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  • Hibernate: Check if object exists/changed

    - by swalkner
    Assuming I have an object Person with long id String firstName String lastName String address Then I'm generating a Person-object somewhere in my application. Now I'd like to check if the person exists in the database (= firstname/lastname-combination is in the database). If not = insert it. If yes, check, if the address is the same. If not = update the address. Of course, I can do some requests (first, try to load object with firstname/lastname), then (if existing), compare the address. But isn't there a simpler, cleaner approach? If got several different classes and do not like to have so many queries. I'd like to use annotations as if to say: firstname/lastname = they're the primary key. Check for them if the object exists. address is the parameter you have to compare if it stayed the same or not. Does Hibernate/JPA (or another framework) support something like that? pseude-code: if (database.containsObject(person)) { //containing according to compound keys if (database.containsChangedObject(person)) { database.updateObject(person); } } else { database.insertObject(person); }

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  • add row to a BindingSource gives different autoincrement value from whats saved into DB

    - by Ruben Trancoso
    I have a DataGridView that shows list of records and when I hit a insert button, a form should add a new record, edit its values and save it. I have a BindingSource bound to a DataGridView. I pass is as a parameter to a NEW RECORD form so // When the form opens it add a new row and de DataGridView display this new record at this time DataRowView currentRow; currentRow = (DataRowView) myBindindSource.AddNew(); when user confirm to save it I do a myBindindSource.EndEdit(); // inside the form and after the form is disposed the new row is saved and the bindingsorce position is updated to the new row DataRowView drv = myForm.CurrentRow; avaliadoTableAdapter.Update(drv.Row); avaliadoBindingSource.Position = avaliadoBindingSource.Find("ID", drv.Row.ItemArray[0]); The problem is that this table has a AUTOINCREMENT field and the value saved may not correspond the the value the bindingSource gives in EDIT TIME. So, when I close and open the DataGridView again the new rowd give its ID based on the available slot in the undelying DB at the momment is was saved and it just ignores the value the BindingSource generated ad EDIT TIME, Since the value given by the binding source should be used by another table as a foreingKey it make the reference insconsistent. There's a way to get the real ID was saved to the database?

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  • Problem with WHERE columnName = Data in MySQL query in C#

    - by Ryan Sullivan
    I have a C# webservice on a Windows Server that I am interfacing with on a linux server with PHP. The PHP grabs information from the database and then the page offers a "more information" button which then calls the webservice and passes in the name field of the record as a parameter. So i am using a WHERE statement in my query so I only pull the extra fields for that record. I am getting the error: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException:Invalid column name '42' Where 42 is the value from the name field from the database. my query is string selectStr = "SELECT name, castNotes, triviaNotes FROM tableName WHERE name =\"" + show + "\""; I do not know if it is a problem with my query or something is wrong with the database, but here is the rest of my code for reference. NOTE: this all works perfectly when I grab all of the records, but I only want to grab the record that I ask my webservice for. public class ktvService : System.Web.Services.WebService { [WebMethod] public string moreInfo(string show) { string connectionStr = "MyConnectionString"; string selectStr = "SELECT name, castNotes, triviaNotes FROM tableName WHERE name =\"" + show + "\""; SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(connectionStr); SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter(selectStr, conn); DataSet ds = new DataSet(); da.Fill(ds, "tableName"); DataTable dt = ds.Tables["tableName"]; DataRow theShow = dt.Rows[0]; string response = "Name: " + theShow["name"].ToString() + "Cast: " + theShow["castNotes"].ToString() + " Trivia: " + theShow["triviaNotes"].ToString(); return response; } }

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  • MS Access 2003 - Is there a way to programmatically define the data for a chart?

    - by Justin
    So I have some VBA for taking charts built with the Form's Chart Wizard, and automatically inserting it into PowerPoint Presentation slides. I use those chart-forms as sub forms within a larger forms that has parameters the user can select to determine what is on the chart. The idea is that the user can determine the parameter, build the chart to his/her liking, and click a button and have it in a ppt slide with the company's background template, blah blah blah..... So it works, though it is very bulky in terms of the amount of objects I have to use to accomplish this. I use expressions such as the following: like forms!frmMain.Month&* to get the input values into the saved queries, which was fine when i first started, but it went over so well and they want so many options, that it is driving the number of saved queries/objects up. I need several saved forms with charts because of the number of different types of charts I need to have this be able to handle. SO FINALLY TO MY QUESTION: I would much rather do all this on the fly with some VBA. I know how to insert list boxes, and text boxes on a form, and I know how to use SQL in VBA to get the values I want from tables/queries using VBA, I just don't know if there is some vba I can use to set the data values of the charts from a resulting recordset: DIM rs AS DAO.Rescordset DIM db AS DAO.Database DIM sql AS String sql = "SELECT TOP 5 Count(tblMain.TransactionID) AS Total, tblMain.Location FROM tblMain WHERE (((tblMain.Month) = """ & me.txtMonth & """ )) ORDER BY Count (tblMain.TransactionID) DESC;" set db = currentDB set rs = db.OpenRecordSet(sql) rs.movefirst some kind of cool code in here to make this recordset the data of chart in frmChart ("Chart01") thanks for your help. apologies for the length of the explanation.

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  • How much of STL is too much?

    - by Darius Kucinskas
    I am using a lot of STL code with std::for_each, bind, and so on, but I noticed that sometimes STL usage is not good idea. For example if you have a std::vector and want to do one action on each item of the vector, your first idea is to use this: std::for_each(vec.begin(), vec.end(), Foo()) and it is elegant and ok, for a while. But then comes the first set of bug reports and you have to modify code. Now you should add parameter to call Foo(), so now it becomes: std::for_each(vec.begin(), vec.end(), std::bind2nd(Foo(), X)) but that is only temporary solution. Now the project is maturing and you understand business logic much better and you want to add new modifications to code. It is at this point that you realize that you should use old good: for(std::vector::iterator it = vec.begin(); it != vec.end(); ++it) Is this happening only to me? Do you recognise this kind of pattern in your code? Have you experience similar anti-patterns using STL?

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  • Problem with looping a video in Flash

    - by Blaze
    I am trying to loop a video and i am having some issues with this in flash. You can view the video here: http://www.healthcarepros.net/travel.html Here the specific code for the flash video: <script language="javascript"> if (AC_FL_RunContent == 0) { alert("This page requires AC_RunActiveContent.js."); } else { AC_FL_RunContent( 'codebase', 'http://download.macromedia.com/pub/shockwave/cabs/flash/swflash.cab#version=9,0,0,0', 'width', '330', 'height', '245', 'src', 'healthcare-video', 'quality', 'high', 'pluginspage', 'http://www.macromedia.com/go/getflashplayer', 'align', 'middle', 'play', 'true', 'loop', 'true', 'scale', 'showall', 'wmode', 'window', 'devicefont', 'false', 'id', 'healthcare-video', 'bgcolor', '#ffffff', 'name', 'healthcare-video', 'menu', 'true', 'allowFullScreen', 'false', 'allowScriptAccess','sameDomain', 'movie', 'healthcare-video', 'salign', '' ); //end AC code } </script> <noscript> <object classid="clsid:d27cdb6e-ae6d-11cf-96b8-444553540000" codebase="http://download.macromedia.com/pub/shockwave/cabs/flash/swflash.cab#version=9,0,0,0" width="330" height="245" id="healthcare-video" align="middle"> <param name="allowScriptAccess" value="sameDomain" /> <param name="allowFullScreen" value="false" /> <param name="loop" value="true" /> <param name="play" value="true" /> <param name="movie" value="healthcare-video.swf" /><param name="quality" value="high" /><param name="bgcolor" value="#ffffff" /> <embed src="healthcare-video.swf" play="true" flashvars="autoplay=true&play=true" quality="high" bgcolor="#ffffff" width="330" height="245" name="healthcare-video" align="middle" allowScriptAccess="sameDomain" allowFullScreen="false" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" pluginspage="http://www.macromedia.com/go/getflashplayer" /> </object> Additionally, i have added in the parameter code that calls the loop function but for some reason it still doesnt seem to work, any suggestions?

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  • TeamCity + HG. Only pull (push?) passing builds

    - by ColoradoMatt
    Feels like with the popularity of continuous integration this one should be a piece of cake but I am stumped. I am setting up TeamCity with HG. I want to be able to push changesets up to a repository that TeamCity watches and runs builds on changes. That's easy. Next, if a build passes, I want that changeset to be pulled into a "clean" repository... one that contains only passing changesets. Should be easy but... TeamCity 6 supports multiple build steps and if any step fails, the rest don't run. My thought was to put a build step at the end that does a pull (or optionally a push?) to get the passing changeset into the clean repository. I am trying to use PsExec to run hg on the box with the repositories. If I try to run just a plain 'hg pull' it can't find the hg.exe even though it is set in the path and I have used the -w flag. I have tried putting a .bat file in the clean repository that takes a revision parameter and it works fine... locally. When I try to run the .bat file remotely (using PsExec) it runs everything fine but it tries to run it on the build agent. Even if I set the -w argument it runs the .bat file there but tries to run the contents on the build agent box. Am I just WAY off in my approach? Seems like this is a pretty obvious thing to do so either my Google skills are waning or no one thinks this is worthy of writing about. Either way, I am stuck in SVN land trying to get out so I would appreciate some help!

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  • ASP.NET MVC: Returning a view with querystring in tact

    - by ajbeaven
    I'm creating a messaging web app in ASP.NET and are having some problems when displaying an error message to the user if they go to send a message and there is something wrong. A user can look through profiles of people and then click, 'send a message'. The following action is called (url is /message/create?to=username) and shows them a page where they can enter their message and send it: public ActionResult Create(string to) { ViewData["recipientUsername"] = to; return View(); } On the page that is displayed, the username is entered in to a hidden input field. When the user clicks 'send': [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Create(string message, string to) { try { //do message stuff that errors out } catch { ModelState.AddModelErrors(message.GetRuleViolations()); //adding errors to modelstate } return View(); } So now the error message is displayed to the user fine, however the url is changed in that it no longer has the querystring (/message/create). Again, this would be fine except that when the user clicks the refresh button, the page errors out as the Create action no longer has the 'to' parameter. So I'm guessing that I need to maintain my querystring somehow. Is there any way to do this or do I need to use a different method altogether?

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  • SSRS2005 timeout error

    - by jaspernygaard
    Hi I've been running around circles the last 2 days, trying to figure a problem in our customers live environment. I figured I might as well post it here, since google gave me very limited information on the error message (5 results to be exact). The error boils down to a timeout when requesting a certain report in SSRS2005, when a certain parameter is used. The deployment scenario is: Machine #1 Running reporting services (SQL2005, W2K3, IIS6) Machine #2 Running datawarehouse database (SQL2005, W2K3) which is the data source for #1 Both machines are running on the same vm cluster and LAN. The report requests a fairly simple SP - lets called it sp(param $a, param $b). When requested with param $a filled, it executes correctly. When using param $b, it times out after the global timeout periode has passed. If I run the stored procedure with param $b directly from sql management studio on #2, it returns the results perfectly fine (within 3-4s). I've profiled the datawarehouse database on #2 and when param $b is used, the query from the reporting service to the database, never reaches #2. The error message that I get upon timeout, when using param $b, when invoking the report directly from SSRS web interface is: "An error has occurred during report processing. Cannot read the next data row for the data set DataSet. A severe error occurred on the current command. The results, if any, should be discarded. Operation cancelled by user." The ExecutionLog for the SSRS does give me much information besides the error message rsProcessingAborted I'm running out of ideas of how to nail this problem. So I would greatly appreciate any comments, suggestions or ideas. Thanks in advance!

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  • how to create a changing variable for fsolve

    - by Shun Miyamoto
    i want fsolve to calculate the output for different uc each time (increasing uc by 0.001 each time). each output from fsolve should be sent to a simulink model seperatly. so i set a loop to do so, but i believe that at the currenty constellation (if it will work)will just calculate 1000 different values? is there a way to send out the values seperately? if not, how can i create a parameter uc. that goes from 0 to say 1000? i tried uc=0:0.001:1000, but again, the demension doen't seem to fit. how do i create a function that takes the next element of a vector/matrix each time the function is called? uc=0; for i=0:1000 x0=[1,1,1]; y=x0(1); u=x0(2); yc=x0(3); options=optimset('Display','off'); x= fsolve(@myfun,x0,options,uc,d,spacing_amplitude,spacing_width); end best regards

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  • Access denied when trying to access my database.

    - by Sergio Tapia
    Here's my code: <html> <head> </head> <body> <?php $user = mysql_real_escape_string($_GET["u"]); $pass = mysql_real_escape_string($_GET["p"]); $query = "SELECT * FROM usario WHERE username = '$user' AND password = '$pass'"; mysql_connect(localhost, "root", ""); @mysql_select_db("multas") or die( "Unable to select database"); $result=mysql_query($query); if(mysql_numrows($result) > 0){ echo 'si'; } ?> </body> </html> And here's the error I get when I try to run it Warning: mysql_real_escape_string() [function.mysql-real-escape-string]: Access denied for user 'ODBC'@'localhost' (using password: NO) in C:\xampp\htdocs\useraccess.php on line 7 Warning: mysql_real_escape_string() [function.mysql-real-escape-string]: A link to the server could not be established in C:\xampp\htdocs\useraccess.php on line 7 Warning: mysql_real_escape_string() [function.mysql-real-escape-string]: Access denied for user 'ODBC'@'localhost' (using password: NO) in C:\xampp\htdocs\useraccess.php on line 8 Warning: mysql_real_escape_string() [function.mysql-real-escape-string]: A link to the server could not be established in C:\xampp\htdocs\useraccess.php on line 8 Warning: mysql_numrows() expects parameter 1 to be resource, boolean given in C:\xampp\htdocs\useraccess.php on line 16

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  • DOS Batch file to echo a specific line number

    - by Lee
    So for the second part of my current dilemma, I have a list of folders in "c:\file_list.txt". I need to be able to extract them (well, echo them with some mods) based on the line number because this batch script is being called by an iterative macro process. I'm passing the line number as a parameter. @echo off setlocal enabledelayedexpansion set /a counter=0 set /a %%a = "" for /f "usebackq delims=" %%a in (c:\file_list.txt) do (if "!counter!"=="%1" goto :printme & set /a counter+=1) :printme echo %%a which gives me an output of "%a". Doh! So, I've tried echoing !a! (result: "ECHO is off."); I've tried echoing %a (result: a) I figured the easy thing to do would be to modify the "head.bat" code found here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/130116/dos-batch-commands-to-read-first-line-from-text-file except rather than echoing every line - I'd just echo the last line found. Not as simple as one might think. I've noticed that my counter is staying at zero for some reason; I'm wondering if the "set /a counter+=1" is doing what I think it's doing.

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  • ASP.Net MVC 2 - How to set up a Cancel button with client side navigation

    - by arame3333
    Thanks to a previous question I found a useful link on multiple buttons. http://weblogs.asp.net/dfindley/archive/2009/05/31/asp-net-mvc-multiple-buttons-in-the-same-form.aspx What I want to do is have a cancel button on my page, similar to this; <button name="button" type="button" onclick="document.location.href=$('#cancelUrl').attr('href')">Cancel</button> <a id="cancelUrl" href="<%: Url.Action("Index", "Home") %>" style="display:none;"></a> However although this code works, I really want to go back to the previous page. For Web Forms I could use the javascript Back() or Go(-1) functions, but they relied on postbacks. I could of course hard code the previous page and controller as I have done above. However I am struggling to find links that explain to me how Url.Action works. Because if I do this, I also need to include an index parameter, and I am not clear how the syntax works for that. It seems odd the amount of coding to do this. Out of curiosity, I am also wondering how you TDD client side code like this.

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  • Redirect to default action in Struts 2

    - by topher-j
    I have an action with an empty string for name defined in the root namespace, and I want to redirect to that action from another action if a certain result is found, but it doesn't seem to work. Here's the default action <action name="" class="com.example.actions.HomeAction"> <result name="success" type="freemarker">freemarker/home.ftl</result> </action> And I'm defining the redirect in the global-results for the package: <global-results> <result name="sendToRouting" type="redirectAction"> <param name="actionName"></param> <param name="namespace">/</param> </result> </global-results> I've tried taking out the actionName parameter, but that doesn't work. If I put a name in for the HomeAction and reference it by name in the global-results it works, so I'm assuming the problem is lack of action name for the redirect. Any thoughts?

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  • .NET Error with Dynamic T-SQL

    - by Phillip Theriault
    I am trying to create a TableAdapter in .NET using a stored procedure, but I'm getting an error "Incorrect syntax near the keyword 'WHERE'". I have narrowed down the problem in the stored procedure to the following lines: IF @NumRows > 0 SET @SQL += N' WHERE T1.RowNumber BETWEEN 1 and 10' ELSE SET @SQL += N' WHERE T1.RowNumber > 0' @NumRows is an input parameter that defaults to 0. However, if I remove either of those lines everything works fine (both WHERE clauses work fine by themselves when there is no IF/ELSE statement). It almost looks like .NET is ignoring the IF/ELSE and attempting to add the WHERE clause twice. It also works fine if I change it like so: IF @NumRows > 0 SET @SQL += N'' ELSE SET @SQL += N' WHERE T1.RowNumber > 0' One of the WHERE clauses has been removed, and there's no longer a conflict on the .NET side. So I'm pretty sure it has to do with the 2 WHERE clauses, and not with anything else. The sproc runs perfectly fine in SQL Server, and it even runs in .NET despite the error if I click "Preview Data". The only problem is that it won't auto-populate the list of fields, which I need for creating a report. Has anybody seen this before and have a suggestion?

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  • How do I pass parameters between request-scoped beans

    - by smayers81
    This is a question that has been bothering me for sometime. My application uses ICEFaces for our UI framework and Spring 2.5 for Dependency Injection. In addition, Spring actually maintains all of our backing beans, not the ICEFaces framework, so our faces-config is basically empty. Navigation is not even really handled through navigation-rules. We perform manual redirects to new windows using window.open. All of our beans are defined in our appContext file as being request-scoped. I have Page ABC which is backed by BackingBeanABC. Inside that backing bean, I have a parameter say: private Order order; I then have Page XYZ backed by BackingBeanXYZ. When I redirect from page ABC to page XYZ, I want to transfer the 'order' property from ABC to XYZ. The problem is since everything is request-scoped and I'm performing a redirect, I am losing the value of 'description'. There has got to be an easier way to pass objects between beans in request scope during a redirect. Can anyone assist with this issue?

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  • JSESSIONID collision between two servers on same ip but different ports

    - by Steve Armstrong
    I've got a situation where I have two different webapps running on a single server, using different ports. They're both running Java's Jetty servlet container, so they both use a cookie parameter named JSESSIONID to track the session id. These two webapps are fighting over the session id. Open a Firefox tab, and go to WebApp1 WebApp1's HTTP response has a set-cookie header with JSESSIONID=1 Firefox now has a Cookie header with JSESSIONID=1 in all it's HTTP requests to WebApp1 Open a second Firefox tab, and go to WebApp2 The HTTP reqeust to WebApp2 also has a Cookie header with JSESSIONID=1, but in the doGet, when I call req.getSession(false); I get null. And if I call req.getSession(true) I get a new Session object, but then the HTTP response from WebApp2 has a set-cookie header with JSESSIONID=20 Now, WebApp2 has a working Session, but WebApp1's session is gone. Going to WebApp1 will give me a new session, blowing away WebApp2's session. Continue forever So the Sessions are thrashing between each web app. I'd really like for the req.getSession(false) to return a valid session if there's already a JSESSIONID cookie defined. One option is to basically reimplement the Session framework with a HashMap and cookies called WEBAPP1SESSIONID and WEBAPP2SESSIONID, but that sucks, and means I'll have to hack the new Session stuff into ActionServlet and a few other places. This must be a problem others have encountered. Is Jetty's HttpServletRequest.getSession(boolean) just crappy?

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  • Passing Object to Service in WCF

    - by hgulyan
    Hi, I have my custom class Customer with its properties. I added DataContract mark above the class and DataMember to properties and it was working fine, but I'm calling a service class's function, passing customer instance as parameter and some of my properties get 0 values. While debugging I can see my properties values and after it gets to the function, some properties' values are 0. Why it can be so? There's no code between this two actions. DataContract mark workes fine, everything's ok. Any suggestions on this issue? I tried to change ByRef to ByVal, but it doesn't change anything. Why it would pass other values right and some of integer types just 0? Maybe the answer is simple, but I can't figure it out. Thank You. <DataContract()> Public Class Customer Private Type_of_clientField As Integer = -1 <DataMember(Order:=1)> Public Property type_of_client() As Integer Get Return Type_of_clientField End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) Type_of_clientField = value End Set End Property End Class <ServiceContract(SessionMode:=SessionMode.Allowed)> <DataContractFormat()> Public Interface CustomerService <OperationContract()> Function addCustomer(ByRef customer As Customer) As Long End Interface type_of_client properties value is 6 before I call addCustomer function. After it enters that function the value is 0. UPDATE: The issue is in instance creating. When I create an instance of a class on client side, that is stored on service side, some of my properties pass 0 or nothing, but when I call a function of a service class, that returns a new instance of that class, it works fine. What's is the difference? Could that be serialization issue?

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  • How to parameterize a path in ANT?

    - by strelokstrelok
    I have the following defined in a file called build-dependencies.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <project name="build-dependencies"> ... <path id="common-jars"> <fileset file="artifacts/project-1/jar/some*.jar" /> <fileset file="artifacts/project-2/jar/someother*.jar" /> </path> ... </project> I include it at the top of my build.xml file. Now I need to make the artifacts folder a parameter so it can be changed during execution of different targets. Having this... <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <project name="build-dependencies"> ... <path id="common-jars"> <fileset file="${artifacts}/project-1/jar/some*.jar" /> <fileset file="${artifacts}/project-2/jar/someother*.jar" /> </path> ... </project> ...and defining an "artifacts" property (and changing it) in the target does not work because it seems that the property substitution happens when the path is defined in build-dependencies.xml How can I solve this? One way I was thinking was to have a parameterized macro and call that before the path is actually used, but that seems not elegant. Something like this: <macrodef name="create-common-jars"> <attribute name="artifacts"/> <sequential> <path id="common-jars"> <fileset file="@{artifacts}/project-1/jar/some*.jar" /> <fileset file="@{artifacts}/project-2/jar/someother*.jar" /> </path> </sequential> </macrodef>

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  • Why is there no autorelease pool when I do performSelectorInBackground: ?

    - by Thanks
    I am calling a method that goes in a background thread: [self performSelectorInBackground:@selector(loadViewControllerWithIndex:) withObject:[NSNumber numberWithInt:viewControllerIndex]]; then, I have this method implementation that gets called by the selector: - (void) loadViewControllerWithIndex:(NSNumber *)indexNumberObj { NSAutoreleasePool *arPool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; NSInteger vcIndex = [indexNumberObj intValue]; Class c; UIViewController *controller = [viewControllers objectAtIndex:vcIndex]; switch (vcIndex) { case 0: c = [MyFirstViewController class]; break; case 1: c = [MySecondViewController class]; break; default: NSLog(@"unknown index for loading view controller: %d", vcIndex); // error break; } if ((NSNull *)controller == [NSNull null]) { controller = [[c alloc] initWithNib]; [viewControllers replaceObjectAtIndex:vcIndex withObject:controller]; [controller release]; } if (controller.view.superview == nil) { UIView *placeholderView = [viewControllerPlaceholderViews objectAtIndex:vcIndex]; [placeholderView addSubview:controller.view]; } [arPool release]; } Althoug I do create an autorelease pool there for that thread, I always get this error: 2009-05-30 12:03:09.910 Demo[1827:3f03] *** _NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x523e50 of class NSCFNumber autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking Stack: (0x95c83f0f 0x95b90442 0x28d3 0x2d42 0x95b96e0d 0x95b969b4 0x93a00155 0x93a00012) If I take away the autorelease pool, I get a whole bunch of messages like these. I also tried to create an autorelease pool around the call of the performSelectorInBackground:, but that doesn't help. I suspect the parameter, but I don't know why the compiler complains about an NSCFNumber. Am I missing something? My Instance variables are all "nonatomic". Can that be a problem? UPDATE: I may also suspect that some variable has been added to an autorelease pool of the main thread (maybe an ivar), and now it trys to release that one inside the wrong autorelease pool? If so, how could I fix that? (damn, this threading stuff is complex ;) )

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  • Design problem with callback functions in android

    - by Franz Xaver
    Hi folks! I'm currently developing an app in android that is accessing wifi values, that is, the application needs to scan for all access point and their specific signal strengths. I know that I have to extend the class BroadcastReceiver overwriting the method BroadcastReceiver.onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) which is called when the values are ready. Perhaps there exist solutions provided by the android system itself but I'm relatively new to android so I could need some help. The problem I encountered is that I got one class (an activity, thus controlled by the user) that needs this scan results for two different things (first to save the values in a database or second, to use them for further calculations but not both at one moment!) So how to design the callback system in order to "transport" the scan results from onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) to the operation intended by the user? My first solution was to define enums for each use case (save or use for calculations) which wlan-interested classes have to submit when querying for the values. But that would force the BroadcastReceiverextending class to save the current enum and use it as a parameter in the callback function of the querying class (this querying class needs to know what it asked for when getting backcalled) But that seems to me kind of dirty ;) So anyone a good idea for this?

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  • Printing is not working in tomcat, when i start server with services.msc(From client side we could not print )

    - by maya
    I am using JasperReports 1.3.1 to print the report. I am sing eclipse and tomcat for development purpose. In eclipse, when i run the application, the below code will show the listed printer devices and print button. If i click the print button, the report is printing by selected device. PrintRequestAttributeSet printRequestAttributeSet = new HashPrintRequestAttributeSet(); printRequestAttributeSet.add(MediaSizeName.ISO_A5); PrintServiceAttributeSet printServiceAttributeSet = new HashPrintServiceAttributeSet(); JRPrintServiceExporter exporter = new JRPrintServiceExporter(); exporter.setParameter(JRExporterParameter.JASPER_PRINT, jasperPrint); exporter.setParameter(JRPrintServiceExporterParameter.PRINT_REQUEST_ATTRIBUTE_SET, printRequestAttributeSet); exporter.setParameter(JRPrintServiceExporterParameter.PRINT_SERVICE_ATTRIBUTE_SET, printServiceAttributeSet); exporter.setParameter(JRPrintServiceExporterParameter.DISPLAY_PAGE_DIALOG, Boolean.FALSE); exporter.setParameter(JRPrintServiceExporterParameter.DISPLAY_PRINT_DIALOG, Boolean.TRUE); exporter.exportReport(); Here I am passing jasperPrint as a parameter which i manually construted.Its working good My problem is: I created war file and pasted in tomcat Apache Software Foundation\Tomcat 6.0\webapps directory and started the tomcat by using services.msc. At this point, its not displaying the listed printer details and also not printing. I put some logger, I found that, the code is hanging with exporter.exportReport(); after this line code is not executing . Please suggest me for how to print from client side using jasper

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  • how do i execute a stored procedure with vici coolstorage?

    - by lincolnk
    I'm building an app around Vici Coolstorage (asp.net version). I have my classes created and mapped to my database tables and can pull a list of all records fine. I've written a stored procedure where the query jumps across databases that aren't mapped with Coolstorage, however, the fields in the query result map directly to one of my classes. The procedure takes 1 parameter. so 2 questions here: how do i execute the stored procedure? i'm doing this CSParameterCollection collection = new CSParameterCollection(); collection.Add("@id", id); var result = Vici.CoolStorage.CSDatabase.RunQuery("procedurename", collection); and getting the exception "Incorrect syntax near 'procedurename'." (i'm guessing this is because it's trying to execute it as text rather than a procedure?) and also, since the class representing my table is defined as abstract, how do i specify that result should create a list of MyTable objects instead of generic or dynamic or whatever objects? if i try Vici.CoolStorage.CSDatabase.RunQuery<MyTable>(...) the compiler yells at me for it being an abstract class.

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  • How do I DYNAMICALLY cast in C# and return for a property

    - by ken-forslund
    I've already read threads on the topic, but can't find a solution that fits. I'm working on a drop-down list that takes an enum and uses that to populate itself. i found a VB.NET one. During the porting process, I discovered that it uses DirectCast() to set the type as it returns the SelectedValue. See the original VB here: http://jeffhandley.com/archive/2008/01/27/enum-list-dropdown-control.aspx the gist is, the control has Type _enumType; //gets set when the datasource is set and is the type of the specific enum The SelectedValue property kind of looks like (remember, it doesn't work): public Enum SelectedValue //Shadows Property { get { // Get the value from the request to allow for disabled viewstate string RequestValue = this.Page.Request.Params[this.UniqueID]; return Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true) as _enumType; } set { base.SelectedValue = value.ToString(); } } Now this touches on a core point that I think was missed in the other discussions. In darn near every example, folks argued that DirectCast wasn't needed, because in every example, they statically defined the type. That's not the case here. As the programmer of the control, I don't know the type. Therefore, I can't cast it. Additionally, the following examples of lines won't compile because c# casting doesn't accept a variable. Whereas VB's CType and DirectCast can accept Type T as a function parameter: return Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true); or return Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true) as _enumType; or return (_enumType)Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true) ; or return Convert.ChangeType(Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true), _enumType); or return CastTo<_enumType>(Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true)); So, any ideas on a solution? What's the .NET 3.5 best way to resolve this?

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  • OpenCV and iPhone

    - by gn-mithun
    Hello, I am writing an application to create a movie file from a bunch of images on an iPhone. I am using OpenCv. I downloaded openCv static libraries for arm(iPhones native instruction architecture) and the libraries were generated just fine. There were no problems linking to them libraries. As a first step, i was trying to create a .avi file using one image, to see if it works. But cvCreateVideoWriter always returns me a NULL value. I did some searchin and i believe its due to the codec not being present. I am trying this on the iPhone simulator. this is what i do... (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; UIImage *anImage = [UIImage imageNamed:@"1.jpg"]; IplImage *img_color = [self CreateIplImageFromUIImage:anImage]; //The image gets created just fine CvVideoWriter *writer = cvCreateVideoWriter("out.avi",CV_FOURCC('P','I','M','1'), 25,cvSize(320,480),1); //writer is always null int result = cvWriteFrame(writer, img_color); NSLog(@"\n%d",result); //hence this is also 0 all the time cvReleaseVideoWriter(&writer); } I am not sure about the the second parameter. What sort of codec or what exactly it does... I am a n00B in this. Any suggestions?

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