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• VS 2008 C++ build output?

  - by STingRaySC

  Why when I watch the build output from a VC++ project in VS do I see: 1Compiling... 1a.cpp 1b.cpp 1c.cpp 1d.cpp 1e.cpp [etc...] 1Generating code... 1x.cpp 1y.cpp [etc...] The output looks as though several compilation units are being handled before any code is generated. Is this really going on? I'm trying to improve build times, and by using pre-compiled headers, I've gotten great speedups for each ".cpp" file, but there is a relatively long pause during the "Generating Code..." message. I do not have "Whole Program Optimization" nor "Link Time Code Generation" turned on. If this is the case, then why? Why doesn't VC++ compile each ".cpp" individually (which would include the code generation phase)? If this isn't just an illusion of the output, is there cross-compilation-unit optimization potentially going on here? There don't appear to be any compiler options to control that behavior (I know about WPO and LTCG, as mentioned above). EDIT: The build log just shows the ".obj" files in the output directory, one per line. There is no indication of "Compiling..." vs. "Generating code..." steps. EDIT: I have confirmed that this behavior has nothing to do with the "maximum number of parallel project builds" setting in Tools - Options - Projects and Solutions - Build and Run. Nor is it related to the MSBuild project build output verbosity setting. Indeed if I cancel the build before the "Generating code..." step, the ".obj" files will not exist for the most recent set of "compiled" files. E.g., if I cancel the build during "c.cpp" above, I will see only "a.obj" and "b.obj".

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• Bidirectional/Loopback UDP in .net

  - by Jason Williams

  I've got an app that needs to transmit and receive on the same port. This can happen in two cases: Where the PC is talking to a piece of remote hardware. It "replies to sender", so the datagrams come back in to my PC via the sending port. Where the PC is talking to itself (loopback mode) for testing and demoing (a test app feeds fake data into our main app via UDP). This only seems to fail when trying to achieve loopback. The only way I can get it working is to ensure that the receiver is set up first - something I cannot guarantee. Can anyone help narrow down my search by suggesting a "correct" way to implement the UdpClient(s) to handle the above situations reliably? (The only solution that I've found to work reliably with the remote hardware is to use a single UdpClient in a bidirectional manner, although I'm working with legacy code that may be influencing that finding. I've tried using two UdpClients, but they step on each others toes - In some cases, once one client is started up, the other client cannot connect. With ExclusiveAddressUse/ReuseAddress set up to allow port sharing, I can almost get it to work, apart from the receiver having to start first)

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• What would you write in a consitution (law book) for a programmers' country?

  - by Developer Art

  After we have got our great place to talk about professional matters and sozialize online - on SO, I believe the next logical step would be to found our own country! I invite you all to participate and bring together your available resources. We will buy an island, better even a group of island so that we could establish states like .NET territories, Java land, Linux republic etc. We will build a society of programmers (girls - we need you too). To the organizational side, we're going to need some constitution or a law book. I suggest we write it together. I make it a wiki as it should be a cooperative effort. I'll open the work. Section 1. Programmers' rights. Every citizen has a right to an Internet connection 24/7. Every citizen can freely choose the field of interest Section 2. Programmers' obligations. Every citizen must embrace the changing nature of the profession and constanly educate himself Section 3. Law enforcement. Code duplication when can be avoided is punished by limiting the bandwith speed to 64Kbit for a period of one week. Using ugly hacks instead of refactoring code is punished by cutting the Internet connection for a period of one month. Usage of technologies older than 5/10 years is punished by restricting the web access to the sites last updated 5/10 years ago for a period of one month. Please feel free to modify and extend the list. We'll need to have it ready before we proceed formally with the country foundation. A purchase fund will be established shortly. Everyone is invited to participate.

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• C# DynamicMethod prelink

  - by soywiz

  I'm the author of a psp emulator made in C#. I'm generating lots of "DynamicMethod" using ILGenerator. I'm converting assembly code into an AST, and then generating IL code and building that DynamicMethod. I'm doing this in another thread, so I can generate new methods while the program is executing others so it can run smoothly. My problem is that the native code generation is lazy, so the machine code is generated when the function is called, not when the IL is generated. So it generates in the program executing thread, native code generation is prettly slow as it is the asm-ast-il step. I have tried the Marshal.Prelink method that it is suposed to generate the machine code before executing the function. It does work on Mono, but it doesn't work on MS .NET. Marshal.Prelink(MethodInfo); Is there a way of prelinking a DynamicMethod on MS .NET? I thought adding a boolean parameter to the function that if set, exits the function immediately so no code is actually executed. I could "prelink" that way, but I think that's a nasty solution I want to avoid. Any idea?

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• jQuery UI Rang Slider show divs based on selected range

  - by andi_sf

  I have set up a range slider that should show/hide divs based on their range values - meaning if the range of the one specifies in the div falls into the selected range in the slider it should show - the others hide. Somehow it does not work correctly - if anybody could help that would be greatly appreciated. My code so far: $("#slider").slider({ range: true, min: 150, max: 280, step: 5, values: [150, 280], slide: function(event, ui) { $("#amount").val('Min. Value' + ui.values[0] + ' - Max. Value' + ui.values[1]); }, change: function(event, ui) { $('#col-2 div').each(function(){ var valueS = parseInt($(this).attr("class")); var valueX = parseInt($(this).attr("title")); if (valueS < ui.values[0] && valueX <= ui.values[1] || valueS ui.values[0] && valueX = ui.values[1] ) { $(this).stop().animate({opacity: 0.25}, 500) } else { $(this).stop().animate({opacity: 1.0}, 500) $("#amount").val('Min. Value' + ui.values[0] + ' - Max. Value' + ui.values[1]); } }); } }); $("#amount").val('Min. Value' + $("#slider").slider("values", 0) + ' - Max. Value' + $("#slider").slider("values", 1)); }); I have also posted a sample at: http://www.webdesigneroakland.com/slider/444range_slider.html

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• Is Git ready to be recommended to my boss?

  - by Mike Weller

  I want to recomment Git to my boss as a new source control system, since we're stuck in the 90s with VSS (ouch), but are the tools and 3rd party support good enough yet? Specifically I'm talking about GUI front-ends similar to TortoiseSVN, decent visual diff/merge support, as well as stuff like email commit notifications and general support from 3rd parties like IDEs and build systems. Even though this will be used by programmers, we really need this kind of stuff in our team. I don't want to leave everyone stuck with a new tool, and even a new source control paradigm (distributed), with nothing but a command-line app and some online tutorials. This would be a step backwards. So what do you think... is Git ready? What decent tools exist for Git and what third party development apps support it? EDIT: My original question was pretty vague so I'm updating it to specifically ask for a list of available tools and 3rd party support for Git. Maybe we can get a community wiki post with a list of stuff. I also do not consider 'use subversion' to be an adequate answer. There are other reasons to use a distributed source control system other than offline editing - private and cheap branches being one of them.

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• CM and Agile validation process of merging to the Trunk?

  - by LoneCM

  Hello All, We are a new Agile shop and we are encountering an issue that I hope others have seen. In our process, the Trunk is considered an integration branch; it does not have to be releasable, but it does have to be stable and functional for others to branch off of. We create Feature branches of the Trunk for new development. All work and testing occurs in these branches. An individual branch pulls up as needed to stay integrated with the Trunk as other features that are accepted and are committed. But now we have numerous feature branches. Each are focused, have a short life cycle, and are pushed to the trunk as they are completed, so we not debating the need for the branches and trying very much to be Agile. My issue comes in here: I require that the branches pull up from the Trunk at the end of their life cycle and complete the validation, regression testing and handle all configuration issues before pushing to the trunk. Once reintegrated into the Trunk, I ask for at least a build and an automated smoke test. However, I am now getting push back on the Trunk validation. The argument is that the developers can merge the code and not need the QA validation steps because they already complete the work in the feature branch. Therefore, the extra testing is not needed. I have attempted to remind management of the numerous times "brainless" merges have failed. Thier solution is to instead of build and regression testing to have the developer diff the Feature branch and the newly merged Trunk. That process in thier mind would replace the regression testing I asked for. So what do you require when you reintegrate back to the Trunk? What are the issues that we will encounter if we remove this step and replace with the diff? Is the cost of staying Agile the additional work of the intergration of the branches? Thanks for any input. LoneCM

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• Rails - strip xml import from whitespace and line break

  - by val_to_many

  Hey folks, I am stuck with something quite simple but really annoying: I have an xml file with one node, where the content includes line breaks and whitspaces. Sadly I can't change the xml. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <ProductFeed> ACME Ltd. Fooproduct Foo Root :: Bar Category I get to the node and can read from it without trouble: url = "http://feeds.somefeed/feed.xml.gz" @source = open((url), :http_basic_authentication=>["USER", "PW"]) @gz = Zlib::GzipReader.new(@source) @result = @gz.read @doc = Nokogiri::XML(@result) @doc.xpath("/ProductFeed/Vendors/Vendor").each do |manuf| vendor = manuf.css("Name").first.text manuf.xpath("//child::Product").each do |product| product_name = product.css("Name").text foocat = product.css("Category").text puts "#{vendor} ---- #{product_name} ---- #{foocat} " end end This results in: ACME Ltd. ---- Fooproduct ---- Foo Root :: Bar Category Obviously there are line breaks and tab stops or spaces in the string returned by product.css("Category").text. Does anyone know how to strip the result from linebreaks and taps or spaces right here? Alternatively I could do that in the next step, where I do a find on 'foocat' like barcat = Category.find_by_foocat(foocat) Thanks for helping! Val

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• MySQL Normalization stored procedure performance

  - by srkiNZ84

  Hi, I've written a stored procedure in MySQL to take values currently in a table and to "Normalize" them. This means that for each value passed to the stored procedure, it checks whether the value is already in the table. If it is, then it stores the id of that row in a variable. If the value is not in the table, it stores the newly inserted value's id. The stored procedure then takes the id's and inserts them into a table which is equivalent to the original de-normailized table, but this table is fully normalized and consists of mainly foreign keys. My problem with this design is that the stored procedure takes approximately 10ms or so to return, which is too long when you're trying to work through some 10million records. My suspicion is that the performance is to do with the way in which I'm doing the inserts. i.e. INSERT INTO TableA (first_value) VALUES (argument_from_sp) ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE id=LAST_INSERT_ID(id); SET @TableAId = LAST_INSERT_ID(); The "ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE" is a bit of a hack, due to the fact that on a duplicate key I don't want to update anything but rather just return the id value of the row. If you miss this step though, the LAST_INSERT_ID() function returns the wrong value when you're trying to run the "SET ..." statement. Does anyone know of a better way to do this in MySQL? Thank you

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• Python unittest (using SQLAlchemy) does not write/update database?

  - by Jerry

  Hi, I am puzzled at why my Python unittest runs perfectly fine without actually updating the database. I can even see the SQL statements from SQLAlchemy and step through the newly created user object's email -- ...INFO sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...954c INSERT INTO users (user_id, user_name, email, ...) VALUES (%(user_id)s, %(user_name)s, %(email)s, ...) ...INFO sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...954c {'user_id': u'4cfdafe3f46544e1b4ad0c7fccdbe24a', 'email': u'[email protected]', ...} > .../tests/unit_tests/test_signup.py(127)test_signup_success() -> user = user_q.filter_by(user_name='test').first() (Pdb) n ...INFO sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...954c SELECT users.user_id AS users_user_id, ... FROM users WHERE users.user_name = %(user_name_1)s LIMIT 1 OFFSET 0 ...INFO sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...954c {'user_name_1': 'test'} > .../tests/unit_tests/test_signup.py(128)test_signup_success() -> self.assertTrue(isinstance(user, model.User)) (Pdb) user <pweb.models.User object at 0x9c95b0c> (Pdb) user.email u'[email protected]' Yet at the same time when I login to the test database, I do not see the new record there. Is it some feature from Python/unittest/SQLAlchemy/Pyramid/PostgreSQL that I'm totally unaware of? Thanks. Jerry

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• Tell me SQL Server Full-Text searcher is crazy, not me.

  - by Ian Boyd

  i have some customers with a particular address that the user is searching for: 123 generic way There are 5 rows in the database that match: ResidentialAddress1 ============================= 123 GENERIC WAY 123 GENERIC WAY 123 GENERIC WAY 123 GENERIC WAY 123 GENERIC WAY i run a FT query to look for these rows. i'll show you each step as i add more criteria to the search: SELECT ResidentialAddress1 FROM Patrons WHERE CONTAINS(Patrons.ResidentialAddress1, '"123*"') ResidentialAddress1 ========================= 123 MAPLE STREET 12345 TEST 123 MINE STREET 123 GENERIC WAY 123 FAKE STREET ... (30 row(s) affected) Okay, so far so good, now adding the word "generic": SELECT ResidentialAddress1 FROM Patrons WHERE CONTAINS(Patrons.ResidentialAddress1, '"123*"') AND CONTAINS(Patrons.ResidentialAddress1, '"generic*"') ResidentialAddress1 ============================= 123 GENERIC WAY 123 GENERIC WAY 123 GENERIC WAY 123 GENERIC WAY 123 GENERIC WAY (5 row(s) affected) Excellent. And now i'l add the final keyword that the user wants to make sure exists: SELECT ResidentialAddress1 FROM Patrons WHERE CONTAINS(Patrons.ResidentialAddress1, '"123*"') AND CONTAINS(Patrons.ResidentialAddress1, '"generic*"') AND CONTAINS(Patrons.ResidentialAddress1, '"way*"') ResidentialAddress1 ------------------------------ (0 row(s) affected) Huh? No rows? What if i query for just "way*": SELECT ResidentialAddress1 FROM Patrons WHERE CONTAINS(Patrons.ResidentialAddress1, '"way*"') ResidentialAddress1 ------------------------------ (0 row(s) affected) At first i thought that perhaps it's because of the *, and it's requiring that the root way have more characters after it. But that's not true: Searching for "123*" matches "123" Searching for "generic*" matches "generic" Books online says, The asterisk matches zero, one, or more characters What if i remove the * just for s&g: SELECT ResidentialAddress1 FROM Patrons WHERE CONTAINS(Patrons.ResidentialAddress1, '"way"') Server: Msg 7619, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 A clause of the query contained only ignored words. So one might think that you are just not allowed to even search for way, either alone, or as a root. But this isn't true either: SELECT * FROM Patrons WHERE CONTAINS(Patrons.*, '"way*"') AccountNumber FirstName Lastname ------------- --------- -------- 33589 JOHN WAYNE So sum up, the user is searching for rows that contain all the words: 123 generic way Which i, correctly, translate into the WHERE clauses: SELECT * FROM Patrons WHERE CONTAINS(Patrons.*, '"123*"') AND CONTAINS(Patrons.*, '"generic*"') AND CONTAINS(Patrons.*, '"way*"') which returns no rows. Tell me this just isn't going to work, that it's not my fault, and SQL Server is crazy. Note: i've emptied the FT index and rebuilt it.

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• Truncate C++ string fields generated by ostringstream, iomanip:setw

  - by Ian Durkan

  In C++ I need string representations of integers with leading zeroes, where the representation has 8 digits and no more than 8 digits, truncating digits on the right side if necessary. I thought I could do this using just ostringstream and iomanip.setw(), like this: int num_1 = 3000; ostringstream out_target; out_target << setw(8) << setfill('0') << num_1; cout << "field: " << out_target.str() << " vs input: " << num_1 << endl; The output here is: field: 00003000 vs input: 3000 Very nice! However if I try a bigger number, setw lets the output grow beyond 8 characters: int num_2 = 2000000000; ostringstream out_target; out_target << setw(8) << setfill('0') << num_2; cout << "field: " << out_target.str() << " vs input: " << num_2 << endl; out_target.str(""); output: field: 2000000000 vs input: 2000000000 The desired output is "20000000". There's nothing stopping me from using a second operation to take only the first 8 characters, but is field truncation truly missing from iomanip? Would the Boost formatting do what I need in one step?

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• How to fetch and populate backbone model for Google Places JS API?

  - by code-gijoe

  I'm implementing a system that require access to Google Places JS API. I've been using rails for most of the project, but now I want to inject a bit of AJAX in one of my views. Basically it is a view that displays places near your location. For this, I'm using the JS API of Google places. A quick workflow would be: 1- The user inputs a text query and hits enter. 2- There is an AJAX call to request data from Google Places API. 3- The successful result is presented to the user. The problem is primarily in step 2. I want to use backbone for this but when I create a backbone model, it requests to the 'rootURL'. This wouldn't be a problem if the requests to Places was done from the server but it is not. A place call is done like this: service = new google.maps.places.PlacesService(map); service.nearbySearch(request, callback); Passing a callback function: function callback(results, status) { if (status == google.maps.places.PlacesServiceStatus.OK) { for (var i = 0; i < results.length; i++) { var place = results[i]; createMarker(results[i]); } } } Is it possible to override the 'fetch' method in backbone model and populate the model with the successful Places result? Is this a bad idea?

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• Creating a Multiwindowed Cocoa Program - Launching Procedure Suggestions?

  - by Jeffrey Kern

  I'm porting an application I developed in Visual Studio 2008 over to Cocoa. I'm currently doing a 'learn-as-you-go' approach to Cocoa, so I can experiment with different ideas and techniques in smaller, simpler projects and eventually combine them into one big application. My program logic is as follows (in a dumbed-down sense). Items in the list are mandated by my boss. Application is started 1a. Verify CD program is in drive. Verify license. If found and is valid, skip to step 7 Display license agreement. Display serial number prompt. Verify and save serial number. Hide all prior windows. Load main application window Intercept requests and commands from main application window, including making a duplicate main application window Exit program when requested by user What would the best bet be for this type of application? From another question I asked, I found out that I should keep the 'main application' window in a separate XIB file from the rest, because I might need to clone and interact with it. I know that since Cocoa and Objective-C is based off of C, there is a Main method somewhere. But what would you all suggest as a starting place for an application like this?

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• Single intent to let user take picture OR pick image from gallery in Android

  - by Damian

  I'm developing an app for Android 2.1 upwards. I want to enable my users to select a profile picture within my app (I'm not using the contacts framework). The ideal solution would be to fire an intent that enables the user to select an image from the gallery, but if an appropriate image is not available then use the camera to take a picture (or vice-versa i.e. allow user to take picture but if they know they already have a suitable image already, let them drop into the gallery and pick said image). Currently I can do one or the other but not both. If I go directly into camera mode using MediaStore.ACTION_IMAGE_CAPTURE then there is no option to drop into the gallery. If I go directly to the gallery using Intent.ACTION_PICK then I can pick an image but if I click the camera button (in top right hand corner of gallery) then a new camera intent is fired. So, any picture that is taken is not returned directly to my application. (Sure you can press the back button to drop back into the gallery and select image from there but this is an extra unnecessary step and is not at all intuitive). So is there a way to combine both or am I going to have to offer a menu to do one or the other from within my application? Seems like it would be a common use case...surely I'm missing something?

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• image appears larger than bounding rectangle?

  - by Kildareflare

  Hello I'm implementing a custom print preview control. One of the objects it needs to display is an image which can be several pages high and wide. I've successfully divided the image into pages and displayed them in the correct order. Each "page" is drawn within the marginbounds. (That is, each page is sized to be the same as the marginBounds.) The problem I have is that the image the page represents exceeds the bottom margin. However if I draw a rectangle with the same dimensions as the image, at the same position as the image, the rectangle matches the marginbounds. Thus when drawn to the page (in print preview and printed page) the image is larger than a rectangle drawn based on the image dimensions. I.e. The image is drawn at the same size as e.MarignBounds and is drawn at e.MarginBounds.Location yet exceeds the bottom margin. How is this? I've checked resoutions at each step of the process and they are all 96DPI. //... private List<Image> m_printImages = new List<Image>(); //... private void ImagePrintDocument_PrintPage(object sender, PrintPageEventArgs e) { PrepareImageForPrinting(e); e.Graphics.DrawImage(m_printImages[m_currentPage], new Point(e.MarginBounds.X, e.MarginBounds.Y); e.Graphics.DrawRectangle(new Pen(Color.Blue, 1.0F), new Rectangle( new Point(e.MarginBounds.X, e.MarginBounds.Y), new Size(m_printImages[m_currentPage].Width, m_printImages[m_currentPage].Height))); //rest of handler } PS Not able to show an image as free image hosting blocked here.

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• HttpUnhandledException ASP.NET

  - by jweber

  Hi I have a ASP.NET website. If I make a request for a page it works most of the times, but sometimes I get an HttpUnhandledException. I have tried to log the errors, but from the errors messages I'm not able to solve the problem. StackTrace: at System.Web.UI.Page.HandleError(Exception e) at System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) at System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequest(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) at System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequest() at System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestWithNoAssert(HttpContext context) at System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) at ASP.default_aspx.ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) in c:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\4e215a3c\72ef69da\App_Web_ylvnbciw.6.cs:line 0 at System.Web.HttpApplication.CallHandlerExecutionStep.System.Web.HttpApplication.IExecutionStep.Execute() at System.Web.HttpApplication.ExecuteStep(IExecutionStep step, Boolean& completedSynchronously) Data: System.Collections.ListDictionaryInternal BaseException: System.InvalidOperationException: The connection was not closed. The connection's current state is open. at DbCategory.getParentCategories() at _Default.Page_Load(Object sender, EventArgs e) at System.Web.Util.CalliHelper.EventArgFunctionCaller(IntPtr fp, Object o, Object t, EventArgs e) at System.Web.Util.CalliEventHandlerDelegateProxy.Callback(Object sender, EventArgs e) at System.Web.UI.Control.OnLoad(EventArgs e) at System.Web.UI.Control.LoadRecursive() at System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) TargetSite: Boolean HandleError(System.Exception) I have idea that it's something about my session og get variables, but i'm not sure about that. Does anybody have an idea about what it could be?

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• Write Null/Nothing value with Databinding

  - by clawson

  I have extended a MaskedTextBox component to add some functionality. The text property of the extended MaskedTextBox is bound to a DateTime? property and the format of binding is set to a time format of "HH:mm:ss" (i.e. 24hr time). So that this masked text box will capture the display a time. The extra functionality I have added is to make the component readonly unless the component is double clicked or the enter button is pressed (the back color of the control helps to inform the users if the component is locked/readonly or not). When the enter button is pressed I also suspend the bindings so that bound data is updated the users input won't be lost. The information is then written back to the value and databindings resumed when the user presses the enter key again. This all works fine up to here, with values written and displayed as would be expected. However, I also want to write the null or nothing value to the DateTime? property if the user hasn't entered any text (or invalid text but let's just stick with no text) when enter key is pressed to submit the new value. Unlike with other valid entries in the MaskedTextBox, with no text entered when i execute: Me.DataBindings("Text").WriteValue() (when 'locking' the MaskedTextBox) it then branches to the bound properties Get method as I step into each line of code in the debugger (as opposed to the Set method with other valid entries) How can I write this null/nothing/"" value to the DateTime? property when no text "" is entered into the MaskedTextBox? Thanks for the help!

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• django: control json serialization

  - by abolotnov

  Is there a way to control json serialization in django? Simple code below will return serialized object in json: co = Collection.objects.all() c = serializers.serialize('json',co) The json will look similar to this: [ { "pk": 1, "model": "picviewer.collection", "fields": { "urlName": "architecture", "name": "\u0413\u043e\u0440\u043e\u0434 \u0438 \u0430\u0440\u0445\u0438\u0442\u0435\u043a\u0442\u0443\u0440\u0430", "sortOrder": 0 } }, { "pk": 2, "model": "picviewer.collection", "fields": { "urlName": "nature", "name": "\u041f\u0440\u0438\u0440\u043e\u0434\u0430", "sortOrder": 1 } }, { "pk": 3, "model": "picviewer.collection", "fields": { "urlName": "objects", "name": "\u041e\u0431\u044a\u0435\u043a\u0442\u044b \u0438 \u043d\u0430\u0442\u044e\u0440\u043c\u043e\u0440\u0442", "sortOrder": 2 } } ] You can see it's serializing it in a way that you are able to re-create the whole model, shall you want to do this at some point - fair enough, but not very handy for simple JS ajax in my case: I want bring the traffic to minimum and make the whole thing little clearer. What I did is I created a view that passes the object to a .json template and the template will do something like this to generate "nicer" json output: [ {% if collections %} {% for c in collections %} {"id": {{c.id}},"sortOrder": {{c.sortOrder}},"name": "{{c.name}}","urlName": "{{c.urlName}}"}{% if not forloop.last %},{% endif %} {% endfor %} {% endif %} ] This does work and the output is much (?) nicer: [ { "id": 1, "sortOrder": 0, "name": "????? ? ???????????", "urlName": "architecture" }, { "id": 2, "sortOrder": 1, "name": "???????", "urlName": "nature" }, { "id": 3, "sortOrder": 2, "name": "??????? ? ?????????", "urlName": "objects" } ] However, I'm bothered by the fast that my solution uses templates (an extra step in processing and possible performance impact) and it will take manual work to maintain shall I update the model, for example. I'm thinking json generating should be part of the model (correct me if I'm wrong) and done with either native python-json and django implementation but can't figure how to make it strip the bits that I don't want. One more thing - even when I restrict it to a set of fields to serialize, it will keep the id always outside the element container and instead present it as "pk" outside of it.

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• Intermittent asp.net mvc exception: “A public action method ABC could not be found on controller XYZ

  - by Chris Schoon

  Hi, I'm getting an intermittent exception saying that asp.net mvc can’t find the action method. Here’s the exception: A public action method 'Fill' could not be found on controller 'Schoon.Form.Web.Controllers.ChrisController'. I think I have the routing set up correctly because this application works most of the time. Here is the controller’s action method. [ActionName("Fill")] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Get | HttpVerbs.Post), UserIdFilter, DTOFilter] public ActionResult Fill(int userId, int subscriberId, DisplayMode? mode) { //… } The route: routes.MapRoute( "SchoonForm", "Form/Fill/{subscriberId}", new { controller = "ChrisController", action = "Fill" }, new { subscriberId = @"\d+" } ); And here is the stack: System.Web.HttpException: A public action method 'Fill' could not be found on controller 'Schoon.Form.Web.Controllers.ChrisController'. at System.Web.Mvc.Controller.HandleUnknownAction(String actionName) in C:\dev\ThirdParty\MvcDev\src\SystemWebMvc\Mvc\Controller.cs:line 197 at System.Web.Mvc.Controller.ExecuteCore() in C:\dev\ThirdParty\MvcDev\src\SystemWebMvc\Mvc\Controller.cs:line 164 at System.Web.Mvc.ControllerBase.Execute(RequestContext requestContext) in C:\dev\ThirdParty\MvcDev\src\SystemWebMvc\Mvc\ControllerBase.cs:line 76 at System.Web.Mvc.ControllerBase.System.Web.Mvc.IController.Execute(RequestContext requestContext) in C:\dev\ThirdParty\MvcDev\src\SystemWebMvc\Mvc\ControllerBase.cs:line 87 at System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.ProcessRequest(HttpContextBase httpContext) in C:\dev\ThirdParty\MvcDev\src\SystemWebMvc\Mvc\MvcHandler.cs:line 80 at System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.ProcessRequest(HttpContext httpContext) in C:\dev\ThirdParty\MvcDev\src\SystemWebMvc\Mvc\MvcHandler.cs:line 68 at System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.System.Web.IHttpHandler.ProcessRequest(HttpContext httpContext) in C:\dev\ThirdParty\MvcDev\src\SystemWebMvc\Mvc\MvcHandler.cs:line 104 at System.Web.HttpApplication.CallHandlerExecutionStep.System.Web.HttpApplication.IExecutionStep.Execute() at System.Web.HttpApplication.ExecuteStep(IExecutionStep step, Boolean& completedSynchronously) Here is an example of my filters they all work the same way: public class UserIdFilter : ActionFilterAttribute { public override void OnActionExecuting(ActionExecutingContext filterContext) { const string Key = "userId"; if (filterContext.ActionParameters.ContainsKey(Key)) { filterContext.ActionParameters[Key] = // get the user id from session or cookie } base.OnActionExecuting(filterContext); } } Thanks, Chris

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• Cannot launch 16-bit application anymore

  - by Nick Bedford

  I'm trying to debug and resolve some issues with a Win32 macro application written C++ however I'm having the strangest issue. I have to launch a 16-bit program and then simulate entering data into and have been using ShellExecute for over two years now. I haven't touched this actual code at all, but now it doesn't work. I'm doing ShellExecute(NULL, "open", exe_path.c_str(), NULL, "", SW_SHOWDEFAULT);. This has worked flawlessly for years but all of sudden, it stopped working. It gives me an ACCESS_DENIED error code. I've Googled and apparently this is a pretty common issue with launching 16-bit apps. The workstation XP SP2 environment hasn't changed at all, and it was actually working until I rebuilt a little while ago (I've rebuilt it before many times). The code is inside a window procedure function and when I take it out and launch the program in the WinMain function it works, but the code has to be in the window procedure... I've tried numerous alternatives but they all give the same issue. The biggest issue with this is it was working then all of a sudden decided it wasn't going to with no change to both code and environment! In fact, it was about half way through testing changes that it thought it'd stop working. Please help as I cannot do anything without the program launching. It's the first step in the code that I'm debugging!

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• Korn shell wraparound

  - by allenratcliff

  Okay, I'm sure this is simple but it is driving me nuts. I recently went to work on a program where I've had to step back in time a bit and use Redhat 9. When I'm typing on the command line from a standard xterm running Korn shell, when I reach the end of the line the screen slides to the right (cutting off the left side of my command) instead of wrapping the text around to a new line. This makes things difficult for me because I can't easily copy and paste from the previous command straight from the command line. I have to look at the history and paste the command from there. In case you're wondering, I do a lot of command-line awk scripts that cause the line to get quite long. Is there a way to force the command line to wrap instead of shifting visibility to the right side of the command I'm typing? I've poured through man page options with no luck. I'm running XFree86 4.2.99.903(174) and KSH 5.2.14. Thanks.

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• Project management: Implementing custom errors in VS compilation process

  - by David Lively

  Like many architects, I've developed coding standards through years of experience to which I expect my developers to adhere. This is especially a problem with the crowd that believes that three or four years of experience makes you a senior-level developer.Approaching this as a training and code review issue has generated limited success. So, I was thinking that it would be great to be able to add custom compile-time errors to the build process to more strictly enforce this and other guidelines. For instance, we use stored procedures for ALL database access, which provides procedure-level security, db encapsulation (table structure is hidden from the app), and other benefits. (Note: I am not interested in starting a debate about this.) Some developers prefer inline SQL or parametrized queries, and that's fine - on their own time and own projects. I'd like a way to add a compilation check that finds, say, anything that looks like string sql = "insert into some_table (col1,col2) values (@col1, @col2);" and generates an error or, in certain circumstances, a warning, with a message like Inline SQL and parametrized queries are not permitted. Or, if they use the var keyword var x = new MyClass(); Variable definitions must be explicitly typed. Do Visual Studio and MSBuild provide a way to add this functionality? I'm thinking that I could use a regular expression to find unacceptable code and generate the correct error, but I'm not sure what, from a performance standpoint, is the best way to to integrate this into the build process. We could add a pre- or post-build step to run a custom EXE, but how can I return line- and file-specifc errors? Also, I'd like this to run after compilation of each file, rather than post-link. Is a regex the best way to perform this type of pattern matching, or should I go crazy and run the code through a C# parser, which would allow node-level validation via the parse tree? I'd appreciate suggestions and tales of prior experience.

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• finding ALL cycles in a huge sparse matrix

  - by Andy

  Hi there, First of all I'm quite a Java beginner, so I'm not sure if this is even possible! Basically I have a huge (3+million) data source of relational data (i.e. A is friends with B+C+D, B is friends with D+G+Z (but not A - i.e. unmutual) etc.) and I want to find every cycle within this (not necessarily connected) directed graph. I've found this thread (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/546655/finding-all-cycles-in-graph/549402#549402) which has pointed me to Donald Johnson's (elementary) cycle-finding algorithm which, superficially at least, looks like it'll do what I'm after (I'm going to try when I'm back at work on Tuesday - thought it wouldn't hurt to ask in the meanwhile!). I had a quick scan through the code of the Java implementation of Johnson's algorithm (in that thread) and it looks like a matrix of relations is the first step, so I guess my questions are: a) Is Java capable of handling a 3+million*3+million matrix? (was planning on representing A-friends-with-B by a binary sparse matrix) b) Do I need to find every connected subgraph as my first problem, or will cycle-finding algorithms handle disjoint data? c) Is this actually an appropriate solution for the problem? My understanding of "elementary" cycles is that in the graph below, rather than picking out A-B-C-D-E-F it'll pick out A-B-F, B-C-D etc. but that's not the end of the world given the task. E / \ D---F / \ / \ C---B---A d) If necessary, I can simplify the problem by enforcing mutuality in relations - i.e. A-friends-with-B <== B-friends-with-A, and if really necessary I can maybe cut down the data size, but realistically it is always going to be around the 1mil mark. z) Is this a P or NP task?! Am I biting off more than I can chew? Thanks all, any help appreciated! Andy

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• a question related to URL

  - by Robert

  Dear all,Now i have this question in my java program,I think it should be classified as URL problem,but not 100% sure.If you think I am wrong,feel free to recategorize this problem,thanks. I would state my problem as simply as possible. I did a search on the famouse Chinese search engine baidu.com for a Chinese key word "???" (Obama in English),and the way I do that is to pass a URL (in a Java Program)to the browser like: http://news.baidu.com/ns?word=??? and it works perfectly just like I input the "???”keyword in the text field on baidu.com. However,now my advisor wants another thing.Since he can not read the Chinese webpages,but he wants to make sure the webpages I got from Baidu.com is related to "Obama",he asked me to google translate it back,i.e,using google translate and translate the Chinese webpage to English one. This sounds straightforward.However,I met my problem here. If I simply pass the URL "http://news.baidu.com/ns?word=???" into Google Translate and tick "Chinese to English" translating option,the result looks awful.(I don't know the clue here,maybe related to Chinese character encoding). Alternatively,if now my browser opens ""http://news.baidu.com/ns?word=???" webpage,but I click on the "????" button (that simply means "search"),you will notice the URL will get changed,now if I pass this URL into the Google translate and do the same thing,the result works much better. I hope I am not making this problem sound too complicated,and I appologize for some Chinese words invovled,but I really need your guys' help here.Becasue I did all this in a Java program,I couldn't figure out how to realize that "????"(pressing search button) step then get the new URL.If I could get that new URL,things are easy,I could just call Google translate in my Java code,and pops out the new window to show my advisor. Please share any of your idea or thougts here.Thanks a lot. Robert

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