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• AD - Using UserPrincipal.FindByIdentity and PrincipalContext with nested OU - C#

  - by Solid Snake

  Here is what I am trying to achieve: I have a nested OU structure that is about 5 levels deep. OU=Portal,OU=Dev,OU=Apps,OU=Grps,OU=Admin,DC=test,DC=com I am trying to find out if the user has permissions/exists at OU=Portal. Here's a snippet of what I currently have: PrincipalContext domain = new PrincipalContext( ContextType.Domain, "test.com", "OU=Portal,OU=Dev,OU=Apps,OU=Grps,OU=Admin,DC=test,DC=com"); UserPrincipal user = UserPrincipal.FindByIdentity(domain, myusername); PrincipalSearchResult<Principal> group = user.GetAuthorizationGroups(); For some unknown reason, the value user generated from the above code is always null. However, if I were to drop all the OU as follows: PrincipalContext domain = new PrincipalContext( ContextType.Domain, "test.com", "DC=test,DC=com"); UserPrincipal user = UserPrincipal.FindByIdentity(domain, myusername); PrincipalSearchResult<Principal> group = user.GetAuthorizationGroups(); this would work just fine and return me the correct user. I am simply trying to reduce the number of results as opposed to getting everything from AD. Is there anything that I am doing wrong? I've googled for hours and tested various combinations without much luck. Any help is appreciated. Thanks. Dan

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• 301 Redirect adding incorrect extra segments to a url

  - by Pentland_web

  I need to 301 redirect one segment of a url to a new version of it. My aim is redirect www.domain.co.uk/farm/whatever/ to www.domain.co.uk/farm_cottages/whatever/ The rule I am using to do this is: RedirectMatch 301 ^/farm/ /farm_cottages/ However for some reason it partially works but appends ?/farm/ after farm_cottages/ in the final url ie. www.domain.co.uk/farm_cottages/?/farm/whatever/ Here is my entire rewrite rule set as I believe one of the rewrite rules could be interfering with the redirect rule. #redirect /farm/ to /farm_cottages/ RedirectMatch 301 ^/farm/ /farm_cottages/ <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine on # no WWW to WWW RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^www.domain.co.uk$ [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://www.domain.co.uk/$1 [R=301,L] # Force trailing slash on URLs RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !(.*)/$ RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://www.domain.co.uk/$1/ [L,R=301] #Remove index.php RewriteCond $1 !\.(gif|jpe?g|png)$ [NC] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /index.php?/$1 [L] RewriteCond %{THE_REQUEST} ^[^/]*/index\.php [NC] RewriteRule ^index\.php(.+) $1 [R=301,L] </IfModule> The site is built in Expressionengine and so the segments of url do not represent actual folders - I don't think this should matter though. Any ideas would be much appreciated! Thanks

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• How to Authenticate to Active Directory Services (ADs) using .NET 3.5 / C#

  - by Ranger Pretzel

  After much struggling, I've figured out how to authenticate to my company's Active Directory using just 2 lines of code with the Domain, Username, and Password in .NET 2.0 (in C#): // set domain, username, password, and security parameters DirectoryEntry entry = new DirectoryEntry("LDAP://" + domain, username, password, AuthenticationTypes.Secure | AuthenticationTypes.SecureSocketsLayer); // force Bind to AD server to authenticate object obj = entry.NativeObject; If the 2nd line throws an exception, then the credentials and/or parameters were bad. (Specific reason can be found in the exception.) If no exception, then the credentials are good. Trying to do this in .NET 3.5 looks like it should be easy, but has me at a roadblock instead. Specifically, I've been working with this example: PrincipalContext domainContext = new PrincipalContext(ContextType.Domain, domain); using (domainContext) { return domainContext.ValidateCredentials(UserName, Password); } Unfortunately, this doesn't work for me as I don't have both ContextOptions set to Sealed/Secure and SSL (like I did above in the .NET 2.0 code.) There is an alternate constructor for PrincipalContext that allows setting the ContextOptions, but this also requires supplying a Distinguished Name (DN) of a Container Object and I don't know exactly what mine is or how I would find out. public PrincipalContext(ContextType contextType, string name, string container, ContextOptions options); // container: // The container on the store to use as the root of the context. All queries // are performed under this root, and all inserts are performed into this container. // For System.DirectoryServices.AccountManagement.ContextType.Domain and System.DirectoryServices.AccountManagement.ContextType.ApplicationDirectory // context types, this parameter is the distinguished name of a container object. Any suggestions?

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• NSString variable out of scope in sub-class (iPhone/Obj-C)

  - by Rich

  I am following along with an example in a book with the code exactly as it is in the example code as well as from the book, and I'm getting an error at runtime. I'll try to describe the life cycle of this variable as good as I can. I have a controller class with a nested array that is populated with string literals (NSArray of NSArrays, the nested NSArrays initialized with arrayWithObjects: where the objects are all string literals - @"some string"). I access these strings with a helper method added via a category on NSArray (to pull strings out of a nested array). My controller gets a reference to this string and assigns it to a NSString property on a child controller using dot notation. The code looks like this (nestedObjectAtIndexPath is my helper method): NSString *rowKey = [rowKeys nestedObjectAtIndexPath:indexPath]; controller.keypath = rowKey; keypath is a synthesized nonatomic, retain property defined in a based class. When I hit a breakpoint in the controller at the above code, the NSString's value is as expected. When I hit the next breakpoint inside the child controller, the object id of the keypath property is the same as before, but instead of showing me the value of the NSString, XCode says that the variable is "out of scope" which is also the error I see in the console. This also happens in another sub-class of the same parent. I tried googling, and I saw slightly similar cases where people were suggesting this had to do with retain counts. I was under the impression that by using dot notation on a synthesized property, my class would be using an "auto generated accessor" that would be increasing my retain count for me so that I wouldn't have this problem. Could there be any implications because I'm accessing it in a sub-class and the prop is defined in the parent? I don't see anything in the book's errata about this, but the book is relatively new (Apress - More iPhone 3 Dev). I also have double checked that my code matches the example 100 times.

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• Linq to SQL and concurrency with Rob Conery repository pattern

  - by David Hall

  I have implemented a DAL using Rob Conery's spin on the repository pattern (from the MVC Storefront project) where I map database objects to domain objects using Linq and use Linq to SQL to actually get the data. This is all working wonderfully giving me the full control over the shape of my domain objects that I want, but I have hit a problem with concurrency that I thought I'd ask about here. I have concurrency working but the solution feels like it might be wrong (just one of those gitchy feelings). The basic pattern is: private MyDataContext _datacontext private Table _tasks; public Repository(MyDataContext datacontext) { _dataContext = datacontext; } public void GetTasks() { _tasks = from t in _dataContext.Tasks; return from t in _tasks select new Domain.Task { Name = t.Name, Id = t.TaskId, Description = t.Description }; } public void SaveTask(Domain.Task task) { Task dbTask = null; // Logic for new tasks omitted... dbTask = (from t in _tasks where t.TaskId == task.Id select t).SingleOrDefault(); dbTask.Description = task.Description, dbTask.Name = task.Name, _dataContext.SubmitChanges(); } So with that implementation I've lost concurrency tracking because of the mapping to the domain task. I get it back by storing the private Table which is my datacontext list of tasks at the time of getting the original task. I then update the tasks from this stored Table and save what I've updated This is working - I get change conflict exceptions raised when there are concurrency violations, just as I want. However, it just screams to me that I've missed a trick. Is there a better way of doing this? I've looked at the .Attach method on the datacontext but that appears to require storing the original version in a similar way to what I'm already doing. I also know that I could avoid all this by doing away with the domain objects and letting the Linq to SQL generated objects all the way up my stack - but I dislike that just as much as I dislike the way I'm handling concurrency.

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• ASP.NET MVC 2 matches correct area route but generates URL to the first registered area instead.

  - by Sandor Drieënhuizen

  I'm working on a S#arpArchitecture 1.5 project, which uses ASP.NET MVC 2. I've been trying to get areas to work properly but I ran into a problem: The ASP.NET MVC 2 routing engine matches the correct route to my area but then it generates an URL that belongs to the first registered area instead. Here's my request URL: /Framework/Authentication/LogOn?ReturnUrl=%2fDefault.aspx I'm using the Route Tester from Phil Haack and it shows: Matched Route: Framework/{controller}/{action}/{id} Generated URL: /Data/Authentication/LogOn?ReturnUrl=%2FDefault.aspx using the route "Data/{controller}/{action}/{id}" That's clearly wrong, the URL should point to the Framework area, not the Data area. This is how I register my routes, nothing special there IMO. private static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); routes.MapRoute( "default", "{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); } The area registration classes all look like this. Again, nothing special. public class FrameworkAreaRegistration : AreaRegistration { public override string AreaName { get { return "Framework"; } } public override void RegisterArea(AreaRegistrationContext context) { context.MapRoute( "Framework_default", "Framework/{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); } }

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• UIView rotation, modal view lanscape and portrait, parent fails to render

  - by Ben

  Hi everyone, I've hit a bit of a roadblock with something that I hope that someone in here can help me out with. I'll describe the 'state of play' first, and then what the issue is, so here goes; I have a series of view controllers that are chained together with a Navigation Controller (this works just fine), All of these view controllers support portrait mode only (by design), In one of the view controllers (the 'end' one actually) the user can click a table cell to pop up a modal view controller (using presentModalViewController(...) of course) This modal view controller supports portrait and landscape modes (and this works), When the user clicks the 'Done' button on this modal view controller we pop and pass control back to the parent view controller, however; If the user is in portrait mode when they click 'Done' then the parent displays itself just fine, If the user is in landscape mode when they click 'Done' then the parent displays a totally white, blank screen (that covers the whole screen). It is as if the controller does not know how to render in landscape and just doesn't bother. I'd like to be able to have this parent view render in portrait no matter what the orientation of the phone is when the user clicks the 'Done' button. Various forum posts suggest using the UIDevice method 'setOrientation' (but this is undocumented and will get our app rejected apparently). Another suggestion was to set the 'statusBarOrientation' to portrait in the 'viewWillAppear' method but that had no effect. So I am a bit stuck! Has any encountered anything like this before? If need be I can provide code, if that will help anyone diagnose the problem for me. Thanks in advance! Cheers, Ben

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• MVC moq unit test the object before RedirecToAction()

  - by Daoming Yang

  I want to test the data inside the "item" object before it redirect to another action. public ActionResult WebPageEdit(WebPage item, FormCollection form) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { item.Description = Utils.CrossSiteScriptingAttackCheck(item.Description); item.Content = Utils.CrossSiteScriptingAttackCheck(item.Content); item.Title = item.Title.Trim(); item.DateUpdated = DateTime.Now; // Other logic stuff here webPagesRepository.Save(item); return RedirectToAction("WebPageList"); } Here is my Test method: [Test] public void Admin_WebPageEdit_Save() { var controller = new AdminController(); controller.webPagesRepository = DataMock.WebPageDataInit(); controller.categoriesRepository = DataMock.WebPageCategoryDataInit(); FormCollection form = DataMock.CreateWebPageFormCollection(); RedirectToRouteResult actionResult = (RedirectToRouteResult)controller.WebPageEdit(webPagesRepository.Get(1), form); Assert.IsNotNull(actionResult); Assert.AreEqual("WebPageList", actionResult.RouteValues["action"]); var item = ((ViewResult)controller.WebPageEdit(webPagesRepository.Get(1), form)).ViewData.Model as WebPage; Assert.NotNull(item); Assert.AreEqual(2, item.CategoryID); } It failed at this line: var item = ((ViewResult)controller.WebPageEdit(webPagesRepository.Get(1), form)).ViewData.Model as WebPage; I am thinking about is there any ways to test the "item" object before it redirect to other actions?

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• Creating A Single Generic Handler For Agatha?

  - by David

  I'm using the Agatha request/response library (and StructureMap, as utilized by Agatha 1.0.5.0) for a service layer that I'm prototyping, and one thing I've noticed is the large number of handlers that need to be created. It generally makes sense that any request/response type pair would need their own handler. However, as this scales to a large enterprise environment that's going to be A LOT of handlers. What I've started doing is dividing up the enterprise domain into logical processor classes (dozens of processors instead of many hundreds or possibly eventually thousands handlers). The convention is that each request/response type (all of which inherit from a domain base request/response pair, which inherit from Agatha's) gets exactly one function in a processor somewhere. The generic handler (which inherits from Agatha's RequestHandler) then uses reflection in the Handle method to find the method for the given TREQUEST/TRESPONSE and invoke it. If it can't find one or if it finds more than one, it returns a TRESPONSE containing an error message (messages are standardized in the domain's base response class). The goal here is to allow developers across the enterprise to just concern themselves with writing their request/response types and processor functions in the domain and not have to spend additional overhead creating handler classes which would all do exactly the same thing (pass control to a processor function). However, it seems that I still need to have defined a handler class (albeit empty, since the base handler takes care of everything) for each request/response type pair. Otherwise, the following exception is thrown when dispatching a request to the service: StructureMap Exception Code: 202 No Default Instance defined for PluginFamily Agatha.ServiceLayer.IRequestHandler`1[[TSFG.Domain.DTO.Actions.HelloWorldRequest, TSFG.Domain.DTO, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null]], Agatha.ServiceLayer, Version=1.0.5.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=6f21cf452a4ffa13 Is there a way that I'm not seeing to tell StructureMap and/or Agatha to always use the base handler class for all request/response type pairs? Or maybe to use Reflection.Emit to generate empty handlers in memory at application start just to satisfy the requirement? I'm not 100% familiar with these libraries and am learning as I go along, but so far my attempts at both those possible approaches have been unsuccessful. Can anybody offer some advice on solving this, or perhaps offer another approach entirely?

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• MediaWiki installed on virtual server accessed through Apache ProxyPass

  - by Eugen Mihailescu

  Note: where you will see "xttp" actualy is "http" but stackoverflow rules do not allow me to use more than 1 hyperlink in one post because I do not have enough "credit" to do that :) INTRODUCTION Hi, I have installed a MediaWiki 1.15.3 software on a private LAN on a Linux box (CentOS 5), with: Apache 2.2.3, PHP 5.1.6, MySQL 5.0.45. Let's name this Linux box "wiki box". Public users can't access this wiki as it is hosted on a private LAN. For external users (the Internet users) we have a Linux router (with Apache 2.0.52) where we host our website (ex: xttp://www.cubique.ro). Let's name this Linux box "router". WHAT I WANT What I want to do is: to create a virtual domain (as xttp://wiki.cubique.ro) on the "router" setup the virtual domain to forward all xttp requests to my private "wiki box" (ex: xttp://192.168.0.200/wiki_root/) WHAT I'VE DONE ALREADY On router's Apache (httpd.conf) I have created a VirtualHost as: < VirtualHost 0.0.0.0:80 ServerName wiki.cubique.ro DocumentRoot /someinternalpath/html ScriptAlias /cgi-bin /someinternalpath/cgi-bin ... Well, after I have navigate at wiki.cubique.ro I saw a blank web page, as /someinternalpath/html has an empty index.htm page. No problem, I know that I have to "teach" the router to pass all the access of virtual domain (wiki.cubique.ro) to the wiki box, where the real pages are stored. So I teach the Apache to ProxyPass the access of virtual domain root to the wiki box root like this: ...the following lines lies in the same virtual domain definition, see above ProxyPass / xttp://192.168.0.200/wiki/ ProxyPassReverse / xttp://192.168.0.200/wiki/ < /VirtualHost WHAT IS THE ISSUE If I access the wiki using the internal address (such as xttp://192.168.0.200/wiki/) it looks splendid (style sheets, everything). When I access the wiki using the virtual domain name ( xttp://wiki.cubique.ro ) it shows the content but no style sheet. Worse than that, no internal wiki links are working at all. Make a try: http://wiki.cubique.ro FINALLY, THE QUESTION Anyone has a clue how to deal with this? Thanks.

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• UINavigationController creating a blank view out of thin air?

  - by Alex Gosselin

  Ok, this one is really weird... I can't show code for it exactly cause it follows a pretty snake-like pattern through subclasses etc, there would be a pile of it. The important parts are that I push a view controller, which during viewWillAppear pushes another view controller onto the nav controller. My nav controller is an item in a tab bar. When I press back twice, I wind up at a blank view with the same title as my root view controller, (I have no other views having this title). I even tested and put a NSLog() in viewWillAppear to make sure it was the same view appearing, but for some reason the mystery blank view is showing up instead of my view. I am able to get the original view back by pressing the button on the tab bar again. (The one that corresponds to the nav controller). This confuses me greatly, so any help would be appreciated. I will post code if somebody could narrow down what code to put. Thanks.

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• ASP.NET MVC 2 router matches correct area route but generates URL to the first registered area inste

  - by Sandor Drieënhuizen

  I'm working on a S#arpArchitecture 1.5 project, which uses ASP.NET MVC 2. I've been trying to get areas to work properly but I ran into a problem: The ASP.NET MVC 2 routing engine matches the correct route to my area but then it generates an URL that belongs to the first registered area instead. Here's my request URL: /Framework/Authentication/LogOn?ReturnUrl=%2fDefault.aspx I'm using the Route Tester from Phil Haack and it shows: Matched Route: Framework/{controller}/{action}/{id} Generated URL: /Data/Authentication/LogOn?ReturnUrl=%2FDefault.aspx using the route "Data/{controller}/{action}/{id}" That's clearly wrong, the URL should point to the Framework area, not the Data area. This is how I register my routes, nothing special there IMO. private static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); routes.MapRoute( "default", "{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); } The area registration classes all look like this. Again, nothing special. public class FrameworkAreaRegistration : AreaRegistration { public override string AreaName { get { return "Framework"; } } public override void RegisterArea(AreaRegistrationContext context) { context.MapRoute( "Framework_default", "Framework/{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); } }

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• ASP.NET Emails blocked by Spam filter on Exchange

  - by Amadiere

  I'm trying to send an email via some C# ASP.NET code. This is being sent to our internal mailrelay server, with our standard "from" address (e.g. [email protected]). In some instances, this is getting through OK, in others, it's getting blocked by the Spam Filter. An example of our Web.config <mailSettings> <smtp from="[email protected]"> <network host="mailrelay.domain.com" defaultCredentials="true" /> </smtp> </mailSettings> I've spoken with our Exchange Server team and they inform me that on occasions, our mail looks sufficiently like spam and is automatically blocked. The algorithm appears to be points based and blocks on a score of 45. 20 points are instantly added because our system is not sending the hostname with the domain name suffixed. e.g. the server is hoping for myServerName.domain.com, but despite being part of that domain, the server is sending from myServerName. I've been asked to look at altering the EHLO string that is sent and/or influencing the host so that it is its fully qualified name. However, this makes little sense to me, and although I understand the concept of what I need to change - I don't know where to begin looking for the fix.

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• asp.net mvc - How to create fake test objects quickly and efficiently

  - by Simon G

  Hi, I'm currently testing the controller in my mvc app and I'm creating a fake repository for testing. However I seem to be writing more code and spending more time for the fakes than I do on the actual repositories. Is this right? The code I have is as follows: Controller public partial class SomeController : Controller { IRepository repository; public SomeController(IRepository rep) { repository = rep; } public virtaul ActionResult Index() { // Some logic var model = repository.GetSomething(); return View(model); } } IRepository public interface IRepository { Something GetSomething(); } Fake Repository public class FakeRepository : IRepository { private List<Something> somethingList; public FakeRepository(List<Something> somethings) { somthingList = somthings; } public Something GetSomething() { return somethingList; } } Fake Data class FakeSomethingData { public static List<Something> CreateSomethingData() { var somethings = new List<Something>(); for (int i = 0; i < 100; i++) { somethings.Add(new Something { value1 = String.Format("value{0}", i), value2 = String.Format("value{0}", i), value3 = String.Format("value{0}", i) }); } return somethings; } } Actual Test [TestClass] public class SomethingControllerTest { SomethingController CreateSomethingController() { var testData = FakeSomethingData.CreateSomethingData(); var repository = new FakeSomethingRepository(testData); SomethingController controller = new SomethingController(repository); return controller; } [TestMethod] public void SomeTest() { // Arrange var controller = CreateSomethingController(); // Act // Some test here // Arrange } } All this seems to be a lot of extra code, especially as I have more than one repository. Is there a more efficient way of doing this? Maybe using mocks? Thanks

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• ASP.NET MVC Using Castle Windsor IoC

  - by Mad Halfling

  I have an app, modelled on the one from Apress Pro ASP.NET MVC that uses castle windsor's IoC to instantiate the controllers with their respective repositories, and this is working fine e.g. public class ItemController : Controller { private IItemsRepository itemsRepository; public ItemController(IItemsRepository windsorItemsRepository) { this.itemsRepository = windsorItemsRepository; } with using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.Mvc; using Castle.Windsor; using Castle.Windsor.Configuration.Interpreters; using Castle.Core.Resource; using System.Reflection; using Castle.Core; namespace WebUI { public class WindsorControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { WindsorContainer container; // The constructor: // 1. Sets up a new IoC container // 2. Registers all components specified in web.config // 3. Registers all controller types as components public WindsorControllerFactory() { // Instantiate a container, taking configuration from web.config container = new WindsorContainer(new XmlInterpreter(new ConfigResource("castle"))); // Also register all the controller types as transient var controllerTypes = from t in Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().GetTypes() where typeof(IController).IsAssignableFrom(t) select t; foreach (Type t in controllerTypes) container.AddComponentWithLifestyle(t.FullName, t, LifestyleType.Transient); } // Constructs the controller instance needed to service each request protected override IController GetControllerInstance(Type controllerType) { return (IController)container.Resolve(controllerType); } } } controlling the controller creation. I sometimes need to create other repository instances within controllers, to pick up data from other places, can I do this using the CW IoC, if so then how? I have been playing around with the creation of new controller classes, as they should auto-register with my existing code (if I can get this working, I can register them properly later) but when I try to instantiate them there is an obvious objection as I can't supply a repos class for the constructor (I was pretty sure that was the wrong way to go about it anyway). Any help (especially examples) would be much appreciated. Cheers MH

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• Creating cookieless application on development machine with asp.net

  - by zaladane

  I tried posting this on ServerFault with no luck so i am trying here. I am thinking about setting up a new domain to host static content on my website and have it cookieless just like Stackoverflow with their static domain. So before going ahead and buying the domain and setting it up I wanted to test it on my developement machine first under localhost (I have to mention that i am planning on having IIS running on my new domain for the static files). I therefore created a new application under IIS and disabled session state and forms authentication. When my main application needs resources like css, images and js , I use the path to the "static" application where they are hosted. The problem is that when I look at the request and the response for the requested files, they still have the session_id cookie defined as well as the asp.net authentication cookie. Is it at all possible to accomplish what i am trying to do on a development machine or do i have to just go ahead and purchase the new domain which hopefully with make things right? I tried to read about cookieless domain but can't figure out what i might be missing.

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• SEO: A whois server that work for .SE domains?

  - by Niels Bosma

  I'm developing a small domain checker and I can't get .SE to work: public string Lookup(string domain, RecordType recordType, SeoToolsSettings.Tld tld) { TcpClient tcp = new TcpClient(); tcp.Connect(tld.WhoIsServer, 43); string strDomain = recordType.ToString() + " " + domain + "\r\n"; byte[] bytDomain = Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes(strDomain.ToCharArray()); Stream s = tcp.GetStream(); s.Write(bytDomain, 0, strDomain.Length); StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(tcp.GetStream(), Encoding.ASCII); string strLine = ""; StringBuilder builder = new StringBuilder(); while (null != (strLine = sr.ReadLine())) { builder.AppendLine(strLine); } tcp.Close(); if (tld.WhoIsDelayMs > 0) System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(tld.WhoIsDelayMs); return builder.ToString(); } I've tried whois servers whois.nic-se.se and whois.iis.se put I keep getting: # Copyright (c) 1997- .SE (The Internet Infrastructure Foundation). # All rights reserved. # The information obtained through searches, or otherwise, is protected # by the Swedish Copyright Act (1960:729) and international conventions. # It is also subject to database protection according to the Swedish # Copyright Act. # Any use of this material to target advertising or # similar activities is forbidden and will be prosecuted. # If any of the information below is transferred to a third # party, it must be done in its entirety. This server must # not be used as a backend for a search engine. # Result of search for registered domain names under # the .SE top level domain. # The data is in the UTF-8 character set and the result is # printed with eight bits. "domain google.se" not found. Edit: I've tried changing to UTF8 with no other result. When I try using whois from sysinternals I get the correct result, but not with my code, not even using SE.whois-servers.net. /Niels

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• django inner redirects

  - by Zayatzz

  Hello I have one project that in my own development computer (uses mod_wsgi to serve the project) caused no problems. In live server (uses mod_fastcgi) it generates 500 though. my url conf is like this: # -*- coding: utf-8 -*- from django.conf.urls.defaults import * # Uncomment the next two lines to enable the admin: from django.contrib import admin admin.autodiscover() urlpatterns = patterns('', url(r'^admin/', include(admin.site.urls)), url(r'^', include('jalka.game.urls')), ) and # -*- coding: utf-8 -*- from django.conf.urls.defaults import * from django.contrib.auth import views as auth_views urlpatterns = patterns('jalka.game.views', url(r'^$', view = 'front', name = 'front',), url(r'^ennusta/(?P<game_id>\d+)/$', view = 'ennusta', name = 'ennusta',), url(r'^login/$', auth_views.login, {'template_name': 'game/login.html'}, name='auth_login'), url(r'^logout/$', auth_views.logout, {'template_name': 'game/logout.html'}, name='auth_logout'), url(r'^arvuta/$', view = 'arvuta', name = 'arvuta',), ) and .htaccess is like that: Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on RewriteOptions MaxRedirects=10 # RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} . RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www\.domain\.com RewriteRule (.*) http://domain.com/$1 [R=301,L] AddHandler fastcgi-script .fcgi RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^jalka\.domain\.com$ [NC] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteRule ^(.*) cgi-bin/fifa2010.fcgi/$1 [QSA,L] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^subdomain\.otherdomain\.eu$ [NC] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteRule ^(.*) cgi-bin/django.fcgi/$1 [QSA,L] Notice, that i have also other project set up with same .htaccess and that one is running just fine with more complex urls and views fifa2010.fcgi: #!/usr/local/bin/python # -*- coding: utf-8 -*- import sys, os DOMAIN = "domain.com" APPNAME = "jalka" PREFIX = "/www/apache/domains/www.%s" % (DOMAIN,) # Add a custom Python path. sys.path.insert(0, os.path.join(PREFIX, "htdocs/django/Django-1.2.1")) sys.path.insert(0, os.path.join(PREFIX, "htdocs")) sys.path.insert(0, os.path.join(PREFIX, "htdocs/jalka")) # Switch to the directory of your project. (Optional.) os.chdir(os.path.join(PREFIX, "htdocs", APPNAME)) # Set the DJANGO_SETTINGS_MODULE environment variable. os.environ['DJANGO_SETTINGS_MODULE'] = "%s.settings" % (APPNAME,) from django.core.servers.fastcgi import runfastcgi runfastcgi(method="threaded", daemonize="false") Alan

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• Objecive C Error, Message sent to deallocated object

  - by Dave C

  Hello, I have several buttons on my app that are being created dynamically. They are all pointed at the button click event when pressed. When the button pressed method is called, the sender's tag(int value) is parsed into the controllers house ID. It works with one of the buttons... the first one created to be specific, but the others throw the following error: -[CFNumber intValue]: message sent to deallocated instance 0xc4bb0ff0 I am not releasing these buttons anywhere in my code... I haven't set them to auto release or anything like that... just wondering why they are doing this on the click. The button click event: - (IBAction) ButtonClick: (id) sender { HouseholdViewController *controller = [[HouseholdViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"HouseholdViewController" bundle:nil]; controller.delegate = self; controller.HouseID = [(NSInteger)[(UIButton *)sender tag] intValue]; //this line throws an error controller.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleFlipHorizontal; [self presentModalViewController:controller animated:YES]; [controller release]; } Where I am creating the buttons: UIButton *button = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeCustom]; button.frame = CGRectMake(MyLongInScreenCoords, MyLatInScreenCoords, 50, 50); UIImage *buttonImageNormal = [UIImage imageNamed:@"blue_pin.png"]; UIImage *strechableButtonImageNormal = [buttonImageNormal stretchableImageWithLeftCapWidth:50 topCapHeight:50]; [button setBackgroundImage:strechableButtonImageNormal forState:UIControlStateNormal]; [self.view addSubview:button]; button.tag = [NSNumber numberWithInt:[[words objectAtIndex: i] intValue]]; ButtonPoints[CurrentHouseCount][0] = button; ButtonPoints[CurrentHouseCount][1] = [NSValue valueWithCGPoint:CGPointMake(MyActualLat, MyActualLong)]; [button addTarget:self action:@selector(ButtonClick:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; CurrentHouseCount++; Thank you for any assistance.

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• Simple code to expire Drupal cookie?

  - by user310594

  With a single click this simple script will do a multi-logout of: Moodle Elgg 2 MyBB's and (not) Drupal. <?php setcookie( 'Elgg', '', -3600, '/', '.domain.com', false, false); setcookie( 'http_auth_ext_complete', '1', -3600, '/d/', '.domain.com', false, false); // setcookie( 'http_auth_ext_complete', '1', -3600, '/d/', 'domain.com', false, false); setcookie( 'mybbuser', '', -3600, '/', '.domain.com', false, false); setcookie( 'mybbuser', '', -3600, '/bb/', '.domain.com', false, false); // unset all 3 Moodle cookies, the lazy way if (isset($_SERVER['HTTP_COOKIE'])) { $cookies = explode(';', $_SERVER['HTTP_COOKIE']); foreach($cookies as $cookie) { $parts = explode('=', $cookie); $name = trim($parts[0]); setcookie($name, '', time()-1000); setcookie($name, '', time()-1000, '/'); } } ?> This works on four sites but the Drupal cookie won't quit. How can I do the same with Drupal? Note: Drupal uses 'host' instead of 'domain', neither with or without the '.' works so far. Thank you.

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• ASP MVC.Net 3 RC2 bug ?

  - by Jarek Waliszko

  Hello, so far I've been using ASP.Net 3 BETA. Everything was working fine till the update to RC2 version. Of course I've read ScottGu's article about RC2. My problem is following. Basically I have 2 controllers: public class DynamicPageController : Controller { public ActionResult Redirect(string resource, int? pageNumber, int? id) { } } public class SystemController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { } } In the Globals.asax I have routes like this: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.MapRoute( "SystemRoute", "System/{action}", new { controller = "System", action = "Index" } ); routes.MapRoute( "PageRoute", "{resource}/{id}/{pageNumber}", new { controller = "DynamicPage", action = "Redirect", resource = UrlParameter.Optional, pageNumber = UrlParameter.Optional, id = UrlParameter.Optional } ); } In the code, I have simple link creation: System.Web.Mvc.UrlHelper u = new System.Web.Mvc.UrlHelper(context); string url = u.Action("Index", "System"); and the url is "/my_app/System" in both versions (BETA and RC2) But the code below (the syntax is the same as above, only controller and action names are different): string url = u.Action("Redirect", "DynamicPage", new RouteValueDictionary(new { resource = "Home" })); gives url which is null in RC2. It should be (and in fact in BETA was) "/my_app/Home" Why ? Is it a bug ? How can I create url for my "DynamicPage" controller ? Regards BTW: From where can I now download ASP.Mvc BETA version along with ASP.Net Web Pages 1.0 installers ? Since RC2 announcement I have problems finding mentioned 2 installers. Normally I would upgrade my code but this issue described above makes me stay with BETA for a while, since I have no time for migration and testing everything now.

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• What is causing Apache2 to display PHP as plain text in this config file?

  - by rxgx

  I am trying to run PHP and Rails in the same virtual host, however, PHP is being displayed as plain/text. When I create a test host without all the rewrites and proxy-ing, Apache2 will process the PHP as desired. Where in my config file have I gone wrong? <VirtualHost *:80> #ServerName staging.domain.com #ServerAlias www.domain.com DocumentRoot /home/demo/vhosts/domain/public <Directory /> Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride None </Directory> <Directory /home/demo/vhosts/domain/public> Options Indexes FollowSymLinks MultiViews AllowOverride None Order allow,deny allow from all </Directory> RewriteEngine On <Proxy balancer://thinservers> BalancerMember http://127.0.0.1:5000 BalancerMember http://127.0.0.1:5001 BalancerMember http://127.0.0.1:5002 </Proxy> # Redirect all non-static requests to thin RewriteCond %{DOCUMENT_ROOT}/%{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteRule ^/(.*)$ balancer://thinservers%{REQUEST_URI} [P,QSA,L] ProxyPass / balancer://thinservers/ ProxyPassReverse / balancer://thinservers/ ProxyPreserveHost on <Proxy *> Order deny,allow Allow from all </Proxy> # Custom log file locations ErrorLog /home/demo/vhosts/domain/log/error.log CustomLog /home/demo/vhosts/domain/log/access.log combined </VirtualHost>

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• Setting routes in application.ini in Zend Framework

  - by Paul Watson

  I'm a Zend Framework newbie, and I'm trying to work out how to add another route to my application.ini file. I currently have my routes set up as follows: resources.router.routes.artists.route = /artists/:stub resources.router.routes.artists.defaults.controller = artists resources.router.routes.artists.defaults.action = display ...so that /artists/joe-bloggs uses the "display" action of the "artists" controller to dipslay the profile the artist in question - that works fine. What I want to do now is to set up another route so that /artists/joe-bloggs/random-gallery-name goes to the "galleries" action of the "artists" controller. I tried adding an additional block to the application.ini file (beneath the block above) like so: resources.router.routes.artists.route = /artists/:stub/:gallery resources.router.routes.artists.defaults.controller = artists resources.router.routes.artists.defaults.action = galleries ...but when I do that the page at /artists/joe-bloggs no longer works (Zend tries to route it to the "joe-bloggs" controller). How do I set up the routes in application.ini so that I can change the action of the "artists" controller depending on whether "/:gallery" exists? I realise I'm probably making a really stupid mistake, so please point out my stupidity and set me on the right path (no pun intended).

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• Grails - Language prefix in url mappings

  - by Art79

  Hi there im having problem with language mappings. The way i want it to work is that language is encoded in the url like /appname/de/mycontroller/whatever If you go to /appname/mycontroller/action it should check your session and if there is no session pick language based on browser preference and redirect to the language prefixed site. If you have session then it will display english. English does not have en prefix (to make it harder). So i created mappings like this: class UrlMappings { static mappings = { "/$lang/$controller/$action?/$id?"{ constraints { lang(matches:/pl|en/) } } "/$lang/store/$category" { controller = "storeItem" action = "index" constraints { lang(matches:/pl|en/) } } "/$lang/store" { controller = "storeItem" action = "index" constraints { lang(matches:/pl|en/) } } "/$controller/$action?/$id?"{ lang="en" constraints { } } "/store/$category" { lang="en" controller = "storeItem" action = "index" } "/store" { lang="en" controller = "storeItem" action = "index" } "/"(view:"/index") "500"(view:'/error') } } Its not fully working and langs are hardcoded just for now. I think i did something wrong. Some of the reverse mappings work but some dont add language. If i use link tag and pass params:[lang:'pl'] then it works but if i add params:[lang:'pl', page:2] then it does not. In the second case both lang and page number become parameters in the query string. What is worse they dont affect the locale so page shows in english. Can anyone please point me to the documentation what are the rules of reverse mappings or even better how to implement such language prefix in a good way ? THANKS

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• Advanced tasks using Web.Config transformation

  - by dcadenas

  Does anyone know if there is a way to "transform" specific sections of values instead of replacing the whole value or an attribute? For example, I've got several appSettings entries that specify the Urls for different webservices. These entries are slightly different in the dev environment than the production environment. Some are less trivial than others <!-- DEV ENTRY --> <appSettings> <add key="serviceName1_WebsService_Url" value="http://wsServiceName1.dev.domain.com/v1.2.3.4/entryPoint.asmx" /> <add key="serviceName2_WebsService_Url" value="http://ma1-lab.lab1.domain.com/v1.2.3.4/entryPoint.asmx" /> </appSettings> <!-- PROD ENTRY --> <appSettings> <add key="serviceName1_WebsService_Url" value="http://wsServiceName1.prod.domain.com/v1.2.3.4/entryPoint.asmx" /> <add key="serviceName2_WebsService_Url" value="http://ws.ServiceName2.domain.com/v1.2.3.4/entryPoint.asmx" /> </appSettings> So far, I know I can do something like this in the Web.Release.Config: <add xdt:Locator="Match(key)" xdt:Transform="SetAttributes(value)" key="serviceName1_WebsService_Url" value="http://wsServiceName1.prod.domain.com/v1.2.3.4/entryPoint.asmx" /> <add xdt:Locator="Match(key)" xdt:Transform="SetAttributes(value)" key="serviceName2_WebsService_Url" value="http://ws.ServiceName2.domain.com/v1.2.3.4/entryPoint.asmx" /> However, everytime the Version for that webservice is updated, I would have to update the Web.Release.Config as well, which defeats the purpose of simplfying my web.config updates. I know I could also split that URL into different sections and update them independently, but I rather have it all in one key. I've looked through the available web.config Transforms but nothings seems to be geared towars what I am trying to accomplish. These are the websites I am using as a reference: Vishal Joshi's blog, MSDN Help, and Channel9 video Any help would be much appreciated! -D

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