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  • facebook authentication / login trouble

    - by salmane
    I have setup facebook authentication using php and it goes something like this first getting the authorization here : https://graph.facebook.com/oauth/authorize?client_id=<?= $facebook_app_id ?>&redirect_uri=http://www.example.com/facebook/oauth/&scope=user_about_me,publish_stream then getting the access Token here : $url = "https://graph.facebook.com/oauth/access_token?client_id=".$facebook_app_id."&redirect_uri=http://www.example.com/facebook/oauth/&client_secret=".$facebook_secret."&code=".$code;" function get_string_between($string, $start, $end){ $string = " ".$string; $ini = strpos($string,$start); if ($ini == 0) return ""; $ini += strlen($start); $len = strpos($string,$end,$ini) - $ini; return substr($string,$ini,$len); } $access_token = get_string_between(file_get_contents($url), "access_token=", "&expires="); then getting user info : $facebook_user = file_get_contents('https://graph.facebook.com/me?access_token='.$access_token); $facebook_id = json_decode($facebook_user)->id; $first_name = json_decode($facebook_user)->first_name; $last_name = json_decode($facebook_user)->last_name; this is pretty ugly ( in my opinion ) but it works....how ever....the user is still not logged in...because i did not create or retrieve any session variables to confirm that the user is logged in to facebook... which means that after getting the authentication done the use still has to login .... first: is there a better way using php to do what i did above ? second: how do i set/ get session variable / cookies that ensure that the user doesnt have to click login thanks for your help

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  • How to compare 2 complex spreadsheets running in parallel for consistency with each other?

    - by tbone
    I am working on converting a large number of spreadsheets to use a new 3rd party data access library (converting from third party library #1 to third party library #2). fyi: a call to a UDF (user defined function) is placed in a cell, and when that is refreshed, it pulls the data into a pivot table below the formula. Both libraries behave the same and produce the same output, except, small irregularites can arise, such as an additional field being shown in the output pivot table using library #2, which can affect formulas on the sheet if data is being read from the pivot table without using GetPivotData. So I have ~100 of these very complicated (20+ worksheets per workbook) spreadsheets that I have to convert, and run in parallel for a period of time, to see if the output using the new data access library matches the old library. Is there some clever approach to do this, so I don't have to spend a large amount of time analyzing each sheet to determine the specific elements to compare? Two rough ideas that come to mind: 1. just create a Validator workbook that has the same # of worksheets, and simply do a Worbook1!Worksheet1!A1 - Worbook2!Worksheet3!A1 for every possible cell on each sheet 2. roughly the equivalent of #1, but just traverse the cells in the 2 books using VBA, and log any cells that do not match. I don't particularly like either idea, can anyone think of something better than this, maybe some 3rd party utility I could buy?

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  • Reload images in a UIWebView after they have been downloaded by a background thread

    - by dantastic
    I have an application that frequently checks in with a server and downloads a batch of articles to the iphone. The articles are in html and just stored using core data. An article has 0-n images on the page. Downloading all associated images at the same time as the text will be too slow and take too much bandwidth. Users are not likely to open every article. If they open an article once it is likely they will open it several times. So I want to download and store the images locally when they are needed. These articles are listed in a UITableView. When you tap an article you pop open a UIWebView that displays the article. I have a function that checks if I have downloaded the images associated with the article already. If I have I just pop open the the UIWebView - everything works fine. If I don't have the images downloaded I go off and download them and store them to my Documents directory. Although this i working, the app is hanging while the images are downloading. Not very tidy. I want the article to open in a snap and download the images with the article open. So what I've done is I check if the images are downloaded, if they aren't I go ahead and just "touch" the files I need and load the webview. The UIWebView opens up but the images referenced contain no data. Then in a background thread I download the images and overwrite the "dummy" ones. This will save the images and everything but it won't reload the images in my current UIWebView. I have to go back out of the article back back in again to see the images. Are there any ways around this? reloading just an image in a UIWebView?

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  • Visual Studio - Edit source code located in a database

    - by mfeingold
    I am building something similar to Server Explorer for Apache CouchDB. One of the things necessary is to be able to edit CouchDB view definitions which in CouchDB are JavaScript functions. How can I trick Visual Studio into using my object to retrieve and save the content of the JavaScript function but still use the rest of it - I am happy with editor itself and have no intention of writing my own Editor/Language Service, etc. The latter would be much bigger effort than what this project warrants Edit After more digging I am still stuck. Here is what I know: IVsUIShellOpenDocument interface provides a method OpenStandardEditor which can be used to open the standard Visual Studio editor. As one of the parameters this method takes a Pointer to the IUnknown interface of the document data object. This object is supposed to implement several interfaces described in many places all over the MSDN. Visual Studio SDK also provides a 'sample' implementation of the document data object VsTextBufferClass. I can create an instance of this class and when I pass the pointer to the instance to the OpenStandardEditor I can see my editor and it seems to work ok. When I try to implement my own class implementing the same interfaces (IVsTextBuffer, VsTextBuffer, IVsTextLines) OpenStandardEditor method returns success, but VS bombs out on call editor.Show() with an access violation. My suspicion is that VsTextBufferClass also implements some other interface(s) but not in C# way but rather in the good old COM way. I just do not know which one(s). Any thoughts?

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  • get the javascript variable value to Code Behind Asp.net

    - by Siddiq Baig
    i am trying to pass the javascript variable value to hidden feild from code behind by onclientclick event.. i have button that have both client and server side onclick event <asp:Button ID="btnSave" runat="server" Text="Save" class="buttonstyle" onclick="btnSave_Click" OnClientClick="otherdata()" /> i want to get the javascript value in codebehind from OnClientClick event and then want to insert that value to database table from Onclick event function otherdata() { var hv = $('input[id$=hdnOthers]').val(); var $arrT = $('#<%=gv_Others.ClientID %>').find('input:text[id$="txtEmp"]'); var count = []; for (var i = 0; i < 10; i++) { var $txt = $arrT[i]; count[i] = $($txt).val(); } hv = count; alert(hv); } i am getting the value in alert and assigning the value to hidden field but problem is that i am not getting the value in hidden field from code behind.. although i have already pass the value to hidden field from javascript so why i am not getting that value from code behind.. protected void Insert_OtherServices() { dsJobCardTableAdapters.Select_OtherServiceTableAdapter dsother = new dsJobCardTableAdapters.Select_OtherServiceTableAdapter(); string hdn = hdnOthers.Value; dsother.Insert_OtherService(hdn); }

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  • Any danger in calling flash messages html_safe?

    - by PreciousBodilyFluids
    I want a flash message that looks something like: "That confirmation link is invalid or expired. Click here to have a new one generated." Where "click here" is of course a link to another action in the app where a new confirmation link can be generated. Two drawbacks: One, since link_to isn't defined in the controller where the flash message is being set, I have to put the link html in myself. No big deal, but kind of messy. Number two: In order for the link to actually display properly on the page I have to html_safe the flash display function in the view, so now it looks like (using Haml): - flash.each do |name, message| = content_tag :div, message.html_safe This gives me pause. Everything else I html_safe has been HTML I've written myself in helpers and whatnot, but the contents of the flash hash are stored in a cookie client-side, and could conceivably be changed. I've thought through it, and I don't see how this could result in an XSS attack, but XSS isn't something I have a great understanding of anyway. So, two questions: 1. Is there any danger in always html_safe-ing all flash contents like this? 2. The fact that this solution is so messy (breaking MVC by using HTML in the controller, always html_safe-ing all flash contents) make me think I'm going about this wrong. Is there a more elegant, Rails-ish way to do this? I'm using Rails 3.0.0.beta3.

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  • Macro and array crossing

    - by Thomas
    I am having a problem with a lisp macro. I would like to create a macro which generate a switch case according to an array. Here is the code to generate the switch-case: (defun split-elem(val) `(,(car val) ',(cdr val))) (defmacro generate-switch-case (var opts) `(case ,var ,(mapcar #'split-elem opts))) I can use it with a code like this: (generate-switch-case onevar ((a . A) (b . B))) But when I try to do something like this: (defparameter *operators* '((+ . OPERATOR-PLUS) (- . OPERATOR-MINUS) (/ . OPERATOR-DIVIDE) (= . OPERATOR-EQUAL) (* . OPERATOR-MULT))) (defmacro tokenize (data ops) (let ((sym (string->list data))) (mapcan (lambda (x) (generate-switch-case x ops)) sym))) (tokenize data *operators*) I got this error: *** - MAPCAR: A proper list must not end with OPS. But I don't understand why. When I print the type of ops I get SYMBOL I was expecting CONS, is it related? Also, for my function tokenize how many times the lambda is evaluated (or the macro expanded)?

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  • Checking if radio buttons are checked in Firefox

    - by Andrew Song
    On my site, I have two checkboxes created in my ASP.NET MVC view like so: Html.RadioButton("check", "true", "true" == (string) ViewData["someKey"], new { id = "check1"}); Html.RadioButton("check", "false", "false" == (string) ViewData["someKey"], new { id = "check2"}); I am positive that ViewData["someKey"] has the value "true" in it. In my JS init function, I perform the following check: alert($('#check1').is(':checked') + " " + $('#check2').is(':checked')); In Firefox (and only Firefox), my alert dialog will show the following (it works as expected in every other browser): Initial page load: true false Normal refresh via Ctrl + R: false false Refresh skipping cache via Ctrl + Shift + R: true false I have tried many different methods of looking at the checkbox value, including $('#check1').attr('checked') without success. If I examine the HTML in Firebug, I can see that the first radio button has the property checked="checked" in it. Why is the checkbox value changing in FF when I refresh, and how can I mitigate this? Since this seems to be a FF-only bug, how can I change my code to make it work? This SO question seemed to ask something similar, but none of the proposed solutions seem to work in this case. Edit: I should also point out that when the radio button is rendered after the refresh in FF, it's not actually being displayed as checked either, despite what the HTML is telling me. Edit2: Adding raw HTML as per request <input id="check1" type="radio" value="True" name="check" checked="checked"/> <input id="check2" type="radio" value="False" name="check"/>

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  • Question about how to implement a c# host application with a plugin-like architecture

    - by devoured elysium
    I want to have an application that works as a Host to many other small applications. Each one of those applications should work as kind of plugin to this main application. I call them plugins not in the sense they add something to the main application, but because they can only work with this Host application as they depend on some of its services. My idea was to have each of those plugins run in a different app domain. The problem seems to be that my host application should have a set of services that my plugins will want to use and from what is my understanding making data flow in and out from different app domains is not that great of a thing. On one hand I'd like them to behave as stand-alone applications(although, as I said, they need to use lots of times the host application services), but on the other hand I'd like that if any of them crashes, my main application wouldn't suffer from it. What is the best (.NET) approach to this kind of situation? Make them all run on the same AppDomain but each one in a different Thread? Use different AppDomains? One for each "plugin"? How would I make them communicate with the Host Application? Any other way of doing this? Although speed is not an issue here, I wouldn't like for function calls to be that much slower than they are when we're working with just a regular .NET application. Thanks

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  • PHP IF stops IE content from loading

    - by Rsmithy
    scenario I have a PHP if statement to test if a user is logging in for the first time ever. This then displays, a demo in a greybox popup box. Sadly when the box loads in IE, the content of the website doesn't. This means when I user closes the box, they are left the with background. Code - I'm now using PHP include. greybox.php <?php if ($fli == 0) {echo " <script type='text/javascript'> window.onload = function() { GB_showCenter('Your first login', '../video.php'); }; </script> ";} else echo "";?> <!-- GB scrip --> <script type="text/javascript"> var GB_ROOT_DIR = "greybox/"; </script> <script type="text/javascript" src="greybox/AJS.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="greybox/AJS_fx.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="greybox/gb_scripts.js"></script> <link href="greybox/gb_styles.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <!-- GB --> RELEVANT Script on main site <?php $fli = $_SESSION["USER"]["fli"]; ?> <?php include "greybox.php" ?> I would deeply appreicate any help at all please! :)

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  • Horizontally-centering an absolute position to match a relative position

    - by Chris Vandevelde
    I'm trying to make a div box, containing various elements, fixed at the top of the page once the page has been scrolled so that the box would normally be out of view, but scroll normally until that point (like the behaviour at http://perldoc.perl.org/perl.html). The conditionally-fixed part is pretty simple to implement (set the position to "fixed" once the user has scrolled past a certain point, and "static" once it's scrolled back up), but I'm having trouble with the positioning and dimensions; it screws up if I'm not specifying an absolute position (if I'm using % or "auto", rather than px, em, cm, etc.) or it, confusingly, left-aligns if the box is less than the width of the page. I can understand why, more or less, I'm just trying to fix it. My strategy right now is to have an invisible DIV hold the place of the box and use Prototype's clonePosition() function to hold its position, but it doesn't seem to work for some reason. Neither does copying the margin from one element to the other. Any ideas? Bonus points and eternal gratitude if you can come up with an idea that will adjust itself with the browser window (like auto margins) without setting an onresize event.

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  • html select execute javascript onload

    - by portoalet
    I am using HTML select onchange event to fire another javascript function func1. This html select is written into a form element, which are dynamically generated when users click on a button. The problem is how can I fire the javascript func1 when the dynamically generated form is first shown ? I am thinking of something along the line of on_first_show event for form ? Here is the snippet. I couldnt get the alert('don') to work either (the one just after div) var sPopupContents = "<div ><script type='text/javascript'>alert('don');</script> </div>"; // this javascript is not executed ? I cant get the alert. sPopupContents += "<form name='theform' >"; sPopupContents += "<select name='theselect' onchange='alert(2);"; sPopupContents += "func1()>'"; sPopupContents += "<option value='0' selected='selected'>Value1</option><option value='1'>Value2</option><br/>"; sPopupContents += "</form>";

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  • How do you pass a generic delegate argument to a method in .NET 2.0 - UPDATED

    - by Seth Spearman
    Hello, I have a class with a delegate declaration as follows... Public Class MyClass Public Delegate Function Getter(Of TResult)() As TResult ''#the following code works. Public Shared Sub MyMethod(ByVal g As Getter(Of Boolean)) ''#do stuff End Sub End Class However, I do not want to explicitly type the Getter delegate in the Method call. Why can I not declare the parameter as follows... ... (ByVal g As Getter(Of TResult)) Is there a way to do it? My end goal was to be able to set a delegate for property setters and getters in the called class. But my reading indicates you can't do that. So I put setter and getter methods in that class and then I want the calling class to set the delegate argument and then invoke. Is there a best practice for doing this. I realize in the above example that I can set set the delegate variable from the calling class...but I am trying to create a singleton with tight encapsulation. For the record, I can't use any of the new delegate types declared in .net35. Answers in C# are welcome. Any thoughts? Seth

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  • php and mysql listing databases and looping through results

    - by Jacksta
    Beginner help needed :) I am doign an example form a php book which lists tables in databases. I am getting an error on line 36: $db_list .= "$table_list"; <?php //connect to database $connection = mysql_connect("localhost", "admin_cantsayno", "cantsayno") or die(mysql_error()); //list databases $dbs = @mysql_list_dbs($connection) or die(mysql_error()); //start first bullet list $db_list = "<ul>"; $db_num = 0; //loop through results of functions while ($db_num < mysql_num_rows($dbs)) { //get database names and make each a list point $db_names[$db_num] = mysql_tablename($dbs, $db_num); $db_list .= "<li>$db_names[$db_num]"; //get table names and make another list $tables = @mysql_list_tables($db_names[$db_num]) or die(mysql_error()); $table_list = "<ul>"; $table_num = 0; //loop through results of function while ($table_num < mysql_num_rows($tables)){ //get table names and make each bullet point $table_names[$table_num] = mysql_tablename($tables, $table_num); $table_list .= "<li>$table_names[$table_num]"; $table_num++; } //close inner bullet list and increment number to continue $table_list .= "</ul>" $db_list .= "$table_list"; $db_num++; } //close outer bullet list $db_list .= "</ul>"; ?> <html> <head> <title>MySQL Tables</title> </head> <body> <p><strong>Data bases and tables on local host</strong></p> <? echo "$db_list"; ?> </body>

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  • How do I toggle CSS with jQuery?

    - by marcamillion
    I have the following code: $('#bc' + $.trim($this) + ' span.dashed-circle').css({ 'border' : '5px solid #000'}); That is triggered by a click.function(). I would like that to be a toggle - so when I click the element, it changes the border to what I have above...but when it is clicked again it disappears or rather sets the border to ' '. Thoughts? Edit: I should have been explicit...but I don't want to create a CSS class. The reason being is because when I do that, it messes up the formatting of the element being styled. I am sure that it is some small quirk somewhere that would fix it, but I am not interested in wading through the entire code base to fix little positioning issues with a new class. I would much rather just edit the css attribute directly - because it doesn't interfere with the layout. Edit2: Here is the jsfiddle of the code I am trying to edit. If you notice, I have the CSS attributes last. But how do I let that be toggled ? Edit3: If anyone is interested...the UI that this will be used in is for my webapp - http://www.compversions.com

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  • Concept of WNDCLASSEX, good programming habits and WndProc for system classes

    - by luiscubal
    I understand that the Windows API uses "classes", relying to the WNDCLASS/WNDCLASSEX structures. I have successfully gone through windows API Hello World applications and understand that this class is used by our own windows, but also by Windows core controls, such as "EDIT", "BUTTON", etc. I also understand that it is somehow related to WndProc(it allows me to define a function for it) Although I can find documentation about this class, I can't find anything explaining the concept. So far, the only thing I found about it was this: A Window Class has NOTHING to do with C++ classes. Which really doesn't help(it tells me what it isn't but doesn't tellme what it is). In fact, this only confuses me more, since I'd be tempted to associate WNDCLASSEX to C++ classes and think that "WNDCLASSEX" represents a control type . So, my first question is What is it? In second place, I understand that one can define a WndProc in a class. However, a window can also get messages from the child controls(or windows, or whatever they are called in the Windows API). How can this be? Finally, when is it a good programming practise to define a new class? Per application(for the main frame), per frame, one per control I define(if I create my own progress bar class, for example)? I know Java/Swing, C#/Windows.Form, C/GTK+ and C++/wxWidgets, so I'll probably understand comparisons with these toolkits.

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  • WCF REST adding data using POST or PUT 400 Bad Request

    - by user55474
    HI How do i add data using wcf rest architecture. I dont want to use the channelfactory to call my method. Something similar to the webrequest and webresponse used for GET. Something similar to the ajax WebServiceProxy restInvoke Or do i always have to use the Webchannelfactory implementation I am getting a 400 BAD request by using the following Dim url As String = "http://localhost:4475/Service.svc/Entity/Add" Dim req As WebRequest = WebRequest.Create(url) req.Method = "POST" req.ContentType = "application/xml; charset=utf-8" req.Timeout = 30000 req.Headers.Add("SOAPAction", url) Dim xEle As XElement xEle = <Entity xmlns:i="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> <Name>Entity1</Name> </Entity> Dim sXML As String = xEle .Value req.ContentLength = sXML.Length Dim sw As New System.IO.StreamWriter(req.GetRequestStream()) sw.Write(sXML) sw.Close() Dim res as HttpWebResponse = req.GetResponse() Sercice Contract is as follows <OperationContract()> _ <WebInvoke(Method:="PUT", UriTemplate:="Entity/Add")> _ Function AddEntity(ByVal e1 As Entity) DataContract is as follows <Serializable()> _ <DataContract()> _ Public Class Entity private m_Name as String <DataMember()> _ Public Property Name() As String Get Return m_Name End Get Set(ByVal value As String) m_Name = value End Set End Property End Class thanks

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  • How do I patch a Windows API at runtime so that it to returns 0 in x64?

    - by Jorge Vasquez
    In x86, I get the function address using GetProcAddress() and write a simple XOR EAX,EAX; RET; in it. Simple and effective. How do I do the same in x64? bool DisableSetUnhandledExceptionFilter() { const BYTE PatchBytes[5] = { 0x33, 0xC0, 0xC2, 0x04, 0x00 }; // XOR EAX,EAX; RET; // Obtain the address of SetUnhandledExceptionFilter HMODULE hLib = GetModuleHandle( _T("kernel32.dll") ); if( hLib == NULL ) return false; BYTE* pTarget = (BYTE*)GetProcAddress( hLib, "SetUnhandledExceptionFilter" ); if( pTarget == 0 ) return false; // Patch SetUnhandledExceptionFilter if( !WriteMemory( pTarget, PatchBytes, sizeof(PatchBytes) ) ) return false; // Ensures out of cache FlushInstructionCache(GetCurrentProcess(), pTarget, sizeof(PatchBytes)); // Success return true; } static bool WriteMemory( BYTE* pTarget, const BYTE* pSource, DWORD Size ) { // Check parameters if( pTarget == 0 ) return false; if( pSource == 0 ) return false; if( Size == 0 ) return false; if( IsBadReadPtr( pSource, Size ) ) return false; // Modify protection attributes of the target memory page DWORD OldProtect = 0; if( !VirtualProtect( pTarget, Size, PAGE_EXECUTE_READWRITE, &OldProtect ) ) return false; // Write memory memcpy( pTarget, pSource, Size ); // Restore memory protection attributes of the target memory page DWORD Temp = 0; if( !VirtualProtect( pTarget, Size, OldProtect, &Temp ) ) return false; // Success return true; } This example is adapted from code found here: http://www.debuginfo.com/articles/debugfilters.html#overwrite .

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  • get_by_id method on Model classes in Google App Engine Datastore

    - by tarn
    I'm unable to workout how you can get objects from the Google App Engine Datastore using get_by_id. Here is the model from google.appengine.ext import db class Address(db.Model): description = db.StringProperty(multiline=True) latitude = db.FloatProperty() longitdue = db.FloatProperty() date = db.DateTimeProperty(auto_now_add=True) I can create them, put them, and retrieve them with gql. address = Address() address.description = self.request.get('name') address.latitude = float(self.request.get('latitude')) address.longitude = float(self.request.get('longitude')) address.put() A saved address has values for >> address.key() aglndWVzdGJvb2tyDQsSB0FkZHJlc3MYDQw >> address.key().id() 14 I can find them using the key from google.appengine.ext import db address = db.get('aglndWVzdGJvb2tyDQsSB0FkZHJlc3MYDQw') But can't find them by id >> from google.appengine.ext import db >> address = db.Model.get_by_id(14) The address is None, when I try >> Address.get_by_id(14) AttributeError: type object 'Address' has no attribute 'get_by_id' How can I find by id? EDIT: It turns out I'm an idiot and was trying find an Address Model in a function called Address. Thanks for your answers, I've marked Brandon as the correct answer as he got in first and demonstrated it should all work.

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  • jquery load returns empty, possible MVC 2 problem?

    - by Max Fraser
    I have a site that need to get some data from a different sit that is using asp.net MVC/ The data to get loaded is from these pages: http://charity.hondaclassic.com/home/totaldonations http://charity.hondaclassic.com/Home/CharityList This should be a no brainer but for some reason I get an empty response, here is my JS: <script> jQuery.noConflict(); jQuery(document).ready(function($){ $('.totalDonations').load('http://charity.hondaclassic.com/home/totaldonations'); $('#charityList').load('http://charity.hondaclassic.com/home/CharityList'); }); </script> in firebug I see the request is made and come back with a response of 200 OK but the response is empty, if you browse to these pages they work fine! What the heck? Here are the controller actions from the MVC site: public ActionResult TotalDonations() { var total = "$" + repo.All<Customer>().Sum(x => x.AmountPaid).ToString(); return Content(total); } public ActionResult CharityList() { var charities = repo.All<Company>(); return View(charities); } Someone please out what stupid little thing I am missing - this should have taken me 5 minutes and it's been hours!

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  • protocol parsing in c

    - by nomad.alien
    I have been playing around with trying to implement some protocol decoders, but each time I run into a "simple" problem and I feel the way I am solving the problem is not optimal and there must be a better way to do things. I'm using C. Currently I'm using some canned data and reading it in as a file, but later on it would be via TCP or UDP. Here's the problem. I'm currently playing with a binary protocol at work. All fields are 8 bits long. The first field(8bits) is the packet type. So I read in the first 8 bits and using a switch/case I call a function to read in the rest of the packet as I then know the size/structure of it. BUT...some of these packets have nested packets inside them, so when I encounter that specific packet I then have to read another 8-16 bytes have another switch/case to see what the next packet type is and on and on. (Luckily the packets are only nested 2 or 3 deep). Only once I have the whole packet decoded can I handle it over to my state machine for processing. I guess this can be a more general question as well. How much data do you have to read at a time from the socket? As much as possible? As much as what is "similar" in the protocol headers? So even though this protocol is fairly basic, my code is a whole bunch of switch/case statements and I do a lot of reading from the file/socket which I feel is not optimal. My main aim is to make this decoder as fast as possible. To the more experienced people out there, is this the way to go or is there a better way which I just haven't figured out yet? Any elegant solution to this problem?

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  • In Python, how can I find the index of the first item in a list that is NOT some value?

    - by Ryan B. Lynch
    Python's list type has an index(x) method. It takes a single parameter x, and returns the (integer) index of the first item in the list that has the value x. Basically, I need to invert the index(x) method. I need to get the index of the first value in a list that does NOT have the value x. I would probably be able to even just use a function that returns the index of the first item with a value != None. I can think of a 'for' loop implementation with an incrementing counter variable, but I feel like I'm missing something. Is there an existing method, or a one-line Python construction that can handle this? In my program, the situation comes up when I'm handling lists returned from complex regex matches. All but one item in each list have a value of None. If I just needed the matched string, I could use a list comprehension like '[x for x in [my_list] if x is not None]', but I need the index in order to figure out which capture group in my regex actually caused the match.

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  • Trying to create a .NET DLL to be used with Non-.NET Application

    - by Changeling
    I am trying to create a .NET DLL so I can use the cryptographic functions with my non .NET application. I have created a class library so far with this code: namespace AESEncryption { public class EncryptDecrypt { private static readonly byte[] optionalEntropy = { 0x21, 0x05, 0x07, 0x08, 0x27, 0x02, 0x23, 0x36, 0x45, 0x50 }; public interface IEncrypt { string Encrypt(string data, string filePath); }; public class EncryptDecryptInt:IEncrypt { public string Encrypt(string data, string filePath) { byte[] plainKey; try { // Read in the secret key from our cipher key store byte[] cipher = File.ReadAllBytes(filePath); plainKey = ProtectedData.Unprotect(cipher, optionalEntropy, DataProtectionScope.CurrentUser); // Convert our plaintext data into a byte array byte[] plainTextBytes = Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes(data); MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(); Rijndael alg = Rijndael.Create(); alg.Mode = CipherMode.CBC; alg.Key = plainKey; alg.IV = optionalEntropy; CryptoStream cs = new CryptoStream(ms, alg.CreateEncryptor(), CryptoStreamMode.Write); cs.Write(plainTextBytes, 0, plainTextBytes.Length); cs.Close(); byte[] encryptedData = ms.ToArray(); return Convert.ToString(encryptedData); } catch (Exception ex) { return ex.Message; } } } } } In my VC++ application, I am using the #import directive to import the TLB file created from the DLL, but the only available functions are _AESEncryption and LIB_AES etc I don't see the interface or the function Encrypt. When I try to instantiate so I can call the functions in my VC++ program, I use this code and get the following error: HRESULT hr = CoInitialize(NULL); IEncryptPtr pIEncrypt(__uuidof(EncryptDecryptInt)); error C2065: 'IEncryptPtr': undeclared identifier error C2146: syntax error : missing ';' before identifier 'pIEncrypt'

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  • How do I debug into an ILMerged assembly?

    - by Rory Becker
    Summary I want to alter the build process of a 2-assembly solution, such that a call to ILMerge is invoked, and the build results in a single assembly. Further I would like to be able to debug into the resultant assembly. Preparation - A simple example New Solution - ClassLibrary1 Create a static function 'GetMessage' in Class1 which returns the string "Hello world" Create new console app which references the ClassLibrary. Output GetMessage from main() via the console. You now have a 2 assembly app which outputs "Hello World" to the console. So what next..? I would like to alter the Console app build process, to include a post build step which uses ILMerge, to merge the ClassLibrary assembly into the Console assembly After this step I should be able to: Run the Console app directly with no ClassLibrary1.dll present Run the Console app via F5 (or F11) in VS and be able to debug into each of the 2 projects. Limited Success I read this blogpost and managed to achieve the merge I was after with a post-build command of... "$(ProjectDir)ILMerge.bat" "$(TargetDir)" $(ProjectName) ...and an ILMerge.bat file which read... CD %1 Copy %2.exe temp.exe ILMerge.exe /out:%2.exe temp.exe ClassLibrary1.dll Del temp.exe Del ClassLibrary1.* This works fairly well, and does in fact produce an exe which runs outside the VS environment as required. However it does not appear to produce symbols (.pdb file) which VS is able to use in order to debug into the code. I think this is the last piece of the puzzle. Does anyone know how I can make this work? FWIW I am running VS2010 on an x64 Win7 x64 machine.

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  • High Runtime for Dictionary.Add for a large amount of items

    - by aaginor
    Hi folks, I have a C#-Application that stores data from a TextFile in a Dictionary-Object. The amount of data to be stored can be rather large, so it takes a lot of time inserting the entries. With many items in the Dictionary it gets even worse, because of the resizing of internal array, that stores the data for the Dictionary. So I initialized the Dictionary with the amount of items that will be added, but this has no impact on speed. Here is my function: private Dictionary<IdPair, Edge> AddEdgesToExistingNodes(HashSet<NodeConnection> connections) { Dictionary<IdPair, Edge> resultSet = new Dictionary<IdPair, Edge>(connections.Count); foreach (NodeConnection con in connections) { ... resultSet.Add(nodeIdPair, newEdge); } return resultSet; } In my tests, I insert ~300k items. I checked the running time with ANTS Performance Profiler and found, that the Average time for resultSet.Add(...) doesn't change when I initialize the Dictionary with the needed size. It is the same as when I initialize the Dictionary with new Dictionary(); (about 0.256 ms on average for each Add). This is definitely caused by the amount of data in the Dictionary (ALTHOUGH I initialized it with the desired size). For the first 20k items, the average time for Add is 0.03 ms for each item. Any idea, how to make the add-operation faster? Thanks in advance, Frank

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