() reveals that it can in fact return arrays of either 8 or 16 bytes. This raises a few questions: Why do the .Net sequence numbers differ in size from the CLFS sequence numbers? Why are the .Net sequence numbers variable in length? Why would you need 128 bits to represent such a sequence number? It seems like you would truncate the log well before using up a 64-bit address space (16 exbibytes, or around 10^19 bytes, more if you address longer words)? If log sequence numbers are going to be represented as 128 bit integers, why not provide a way to serialize/deserialize them as pairs of UInt64s instead of rather-pointlessly incurring heap allocations for short-lived new byte[]s every time you need to write/read one? Alternatively, why bother making SequenceNumber a value type at all? It seems an odd tradeoff to double the storage overhead of log sequence numbers just so you can have an untruncated log longer than a million terabytes, so I feel like I'm missing something here, or maybe several things. I'd much appreciate it if someone in the know could set me straight.

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  • Calculate differences between rows while grouping with SQL

    - by Guido
    I have a postgresql table containing movements of different items (models) between warehouses. For example, the following record means that 5 units of model 1 have been sent form warehouse 1 to 2: source target model units ------ ------ ----- ----- 1 2 1 5 I am trying to build a SQL query to obtain the difference between units sent and received, grouped by models. Again with an example: source target model units ------ ------ ----- ----- 1 2 1 5 -- 5 sent from 1 to 2 1 2 2 1 2 1 1 2 -- 2 sent from 2 to 1 2 1 1 1 -- 1 more sent from 2 to 1 The result should be: source target model diff ------ ------ ----- ---- 1 2 1 2 -- 5 sent minus 3 received 1 2 2 1 I wonder if this is possible with a single SQL query. Here is the table creation script and some data, just in case anyone wants to try it: CREATE TEMP TABLE movements ( source INTEGER, target INTEGER, model INTEGER, units INTEGER ); insert into movements values (1,2,1,5); insert into movements values (1,2,2,1); insert into movements values (2,1,1,2); insert into movements values (2,1,1,1);

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  • sql query - how to apply limit within group by

    - by Raj
    hey guys assuming i have a table named t1 with following fields: ROWID, CID, PID, Score, SortKey it has the following data: 1, C1, P1, 10, 1 2, C1, P2, 20, 2 3, C1, P3, 30, 3 4, C2, P4, 20, 3 5, C2, P5, 30, 2 6, C3, P6, 10, 1 7, C3, P7, 20, 2 what query do i write so that it applies group by on CID, but instead of returning me 1 single result per group, it returns me a max of 2 results per group. also where condition is score = 20 and i want the results ordered by CID and SortKey. If I had to run my query on above data, i would expect the following result: RESULTS FOR C1 - note: ROWID 1 is not considered as its score < 20 C1, P2, 20, 2 C1, P3, 30, 3 RESULTS FOR C2 - note: ROWID 5 appears before ROWID 4 as ROWID 5 has lesser value SortKey C2, P5, 30, 2 C2, P4, 20, 3 RESULTS FOR C3 - note: ROWID 6 does not appear as its score is less than 20 so only 1 record returned here C3, P7, 20, 2 IN SHORT, I WANT A LIMIT WITHIN A GROUP BY. I want the simplest solution and want to avoid temp tables. sub queries are fine. also note i am using sqlite for this

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  • Help with MySQL Query using CASE statement

    - by hairdresser-101
    I am trying to group a number of customers together based on their "Head Office" or "Parent" location. THis works ok except for a flaw which I didn't forsee when I was developing my system... For customers that did not have a "Parent" (standalone business) I defaulted the parent_id to 0. Therefore, my data would look like this: id parent_id customer 1 0 CustName#1 2 4 CustName#2 - Melbourne 3 4 CustName#2 - Sydney 4 0 CustName#2 (Head Office) What I want to do is Group my results together so that I have one row for CustName#1 and one row for CustName#2 BUT my problem is that there is no parent record for parent_id=0 and these rows are being excluded when using an inner join. I've tried using a case statement but that is not working either (parents are still being ignored) Any help would be greatly appreciated. Here is my query (My CASE is basically trying to get the business_name from the customer table based on the parent_id EXCEPT when the parent_id = 0, THEN just use the customer_name that is listed in the job_summary table): SELECT js.month_of_year, (CASE js.parent_id WHEN 0 THEN js.customer_name ELSE c.business_name END) as customer, SUM(js.jobs), SUM(js.total_cost), sum(js.total_sell) FROM JOB_SUMMARY js INNER JOIN customer c on js.parent_id=c.id group by js.month_of_year, (CASE c.parent_id WHEN 0 THEN js.customer_name ELSE c.business_name END) ORDER BY `customer` ASC

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  • Referencing object's identity before submitting changes in LINQ

    - by Axarydax
    Hi, is there a way of knowing ID of identity column of record inserted via InsertOnSubmit beforehand, e.g. before calling datasource's SubmitChanges? Imagine I'm populating some kind of hierarchy in the database, but I wouldn't want to submit changes on each recursive call of each child node (e.g. if I had Directories table and Files table and am recreating my filesystem structure in the database). I'd like to do it that way, so I create a Directory object, set its name and attributes, then InsertOnSubmit it into DataContext.Directories collection, then reference Directory.ID in its child Files. Currently I need to call InsertOnSubmit to insert the 'directory' into the database and the database mapping fills its ID column. But this creates a lot of transactions and accesses to database and I imagine that if I did this inserting in a batch, the performance would be better. What I'd like to do is to somehow use Directory.ID before commiting changes, create all my File and Directory objects in advance and then do a big submit that puts all stuff into database. I'm also open to solving this problem via a stored procedure, I assume the performance would be even better if all operations would be done directly in the database.

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  • MVC 2 - Name Attributes on HTML Input Field when using Parent/Child Entities

    - by Click Ahead
    Hi All, I'm pretty new to MVC 2 using the Entity Framework. I have two tables Company {ID int identity PK,Name nvarchar} and User {ID int identity PK,UserName nvarchar,CompanyID int FK}. A Foreign Key exists between User and Company. I generated my ADO.NET Entity Data Model, a Controller and a view to insert a record. My HTML form has the fields Company and UserName and the idea is when I click save a Company and User is inserted into the database. Sounds straight forward right! My question is as follows: I created a strongly-typed view derived from my 'User' entity. I'm using the the html helper Html.TextBoxFor(model = model.Organisation.Name) but the html name attribute for this input field is 'Organisation.Name'. My problem with this is that the dot throws up all sorts of issues in JQuery, which sees this as a property. If I want to change the name I read that I can use DataAnnotations but because I used the Entity Designer this involves using Buddy Classes. Seems like a bit of overkill just to change the html name attribute on this input field. Am I approaching this the right way or am I missing something here? Thanks for the help !

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  • Nhibernate join on a table twice

    - by Zuber
    Consider the following Class structure... public class ListViewControl { public int SystemId {get; set;} public List<ControlAction> Actions {get; set;} public List<ControlAction> ListViewActions {get; set;} } public class ControlAction { public string blahBlah {get; set;} } I want to load class ListViewControl eagerly using NHibernate. The mapping using Fluent is as shown below public UIControlMap() { Id(x => x.SystemId); HasMany(x => x.Actions) .KeyColumn("ActionId") .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan() .AsBag() .Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); HasMany(x => x.ListViewActions) .KeyColumn("ListViewActionId") .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan() .AsBag() .Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); } This is how I am trying to load it eagerly var baseActions = DetachedCriteria.For<ListViewControl>() .CreateCriteria("Actions", JoinType.InnerJoin) .SetFetchMode("BlahBlah", FetchMode.Eager) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()); var listViewActions = DetachedCriteria.For<ListViewControl>() .CreateCriteria("ListViewActions", JoinType.InnerJoin) .SetFetchMode("BlahBlah", FetchMode.Eager) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()); var listViews = DetachedCriteria.For<ListViewControl>() .SetFetchMode("Actions", FetchMode.Eager) .SetFetchMode("ListViewActions",FetchMode.Eager) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()); var result = _session.CreateMultiCriteria() .Add("listViewActions", listViewActions) .Add("baseActions", baseActions) .Add("listViews", listViews) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()) .GetResult("listViews"); Now, my problem is that the class ListViewControl get the correct records in both Actions and ListViewActions, but there are multiple entries of the same record. The number of records is equal to the number of joins made to the ControlAction table, in this case two. How can I avoid this? If I remove the SetFetchMode from the listViews query, the actions are loaded lazily through a proxy which I don't want.

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  • PHP: tips/resources/patterns for learning to implement a basic ORM

    - by BoltClock
    I've seen various MVC frameworks as well as standalone ORM frameworks for PHP, as well as other ORM questions here; however, most of the questions ask for existing frameworks to get started with, which is not what I'm looking for. (I have also read this SO question but I'm not sure what to make of it, and the answers are vague.) Instead, I figured I'd learn best by getting my hands dirty and actually writing my own ORM, even a simple one. Except I don't really know how to get started, especially since the code I see in other ORMs is so complicated. With my PHP 5.2.x (this is important) MVC framework I have a basic custom database abstraction layer, that has: Very simple methods like connect($host, $user, $pass, $base), query($sql, $binds), etc Subclasses for each DBMS that it supports A class (and respective subclasses) to represent SQL result sets But does not have: Active Record functionality, which I assume is an ORM thing (correct me if I'm wrong) I've read up a little about ORM, and from my understanding they provide a means to further abstract data models from the database itself by representing data as nothing more than PHP-based classes/objects; again, correct me if I am wrong or have missed out in any way. Still, I'd like some simple tips from anyone else who's dabbled more or less with ORM frameworks. Is there anything else I need to take note of, simple example code for me to refer to, or resources I can read? Thanks a lot in advance!

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  • ASP Menu driving me insane

    - by simplesimon
    Hi there, I am trying to create a menu using ASP (I have never used ASP before, im a PHP man) using values stored in a database. basically the html layout i want is as such: <ul> <li> <ul class="sub-menu"> <li class="sub-menu-li">Test</li> </ul> </li> </ul> I need to loop around the root menu items rs("AD_Level") which is equal to 0 for root objects, then inside that loop, lop around anything that has the same parent id eg if the current record is AD_Level =0 and AD_Parent=5 then loop around all items with AD_Parent 5 and AD_Level != 0 and insert the values into html and so on and so forth. Please help! I am struggling with a new language and cannot see a way to do this without losing sanity Edit (Extracted from Comment by OP) while not rsAdmin.eof sPar = rsAdmin("ad_parent" if rsAdmin("AD_Level")=0 then while not rsAdmin2.eof if rsAdmin2("AD_Level")<>0 and rsAdmin2("ad_parent")=sPar and rsAdmin2("AD_Sec_Level")=>2 then response.write rsAdmin("AD_Menu") end if rsAdmin2.movenext wend end if '' # if not rsAdmin.eof then sPar=rsAdmin("AD_parent") rsAdmin.movenext wend that is my code

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  • How to connect to Oracle using JRuby & JDBC

    - by Rob
    First approach: bare metal require 'java' require 'rubygems' require "c:/ruby/jruby-1.2.0/lib/ojdbc14.jar" # should be redundant, but tried it anyway odriver = Java::JavaClass.for_name("oracle.jdbc.driver.OracleDriver") puts odriver.java_class url = "jdbc:oracle:thin:@myhost:1521:mydb" puts "About to connect..." con = java.sql.DriverManager.getConnection(url, "myuser", "mypassword"); if con puts " connection good" else puts " connection failed" end The result of the above is: sqltest.rb:4: cannot load Java class oracle.jdbc.driver.OracleDriver (NameError) Second approach: Active Record require 'rubygems' gem 'ActiveRecord-JDBC' require 'jdbc_adapter' require 'active_record' require 'active_record/version' require "c:/ruby/jruby-1.2.0/lib/ojdbc14.jar" # should be redundant... ActiveRecord::Base.establish_connection( :adapter => 'jdbc', :driver => 'oracle.jdbc.driver.OracleDriver', :url => 'jdbc:oracle:thin:@myhost:1521:mydb', :username=>'myuser', :password=>'mypassword' ) ActiveRecord::Base.connection.execute("SELECT * FROM mytable") The result of this is: C:/ruby/jruby-1.2.0/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-jdbc-adapter-0.9.1/lib/active_recordconnection_adapters/jdbc_adapter.rb:330:in `initialize': The driver encountered an error: cannot load Java class oracle.jdbc.driver.OracleDriver (RuntimeError) Essentially the same error no matter how I go about it. I'm using JRuby 1.2.0 and I have ojdbc14.jar in my JRuby lib directory Gems: ActiveRecord-JDBC (0.5) activerecord-jdbc-adapter (0.9.1) activerecord (2.2.2) What am I missing? Thanks,

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  • New Rails deployment half working...not sure why?

    - by Meltemi
    I'm in the final stages of going round trip through the entire Rails cycle: development - test - production (on an external server). I'm very close...but seeing some errors with the production version and don't know enough about Rails' "magic" to troubleshoot it yet... all seems well and I can load my app by going to www.mydomain.com/rails and it seems to work...I can interact with my app and create new objects in my database. However, when I go to www.mydomain.com/rails/ (difference is the trailing slash) i get a webpage that just says "Index from public" on it?!? I don't know where that's coming from? index.html is long removed from public. this may or may not be related to why I can't access, say, the first record in one of my classes by calling its controller like so: www.mydomain.com/rails/mycontroller/1 . and yes, there are records in the database. anyway, something's askew. it works fine on development box. but, only half working on production server. anyone know what might be causing this? this app is running on the server box (not development) Installed Passenger on server to serve app via Apache modified my httpd.conf with Passenger's stuff (headache but finally got it to respond) loaded schema into the production database: rake db:schema:load RAILS_ENV=production

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  • What is the best method for updating all changed data in EF 4?

    - by Soul_Master
    I try to create some method that can update any changed data from changed Data object (this object is generated by ASP.NET MVC) to old Data object (this object is retrieved from current data in DBMS) like the following code. public static bool UpdateSomeData(SomeEntities context, SomeModelType changedData) { var oldData = GetSomeModelTypeById(context, changedData.ID); UpdateModel(oldData, changedData); return context.SaveChanges() > 0; } I try to create method for saving any changed data without affects other unchanged data like the following source code. public static void UpdateModel<TModel>(TModel oldData, TModel changedData) { foreach (var pi in typeof(TModel).GetProperties() .Where ( // Ignore Change ID property for security reason x => x.Name.ToUpper() != "ID" && x.CanRead && x.CanWrite && ( // It must be primitive type or Guid x.PropertyType.FullName.StartsWith("System") && !x.PropertyType.FullName.StartsWith("System.Collection") && !x.PropertyType.FullName.StartsWith("System.Data.Entity.DynamicProxies") ) ) { var oldValue = pi.GetValue(oldData, null); var newValue = pi.GetValue(changedData, null); if (!oldValue.Equals(newValue)) { pi.SetValue(oldData, newValue, null); } } } I am not sure about the above method because it is so ugly method for updating data. From recent bug, it realizes me that if you update some property like Navigation Properties (related data from other table), it will remove current record from database. I don't understand why it happened. But it is very dangerous for me. So, do you have any idea for this question to ensure me about updating data from ASP.NET MVC? Thanks,

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  • Is it possible to group records belonging to an entity in dbunit?

    - by Joshua
    Our JPA entity model auto-generates primary key identifiers for user, user_address tables. Would it be possible to group these entities given below via dbunit, so that I don't need to provide neither the primary key as well as the foreign key reference from user_address.user_id. It is getting very hard to maintain these keys (i.e. I would prefer to group the primary record 'user' and the child records 'user_address' so that dbunit can group them automatically by looking up the entity metadata). Is it achievable? <user id="1" first_name="Josh" creation_date="2009-07-11 15:45:28"/> <user_address id="1" user_id="1" address="Main St" city="Los Angeles"/> I would prefer something like this <!-- First user --> <user first_name="Josh" creation_date="2009-07-11 15:45:28"/> <user_address address="Main St" city="Los Angeles"/> <!-- Second user --> <user first_name="Mary" creation_date="2009-07-11 15:45:28"/> <user_address address="Taylors St" city="San Jose"/>

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  • Images from SQL Server JPG/PNG Image Column not being Type Converted to Bitmap in HttpHandlers (cons

    - by kanchirk
    Our Silverlight 3.0 Client consumes Images stored/retrieved on the File System thorough ASP.NET HttpHandlers successfully. We are trying to store and read back Images using a SQL Server 2008 Database. Please find the stripped down code pasted below with the Exception. "Bitmap is not Valid" //Store document to the database private void SaveImageToDatabaseKK(HttpContext context, string pImageFileName) { try { //ADO.NET Entity Framework ImageTable documentDB = new ImageTable(); int intLength = Convert.ToInt32(context.Request.InputStream.Length); //Move the file contents into the Byte array Byte[] arrContent = new Byte[intLength]; context.Request.InputStream.Read(arrContent, 0, intLength); //Insert record into the Document table documentDB.InsertDocument(pImageFileName, arrContent, intLength); } catch { } } =The method to Read Back the Row from the Table and Send it back is below.= private void RetrieveImageFromDatabaseTableKK(HttpContext context, string pImageName) { try { ImageTable documentDB = new ImageTable(); var docRow = documentDB.GetDocument(pImageName); //based on Imagename which is unique //DocData column in table is **Image** if (docRow!=null && docRow.DocData != null && docRow.DocData.Length > 0) { Byte[] bytImage = docRow.DocData; if (bytImage != null && bytImage.Length > 0) { Bitmap newBmp = ConvertToBitmap(context, bytImage ); if (newBmp != null) { newBmp.Save(context.Response.OutputStream, ImageFormat.Jpeg); newBmp.Dispose(); } } } } catch (Exception exRI) { } } // Convert byte array to Bitmap (byte[] to Bitmap) protected Bitmap ConvertToBitmap(byte[] bmp) { if (bmp != null) { try { TypeConverter tc = TypeDescriptor.GetConverter(typeof(Bitmap)); Bitmap b = (Bitmap)tc.ConvertFrom(bmp); **//This is where the Exception Occurs.** return b; } catch (Exception) { } } return null; }

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  • Access violations in strange places when using Windows file dialogs

    - by Robert Oschler
    A long time ago I found out that I was getting access violations in my code due to the use of the Delphi Open File and/or Save File dialogs, which encapsulate the Windows dialogs. I asked some questions on a few forums and I was told that it may have been due to the way some programs add hooks to the shell system that result in DLLs getting injected in every process, some of which can cause havoc with a program. For the record, the programming environment I use is Delphi 6 Professional running on Windows XP 32-bit. At the time I got around it by not using Delphi's Dialog components and instead calling straight into comdlg32.dll. This solved the problem wonderfully. Today I was working with memory mapped files for the first time and sure enough, access violations started cropping up in weird parts of the code. I tried my comdlg32.dll direct calls and this time it didn't help. To isolate the problem as a test I created a list box with the exact same files I was using during testing. These are the exact same test files I was selecting from an Open File dialog and then launching my memory mapped file with. I set things up so that by clicking on a file in the list box, I would use that file in my memory mapped file test instead of calling into a comdlg32.dll dialog function to select a test file. Again, the access violatons vanished. To show you how dramatic a fix it was I went from experiencing an access violation within 1 to 3 trials to none at all. Unfortunately, it's going to bite me later on of course when I do need to use file dialogs. Has anyone else dealt with this issue too and found the real culprit? Did any of you find a solution I could use to fix this problem instead of dancing around it like I am now? Thanks in advance.

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  • Best way to detect similar email addresses?

    - by Chris
    I have a list of ~20,000 email addresses, some of which I know to be fraudulent attempts to get around a "1 per e-mail" limit. ([email protected], [email protected], [email protected], etc...). I want to find similar email addresses for evaluation. Currently I'm using a levenshtein algorithm to check each e-mail against the others in the list and report any with an edit distance of less than 2. However, this is painstakingly slow. Is there a more efficient approach? The test code I'm using now is: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.IO; using System.Threading; namespace LevenshteinAnalyzer { class Program { const string INPUT_FILE = @"C:\Input.txt"; const string OUTPUT_FILE = @"C:\Output.txt"; static void Main(string[] args) { var inputWords = File.ReadAllLines(INPUT_FILE); var outputWords = new SortedSet<string>(); for (var i = 0; i < inputWords.Length; i++) { if (i % 100 == 0) Console.WriteLine("Processing record #" + i); var word1 = inputWords[i].ToLower(); for (var n = i + 1; n < inputWords.Length; n++) { if (i == n) continue; var word2 = inputWords[n].ToLower(); if (word1 == word2) continue; if (outputWords.Contains(word1)) continue; if (outputWords.Contains(word2)) continue; var distance = LevenshteinAlgorithm.Compute(word1, word2); if (distance <= 2) { outputWords.Add(word1); outputWords.Add(word2); } } } File.WriteAllLines(OUTPUT_FILE, outputWords.ToArray()); Console.WriteLine("Found {0} words", outputWords.Count); } } }

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  • Stored procedure using cursor in mySql.

    - by RAVI
    I wrote a stored procedure using cursor in mysql but that procedure is taking 10 second to fetch the result while that result set have only 450 records so, I want to know that why that proedure is taking that much time to fetch tha record. procedure as below: DELIMITER // DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS curdemo123// CREATE PROCEDURE curdemo123(IN Branchcode int,IN vYear int,IN vMonth int) BEGIN DECLARE EndOfData,tempamount INT DEFAULT 0; DECLARE tempagent_code,tempplantype,tempsaledate CHAR(12); DECLARE tempspot_rate DOUBLE; DECLARE var1,totalrow INT DEFAULT 1; DECLARE cur1 CURSOR FOR select SQL_CALC_FOUND_ROWS ad.agentCode,ad.planType,ad.amount,ad.date from adplan_detailstbl ad where ad.branchCode=Branchcode and (ad.date between '2009-12-1' and '2009-12-31')order by ad.NUM_ID asc; DECLARE CONTINUE HANDLER FOR SQLSTATE '02000' SET EndOfData = 1; DROP TEMPORARY TABLE IF EXISTS temptable; CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE temptable (agent_code varchar(15), plan_type char(12),sale double,spot_rate double default '0.0', dATE DATE); OPEN cur1; SET totalrow=FOUND_ROWS(); while var1 <= totalrow DO fetch cur1 into tempagent_code,tempplantype,tempamount,tempsaledate; IF((tempplantype='Unit Plan' OR tempplantype='MIP') OR tempplantype='STUP') then select spotRate into tempspot_rate from spot_amount where ((monthCode=vMonth and year=vYear) and ((agentCode=tempagent_code and branchCode=Branchcode) and (planType=tempplantype))); INSERT INTO temptable VALUES(tempagent_code,tempplantype,tempamount,tempspot_rate,tempsaledate); else INSERT INTO temptable(agent_code,plan_type,sale,dATE) VALUES(tempagent_code,tempplantype,tempamount,tempsaledate); END IF; SET var1=var1+1; END WHILE; CLOSE cur1; select * from temptable; DROP TABLE temptable; END // DELIMITER ;

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