Search Results

Search found 80218 results on 3209 pages for 'client side data'.

Page 231/3209 | < Previous Page | 227 228 229 230 231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238  | Next Page >

  • Android: changing drawable states of option menu items seems to have side-effects

    - by pjv
    In my onCreateOptionsMenu() I have basically the following: public boolean onCreateOptionsMenu(Menu menu) { menu.add(Menu.NONE, MENU_ITEM_INSERT, Menu.NONE, R.string.item_menu_insert).setShortcut('3', 'a').setIcon(android.R.drawable.ic_menu_add); PackageManager pm = getPackageManager(); if(pm.hasSystemFeature(PackageManager.FEATURE_CAMERA) && pm.hasSystemFeature(PackageManager.FEATURE_CAMERA_AUTOFOCUS)){ menu.add(Menu.NONE, MENU_ITEM_SCAN_ADD, Menu.NONE, ((Collectionista.DEBUG)?"DEBUG Scan and add item":getString(R.string.item_menu_scan_add))).setShortcut('4', 'a').setIcon(android.R.drawable.ic_menu_add); } ... } And in onPrepareOptionsMenu among others the following: final boolean scanAvailable = ScanIntent.isInstalled(this); final MusicCDItemScanAddTask task = new MusicCDItemScanAddTask(this); menu.findItem(MENU_ITEM_SCAN_ADD).setEnabled(scanAvailable && (tasks == null || !existsTask(task))); As you see, two options items have the same drawable set (android.R.drawable.ic_menu_add). Now, if in onPrepareOptionsMenu the second menu item gets disabled, its label and icon become gray, but also the icon of the first menu item becomes gray, while the label of that fist menu item stays black and it remains clickable. What is causing this crosstalk between the two icons/drawables? Shouldn't the system handle things like mutate() in this case? I've included a screenshot:

    Read the article

  • Caching Authentication Data

    - by PartlyCloudy
    Hi, I'm currently implementing a REST web service using CouchDB and RESTlet. The RESTlet layer is mainly for authentication and some minor filtering of the JSON data served by CouchDB: Clients <= HTTP = [ RESTlet <= HTTP = CouchDB ] I'm using CouchDB also to store user login data, because I don't want to add an additional database server for that purpose. Thus, each request to my service causes two CouchDB requests conducted by RESTlet (auth data + "real" request). In order to keep the service as efficent as possible, I want to reduce the number of requests, in this case redundant requests for login data. My idea now is to provide a cache (i.e.LRU-Cache via LinkedHashMap) within my RESTlet application that caches login data, because HTTP caching will probabily not be enough. But how do I invalidate the cache data, once a user changes the password, for instance. Thanks to REST, the application might run on several servers in parallel, and I don't want to create a central instance just to cache login data. Currently, I save requested auth data in the cache and try to auth new requests by using them. If a authentication fails or there is now entry available, I'll dispatch a GET request to my CouchDB storage in order to obtain the actual auth data. So in a worst case, users that have changed their data will perhaps still be able to login with their old credentials. How can I deal with that? Or what is a good strategy to keep the cache(s) up-to-date in general? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • has_one and has_many associations: which side of the association is saved first

    - by SeeBees
    I have three simplified models: class Team < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :players has_one :coach end class Player < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :team validates_presence_of :team_id end class Coach < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :team validates_presence_of :team_id end I use the following code to test these models: t = Team.new team.coach = Coach.new team.save! team.save! returns true. But in another test: t = Team.new team.players << Player.new team.save! team.save! gives the following error: > ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid: > Validation failed: Players is invalid > from > /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.4/lib/active_record/validations.rb:1090:in > `save_without_dirty!' from > /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.4/lib/active_record/dirty.rb:87:in `save_without_transactions!' from > /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.4/lib/active_record/transactions.rb:200:in > `save!' from > /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.4/lib/active_record/connection_adapters/abstract/database_statements.rb:136:in > `transaction' from > /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.4/lib/active_record/transactions.rb:182:in > `transaction' from > /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.4/lib/active_record/transactions.rb:200:in > `save!' from > /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.4/lib/active_record/transactions.rb:208:in > `rollback_active_record_state!' from > /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.4/lib/active_record/transactions.rb:200:in > `save!' from (irb):14 I figured out when team.save! is called, it first calls player.save!. player needs to validate the presence of the id of the associated team. But at the time player.save! is called, team hasn't been saved yet, and therefore, team_id doesn't yet exist for player. This fails the player's validation, so the error occurs. But on the other hand, team is saved before coach.save!, otherwise the first example will get the same error as the second. So I've concluded that when a has_many bs, a.save! will save bs prior to a. When a has_one b, a.save! will save a prior to b. If I am right, why is this the case? It doesn't seem logical to me. Why has_one and has_many association have different order in saving? Any ideas? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • What side project/research should be chosen to increase my Marketability

    - by CheesePls
    I am a Junior CS Major at a Javaschool and I find myself having an easy time and thought there may be some good project or a language to learn or research in this newfound free time. What would you recommend so as to increase my ability to find a good job(somewhere that allows for continuous learning and treats its programmers well)after college? My thoughts were learning Scheme, making a working Zelda-like game(the original), find some open source project to help with.

    Read the article

  • Access report not showing data

    - by Brian Smith
    I have two queries that I am using to generate a report from, the problem is when I run the report, three fields do not show any data at all for some reason. Query 1: SELECT ClientSummary.Field3 AS PM, ClientSummary.[Client Nickname 2] AS [Project #], ClientSummary.[Client Nickname 1] AS Customer, ClientSummary.[In Reference To] AS [Job Name], ClientSummary.Field10 AS Contract, (select sum([Billable Slip Value]) from Util_bydate as U1 where U1.[Client Nickname 2] = ClientSummary.[Client Nickname 2]) AS [This Week], (select sum([Billable Slip Value]) from Util as U2 where U2.[Client Nickname 2] = ClientSummary.[Client Nickname 2] ) AS [To Date], [To Date]/[Contract] AS [% Spent], 0 AS Backlog, ClientSummary.[Total Slip Fees & Costs] AS Billed, ClientSummary.Payments AS Paid, ClientSummary.[Total A/R] AS Receivable, [Forms]![ReportMenu]![StartDate] AS [Start Date], [Forms]![ReportMenu]![EndDate] AS [End Date] FROM ClientSummary; Query 2: SELECT JobManagement_Summary.pm, JobManagement_Summary.[project #], JobManagement_Summary.Customer, JobManagement_Summary.[Job Name], JobManagement_Summary.Contract, IIf(IsNull([This Week]),0,[This Week]) AS [N_This Week], IIf(IsNull([To Date]),0,[To Date]) AS [N_To Date], [% Spent], JobManagement_Summary.Backlog, JobManagement_Summary.Billed, JobManagement_Summary.Paid, JobManagement_Summary.Receivable, JobManagement_Summary.[Start Date], JobManagement_Summary.[End Date] FROM JobManagement_Summary; When I run the report from query 2 these 3 fields don't appear. N_This Week, N_To Date and % Spent. All have no data. It isn't the IIF functions, as it doesn't matter if I have those in there or remove them. Any thoughts? If I connect directly to the first recordset it works fine, but then SQL throws the error message: Multi-level GROUP BY cause not allowed in subquery. Is there any way to get around that message to link to it directly or does anyone have ANY clue why these fields are coming back blank? I am at wits end here!

    Read the article

  • changing user in ubuntu

    - by Rahul Mehta
    Hi , this is my ls -all, the zfapi folder have the root right , how can i change this to www-data. Also Please advise what is the first root and secont root is ? Thanks drwxr-xr-x 4 www-data www-data 4096 2011-01-06 18:21 cdnapi -rw-r--r-- 1 www-data www-data 678 2010-08-30 12:02 config.js drwxr-xr-x 4 www-data www-data 4096 2010-11-23 15:55 css drwxr-xr-x 7 www-data www-data 4096 2010-11-17 13:12 images -rw-r--r-- 1 www-data www-data 25064 2010-12-17 18:26 index.html -rw-r--r-- 1 www-data www-data 19830 2010-12-18 11:24 init.js drwxr-xr-x 2 www-data www-data 4096 2010-12-02 12:34 lib -rw-r--r-- 1 www-data www-data 18758 2010-12-06 18:00 styles.css -rw-r--r-- 1 www-data www-data 1081 2010-10-21 17:56 testbganim.html drwxr-xr-x 2 www-data www-data 4096 2010-12-17 11:15 yapi drwxr-xr-x 7 root root 4096 2011-01-07 18:20 zfapi

    Read the article

  • Find/parse server-side <?abc?>-like tags in html document

    - by Iggyhopper
    I guess I need some regex help. I want to find all tags like <?abc?> so that I can replace it with whatever the results are for the code ran inside. I just need help regexing the tag/code string, not parsing the code inside :p. <b><?abc print 'test' ?></b> would result in <b>test</b> Edit: Not specifically but in general, matching (<?[chars] (code group) ?>)

    Read the article

  • Detecting client disconnect in tomcat servlet?

    - by Seth
    How can I detect that the client side of a tomcat servlet request has disconnected? I've read that I should do a response.getOutputStream().print(), then a response.getOutputStream().flush() and catch an IOException, but is there a way I can detect this without writing any data?

    Read the article

  • AIR: sync gui with data-base?

    - by John Isaacks
    I am going to be building an AIR application that shows a list (about 1-25 rows of data) from a data-base. The data-base is on the web. I want the list to be as accurate as possible, meaning as soon as the data-base data changes, the list displayed in the app should update asap. I do not know of anyway that the air application could be notified when there is a change, I am thinking I am going to have to poll the data-base at certain intervals to keep an up to date list. So my question is, first is there any way to NOT have to keep checking the data-base? or if I do keep have to keep checking the data-base what is a reasonable interval to do that at? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • notications pop up in user side

    - by user2931015
    i try to show notification as a pop up. like when admin login and through his account he send notification to user i add this html in admin form like this.. <asp:Button ID="notic" runat="server" Text="Send" onclick="Button1_Click" /> <br /> <input class="add_message" type="text" value="type your message" name="add_message"></input> <input type="button" value="add message" onclick="sNotify.addToQueue($('.add_message').attr('value'))"/> Then when admin click on button then notification send to users account like when any user login then he/she able to see pop ups in user form I call this java script in page load like this .. ClientScript.RegisterStartupScript(GetType(), "Javascript", "javascript:sNotify.addToQueue($('.add_message').attr('value'))();", true); it works like when i login as a admin and click on button then notification in his own page .. but i want to show this notifications in user form. so how to solve it?

    Read the article

  • Adding web reference on client when using Net.TCP

    - by Marko
    Hi everyone... I am trying to using Net.TCP in my WCF Service, which is self hosted, when i try to add this service reference through web reference to my client, i am not able access the classes and methods of that service, can any have any idea to achieve this... How I can add web references in this case. My Service has one method (GetNumber) that returns int. WebService: public class WebService : IWebService { public int GetNumber(int num) { return num + 1; } } Service Contract code: [ServiceContract] public interface IWebService { [OperationContract] int GetNumber(int num); } WCF Service code: ServiceHost host = new ServiceHost(typeof(WebService)); host.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(IWebService), new NetTcpBinding(), new Uri("net.tcp://" + Dns.GetHostName() + ":1255/WebService")); NetTcpBinding binding = new NetTcpBinding(); binding.TransferMode = TransferMode.Streamed; binding.ReceiveTimeout = TimeSpan.MaxValue; binding.MaxReceivedMessageSize = long.MaxValue; Console.WriteLine("{0}", Dns.GetHostName().ToString()); Console.WriteLine("Opening Web Service..."); host.Open(); Console.WriteLine("Web Service is running on port {0}",1255); Console.WriteLine("Press <ENTER> to EXIT"); Console.ReadLine(); This works fine. Only problem is how to add references of this service in my client application. I just want to send number and to receive an answer. Can anyone help me?

    Read the article

  • Client side validation of multiple radio buttons groups

    - by absolutely-free
    This is my code: <html> <head> <title>scoreboard</title> <script> function calculate() { var sum=0; var total=0; for (var i=0; i < document.questions.group1.length; i++){ if (document.questions.group1[i].checked){ sum = parseInt(document.questions.group1[i].value) total = parseInt(total + sum);}} for (var i=0; i < document.questions.group2.length; i++){ if (document.questions.group2[i].checked){ sum = parseInt(document.questions.group2[i].value) total = parseInt(total + sum);}} for (var i=0; i < document.questions.group3.length; i++){ if (document.questions.group3[i].checked){ sum = parseInt(document.questions.group3[i].value) total = parseInt(total + sum);}} alert(total) } </script> </head> <body> <form name="questions"> A:<br> answer a1: <input type="radio" name="group1" value="0"> answer a2: <input type="radio" name="group1" value="1"> answer a3: <input type="radio" name="group1" value="2"> answer a4: <input type="radio" name="group1" value="3"><br> B:<br> answer b1: <input type="radio" name="group2" value="0"> answer b2: <input type="radio" name="group2" value="1"> answer b3: <input type="radio" name="group2" value="2"> answer b4: <input type="radio" name="group2" value="3"><br> C:<br> answer c1: <input type="radio" name="group3" value="0"> answer c2: <input type="radio" name="group3" value="1"> answer c3: <input type="radio" name="group3" value="2"> answer c4: <input type="radio" name="group3" value="3"><br><br> <input type="button" value="total" onclick="calculate()"> </form> </body> </html> How can I replace 'group[x]' in my code by a variable, so the three for-loops are replaced by one (because in reality there are a lot more questions and answers) ?

    Read the article

  • Long-held TCP sessions in an ASMX client

    - by John
    Hi, I have an ASP.NET application which talks to a third-party SOAP web service. My application uses an ASMX client proxy (i.e. System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol). The third-party service uses WCF, although I don't expect that makes much difference. I should note that we're using .NET 3.5 SP1. We haven't customised the proxy or done anything unusual - we're just making standard web service requests and getting back the results. We have encapsulated the proxy reference within a using block so it will get disposed after the response is received. We've been told that our application is behaving strangely in its use of TCP sessions. Instead of opening a new TCP session for each request from a new proxy instance (which is what I would have expected it to do), it's apparently keeping several connections alive and re-using them. This is causing some issues at the third party end, as they are expecting us to be using multiple sessions. Is this a known behaviour for the SoapHttpClientProtocol client proxy? If so, is there any way we can override it so that each request results in a new TCP session? Thanks, John

    Read the article

  • HLSL How can one pass data between shaders / read existing colour value?

    - by RJFalconer
    Hello all, I have 2 HLSL ps2.0 shaders. Simplified, they are: Shader 1 Reads texture Outputs colour value based on this texture Shader 2 Needs to read in existing colour (or have it passed in/read from a register) Outputs the final colour which is a function of the previous colour (They need to be different shaders as I've reached the maximum vertex-shader outputs for 1 shader) My problem is I cannot work out how Shader 2 can access the existing fragment/pixel colour. Is the only way for shaders to interact really just the alpha blending options? These aren't sufficient if I want to use the colour as input to my function.

    Read the article

  • How to make the height of two side-by-side elements extend to the remaining browser height?

    - by LedZeppelin
    In this example, http://jsfiddle.net/mnXH9/, the height of the content-display element and the height of the nav-menu-container are fixed. How do I make the height of the content-display and nav-menu-container elements extend to the remaining height of the browser window as the browser height is being adjusted by a user provided the height in the browser window is greater than 400px (The height of the header plus the nav-menu-container)? I would like for the scrollbar to be inside the nav-menu-content element if the total height in the browser is greater than the sum of the height of the header (100px) and the nav-menu-container element (300px). If the browser window's height is less than 400px then a scrollbar would appear in the browser window to allow scrolling throughout the 100px header and the 300px min-height of the below elements. EDIT Attached are photoshopped mockups of what the jsfiddle should look like. tab 1 when the browser height is less than 400px tab 1 when the browser height is greater than 400px tab 2 when the browser height is less than 400px tab 2 when the browser height is greater than 400px

    Read the article

  • rabbitmq-erlang-client, using rebar friendly pkg, works on dev env fails on rebar release

    - by lfurrea
    I am successfully using the rebar-friendly package of rabbitmq-erlang-client for a simple Hello World rebarized and OTP "compliant" app and things work fine on the dev environment. I am able to fire up an erl console and do my application:start(helloworld). and connect to the broker, open up a channel and communicate to queues. However, then I proceed to do rebar generate and it builds up the release just fine, but when I try to fire up from the self contained release package then things suddenly explode. I know rebar releases are known to be an obscure art, but I would like to know what are my options as far as deployment for an app using the rabbitmq-erlang-client. Below you will find the output of the console on the crash: =INFO REPORT==== 18-Dec-2012::16:41:35 === application: session_record exited: {{{badmatch, {error, {'EXIT', {undef, [{amqp_connection_sup,start_link, [{amqp_params_network,<<"guest">>,<<"guest">>,<<"/">>, "127.0.0.1",5672,0,0,0,infinity,none, [#Fun<amqp_auth_mechanisms.plain.3>, #Fun<amqp_auth_mechanisms.amqplain.3>], [],[]}], []}, {supervisor2,do_start_child_i,3, [{file,"src/supervisor2.erl"},{line,391}]}, {supervisor2,handle_call,3, [{file,"src/supervisor2.erl"},{line,413}]}, {gen_server,handle_msg,5, [{file,"gen_server.erl"},{line,588}]}, {proc_lib,init_p_do_apply,3, [{file,"proc_lib.erl"},{line,227}]}]}}}}, [{amqp_connection,start,1, [{file,"src/amqp_connection.erl"},{line,164}]}, {hello_qp,start_link,0,[{file,"src/hello_qp.erl"},{line,10}]}, {session_record_sup,init,1, [{file,"src/session_record_sup.erl"},{line,55}]}, {supervisor_bridge,init,1, [{file,"supervisor_bridge.erl"},{line,79}]}, {gen_server,init_it,6,[{file,"gen_server.erl"},{line,304}]}, {proc_lib,init_p_do_apply,3, [{file,"proc_lib.erl"},{line,227}]}]}, {session_record_app,start,[normal,[]]}} type: permanent

    Read the article

  • Use queried json data in a function

    - by SztupY
    I have a code similar to this: $.ajax({ success: function(data) { text = ''; for (var i = 0; i< data.length; i++) { text = text + '<a href="#" id="Data_'+ i +'">' + data[i].Name + "</a><br />"; } $("#SomeId").html(text); for (var i = 0; i< data.length; i++) { $("#Data_"+i).click(function() { alert(data[i]); RunFunction(data[i]); return false; }); } } }); This gets an array of some data in json format, then iterates through this array generating a link for each entry. Now I want to add a function for each link that will run a function that does something with this data. The problem is that the data seems to be unavailable after the ajax success function is called (although I thought that they behave like closures). What is the best way to use the queried json data later on? (I think setting it as a global variable would do the job, but I want to avoid that, mainly because this ajax request might be called multiple times) Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Prevent box shadow from showing on a specific side

    - by kaile
    Is there any way to create a css box-shadow in which regardless of the blur value, the shadow only appears on the desired sides? For example if I want to create a div with shadows on left and right sides and no shadow on the top or bottom. The div is not absolutely positioned and its height is determined by the content. -- Edit -- @ricebowl: I appreciate your answer. Maybe you can help with creating a complete solution to fix the problems stated in my reply to your solution... My page setup is as follows: <div id="container"> <div id="header"></div> <div id="content"></div> <div id="clearfooter"></div> </div> <div id="footer"></div> And CSS like this: #container {width:960px; min-height:100%; margin:0px auto -32px auto; position:relative; padding:0px; background-color:#e6e6e6; -moz-box-shadow: -3px 0px 5px rgba(0,0,0,.8), 3px 0px 5px rgba(0,0,0,.8);} #header {height:106px; position:relative;} #content {position:relative;} #clearFooter {height:32px; clear:both; display:block; padding:0px; margin:0px;} #footer {height:32px; padding:0px; position:relative; width:960px; margin:0px auto 0px auto;}

    Read the article

  • hiding <div> from vb.net code side

    - by reffe
    i have this code for hiding a table and a cell in aspx, backend vb.net Code - For Each row As HtmlTableRow In tab_a1.Rows If row.ID = "a1" Then For Each cell As HtmlTableCell In row.Cells cell.Visible = (cell.ID = "a1") Next ElseIf row.ID = "b1" Then For Each cell As HtmlTableCell In row.Cells cell.Visible = (cell.ID = "b1") Next Else row.Visible = False End If Next now instead of tables I'm using tags. How can i use similar code and make div's visible and invisible?

    Read the article

  • IIS not responding to the few requests from the client

    - by Haroon
    I am stuck with an issue with IIS 7.0. I need someone's help to find resolution on this, as this is very urgent requirement for us. Scenario I am trying to host the service in my server (Windows Server 2008 R2 and IIS 7.0) and my client is running in the XP machine with IIS 5.1. Few of my request sent from client get successful response and for few request I am getting the below exception in Visual studio when I try to debug. Exception in Visual studio 2010 An error occurred while receiving the HTTP response to This could be due to the service endpoint binding not using the HTTP protocol. This could also be due to HTTP request context being aborted by the server (possibly due to the service shutting down). See the server logs for more details. When referred to the server event viewer log I got the below events(Application error and System warning) during the above exception. Under System logs - Warning A process serving application pool 'DefaultAppPool' suffered a fatal communication error with the Windows Process Activation Service. The process id was '5372'. The data field contains the error number. Under Application log - Error Faulting application name: w3wp.exe, version: 7.5.7600.16385, time stamp: 0x4a5bd0eb Faulting module name: ntdll.dll, version: 6.1.7600.16559, time stamp: 0x4ba9b802 Exception code: 0xc0000374 Fault offset: 0x00000000000c6df2 Faulting process id: 0x14fc Faulting application start time: 0x01cbd042562e92c3 Faulting application path: c:\windows\system32\inetsrv\w3wp.exe Faulting module path: C:\Windows\SYSTEM32\ntdll.dll Report Id: 95f76467-3c35-11e0-a46e-7071bc5cc1ee From internet I am not able to get the exact solution. Therefore could anyone please help me out from getting resolution for the same that would be really a great help for me. Please let me know if you need more details. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Browser Side Photo Editing Library

    - by echox
    Hi! Currently I'm searching for a free solution to simple edit some photos at the users browser. Resizing and Cropping would be mandatory. I'm not searching for an online service (for example SUMO or PIXLR which are great), because I want to include the software into a WYSIWYG Editor. JavaScript would be really nice, but it would have to work in IE 8. Pixastic is a great example, but works only in modern browsers (not IE 8 :-/) Any suggestions what I could use? Maybe setting up some kind of image processing service with ImageMagick and communicating with it through AJAX could also be an solution? Has anyone gained some experience with such a solution?

    Read the article

  • Win32 Window Menu is appearing along left side instead of across top of window

    - by Khat
    I think I may be using a wrong window style or something or maybe just adding the menu to the window incorrectly. I'll post a link to an image here so you can see what I mean about the menu not diplaying correctly: http://img707.imageshack.us/img707/4828/wtfmenu.jpg And here's a link to the code that creates the menu and the window: http://pastebin.com/CBrSVXUD I'm sure I'm missing something simple and dumb in the labyrinth of styles, settings and etc that are part and parcel for the Win32 API. Has anyone seen this before and know what I'm doing wrong? I just want a 'normal' menu bar along the top, snug against the title bar. Thanks in advance for any advice.

    Read the article

  • How to access different domain data using Java script

    - by shoaibmohammed
    Hello there, Here is the issue. Suppose there is a DOMAIN A which is going to be the server containing a PHP Script file. The data from Domain A is to be accessed by a Client at DOMAIN B. I know it cannot be accessed directly using JavaScript. So what I did is, in Domain A I created a a JavaScript file as front-end for the PHP Script which AJAXes the PHP and returns the data. But unfortunately it din't work I came across an example having PHP as a Middle Man in the client side. But I donot want to keep any server side PHP code as a middle man in the client side. I just want to give out the Javascript to the client domain. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/578095/how-to-get-data-with-javascript-from-another-server DOMAIN A PHP - data.php <?php echo "Server returns data"; ?> JS - example.js Does the Ajax to the PHP function getData() { //assume ajax is done for data.php and data is retrieved, now return the data return ajaxed_data; } Domain B JS Client includes the example.js file from Domain A in his HTML <script type="text/javascript" src="http://www.DomainA.com/example.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> alert(getData()); </script> I hope I have made myself understandable ! Can this be established ? Its something like Google friend connect, what I mean is, just provide JavaScript to the client and thats it. Every thing carried out in server side Thankx for providing this forum

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 227 228 229 230 231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238  | Next Page >