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• Loading UINavigationController subclass from a Nib

  - by Rits

  My situation is as follows: My class SettingsViewController is a subclass of UINavigationController. That class contains the logic of its rootViewController. For example, it acts as the delegate and data source for two table views in that root view controller. I have no problem setting this up programmatically. In the initializer of SettingsViewController, I can create an additional UIViewController to serve as the root view controller, position the table views in its view, and set their delegates and data sources to self. But I want to load that root view via a Nib. The problem is, I do not know how to connect that Nib with my SettingsViewController, how to set the delegates and data sources. The SettingsViewController is not accessible from within the Nib. 'File Owner' represents the root view controller, not the SettingsViewController. How do I access my UINavigationController subclass from within my root view controllers Nib? Thanks in advance.

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• Android equivalent work-around for View.getX() before API 11?

  - by user48998

  I'm using the getX() and getY() method on a view for some special dragging logic (not animation, i.e. I never use setX/Y methods, I just need the getters to check). However, I've come to realize that these are only available post-API 11. The docs for getX() say that is it the addition of the 'left' property and the 'translationX' property. All well and good, except get/setTranslationX() is only around since API 11 as well. I was wondering if there was any knowledge on what this method returns behind the scenes, so I could maybe put in a workaround. Thanks for any help - Chase

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• How do I connect a dataGrid to a DataSet

  - by orangecl4now

  using System.Windows; namespace Telephone_Directory { /// <summary> /// Interaction logic for MainWindow.xaml /// </summary> public partial class MainWindow : Window { public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); telephone2010DataSet dataSet = new telephone2010DataSet(); telephone2010DataSetTableAdapter adapter = new telephone2010DataSetTableAdapter(); } } } The above is my code is a new project. Visual Studio 2010 complains that " the type or namespace 'telephone2010DataSetTableAdapter' could not be found." I created a new solution. I right clicked the solution name and selected "Add Existing Item" and located my Microsoft Access DB file. I followed the wizard and it setup the necessary XSD files. I started coding and I got this message. I did a little google-ing and I cant figure it out. This is a WPF application created with Visual Studio 2010.

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• How to skip the invalid rows while inserting the data into Database

  - by Dinesh

  We have a statement., that is inserting some rows in a temporary table (say e.g., 10 rows), while inserting 5th row, it has some issue with one of the column format and giving an error and then it stopped inserting the rows. What I want is, it should skip the error rows and insert valid rows. For those error rows, it can skip that error column and insert with some null value & different status. create table #tb_pagecontent_value (pageid int,formid uniqueidentifier, id_field xml,fieldvalue xml,label_final xml) … … insert into #tb_pagecontent_xml select A.pageid,B.formid,A.PageData.query('/CPageDataXML/control') from Pagedata A inner join page B on A.PageId=B.PageId inner join FormAssociation C on B.FormId=C.FormId where B.pageid in (select pageId from jobs where jobtype='zba' and StatusFlag!=1) in the above e.g., I want to apply that logic. Any help is appreciated.

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• Why does $('#id') return true if id doesn't exist?

  - by David

  I always wondered why jQuery returns true if I'm trying to find elements by id selector that doesnt exist in the DOM structure. Like this: <div id="one">one</div> <script> console.log( !!$('#one') ) // prints true console.log( !!$('#two') ) // is also true! (empty jQuery object) console.log( !!document.getElementById('two') ) // prints false </script> I know I can use !!$('#two').length since length === 0 if the object is empty, but it seems logical to me that a selector would return the element if found, otherwise null (like the native document.getElementById does). F.ex, this logic can't be done in jQuery: var div = $('#two') || $('<div id="two"></div>'); Wouldnt it be more logical if the ID selector returned null if not found? anyone?

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• Converting ASP.NET MVC to n-Tiered Architecture

  - by Jeff

  I just built an application using ASP.NET MVC. The programmers at my company want to build all future modules using n-Tiered (Presentation Layer, Business Logic Layer, Data Access Layer) architecture. I am not the programmer and need to know why this makes sense? Do I have to completely rewrite the entire code or can it be converted? We are building an HRIS system with Business Intelligence. Somebody please explain why or why not this approach does or does not make sense.

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• ASP.NET MVC - How to Preserve ModelState Errors Across RedirectToAction?

  - by RPM1984

  Hi Guys, I have the following two action methods (simplified for question): [HttpGet] public ActionResult Create(string uniqueUri) { // get some stuff based on uniqueuri, set in ViewData. return View(); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Create(Review review) { // validate review if (validatedOk) { return RedirectToAction("Details", new { postId = review.PostId}); } else { ModelState.AddModelError("ReviewErrors", "some error occured"); return RedirectToAction("Create", new { uniqueUri = Request.RequestContext.RouteData.Values["uniqueUri"]}); } } So, if the validation passes, i redirect to another page (confirmation). If an error occurs, i need to display the same page with the error. If i do return View(), the error is displayed, but if i do return RedirectToAction (as above), it loses the Model errors. I'm not surprised by the issue, just wondering how you guys handle this? I could of course just return the same View instead of the redirect, but i have logic in the "Create" method which populates the view data, which i'd have to duplicate. Any suggestions?

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• How to represent datetime of deifferent time zomes in C#

  - by Mohoch

  Hi. I have a .NET WebService (written in C#), that is supposed to serve people around the world. With each request I get the user's datetime in his own time zone with the format : "yyyy/MM/dd HH:mm ZZZZ". I have to convert the string to something representing the original date and time and specifying the time zone in GMT. I have to make some logical calculations and keep it in the database. The regular DateTime doe's not support this. it does not have a property specifying the time zone. When I try to convert my string into DateTime - it simply converts it to my local time. I do not want to keep my time in UTC, because I have some logic that has to run per user by his own time. Does anyone know a C# class that handles this? Thanks!

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• how use ASP.NET_SessionId cookies to check timeout for 2 different web applications

  - by user553858

  Hi All I am developing 2 web applications based on "ASP.NET_SessionId" cookies to check session timeout and also to logout : protected void Session_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (Context.Session != null) { //check the IsNewSession value, this will tell us if the session has been reset if (Session.IsNewSession) { string cookie = Request.Headers["Cookie"]; // Code that runs when a new session is started if ((null != cookie) && (cookie.IndexOf("ASP.NET_SessionId") >= 0)) { if (Request.QueryString["timeout"] == null || !Request.QueryString["timeout"].ToString().Equals("yes")) Session.Abandon(); Session.Clear(); Response.Redirect("Login.aspx?timeout=yes"); } } } } This works fine for my first application. When implementing the same logic for the 2nd application when I press logout in one application, the second application is redirected to the login page. How can I fix this? Best regards

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• Add up values from a text file

  - by Stanley

  Hi Guys I have a text file that contains Amounts at Substring (34, 47) of each line. I need to sum Up all the Values to the End of the File. I have this code that I had started to build but I do not know how to proceed from here: public class Addup { /** * @param args the command line arguments */ public static void main(String[] args) throws FileNotFoundException, IOException { // TODO code application logic here FileInputStream fs = new FileInputStream("C:/Analysis/RL004.TXT"); BufferedReader br = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(fs)); String line; while((line = br.readLine()) != null){ String num = line.substring(34, 47); double i = Double.parseDouble(num); System.out.println(i); } } } The output is like this: 1.44576457E4 2.33434354E6 4.56875685E3 The Amount is in two decimal Places and I need the result also in the Two decimal Places. What Is the Best way to achieve this?

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• Same address, multiple shared_ptr counters, is it forbidden by C++ standard?

  - by icando

  Suppose I have some needs to do the following (This is just some imaginative code for discussion of the C++ standard, thus I won't discuss why I design it this way, so don't bother me something like: your design is wrong.) T* ptr = new T; shared_ptr<T> p(ptr); shared_ptr<T> q(ptr, SomeDeleterThatDoesnotDeleteButDoSomeOtherStuff()); Suppose the logic guarantees that p or some of its copies lives longer than any copies of q, so practically there won't be any problem. My question is, is it forbidden by C++ standard, e.g. explicitly stated as UB by C++ standard, that different shared_ptr counters share the same address? Thanks.

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• Is there a way to give a subquery an alias in Oracle 11g SQL?

  - by Matt Pascoe

  Is there a way to give a subquery in Oracle 11g an alias like: select * from (select client_ref_id, request from some_table where message_type = 1) abc, (select client_ref_id, response from some_table where message_type = 2) defg where abc.client_ref_id = def.client_ref_id; Otherwise is there a way to join the two subqueries based on the client_ref_id. I realize there is a self join, but on the database I am running on a self join can take up to 5 min to complete (there is some extra logic in the actual query I am running but I have determined the self join is what is causing the issue). The individual subqueries only take a few seconds to complete by them selves. The self join query looks something like: select st.request, st1.request from some_table st, some_table st1 where st.client_ref_id = st1.client_ref_id;

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• Best way to perform DELETE that uses ids from a SELECT statement in MYSQL

  - by Aglystas

  I'm working on a stored procedure, that needs to delete specific rows based on a timestamp. Here's what I was going to use until I found out you can't include a select clause in the delete statement if they are both working on the same table. DELETE FROM product WHERE merchant_id = 2 AND product_id IN (SELECT product_id FROM product WHERE merchant_id = 1 AND timestamp_updated > 1275062558); Is there a good way to handle this within a stored procedure. Normally I would just throw the logic to build the product_id list in php, but I'm trying to have all the processing done on the data server.

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• Eval IronPython Scripts during ASP.NET Web Request; Static Engine or Not

  - by Josh Pearce

  I would like to create an ASP.NET MVC web application which has extensible logic that does not require a re-build. I was thinking of creating a filter which had an instance of the IronPython engine. What I would like to know is: how much overhead is there in creating a new engine during each web request, and would it be a better idea to keep a static engine around? However, if I were to keep a single static engine around, what are the issues I might run into as far as locking and script scope? Is it possible to have multiple scopes in the same IropPython engine so I don't get variable collision and security issues between web requests?

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• View / ViewModel - what is the sense (in a WPF control)?

  - by TomTom

  Not as funny as it sounds. Normally the View / ViewModel should decouple the presentation from the business logic. Good. Now, a Control in WPF is basically invisible unless made different (with the exceptions of UserControl and Window that have XAML directly attached). The Style is putting in the "visual presentation" - which basically means a Control does not need a view mechanism as WPF already has one? In addition. the ViewModel is actually part of the Control, or? Just fighting with that stuff. I know in ASP.NET, WinForms the separation makes a lot of sense - but there, basically, controls HAVE an intrinsic look. In WPF, I have some where it makes sense (derived from UserControl), but for the majority of the controls I write, the View & ViewModel look like pretty much totally superflous thanks to the already presenting view mechanism.

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• How hard is it for a .NET programmer to learn Objective C and Cocoa?

  - by rsteckly

  Hi, I'm trying to build a dual platform application for a company of my own I'm trying to start at night. I have the .NET version done, but have not finished the UI part. I'm thinking of buying some 3rd party controls. If I buy these controls, however, they clearly will only work in my Windows version. I'm wondering if I should try to do the UI in GTK# and use Mono with CocoaSharp or just build the thing in MS technology and teach myself the Mac side? I'm just really unfamiliar with the Mac world and am wondering how much of a learning curve there might be. I've thought perhaps of rewriting my core logic in Ruby or Python. This why I could use the .NET version with .NET controls and presumably hook the same code up on the Mac. It's an educational app targeted at consumers. As such, it shouldn't require a lot of technical sophistication to install.

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• FOR loop performance in Javascript

  - by AndrewMcLagan

  As my research leads me to believe that for loops are the fastest iteration construct in javascript language. I was thinking that also declaring a conditional length value for the for loop would be faster... to make it clearer, which of the following do you think would be faster? Example ONE for(var i = 0; i < myLargeArray.length; i++ ) { console.log(myLargeArray[i]); } Example TWO var count = myLargeArray.length; for(var i = 0; i < count; i++ ) { console.log(myLargeArray[i]); } my logic follows that on each iteration in example one accessing the length of myLargeArray on each iteration is more computationally expensive then accessing a simple integer value as in example two?

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• Is there a way to give a subquery an alias in Oracle 10g SQL?

  - by Matt Pascoe

  Is there a way to give a subquery in Oracle 11g an alias like: select * from (select client_ref_id, request from some_table where message_type = 1) abc, (select client_ref_id, response from some_table where message_type = 2) defg where abc.client_ref_id = def.client_ref_id; Otherwise is there a way to join the two subqueries based on the client_ref_id. I realize there is a self join, but on the database I am running on a self join can take up to 5 min to complete (there is some extra logic in the actual query I am running but I have determined the self join is what is causing the issue). The individual subqueries only take a few seconds to complete by them selves. The self join query looks something like: select st.request, st1.request from some_table st, some_table st1 where st.client_ref_id = st1.client_ref_id;

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• In html <a href> tag, how to call servlet before opening file dialog for download (save as)?

  - by deepthinker121

  Hi All, I am developing a web-app where I want to provide a download link to users - so they can download a zip file from my server. Now, my requirement is that I want to execute some processing logic contained in a servlet before displaying the file dialog to the user for 'zip' files. So If I write <a href="abc.zip".......> then it opens a file dialog asking the user to select the location where this file can be saved But if I want a servlet's doGet method to do some preprocessing - say like building the zip file , then how can I first call the servlet and then open the file dialog. Will the following snippet work? <a href="MyHandlerServlet;abc.zip".......> Thanks for your help !!

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• Multiple Table Joins to Improve Performance?

  - by EdenMachine

  If I have a table structure like this: Transaction [TransID, ...] Document [DocID, TransID, ...] Signer [SignerID, ...] Signature [SigID, DocID, SignerID, ...] And the business logic is like this: Transactions can have multiple documents Documents can have multiple signatures And the same signer can have multiple signatures in multiple documents within the same transaction So, now to my actual question: If I wanted to find all the documents in a particular transaction, would it be better, performance-wise, if I also stored the TransID and the DocID in the Signer table as well so I have smaller joins. Otherwise, I'd have to join through the Signature Document Transaction Documents to get all the documents in the transaction for that signer. I think it's really messy to have that many relationships in the Signer table though and it doesn't seem "correct" to do it that way (also seems like an update nightmare) but I can see that it might be better performance for direct joins. Thoughts? TIA!

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• How to skip interstitial in a django view if a user hits the back button?

  - by Jose Boveda

  I have an application with an interstitial page to hold the user while an intensive operation runs in the background (takes anywhere from 30 secs to 1 minute). Once the operation is done, the user is redirected to the results page. Once on the result page, typical user behavior is to hit the 'back' button to perform the operation on a different input set. However, the back button takes them to the interstitial, not the original form. The desired behavior is to go back to the original form, skipping the interstitial entirely. I'd like this to be default behavior if the user goes to the interstitial page from anywhere but the original form. I thought I could create this by using the @never_cache function decorator in my view for the interstitial, and logic based on request.META['HTTP_REFERER'], however the page doesn't respect these. The browser's back button still trumps this behavior. Any ideas on how to solve this issue?

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• Browser gets blocked, workers to the rescue?

  - by tb_selleo

  Hello, I use JavaScript for rendering 20 tables of 100 rows each. The data for each table is provided by controller as JSON. Each table is split into section that have "totals" and have some other JavaScript logic code. Some totals are outside of the table itself. As a result JavaScript blocks browser for a couple of seconds (especially in IE6) :( I was consideting to use http://code.google.com/p/jsworker/, however Google Gears Workers (I guess workers in general) will not allow me to make changes to DOM at the worker code, and also it seems to me that I can not use jQuery inside jsworker worker code. (Maybe I am wrong here?). This issue seems to be fundamental to the JavaScript coding practice, can you share with me your thoughts how to approach it?

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• phpunit - generate tests for all the classes from a directory

  - by joe

  Hi! I have a directoy structure, and all the classes of the business logic are placed in the app_dir/lib/ directory. I would like to generate unit tests for all the classes from this lib/ folder. The problem is, that I haven't found any option to specify the source directory, only the source file: from app_dir: phpunit --skeleton-class lib/ Error: "lib/.php" could not be opened. Is it the only solution to write my own php script, which iterates through the /lib folder and calls the skeleton generator for every file found? And how can I specify the output folder, where all the generated test files are placed? Thanx, Joe

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• MonoRail - Clearing value on edit form submission doesn't trigger validation

  - by Justin

  Hey, In a MonoRail app I have an add/edit view. On add if I don't pick a value for a dropdown I get a validation error and am forced to pick a value. However, if I then edit that same item and reset the dropdown back to the first item ("Select an Item", "0"), it saves and doesn't say it was invalid. Debugging the entity sent back to the server, I can see that it's sending the original value for the dropdown instead of the new value of "0". What's going on here? The first thing I would expect is that it would trigger the validation since the dropdown value isn't set. The second thing I would expect is that it would send the new value I send, not the original. It does send the new value if I change it to another value, but it's as if it has internal logic that says - "I'm updating this entity and a new value was not passed, just don't change the entity value." Thanks, Justin

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• Really lost with OpenID and ASP.NET MVC

  - by Stacey

  I'm attempting to implement OpenID with ASP.NET MVC (Yeah, we haven't heard that one before I'm sure!) That really isn't the big problem, though. My huge problem is that I am exceedingly confused about how to do this alongside an application that will need to store a lot of information about the logged in users (profiles, histories, etc) It seems to me that OpenID takes away the site-centric logic and makes it, well, open. This is all well and good if you just make an authentication ticket to be seen as a 'validated' user - but in all seriousness I am completely lost. Is it possible to implement OpenID such that logging in with it will allow users to 'exist' on my own application as if they had gone through normal registration?

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