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  • Database version is zero on initial install

    - by mahesh
    I have released an app (World Time) with initial database. Now i want to update the app with a database upgrade. I have put in the upgrade code in OnUpgrade() and checking for the newVersion. But it was not being called in my local testing... So i put in the debug statement to get the database version and it is zero . Any idea why it is not being versioned ? Following is the code to copy the database from my Assets folder ... InputStream myInput = myContext.getAssets().open(DB_NAME); // Path to the just created empty db String outFileName = DB_PATH + DB_NAME; //Open the empty db as the output stream OutputStream myOutput = new FileOutputStream(outFileName); //transfer bytes from the inputfile to the outputfile byte[] buffer = new byte[1024]; int length; while ((length = myInput.read(buffer))>0){ myOutput.write(buffer, 0, length); } //Close the streams myOutput.flush(); myOutput.close(); myInput.close(); -- Mahesh http://android.maheshdixit.com

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  • how to use git rebase to clean up a convoluted history

    - by lsiden
    After working for several weeks with a half dozen different branches and merges, on both my laptop and work and my desktop at home, my history has gotten a bit convoluted. For example, I just did a fetch, then merged master with origin/master. Now, when I do git show-branches, the output looks like this: ! [login] Changed domain name. ! [master] Merge remote branch 'origin/master' ! [migrate-1.9] Migrating to 1.9.1 on Heroku ! [rebase-master] Merge remote branch 'origin/master' ---- - - [master] Merge remote branch 'origin/master' + + [master^2] A bit of re-arranging and cleanup. - - [master^2^] Merge branch 'rpx-login' + + [master^2^^2] Commented out some debug logging. + + [master^2^^2^] Monkey-patched Rack::Request#ip + + [master^2^^2~2] dump each request to log .... I would like to clean this up with a git rebase. I created a new branch, rebase-master, for this purpose, and on this branch tried git rebase <common-ancestor>. However, I have to resolve many conflicts, and the end result on branch rebase-master no longer matches the corresponding version on master, which has already been tested and works! I thought I saw a solution to this somewhere but can't find it anymore. Does anyone know how to do this? Or will these convoluted ref names go away when I start deleting un-needed branches that I have already merged with? I am the sole developer on this project, so there is no one else who will be affected.

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  • GetEffectiveRightsFromAcl throws invalid acl error

    - by apoorv020
    I am trying to get the effective rights a user has on a file using interop in C#. Following is the code I am using : public static FileSystemRights GetFileEffectiveRights(string FileName, string UserName) { IntPtr pDacl, pZero = IntPtr.Zero; int Mask = 0; uint errorReturn = GetNamedSecurityInfo(FileName, SE_OBJECT_TYPE.SE_FILE_OBJECT, SECURITY_INFORMATION.Dacl , out pZero, out pZero, out pDacl, out pZero, out pZero); if (errorReturn != 0) { throw new Exception("Win error : " + errorReturn); } Program.TRUSTEE pTrustee = new TRUSTEE(); pTrustee.pMultipleTrustee = IntPtr.Zero; pTrustee.MultipleTrusteeOperation = (int)Program.MULTIPLE_TRUSTEE_OPERATION.NO_MULTIPLE_TRUSTEE; pTrustee.ptstrName = UserName; pTrustee.TrusteeForm = (int)Program.TRUSTEE_FORM.TRUSTEE_IS_NAME; pTrustee.TrusteeType = (int)Program.TRUSTEE_TYPE.TRUSTEE_IS_USER; errorReturn = GetEffectiveRightsFromAcl(pDacl, ref pTrustee, ref Mask); if (errorReturn != 0) { throw new Exception("Win error : " + errorReturn); } return (FileSystemRights)Mask; } This code works fine until I start modifying the ACL structure using the classes FileAccessRule and FileInfo, and then I start getting Windows Error 1336 : ERROR_INVALID_ACL. Same is the case if I debug the process call GetFileEffectiveRights once, pause the process,change the ACL through windows API, and resume and call GetFileEffectiveRights again(the 1st call succeeds but the second gives 1336.) What is going wrong?

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  • Encoding h.264 with libavcodec/x264

    - by Leviathan
    I am attempting to encode video using libavcodec/libavformat. I'm trying to change the standard output-example.c from ffmpeg source. The AVI file is created on the disk, but the only sound is encoded. I tried adding a lot of options for x264 from here. All the other codecs works fine, mpeg2, mpeg4, mjpeg, xvid. In addition to specifying the parameters x264, I also set the codec to AVOutputFormat structure. That's all I've done. AVOutputFormat *pOutFormat; // in header file av_register_all(); AVCodec *codec = avcodec_find_encoder_by_name("libx264"); pOutFormat = guess_format("avi", NULL, NULL); pOutFormat->video_codec = codec->id; The debug output of my application: Output #0, mp4, to 'D:\1.avi': Stream #0.0: Video: libx264, yuv420p, 320x240, q=10-51, 500 kb/s, 90k tbn, 25 tbc Stream #0.1: Audio: aac, 44100 Hz, 1 channels, s16, 128 kb/s [libx264 @ 0x694010]using cpu capabilities: MMX2 SSE2Fast SSSE3 FastShuffle SSE4.2 [libx264 @ 0x694010]bitrate tolerance too small, using .01 [libx264 @ 0x694010]profile Main, level 2.0 [libx264 @ 0x694010]frame I:150 Avg QP:14.76 size: 2534 [libx264 @ 0x694010]mb I I16..4: 75.9% 0.0% 24.1% [libx264 @ 0x694010]final ratefactor: 17.57 [libx264 @ 0x694010]coded y,uvDC,uvAC intra: 42.7% 92.4% 47.4% [libx264 @ 0x694010]i16 v,h,dc,p: 11% 14% 2% 73% [libx264 @ 0x694010]i4 v,h,dc,ddl,ddr,vr,hd,vl,hu: 21% 18% 29% 5% 8% 10% 3% 3% 2% [libx264 @ 0x694010]kb/s:506.79

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  • what's an effective way to build a csproj file in C#?

    - by jcollum
    I'd like to avoid a command line for this. I've been using the MSBuild API ( Microsoft.Build.Framework and Microsoft.Build.BuildEngine) with code that looks like this: this.buildEngine = new Engine(); BuildPropertyGroup props = new BuildPropertyGroup(); props.SetProperty("Configuration", "Debug"); this.buildEngine.RegisterLogger(this.logger); Project proj = new Project(this.buildEngine); proj.LoadXml(this.projectFileAndPath, ProjectLoadSettings.None); this.buildEngine.BuildProject(proj, "Build"); However I've run into enough problems that I can't find answers for that I'm really wondering if I'm doing this right. First, I can't find the output (there's no bin directory in any of the places where I figured the dll's would end up). Second, I tried building a project that I had made in VS2008 and the line proj.LoadXml( fails for invalid xml encoding. But of course the xml file is valid, since VS2008 can build it (I checked). At this point I'm beginning to wonder if I've picked up some code that's way out of date or a methodology that's been superseded by something else. Opinions?

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  • WPF XAML references not resolved via myAssembly.GetReferencedAssemblies()

    - by WPF-it
    I have a WPF container application (with ContentControl host) and a containee application (UserControl). Both are oblivious of each other. Only one XML config file holds the string dllpath of the containee's DLL and full namespace name of the ViewModelClass inside the containee. A generic code in container resolves containee's assembly (Assembly.LoadFrom(dllpath)) and creates the viewmodel's instance using Activator.CreateInstance(vmType). when this viewmodel is hosted inside the ContentControl of the container, and relevant vierwmodel specific ResourceDictionary is added to ContentControl.Resources.MergedDictionaries of the content control of container, so the view loads fine. Now my containee has to host the WPF DataGrid using assembly reference of WPFToolkit.dll from my local C:\Lib folder. The Copy Local reference to the WPFToolkit.dll is added to the .csproj file of the containee's project and its only referred in the UserControl.XAML using its XAML namepsace. This way my bin\debug folder in my containee application, gets the WPFToolkit.dll copied. XAML: xmlns:Controls="clr-namespace:Microsoft.Windows.Controls;assembly=WPFToolkit" <Controls:DataGrid ItemsSource="{Binding AssetList}" ... /> Issue: The moment the ViewModel (i.e. the containee's usercontrol) tries to load itself I get this error. "Cannot find type 'Microsoft.Windows.Controls.DataGrid'. The assembly used when compiling might be different than that used when loading and the type is missing." Hence I tried to load the referenced assemblies of the containee's assembly (myAssembly.GetReferencedAssemblies()) before the viewmodel is hosted. But WPFToolkit isnt there in that list of assemblies! Strange thing is I have another dll referred called Logger.dll in the containee codebase but this one is implemented using C# code behind. So I get its reference correctly resolved in myAssembly.GetReferencedAssemblies(). So does that mean BAML references of assemblies are never resolvable by GetReferencedAssemblies?

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  • Deployments and TFS, general questions

    - by Velika
    SOX requires that we have a separate group deploy our ASP.NET web to production. Currently, that group has access to our current code repository in VSS and uses VSS to deploy code that has been checked into VSS. How are deployments typically done for web applications? As a developer, I have used the Deploy function in Visual Studio to deploy code to a network share which corresponds to a IS virtual folder, but I don't think we can expect that the deployment group will be purchasing a copy of Visual Studio just to do deployments. We could check the code into TFS, but what is the minimum software that that group would need to perform the deployment? Would a Team Explorer Client Access suffice? I am aware that Team System has functionality to automate the building of an application. Do people typically deploy to Production by copying aspx and dlls files from the QA environment to production or do you normally deploy from TFS or even VS directly? It seems to me that the preferred approach would be to deploy from the QA environment, since that is the environment that must have been approved for release or that those files should be checked into TFS and the deployed from TFS, assuming you can deploy from TFS. What confuses me is whether bin (binary) files that are local to the project-do they go into TFS? Is so, doesn't this create problems for other developers in that only 1 developers-the one with the binary checked - can actually debug because debugging requires write access to the binaries? Does this mean that the binaries shouldn't be checked into TFS? But eventually, if you deploy from TFS, the binaries HAVE to be added to TFS. Are they added as a separate (compiled) application node? If so,m this sounds real ugly. I would assume not. How does one ensure that the binaries match the source code that we mark with a particular version number? Obviously, I'm clueless. Can someone give me a general idea of how you handle version control and deployments in particular using TFS?

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  • Dll Import : Unable to find Entry Point "fnMultiply" in DLL "ImportDLL"

    - by user662285
    I am trying to use DLLImport for using Win32 dll method in C#. Win32 dll C++ // .h file #ifdef IMPORTDLL_EXPORTS #define IMPORTDLL_API __declspec(dllexport) #else #define IMPORTDLL_API __declspec(dllimport) #endif // This class is exported from the ImportDLL.dll class IMPORTDLL_API CImportDLL { public: CImportDLL(void); // TODO: add your methods here. int Add(int a , int b); }; extern IMPORTDLL_API int nImportDLL; IMPORTDLL_API int fnImportDLL(void); IMPORTDLL_API int fnMultiply(int a,int b); // .cpp file // ImportDLL.cpp : Defines the exported functions for the DLL application. // #include "stdafx.h" #include "ImportDLL.h" // This is an example of an exported variable IMPORTDLL_API int nImportDLL=0; // This is an example of an exported function. IMPORTDLL_API int fnImportDLL(void) { return 42; } IMPORTDLL_API int fnMultiply(int a , int b) { return (a*b); } Once i build this i get ImportDLL.dll Now i create Windows Application and add this dll in debug folder and try to use this method using DLLImport [DllImport("ImportDLL.dll")] public static extern int fnMultiply(int a, int b); And I try to call this in C# int a = fnMultiply(5, 6); // This line gives error Unable to find an entry point Can any body tell what i am missing? Thanks.

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  • How to read LARGE Sqlite file to be copied into Android emulator, or device from assets folder?

    - by Peter SHINe ???
    I guess many people already read this article: Using your own SQLite database in Android applications: http://www.reigndesign.com/blog/using-your-own-sqlite-database-in-android-applications/comment-page-2/#comment-12368 However it's keep bringing IOException at while ((length = myInput.read(buffer))>0){ myOutput.write(buffer, 0, length); } I’am trying to use a large DB file. It’s as big as 8MB I built it using sqlite3 in Mac OS X, inserted UTF-8 encoded strings (for I am using Korean), added android_meta table with ko_KR as locale, as instructed above. However, When I debug, it keeps showing IOException at length=myInput.read(buffer) I suspect it’s caused by trying to read a big file. If not, I have no clue why. I tested the same code using much smaller text file, and it worked fine. Can anyone help me out on this? I’ve searched many places, but no place gave me the clear answer, or good solution. Good meaning efficient or easy. I will try use BufferedInput(Output)Stream, but if the simpler one cannot work, I don’t think this will work either. Can anyone explain the fundamental limits in file input/output in Android, and the right way around it, possibly? I will really appreciate anyone’s considerate answer. Thank you. WITH MORE DETAIL: private void copyDataBase() throws IOException{ //Open your local db as the input stream InputStream myInput = myContext.getAssets().open(DB_NAME); // Path to the just created empty db String outFileName = DB_PATH + DB_NAME; //Open the empty db as the output stream OutputStream myOutput = new FileOutputStream(outFileName); //transfer bytes from the inputfile to the outputfile byte[] buffer = new byte[1024]; int length; while ((length = myInput.read(buffer))>0){ myOutput.write(buffer, 0, length); } //Close the streams myOutput.flush(); myOutput.close(); myInput.close(); }

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  • printf and Console.WriteLine - problems with Console.SetOut?

    - by Matt Jacobsen
    i have a bunch of Console.WriteLines in my code that I can observe at runtime. I communicate with a native library that I also wrote. I'd like to stick some printf's in the native library and observe them too. I don't see them at runtime however. I've created a convoluted hello world app to demonstrate my problem. When the app runs, I can debug into the native library and see that the hello world is called. The output never lands in the textwriter though. Note that if the same code is run as a console app then everything works fine. C#: [DllImport("native.dll")] static extern void Test(); StreamWriter writer; public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); writer = new StreamWriter(@"c:\output.txt"); writer.AutoFlush = true; System.Console.SetOut(writer); } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Test(); } and the native part: __declspec(dllexport) void Test() { printf("Hello World"); } Despite my earlier ramblings (see edits) I actually think this is a problem in C# (or rather my understanding of it).

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  • Debugging Django project problem.

    - by Wasim
    Hi all, I asked this question before, but had no replies, maybe I wasn't so clear. I'm trying to debug a django project using MySQL database. If I run the admin or trying to use the shell to communicate to the data base every thing is well and I can do every thing. I installed MySQLdb for Python 2.6. I installed PyDev on my Apatana studio. Configured the Debugging with runserver 8001 --noreload. When I start debugging , When I arrive to the following code in C:\Python26\Lib\site-packages\django\db\backends\mysql\base.py try: import MySQLdb as Database except ImportError, e: from django.core.exceptions import ImproperlyConfigured raise ImproperlyConfigured("Error loading MySQLdb module: %s" % e) I get an import error : django.core.exceptions.ImproperlyConfigured: Error loading MySQLdb module: DLL load failed: The specified module could not be found. I trying to ge more deeply with the import MySQLdb as Database line , it goes to the C:\Python26\Lib\site-packages\MySQLdb__init__.py and fail in the line import _mysql. I can't understand the problem. When running the Django admin every thing is ok, but with debugging it fails to work. Any help please. Thanks in advance.

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  • MS Access form_current() firing multiple times

    - by Eric G
    I have a form with two subforms (on separate tab pages). It's an MDB project in Access 2003. When it initially opens, Form_Current on the active subform fires once, as it should. But when you move to another record (ie. from the main form), it fires Form_Current on the active subform 4 times. Then subsequent record-moves result in Form_Current firing 2 times. This is a pain, because the subforms have a lot of fields that get moved and/or hidden and so it jumps around for every Form_Current, not to mention being slow. I am opening the form with a filter via DoCmd.OpenForm (actually it sends the filter in via OpenArgs). FilterOn is only set once, in Form_Open on the main form, never in the subforms. Form_Current is not called explicitly anywhere else in the code. When I look at the call stack when Form_Current fires moving the first time, it looks like: my_subform.Form_Current [<Debug Window>] my_subform.Form_Current So it seems like something in Form_Current is triggering another Form_Current event. But only on the first record move. The code in Form_Current is somewhat complex, involving custom classes and event callbacks, but generally does not touch the table data. The only thing I can think might be triggering a Form_Current is that it checks OldValue on form controls - could this be causing it? Or anything else come to mind? Thanks. Eric

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  • GRID is not properly rendered in ExtJS 4 by using Store

    - by user548543
    Here is the Src code for HTML file <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4 /strict.dtd"> <html> <head> <title>MVC Architecture</title> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="/bh/extjs/resources/css/ext-all.css" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="extjs/ext-debug.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="Main.js"></script> </head> <body> </body> </html> File path: /bh/Main.js [Main File] Ext.require('Ext.container.Viewport'); Ext.application({ name: 'App', appFolder: 'app', controllers: ['UserController'], launch: function() { Ext.create('Ext.container.Viewport', { layout: 'border', items: [ { xtype: 'userList' } ] }); } }); File path: /app/controller/UserController.js [Controller] Ext.define('App.controller.UserController',{ extend: 'Ext.app.Controller', stores: ['UserStore'], models:['UserModel'], views:['user.UserList'], init: function() { this.getUserStoreStore().load(); } }); File path: /app/store/UserStore.js Ext.define('App.store.UserStore', { extend: 'Ext.data.Store', model: 'App.model.UserModel', proxy: { type: 'ajax', url: 'app/data/contact.json' } }); File path: /app/model/UserModel.js [Model] Ext.define('App.model.UserModel',{ extends:'Ext.data.Model', fields:[ {name: 'name', type: 'string'}, {name: 'age', type: 'string'}, {name: 'phone', type: 'string'}, {name: 'email', type: 'string'} ] }); File path: /app/view/UserList.js [View] Ext.define('App.view.user.UserList' ,{ extend: 'Ext.grid.Panel', alias:'widget.userList', title:'Contacts', region:'center', resizable:true, initComponent: function() { this.store = 'UserStore'; this.columns = [ {text: 'Name',flex:1,sortable: true,dataIndex: 'name'}, {text: 'Age',flex:1,sortable: true,dataIndex: 'age'}, {text: 'Phone',flex:1,sortable: true,dataIndex: 'phone'}, {text: 'Email',flex:1,sortable: true,dataIndex: 'email'} ]; this.callParent(arguments); } }); In fire bug it shows the JSON response as follows: [{ "name": "Aswini", "age": "32", "phone": "555-555-5555", "email": "[email protected]" }] Why the Data has not been displayed although I have a valid json response. Please help!!!

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  • Sending multi-part email from Google App Engine using Spring's JavaMailSender fails

    - by hleinone
    It works without the multi-part (modified from the example in Spring documentation): final MimeMessagePreparator preparator = new MimeMessagePreparator() { public void prepare(final MimeMessage mimeMessage) throws Exception { final MimeMessageHelper message = new MimeMessageHelper( mimeMessage); message.setTo(toAddress); message.setFrom(fromAddress); message.setSubject(subject); final String htmlText = FreeMarkerTemplateUtils .processTemplateIntoString(configuration .getTemplate(htmlTemplate), model); message.setText(htmlText, true); } }; mailSender.send(preparator); But once I change it to: final MimeMessagePreparator preparator = new MimeMessagePreparator() { public void prepare(final MimeMessage mimeMessage) throws Exception { final MimeMessageHelper message = new MimeMessageHelper( mimeMessage, true); ... message.setText(plainText, htmlText); } }; mailSender.send(preparator); I get: Failed message 1: javax.mail.MessagingException: Converting attachment data failed at com.google.appengine.api.mail.stdimpl.GMTransport.sendMessage(GMTransport.java:231) at org.springframework.mail.javamail.JavaMailSenderImpl.doSend(JavaMailSenderImpl.java:402) ... This is especially difficult since the GMTransport is proprietary Google class and no sources are available, which would make it a bit easier to debug. Anyone have any ideas what to try next? My bean config, for helping you to help me: <bean id="mailSender" class="org.springframework.mail.javamail.JavaMailSenderImpl" p:username="${mail.username}" p:password="${mail.password}" p:protocol="gm" />

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  • Private Java class properties mysteriously reset between method calls....

    - by Michael Jones
    I have a very odd problem. A class property is mysteriously reset between method calls. The following code is executed so the constructor is called, then the parseConfiguration method is called. Finally, processData is called. The parseConfiguration method sets the "recursive" property to "true". However, as soon as it enters "processData", "recursive" becomes "false". This problem isn't isolated to a single class -- I have several examples of this in my code. How can this possibly be happening? I've tried initialising properties when they're declared outside any methods, I've tried initialising them in constructors... nothing works. The only complication I can think of here is that this class is invoked by an object that runs in a thread -- but here is one instance per thread, so surely no chance that threads are interfering. I've tried setting both methods to "synchronized", but this still happens. Please help! /** * This class or its superclasses are NOT threaded and don't extend Thread */ public class DirectoryAcquirer extends Manipulator { /** * @var Whether to recursively scan directories */ private boolean recursive = false; /** * Constructor */ public DirectoryAcquirer() { } /** * Constructor that initialises the configuration * * @param config * @throws InvalidConfigurationException */ public DirectoryAcquirer(HierarchicalConfiguration config) throws InvalidConfigurationException { super(config); } @Override protected void parseConfiguration() throws InvalidConfigurationException { // set whether to recurse into directories or not if (this.config.containsKey("recursive")) { // this.recursive gets set to "true" here this.recursive = this.config.getBoolean("recursive"); } } @Override public EntityCollection processData(EntityCollection data) { // here this.recursive is "false" this.logger.debug("processData: Entered method"); } }

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  • Removing a view from it's superview causes memory error - why?

    - by mystify
    Xcode is throwing an error at me: malloc: * error for object 0x103f000: pointer being freed was not allocated * set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug I tracked down the code until a line where I do this: - (void)inputValueCommitted:(NSString *)animationID finished:(BOOL)finished context:(void *)context { // retainCount of myView is 2! (one for the retain-property, one for beeing a subview) [self.myView removeFromSuperview]; // ERROR-LINE !! self.myView = nil; } When I remove that errorful line, the error is gone. So in conclusion: I can't get rid of my view! It's an UIImageView with nothing else inside, just showing an image. What I do is this: I create an UIView Animation Block, create that UIImageView, assign it to an retain-property with self.myView = ..., and after the animation is done, I just want to get rid of that view. So I remove it from it's superview and then set my property to nil, which lets it go away - in theory. Did anyone else encounter such issues? iPhone SDK 3.0.

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  • using jquery growl with php/mysql

    - by jeansymolanza
    on my database i am planning to create a table storing messages to alert users of anything they need to do. i am looking at using a jQuery growl like notification method but im confused at how i would begin building it. the data would be added into the database using the standard MYSQL insert method from a form but how would i select messages from the database to display using the jQuery growl. would this require the use of ajax? this is the javascript code i have so far, i was wondering how i would implement the php code alongside it so that i can pull out data from my tables to display as notifications: <script type="text/javascript"> // In case you don't have firebug... if (!window.console || !console.firebug) { var names = ["log", "debug", "info", "warn", "error", "assert", "dir", "dirxml", "group", "groupEnd", "time", "timeEnd", "count", "trace", "profile", "profileEnd"]; window.console = {}; for (var i = 0; i < names.length; ++i) window.console[names[i]] = function() {}; } (function($){ $(document).ready(function(){ // This specifies how many messages can be pooled out at any given time. // If there are more notifications raised then the pool, the others are // placed into queue and rendered after the other have disapeared. $.jGrowl.defaults.pool = 5; var i = 1; var y = 1; setInterval( function() { if ( i < 3 ) { $.jGrowl("Message " + i, { sticky: true, log: function() { console.log("Creating message " + i + "..."); }, beforeOpen: function() { console.log("Rendering message " + y + "..."); y++; } }); } i++; } , 1000 ); }); })(jQuery); </script> <p> thanking you in advance and God bless

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  • Setting up ehcache replication - what multicast settings do I need?

    - by Darren Greaves
    I am trying to set up ehcache replication as documented here: http://ehcache.sourceforge.net/EhcacheUserGuide.html#id.s22.2 This is on a Windows machine but will ultimately run on Solaris in production. The instructions say to set up a provider as follows: <cacheManagerPeerProviderFactory class="net.sf.ehcache.distribution.RMICacheManagerPeerProviderFactory" properties="peerDiscovery=automatic, multicastGroupAddress=230.0.0.1, multicastGroupPort=4446, timeToLive=32"/> And a listener like this: <cacheManagerPeerListenerFactory class="net.sf.ehcache.distribution.RMICacheManagerPeerListenerFactory" properties="hostName=localhost, port=40001, socketTimeoutMillis=2000"/> My questions are: Are the multicast IP address and port arbitrary (I know the address has to live within a specific range but do they have to be specific numbers)? Do they need to be set up in some way by our system administrator (I am on an office network)? I want to test it locally so am running two separate tomcat instances with the above config. What do I need to change in each one? I know both the listeners can't listen on the same port - but what about the provider? Also, are the listener ports arbitrary too? I've tried setting it up as above but in my testing the caches don't appear to be replicated - the value added in one tomcat's cache is not present in the other cache. Is there anything I can do to debug this situation (other than packet sniffing)? Thanks in advance for any help, been tearing my hair out over this one!

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  • What is the best IDE setup for web development?

    - by Yuval A
    I am starting a little side project which consists of building a small-medium sized, django-based, website. However, last time I was actually in the business of websites, was a few good years ago. So while still technologically capable, I'm still rusted on the tools/IDE part of websites. I am looking for an IDE which can support the following: Basic HTML editing with syntax completion, highlighting, etc... Basic CSS editing with syntax completion, highlighting, etc... Python support for Django Support for the entire develop-debug-FTP upload cycle If all of this could happen inside my existing eclipse installation, it would be nothing short of perfection. So what's your recommendation on web development IDEs? EDIT: forgot to add that I'm running Win XP on my dev machine. EDIT after answers: thanks all you guys for the helpful advice. I think I'm going to go with Aptana as it fits in to eclipse which I already use. Also I will look into version control instead of simple FTP upload. Apparently I didn't know how much it is used even in web projects.

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  • gdb reverse debugging error

    - by Werner
    Hi, i started to try reverse debugging with gdb 7, followin the tutorial: http://www.sourceware.org/gdb/wiki/ProcessRecord/Tutorial and I thought, great! Then I started to debug a real program which gives an error at the end. So I run it with gdb, and I put a breakpoint just before the place I think the error appears. Then I type "record" in order to start to recrd actions for future reverse-debugging. But after some steps I get Process record doesn't support instruction 0xf0d at address 0x2aaaab4c4b4e. Process record: failed to record execution log. Program received signal SIGTRAP, Trace/breakpoint trap. 0x00002aaaab4c4b4e in memcpy () from /lib64/libc.so.6 (gdb) n Single stepping until exit from function memcpy, which has no line number information. Process record doesn't support instruction 0xf0d at address 0x2aaaab4c4b4e. Process record: failed to record execution log. Program received signal SIGABRT, Aborted. 0x00002aaaab4c4b4e in memcpy () from /lib64/libc.so.6 Before I look at in in detail, I wonder if this feature is still buggy, or if I should start to record from the beginning. Where this "record" error happens, just an object is created as a copy of other: Thanks

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  • Saving twice don't update my object in JDO

    - by Javi
    Hello I have an object persisted in the GAE datastore using JDO. The object looks like this: public class MyObject implements Serializable, StoreCallback { @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy = IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) @Extension(vendorName="datanucleus", key="gae.encoded-pk", value="true") private String id; @Persistent private String firstId; ... } As usually when the object is stored for the first time a new id value is generated for the identifier. I need that if I don't provide a value for firstId it sets the same value as the id. I don't want to solve it with a special getter which checks for null value in firstId and then return the id value because I want to make queries relating on firstId. I can do it in this way by saving the object twice (Probably there's a better way to do this, but I'll do it in this way until I find a better one). But it is not working. when I debug it I can see that result.firstId is set with the id value and it seems to be persisted, but when I go into the datastore I see that firstId is null (as it was saved the first time). This save method is in my DAO and it is called in another save method in the service annotated with @Transactional. Does anyone have any idea why the second object in not persisted properly? @Override public MyObject save(MyObject obj) { PersistenceManager pm = JDOHelper.getPersistenceManagerFactory("transactions-optional"); MyObject result = pm.makePersistent(obj); if(result.getFirstId() == null){ result.setFirstId(result.getId()); result = pm.makePersistent(result); } return result; } Thanks.

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  • How to catch HttpRequestValidationException in production

    - by bruno
    Hello all, I have this piece of code to handle the HttpRequestValidationException in my global.asax.cs file. protected void Application_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) { var context = HttpContext.Current; var exception = context.Server.GetLastError(); if (exception is HttpRequestValidationException) { Response.Clear(); Response.StatusCode = 200; Response.Write(@"<html><head></head><body>hello</body></html>"); Response.End(); return; } } If I debug my webapplication, it works perfect. But when i put it on our production-server, the server ignores it and generate the "a potentially dangerous request.form value was detected from the client" - error page. I don't know what happens exactly... If anybody knows what the problem is, or what i do wrong..? Also I don't want to set the validaterequest on false in the web.config. The server uses IIS7.5, And I'm using asp.net 3.5. Thanks, Bruno

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  • _resignRootViewController causes app to crash.

    - by RickiG
    [MainViewController _resignRootViewController]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x4ebfe50 This error happens when I try to pop my MainViewController Object from within it self: - (void) switchToTableView { //a method on the MainViewController [self.navigationController popViewControllerAnimated:NO]; [[UIApplication applicationDelegate] switchToTableView]; //convenience method for the app delegate } The debugger stops at the [super dealloc] command in MainViewControllers dealloc method. I do the exact same thing in the TripTableViewController, but here it never crashes. MainViewController and TripTableViewController are handled in my AppDelegate like this: - (void) switchToTableView { TripTableViewController *tripTableViewController = [[TripTableViewController alloc] init]; [[self.navigationController navigationBar] setHidden:NO]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:tripTableViewController animated:NO]; [tripTableViewController release]; } - (void) switchToScrollView { MainViewController *scrollView = [[MainViewController alloc] init]; [[self.navigationController navigationBar] setHidden:YES]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:scrollView animated:NO]; [scrollView release]; } I am trying to achieve that when the user goes from TripTableViewController to MainViewController; TripTableViewController is released/popped and visa versa for the MainViewController. I do not wish for the navigationController to make the decision about when to pop/cache/release them, this is why I try to do it from within it self. I have not been able to find the _resignRootViewController mentioned anywhere. My guess is that it is a delegate message sent by a ViewController that resigns as rootViewController for a navigationController and that somehow it is called twice, once before MainViewCOntroller is released/popped and somehow again afterwards. Have any one else seen this error message before? Google and the Apple Docs does not mention it? How can I debug such an error? Hope someone can guide me in the right direction on this one, Thanks:)

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  • WCF done broke.

    - by SteveCav
    WCF is completely fouled up on my machine. I start a new sln in VS2008. Add a project (WCF Service Lib).Build the project (builds ok). debug the project -- it gets halfway through the progress bar and bombs out with the error below (real path changed to "my mex path" so codeproject doesn't think its spam). I'm assuming it's file permissions but don't know where to start. Any ideas?: Error: Cannot obtain Metadata from my mex path If this is a Windows (R) Communication Foundation service to which you have access, please check that you have enabled metadata publishing at the specified address. For help enabling metadata publishing, please refer to the MSDN documentation at somewhere unhelpful Exchange Error URI: my mex path Metadata contains a reference that cannot be resolved: 'my mex path'. Could not connect to my mex path. TCP error code 10061: No connection could be made because the target machine actively refused it 127.0.0.1:8731. Unable to connect to the remote server No connection could be made because the target machine actively refused it 127.0.0.1:8731HTTP GET Error URI: my mex path There was an error downloading 'my mex path'. Unable to connect to the remote server No connection could be made because the target machine actively refused it 127.0.0.1:8731

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  • Problem calling web service from within JBOSS EJB Service

    - by Rob Goodwin
    I have a simple web service sitting on our internal network. I used SOAPUI to do a bit of testing, generated the service classes from the WSDL , and wrote some java code to access the service. All went as expected as I was able to create the service proxy classes and make calls. Pretty simple stuff. The only speed bump was getting java to trust the certificate from the machine providing the web service. That was not a technical problem, but rather my lack of experience with SSL based web services. Now onto my problem. I coded up a simple EJB service and deployed it into JBoss Application Server 4.3 and now get the following error in the code that previously worked. 12:21:50,235 WARN [ServiceDelegateImpl] Cannot access wsdlURL: https://WS-Test/TestService/v2/TestService?wsdl I can access the wsdl file from a web browser running on the same machine as the application server using the URL in the error message. I am at a loss as to where to go from here. I turned on the debug logs in JBOSS and got nothing more than what I showed above. I have done some searching on the net and found the same error in some questions, but those questions had no answers. The web services classes where generated with JAX-WS 2.2 using the wsimport ant task and placed in a jar that is included in the ejb package. JBoss is deployed in RHEL 5.4, where the standalone testing was done on Windows XP.

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