Search Results

Search found 7375 results on 295 pages for 'out parameter'.

Page 239/295 | < Previous Page | 235 236 237 238 239 240 241 242 243 244 245 246  | Next Page >

  • Pass Variable to Java Method from an Ant Target

    - by user200317
    At the moment I have a .properties file to store settings related to the framework. Example: default.auth.url=http://someserver-at008:8080/ default.screenshots=false default.dumpHTML=false And I have written a class to extract those values and here is the method of that class. public static String getResourceAsStream(String defaultProp) { String defaultPropValue = null; //String keys = null; try { InputStream inputStream = SeleniumDefaultProperties.class.getClassLoader().getResourceAsStream(PROP_FILE); Properties properties = new Properties(); //load the input stream using properties. properties.load(inputStream); defaultPropValue = properties.getProperty(defaultProp); }catch (IOException e) { log.error("Something wrong with .properties file, check the location.", e); } return defaultPropValue; } Throughout the application I use method like follows to just exact property needed, public String getBrowserDefaultCommand() { String bcmd = SeleniumDefaultProperties.getResourceAsStream("default.browser.command"); if(bcmd.equals("")) handleMissingConfigProperties(SeleniumDefaultProperties.getResourceAsStream("default.browser.command")); return bcmd; } But I have not decided do a change to this and use ant and pass a parameter instead of using it from .properties file. I was wondering how could I pass a value to a Java Method using ANT. Non of these classes have Main methods and will not have any main. Due to this I was unable to use it as a java system properties. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Problem with looping a video in Flash

    - by Blaze
    I am trying to loop a video and i am having some issues with this in flash. You can view the video here: http://www.healthcarepros.net/travel.html Here the specific code for the flash video: <script language="javascript"> if (AC_FL_RunContent == 0) { alert("This page requires AC_RunActiveContent.js."); } else { AC_FL_RunContent( 'codebase', 'http://download.macromedia.com/pub/shockwave/cabs/flash/swflash.cab#version=9,0,0,0', 'width', '330', 'height', '245', 'src', 'healthcare-video', 'quality', 'high', 'pluginspage', 'http://www.macromedia.com/go/getflashplayer', 'align', 'middle', 'play', 'true', 'loop', 'true', 'scale', 'showall', 'wmode', 'window', 'devicefont', 'false', 'id', 'healthcare-video', 'bgcolor', '#ffffff', 'name', 'healthcare-video', 'menu', 'true', 'allowFullScreen', 'false', 'allowScriptAccess','sameDomain', 'movie', 'healthcare-video', 'salign', '' ); //end AC code } </script> <noscript> <object classid="clsid:d27cdb6e-ae6d-11cf-96b8-444553540000" codebase="http://download.macromedia.com/pub/shockwave/cabs/flash/swflash.cab#version=9,0,0,0" width="330" height="245" id="healthcare-video" align="middle"> <param name="allowScriptAccess" value="sameDomain" /> <param name="allowFullScreen" value="false" /> <param name="loop" value="true" /> <param name="play" value="true" /> <param name="movie" value="healthcare-video.swf" /><param name="quality" value="high" /><param name="bgcolor" value="#ffffff" /> <embed src="healthcare-video.swf" play="true" flashvars="autoplay=true&play=true" quality="high" bgcolor="#ffffff" width="330" height="245" name="healthcare-video" align="middle" allowScriptAccess="sameDomain" allowFullScreen="false" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" pluginspage="http://www.macromedia.com/go/getflashplayer" /> </object> Additionally, i have added in the parameter code that calls the loop function but for some reason it still doesnt seem to work, any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • More FP-correct way to create an update sql query

    - by James Black
    I am working on access a database using F# and my initial attempt at creating a function to create the update query is flawed. let BuildUserUpdateQuery (oldUser:UserType) (newUser:UserType) = let buf = new System.Text.StringBuilder("UPDATE users SET "); if (oldUser.FirstName.Equals(newUser.FirstName) = false) then buf.Append("SET first_name='").Append(newUser.FirstName).Append("'" ) |> ignore if (oldUser.LastName.Equals(newUser.LastName) = false) then buf.Append("SET last_name='").Append(newUser.LastName).Append("'" ) |> ignore if (oldUser.UserName.Equals(newUser.UserName) = false) then buf.Append("SET username='").Append(newUser.UserName).Append("'" ) |> ignore buf.Append(" WHERE id=").Append(newUser.Id).ToString() This doesn't properly put a , between any update parts after the first, for example: UPDATE users SET first_name='Firstname', last_name='lastname' WHERE id=... I could put in a mutable variable to keep track when the first part of the set clause is appended, but that seems wrong. I could just create an list of tuples, where each tuple is oldtext, newtext, columnname, so that I could then loop through the list and build up the query, but it seems that I should be passing in a StringBuilder to a recursive function, returning back a boolean which is then passed as a parameter to the recursive function. Does this seem to be the best approach, or is there a better one?

    Read the article

  • SSRS2005 timeout error

    - by jaspernygaard
    Hi I've been running around circles the last 2 days, trying to figure a problem in our customers live environment. I figured I might as well post it here, since google gave me very limited information on the error message (5 results to be exact). The error boils down to a timeout when requesting a certain report in SSRS2005, when a certain parameter is used. The deployment scenario is: Machine #1 Running reporting services (SQL2005, W2K3, IIS6) Machine #2 Running datawarehouse database (SQL2005, W2K3) which is the data source for #1 Both machines are running on the same vm cluster and LAN. The report requests a fairly simple SP - lets called it sp(param $a, param $b). When requested with param $a filled, it executes correctly. When using param $b, it times out after the global timeout periode has passed. If I run the stored procedure with param $b directly from sql management studio on #2, it returns the results perfectly fine (within 3-4s). I've profiled the datawarehouse database on #2 and when param $b is used, the query from the reporting service to the database, never reaches #2. The error message that I get upon timeout, when using param $b, when invoking the report directly from SSRS web interface is: "An error has occurred during report processing. Cannot read the next data row for the data set DataSet. A severe error occurred on the current command. The results, if any, should be discarded. Operation cancelled by user." The ExecutionLog for the SSRS does give me much information besides the error message rsProcessingAborted I'm running out of ideas of how to nail this problem. So I would greatly appreciate any comments, suggestions or ideas. Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • TFS 2010 Build gives WorkItemStore error when Create Work Item on Failure is enabled

    - by Derek Morrison
    I'm using TFS 2010 Build. I have a build definition that uses the DefaultTemplate.xaml template that's stock in TFS 2010, and the Create Work Item on Failure property is set to True in the build definition. I deliberately made a change in my project that breaks the build. When the build runs, I see the compilation error reflected in the TFS Build log within Visual Studio, but I get the error "Value cannot be null. Parameter name: WorkItemStore" when TFS Build next tries to generate a Work Item for the broken build. I tracked down the activity in DefaultTemplate.xaml (see the rather lengthy path to it below) where the Work Item is created for a broken build, and I see it uses the Microsoft.TeamFoundation.Build.Workflow.Activities.OpenWorkItem class to create the Work Item. The appropriate values seemed to be filled out in the Properties window for the Create Work Item activity, so I don't see where I can pass WorkItemStore to it and I don't even know appropriate values for this setting. Path to the Create Work Item activity: Process Sequence Run On Agent Try Compile, Test, and Associate Changesets and Work Items Sequence Compile, Test, and Associate Changesets and Work Items Try Compile and Test Compile and Test For Each Configuration in BuildSettings.PlatformConfigurations Compile and Test for Configuration If BuildSettings.HasProjectsToBuild For Each Project in BuildSettings.ProjectsToBuild Try to Compile the Project Handle Exception If CreateWorkItem Create Work Item for non-Shelveset Builds Create Work Item

    Read the article

  • Full Text Search in MSSQL2008 shows wrong display_item for Thai language

    - by ensecoz
    I am working with MSSQL2008. My task is to investigate the issue where FTS cannot find the right result for Thai. First, I have the table which enables the FTS on the column 'ItemName' which is nvarchar. The Catalog is created with the Thai Language. Note that the Thai language is one of the languages that doesn't separate the word by spaces, so '????' '???' '????' are written like this in a sentence: '???????????' In the table, there are many rows that include the word (????); for example row#1 (ItemName: '???????????') On the webpage, I try to search for '????' but SQLServer cannot find it. So I try to investigate it by trying the following query in SQLServer: select * from sys.dm_fts_parser(N'"???????????"', 1054, 0, 0) ...to see how the words are broken. The first one is the text to be broken. The second parameter is to specify that we're using Thai (WorkBreaker, so on). Here is the result: row#1 (display_item: '????', source_item: '???????????') row#2 (display_item: '????', source_item: '???????????') row#3 (display_item: '??', source_item: '???????????') Notice that the first and second row display the wrong display_item '?' in the '????' isn't even Thai characters. '?' in '????' is not a Thai character either. So the question is where did those alien characters come from? I guess this why I cannot search for '????' because the word breaker is broken and keeping the wrong character in the indexes. Please help!

    Read the article

  • Passing Object to Service in WCF

    - by hgulyan
    Hi, I have my custom class Customer with its properties. I added DataContract mark above the class and DataMember to properties and it was working fine, but I'm calling a service class's function, passing customer instance as parameter and some of my properties get 0 values. While debugging I can see my properties values and after it gets to the function, some properties' values are 0. Why it can be so? There's no code between this two actions. DataContract mark workes fine, everything's ok. Any suggestions on this issue? I tried to change ByRef to ByVal, but it doesn't change anything. Why it would pass other values right and some of integer types just 0? Maybe the answer is simple, but I can't figure it out. Thank You. <DataContract()> Public Class Customer Private Type_of_clientField As Integer = -1 <DataMember(Order:=1)> Public Property type_of_client() As Integer Get Return Type_of_clientField End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) Type_of_clientField = value End Set End Property End Class <ServiceContract(SessionMode:=SessionMode.Allowed)> <DataContractFormat()> Public Interface CustomerService <OperationContract()> Function addCustomer(ByRef customer As Customer) As Long End Interface type_of_client properties value is 6 before I call addCustomer function. After it enters that function the value is 0. UPDATE: The issue is in instance creating. When I create an instance of a class on client side, that is stored on service side, some of my properties pass 0 or nothing, but when I call a function of a service class, that returns a new instance of that class, it works fine. What's is the difference? Could that be serialization issue?

    Read the article

  • Unit test complex classes with many private methods

    - by Simon G
    Hi, I've got a class with one public method and many private methods which are run depending on what parameter are passed to the public method so my code looks something like: public class SomeComplexClass { IRepository _repository; public SomeComplexClass() this(new Repository()) { } public SomeComplexClass(IRepository repository) { _repository = repository; } public List<int> SomeComplexCalcualation(int option) { var list = new List<int>(); if (option == 1) list = CalculateOptionOne(); else if (option == 2) list = CalculateOptionTwo(); else if (option == 3) list = CalculateOptionThree(); else if (option == 4) list = CalculateOptionFour(); else if (option == 5) list = CalculateOptionFive(); return list; } private List<int> CalculateOptionOne() { // Some calculation } private List<int> CalculateOptionTwo() { // Some calculation } private List<int> CalculateOptionThree() { // Some calculation } private List<int> CalculateOptionFour() { // Some calculation } private List<int> CalculateOptionFive() { // Some calculation } } I've thought of a few ways to test this class but all of them seem overly complex or expose the methods more than I would like. The options so far are: Set all the private methods to internal and use [assembly: InternalsVisibleTo()] Separate out all the private methods into a separate class and create an interface. Make all the methods virtual and in my tests create a new class that inherits from this class and override the methods. Are there any other options for testing the above class that would be better that what I've listed? If you would pick one of the ones I've listed can you explain why? Thanks

    Read the article

  • CallbackValidator called with empty string

    - by Paolo Tedesco
    I am writing a custom configuration section, and I would like to validate a configuration property with a callback, like in this example: using System; using System.Configuration; class CustomSection : ConfigurationSection { [ConfigurationProperty("stringValue", IsRequired = false)] [CallbackValidator(Type = typeof(CustomSection), CallbackMethodName = "ValidateString")] public string StringValue { get { return (string)this["stringValue"]; } set { this["stringValue"] = value; } } public static void ValidateString(object value) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty((string)value)) { throw new ArgumentException("string must not be empty."); } } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { CustomSection cfg = (CustomSection)ConfigurationManager.GetSection("customSection"); Console.WriteLine(cfg.StringValue); } } And my App.config file looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <configSections> <section name="customSection" type="CustomSection, config-section"/> </configSections> <customSection stringValue="lorem ipsum"/> </configuration> My problem is that when the ValidateString function is called, the value parameter is always an empty string, and therefore the validation fails. If i just remove the validator, the string value is correctly initialized to the value in the configuration file. What am I missing?

    Read the article

  • Directly call distutils' or setuptools' setup() function with command name/options, without parsing

    - by Ryan B. Lynch
    I'd like to call Python's distutils' or setuptools' setup() function in a slightly unconventional way, but I'm not sure whether distutils is meant for this kind of usage. As an example, let's say I currently have a 'setup.py' file, which looks like this (lifted verbatim from the distutils docs--the setuptools usage is almost identical): from distutils.core import setup setup(name='Distutils', version='1.0', description='Python Distribution Utilities', author='Greg Ward', author_email='[email protected]', url='http://www.python.org/sigs/distutils-sig/', packages=['distutils', 'distutils.command'], ) Normally, to build just the .spec file for an RPM of this module, I could run python setup.py bdist_rpm --spec-only, which parses the command line and calls the 'bdist_rpm' code to handle the RPM-specific stuff. The .spec file ends up in './dist'. How can I change my setup() invocation so that it runs the 'bdist_rpm' command with the '--spec-only' option, WITHOUT parsing command-line parameters? Can I pass the command name and options as parameters to setup()? Or can I manually construct a command line, and pass that as a parameter, instead? NOTE: I already know that I could call the script in a separate process, with an actual command line, using os.system() or the subprocess module or something similar. I'm trying to avoid using any kind of external command invocations. I'm looking specifically for a solution that runs setup() in the current interpreter. For background, I'm converting some release-management shell scripts into a single Python program. One of the tasks is running 'setup.py' to generate a .spec file for further pre-release testing. Running 'setup.py' as an external command, with its own command line options, seems like an awkward method, and it complicates the rest of the program. I feel like there may be a more Pythonic way.

    Read the article

  • .NET MVC custom routing with empty parameters

    - by user135498
    Hi All, I have a .net mvc with the following routes: routes.Add(new Route( "Lookups/{searchtype}/{inputtype}/{firstname}/{middlename}/{lastname}/{city}/{state}/{address}", new RouteValueDictionary( new { controller = "Lookups", action = "Search", firstname = (string)null, middlename = (string)null, lastname = (string)null, city = (string)null, state = (string)null, address = (string)null, SearchType = SearchType.PeopleSearch, InputType = InputType.Name }), new MvcRouteHandler()) ); routes.Add(new Route( "Lookups/{searchtype}/{inputtype}", new RouteValueDictionary( new { controller = "Lookups", action = "Search", firstname = "", middlename = "", lastname = "", city = "", state = "", address = "" }), new MvcRouteHandler()) ); routes.Add(new Route( "Lookups/{searchtype}/{inputtype}", new RouteValueDictionary( new { controller = "Lookups", action = "Search", firstname = "", middlename = "", lastname = "", city = "", state = "", address = "", SearchType = SearchType.PeopleSearch, InputType = InputType.Name }), new MvcRouteHandler()) ); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Account", action = "LogOn", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); The following request works fine: http://localhost:2608/Lookups/PeopleSearch/Name/john/w/smith/seattle/wa/123 main This request does not work: http://localhost:2608/Lookups/PeopleSearch/Name/john//smith//wa/ Not all requests will have all paramters and I would like empty parameters to be passed to the method as empty string or null. Where am I going wrong? The method: public ActionResult Search(string firstname, string middlename, string lastname, string city, string state, string address, SearchType searchtype, InputType inputtype) { SearchRequest r = new SearchRequest { Firstname = firstname, Middlename = middlename, Lastname = lastname, City = city, State = state, Address = address, SearchType = searchtype, InputType = inputtype }; return View(r); }

    Read the article

  • Hibernate JDBCConnectionException: Communications link failure and java.io.EOFException: Can not read response from server

    - by Marc
    I get a quite well-known using MySql jdbc driver : JDBCConnectionException: Communications link failure, java.io.EOFException: Can not read response from server. This is caused by the wait_timeout parameter in my.cnf. So I decided to use c3p0 pool connection along with Hibernate. Here is what I added to hibernate.cfg.xml : <property name="hibernate.connection.provider_class">org.hibernate.connection.C3P0ConnectionProvider</property> <property name="c3p0.min_size">10</property> <property name="c3p0.max_size">100</property> <property name="c3p0.timeout">1000</property> <property name="c3p0.preferredTestQuery">SELECT 1</property> <property name="c3p0.acquire_increment">1</property> <property name="c3p0.idle_test_period">2</property> <property name="c3p0.max_statements">50</property> idle_test_period is volontarily low for test purposes. Looking at the mysql logs I can see the "SELECT 1" request which is regularly sent to the mysql server so it works. Unfortunately I still get this EOF exception within my app if I wait longer than 'wait_timout' seconds (set to 10 for test purposes). I'm using Hibernate 4.1.1 and mysql-jdbc-connector 5.1.18. So what am I doing wrong? Thanks, Marc.

    Read the article

  • Javascript API not working for Chrome or Safari on JW Player 5.9

    - by Lando
    I am working on a custom interface for the JW Player which displays the current track title and has play/pause, next track, previous track and volume toggle buttons. It works for IE8/9 and FF but fails for Chrome and Safari. Chrome's console gives the following error: Uncaught TypeError: Object # has no method 'addControllerListener' This is the code I am using for testing. <div id="container">Loading the player ...</div> <script type="text/javascript"> jwplayer("container").setup({ image: "preview.jpg", height: 320, width: 480, modes: [ { type: "html5" }, { type: "flash", src: "player.swf" } ], 'playlist': [ { 'file': "audio/01.mp3", 'title': "Track 1" }, { 'file': "audio/02.mp3", 'title': "Track 2" }, { 'file': "audio/03.mp3", 'title': "Track 3" } ], }); function playerReady(obj) { player = document.getElementById(obj.id); displayFirstItem(); }; function displayFirstItem() { try { playlist = player.getPlaylist(); } catch(e) { setTimeout("displayFirstItem()", 100); } player.addControllerListener('ITEM', 'itemMonitor'); itemMonitor({index:0}); }; function itemMonitor(obj) { $('#nowplaying').html('<span><strong>Now Playing:</strong> ' + playlist[obj.index]['title'] + '</span>'); }; </script> <div id="nowplaying"></div> <div class="control_bar"> <ul> <li onclick='player.sendEvent("play");'>[ &#8250; ] Play / Pause</li> <li onclick='player.sendEvent("prev");'>[ &laquo; ] Previous item</li> <li onclick='player.sendEvent("next");'>[ &raquo; ] Next item</li> </ul> </div> I have searched and tried several modifications, like adding the javascriptid parameter, nothing seems to work for Chrome or Safari. Any ideas? Thanks

    Read the article

  • MySQL Stored Procedures not working with SELECT (basic question)

    - by TMG
    Hello, I am using a platform (perfectforms) that requires me to use stored procedures for most of my queries, and having never used stored procedures, I can't figure out what I'm doing wrong. The following statement executes without error: DELIMITER // DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS test_db.test_proc// CREATE PROCEDURE test_db.test_proc() SELECT 'foo'; // DELIMITER ; But when I try to call it using: CALL test_proc(); I get the following error: #1312 - PROCEDURE test_db.test_proc can't return a result set in the given context I am executing these statements from within phpmyadmin 3.2.4, PHP Version 5.2.12 and the mysql server version is 5.0.89-community. When I write a stored procedure that returns a parameter, and then select it, things work fine (e.g.): DELIMITER // DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS test_db.get_sum// CREATE PROCEDURE test_db.get_sum(out total int) BEGIN SELECT SUM(field1) INTO total FROM test_db.test_table; END // DELIMITER ; works fine, and when I call it: CALL get_sum(@t); SELECT @t; I get the sum no problem. Ultimately, what I need to do is have a fancy SELECT statement wrapped up in a stored procedure, so I can call it, and return multiple rows of multiple fields. For now I'm just trying to get any select working. Any help is greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • drupal form textfield #default_value not working

    - by alvin.ng
    I am working on a custom module with multi-page form on drupal 6. I found that #default_value is not working when my '#type' = 'textfield'. However, when '#type'='textarea', it displays correctly with the '#default_value' specified. Basically, I wrote a FormFactory to return different form definition ($form) based on the post parameter received. Initially, it returns the display of directories list, user then selects from radio buttos until a specific directory contains a xml file, it will become edit form. The edit form will have text fields display the data (#default_value) inside the xml file, however the type 'textarea' works here rather than 'textfield'. How can I make my '#default_value' work in this case? Below is the non-working field definition: $form['pageset']['newsTitle'] = array( '#type' => 'textfield', '#title' => 'News Title', '#default_value' => "{$element->newsTitle}", '#rows' => 1, '#required' => TRUE, ); Then I changed it to textarea as shown below to make it work: $form['pageset']['newsTitle'] = array( '#type' => 'textarea', '#title' => 'News Title', '#default_value' => "{$element->newsTitle}", '#rows' => 1, '#required' => TRUE, );

    Read the article

  • Hibernate: Check if object exists/changed

    - by swalkner
    Assuming I have an object Person with long id String firstName String lastName String address Then I'm generating a Person-object somewhere in my application. Now I'd like to check if the person exists in the database (= firstname/lastname-combination is in the database). If not = insert it. If yes, check, if the address is the same. If not = update the address. Of course, I can do some requests (first, try to load object with firstname/lastname), then (if existing), compare the address. But isn't there a simpler, cleaner approach? If got several different classes and do not like to have so many queries. I'd like to use annotations as if to say: firstname/lastname = they're the primary key. Check for them if the object exists. address is the parameter you have to compare if it stayed the same or not. Does Hibernate/JPA (or another framework) support something like that? pseude-code: if (database.containsObject(person)) { //containing according to compound keys if (database.containsChangedObject(person)) { database.updateObject(person); } } else { database.insertObject(person); }

    Read the article

  • Why is OCR(MODI.MiLANGUAGES.miLANG_ENGLISH, true, true) causing an OCR running error?

    - by Ian Wells
    Hi folks, I am using MODI to read tiff images and do what I need to do with the text. Some images work fine and then other tiff images always cause the method, OCR(MODI.MiLANGUAGES.miLANG_ENGLISH, true, true) to fail. I have researched this and tried different variations such as 'false','false' in the parameter list. I have also tried SYSDEFAULT instead of English but I still get the error. Can anyone please tell me why it would fail on some tiff images and not on others? I have done some research and found this answer: One possible cause is MODI trying to process a file without any recognisable text. A blank document, or one which has only drawings/scribbles and is effectively blank, will cause this exception. Obviously this is not good enough as there is no way I can have an app that decides to OCR some images and not others. I handle the exception, but the OCR object is not then initalised so I can't do what I need to do from there. This is a bloody nightmare! Why can't the method just do it's bloody job and if the image has some unreadable pages then just ignore them? I am using Windows 7 Ultimate and Office 2007 Ultimate. Visual Studio version is 2008 Thanks, IW

    Read the article

  • How do I pass parameters between request-scoped beans

    - by smayers81
    This is a question that has been bothering me for sometime. My application uses ICEFaces for our UI framework and Spring 2.5 for Dependency Injection. In addition, Spring actually maintains all of our backing beans, not the ICEFaces framework, so our faces-config is basically empty. Navigation is not even really handled through navigation-rules. We perform manual redirects to new windows using window.open. All of our beans are defined in our appContext file as being request-scoped. I have Page ABC which is backed by BackingBeanABC. Inside that backing bean, I have a parameter say: private Order order; I then have Page XYZ backed by BackingBeanXYZ. When I redirect from page ABC to page XYZ, I want to transfer the 'order' property from ABC to XYZ. The problem is since everything is request-scoped and I'm performing a redirect, I am losing the value of 'description'. There has got to be an easier way to pass objects between beans in request scope during a redirect. Can anyone assist with this issue?

    Read the article

  • How to create a fully lazy singleton for generics

    - by Brendan Vogt
    I have the following code implementation of my generic singleton provider: public sealed class Singleton<T> where T : class, new() { Singleton() { } public static T Instance { get { return SingletonCreator.instance; } } class SingletonCreator { static SingletonCreator() { } internal static readonly T instance = new T(); } } This sample was taken from 2 articles and I merged the code to get me what I wanted: http://www.yoda.arachsys.com/csharp/singleton.html and http://www.codeproject.com/Articles/11111/Generic-Singleton-Provider. This is how I tried to use the code above: public class MyClass { public static IMyInterface Initialize() { if (Singleton<IMyInterface>.Instance == null // Error 1 { Singleton<IMyInterface>.Instance = CreateEngineInstance(); // Error 2 Singleton<IMyInterface>.Instance.Initialize(); } return Singleton<IMyInterface>.Instance; } } And the interface: public interface IMyInterface { } The error at Error 1 is: 'MyProject.IMyInterace' must be a non-abstract type with a public parameterless constructor in order to use it as parameter 'T' in the generic type or method 'MyProject.Singleton<T>' The error at Error 2 is: Property or indexer 'MyProject.Singleton<MyProject.IMyInterface>.Instance' cannot be assigned to -- it is read only How can I fix this so that it is in line with the 2 articles mentioned above? Any other ideas or suggestions are appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Getting the Access Token from a Facebook Open Graph response in Ruby

    - by Gearóid
    Hi, I'm trying to implement single sign-on using facebook in my ruby sinatra app. So far, I've been following this tutorial: http://jaywiggins.com/2010/05/facebook-oauth-with-sinatra/ I am able to send a request for a user to connect to my application but I'm having trouble actually "getting" the access token. The user can connect without trouble and I receive a response with the "code" parameter, which I'm supposed to use to exchange an Access Token - but its here where I get stuck. So I submit a url with the following parameters: https://graph.facebook.com/oauth/access_token/{client_id}&{client_secret}&{code}&{redirect_uri} The words in the curly brackets above are obviously replaced by the values. I submit this using the following code: response = open(url) This doesn't seem to return anything of use in the way of an access token (it has a @base_uri which is the url I submitted above and few other parameters, though nothing useful looking). However, if I take that url I submitted and paste it into a browser, I receive back an access token. Can anyone tell me how I can get the request back from facebook and pull out the access token? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Delphi App has "No Debug Info" when Debugging

    - by James L.
    We have built an application that uses packages and components. When we debug the application, the "Event Log" in the IDE often shows the our BPLs are being loaded without debug information ("No Debug Info"). This doesn't make sense because all our packages and EXEs are built with debug. _(each project) | Options | Compiling_ [ x ] Assertions [ x ] Debug information [ x ] Local symbols Symbol reference info = "Reference info" [ ] Use debug .dcus [ x ] Use imported data references _(each project) | Options | Linking_ [ x ] Debug information Map file = Detailed We have 4 projects, all built with runtime pacakges: Core.bpl Components.bpl Plugin.bpl (uses both #1 & #2) MainApp.exe (uses #1) Problems Observed 1) Many times when we debug, the Components.bpl is loaded with debug info, but all values in the "Local Variables" window are blank. If you hover your mouse over a variable in the code, there is no popup, and Evaluate window also shows nothing (the "Result" pane is always blank). 2) Sometimes the Event Log shows "No Debug Info" for various BPLs. For instance, if we activate the Plugin.bpl project and set it's Run | Parameter's Host Application to be the MainApp.exe, and then press F9, all modules seems to load with "Has Debug Info" except for the Plugin.bpl module. When it loads, the Event Log shows "No Debug Info". However, if we close the app and immediately press F9, it will run it again without recompiling anything and this time Plugin.bpl is loaded with debug ("Has Debug Info"). Questions 1) What would cause the "Local Variables" window to not display the values? 2) Why are BPLs sometimes loaded without debug info when the BPL was complied with debug and all the debug files (dcu, map, etc.) are available?

    Read the article

  • PHP Single Sign On (SSO) generating new session id

    - by bigstylee
    I am trying to create a single sign on process. The method I have implemented makes use of storing session data in a database. When a new user comes to the website (www.example2.com) a table of authentication is checked. As this is their first visit to the website, there will be no match. The browser is redicted to the authentication server www.example1.com/authenticate.php?session_id=ABC123 where ABC123 represents the session id created on www.example2.com. THe session id which is then generated on www.example1.com is stored along side the session id using the parameter set in the URL. The user is then redirected back to the www.example2.com and a match of session ids should be found. This WAS working fine in FireFox but when I tried it in Chrome I noticed that the session id being generated when the browser is redirected back to www.example2.com is a new session id. As a result an infinite loop is created. This behaviour has not manifested itself in FireFox aswell. What is causing the new session id to be generated? More importantly, what can I do to stop it? Thanks in advance! EDIT I had a logically error that was causing an infinite loop. This now works fine again in FireFox but the infinite loop is still occuring in Chrome and Internet Explorer.

    Read the article

  • In C#, are event handler arguments contravariant?

    - by Roger Lipscombe
    If I have a class that raises an event, with (e.g.) FrobbingEventArgs, am I allowed to handle it with a method that takes EventArgs? Here's some code: class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Frobber frobber = new Frobber(); frobber.Frobbing += FrobberOnFrobbing; frobber.Frob(); } private static void FrobberOnFrobbing(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Do something interesting. Note that the parameter is 'EventArgs'. } } internal class Frobber { public event EventHandler<FrobbingEventArgs> Frobbing; public event EventHandler<FrobbedEventArgs> Frobbed; public void Frob() { OnFrobbing(); // Frob. OnFrobbed(); } private void OnFrobbing() { var handler = Frobbing; if (handler != null) handler(this, new FrobbingEventArgs()); } private void OnFrobbed() { var handler = Frobbed; if (handler != null) handler(this, new FrobbedEventArgs()); } } internal class FrobbedEventArgs : EventArgs { } internal class FrobbingEventArgs : EventArgs { } The reason I ask is that ReSharper seems to have a problem with (what looks like) the equivalent in XAML, and I'm wondering if it's a bug in ReSharper, or a mistake in my understanding of C#.

    Read the article

  • Creating a Hello World library function in assembly and calling it from C#

    - by Filip Ekberg
    Let's say we use NASM as they do in this answer: how to write hellow world in assembly under windows. I got a couple of thoughts and questions regarding assembly combined with c# or any other .net languages for that matter. First of all I want to be able to create a library that has the following function HelloWorld that takes this parameter: Name In C# the method signature would looke like this: void HelloWorld(string name) and it would print out something like Hello World from name I've searched around a bit but can't find that much good and clean material for this to get me started. I know some basic assembly from before mostly gasthough. So any pointers in the right direction is very much apprechiated. To sum it up Create a function in ASM ( NASM ) that takes one or more parameters Compile and create a library of the above functionality Include the library in any .net language Call the included library function Bonus features How does one handle returned values? Is it possible to write the ASM-method inline? When creating libraries in assembly or c, you do follow a certain "pre defined" way, the c calling convetion, correct?

    Read the article

  • a selective dual command binding converter in WPF?

    - by Jippers
    I'll start off and say I am not using the MVVM pattern for my WPF app. Please forgive me. Right now I have a data template with two buttons, each binds to a different command on the CLR object this data template represents. Both use the same command parameter. Here's an example of the buttons. <Button x:Name="Button1" Command="{Binding Path=Command1}" CommandParameter="{Binding Path=Text, ElementName=TextBox1}" /> <Button x:Name="Button2" Command="{Binding Path=Command2}" CommandParameter="{Binding Path=Text, ElementName=TextBox1}" /> I would like to refactor this into a single button that can perform either command based on a user setting like a boolean in Settings.settings. I don't have access to refactoring the CLR object itself. Also this is a Data Template there isn't codebehind for me to work with. My take is that a converter would be the best bet, but I don't know how I would put that together. The converter would need to take in the CommandParameter, as well as the DataContext so it knows which object to execute the Commands on. Can someone lend me a hand with this? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 235 236 237 238 239 240 241 242 243 244 245 246  | Next Page >