Search Results

Search found 7375 results on 295 pages for 'parameter'.

Page 239/295 | < Previous Page | 235 236 237 238 239 240 241 242 243 244 245 246  | Next Page >

• Windows Workflow Foundation: Recommendations how to design architecture

  - by Petr Felzmann

  We are running several the same ASP.NET applications (one per customer) based on our custom framework (libraries). Each application use its own database (Initial Catalog in the term of connection string). Now we would like to add workflow capability (of course 4.0 ;) to the applications. So the particular workflows will be the same for all the applications only some initial settings of each workflow can vary, e.g. in one application the e-mail will be send to the user X, but in other application to the user Y. I have several general questions how to design architecture: (1) Can be the workflow database shared for all the applications? (2) Where to host workflow engine - inside our custom windows NT service or inside IIS? What are the criteria to choose the right host? (3) How the workflow engine should communicate with applications? Should application call some WCF endpoint API configured in workflow host or vice verse - should each application provide WCF endpoint API and workflow engine will call it? How then the workflow engine will identify applications? Both cases requires probably some application identifier as a parameter in API calls? (4) We would like to also store some information to the application databases based on the workflow states. Is it possible? Thanks for suggestions!

  Read the article

• Filling SWT table object using a separated thread class ...

  - by erlord

  Hi all I've got a code snippet by the swt team that does exactly what I need. However, there is a part I want to separate into another class, in particular, the whole inline stuff. In response to my former question, it has been suggested that Callable should be used in order to implement threaded objects. It is suggested to make use of an implementation of runnable or better callable, since I do need some kind of return. However, I don't get it. My problems are: In the original code, within the inline implementation of the method run, some of the parents objects are called. How would I do this when the thread is separated? Pass the object via the C'tor's parameter? In the original code, another runnable object is nested within the runnable implementation. What is it good for? How to implement this when having separated the code? Furthermore, this nested runnable again calls objects created by the main method. Please, have mercy with me, but I am still quite a beginner and my brain is near collapsing :-( All I want is to separate all the threaded stuff into another class and make the program do just the same thing as it already does. Help please! Again thank you very much in advance for any useful suggestions, hints, examples etc... Regs Me

  Read the article

• How much of STL is too much?

  - by Darius Kucinskas

  I am using a lot of STL code with std::for_each, bind, and so on, but I noticed that sometimes STL usage is not good idea. For example if you have a std::vector and want to do one action on each item of the vector, your first idea is to use this: std::for_each(vec.begin(), vec.end(), Foo()) and it is elegant and ok, for a while. But then comes the first set of bug reports and you have to modify code. Now you should add parameter to call Foo(), so now it becomes: std::for_each(vec.begin(), vec.end(), std::bind2nd(Foo(), X)) but that is only temporary solution. Now the project is maturing and you understand business logic much better and you want to add new modifications to code. It is at this point that you realize that you should use old good: for(std::vector::iterator it = vec.begin(); it != vec.end(); ++it) Is this happening only to me? Do you recognise this kind of pattern in your code? Have you experience similar anti-patterns using STL?

  Read the article

• Unit test complex classes with many private methods

  - by Simon G

  Hi, I've got a class with one public method and many private methods which are run depending on what parameter are passed to the public method so my code looks something like: public class SomeComplexClass { IRepository _repository; public SomeComplexClass() this(new Repository()) { } public SomeComplexClass(IRepository repository) { _repository = repository; } public List<int> SomeComplexCalcualation(int option) { var list = new List<int>(); if (option == 1) list = CalculateOptionOne(); else if (option == 2) list = CalculateOptionTwo(); else if (option == 3) list = CalculateOptionThree(); else if (option == 4) list = CalculateOptionFour(); else if (option == 5) list = CalculateOptionFive(); return list; } private List<int> CalculateOptionOne() { // Some calculation } private List<int> CalculateOptionTwo() { // Some calculation } private List<int> CalculateOptionThree() { // Some calculation } private List<int> CalculateOptionFour() { // Some calculation } private List<int> CalculateOptionFive() { // Some calculation } } I've thought of a few ways to test this class but all of them seem overly complex or expose the methods more than I would like. The options so far are: Set all the private methods to internal and use [assembly: InternalsVisibleTo()] Separate out all the private methods into a separate class and create an interface. Make all the methods virtual and in my tests create a new class that inherits from this class and override the methods. Are there any other options for testing the above class that would be better that what I've listed? If you would pick one of the ones I've listed can you explain why? Thanks

  Read the article

• Passing Object to Service in WCF

  - by hgulyan

  Hi, I have my custom class Customer with its properties. I added DataContract mark above the class and DataMember to properties and it was working fine, but I'm calling a service class's function, passing customer instance as parameter and some of my properties get 0 values. While debugging I can see my properties values and after it gets to the function, some properties' values are 0. Why it can be so? There's no code between this two actions. DataContract mark workes fine, everything's ok. Any suggestions on this issue? I tried to change ByRef to ByVal, but it doesn't change anything. Why it would pass other values right and some of integer types just 0? Maybe the answer is simple, but I can't figure it out. Thank You. <DataContract()> Public Class Customer Private Type_of_clientField As Integer = -1 <DataMember(Order:=1)> Public Property type_of_client() As Integer Get Return Type_of_clientField End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) Type_of_clientField = value End Set End Property End Class <ServiceContract(SessionMode:=SessionMode.Allowed)> <DataContractFormat()> Public Interface CustomerService <OperationContract()> Function addCustomer(ByRef customer As Customer) As Long End Interface type_of_client properties value is 6 before I call addCustomer function. After it enters that function the value is 0. UPDATE: The issue is in instance creating. When I create an instance of a class on client side, that is stored on service side, some of my properties pass 0 or nothing, but when I call a function of a service class, that returns a new instance of that class, it works fine. What's is the difference? Could that be serialization issue?

  Read the article

• SSRS2005 timeout error

  - by jaspernygaard

  Hi I've been running around circles the last 2 days, trying to figure a problem in our customers live environment. I figured I might as well post it here, since google gave me very limited information on the error message (5 results to be exact). The error boils down to a timeout when requesting a certain report in SSRS2005, when a certain parameter is used. The deployment scenario is: Machine #1 Running reporting services (SQL2005, W2K3, IIS6) Machine #2 Running datawarehouse database (SQL2005, W2K3) which is the data source for #1 Both machines are running on the same vm cluster and LAN. The report requests a fairly simple SP - lets called it sp(param $a, param $b). When requested with param $a filled, it executes correctly. When using param $b, it times out after the global timeout periode has passed. If I run the stored procedure with param $b directly from sql management studio on #2, it returns the results perfectly fine (within 3-4s). I've profiled the datawarehouse database on #2 and when param $b is used, the query from the reporting service to the database, never reaches #2. The error message that I get upon timeout, when using param $b, when invoking the report directly from SSRS web interface is: "An error has occurred during report processing. Cannot read the next data row for the data set DataSet. A severe error occurred on the current command. The results, if any, should be discarded. Operation cancelled by user." The ExecutionLog for the SSRS does give me much information besides the error message rsProcessingAborted I'm running out of ideas of how to nail this problem. So I would greatly appreciate any comments, suggestions or ideas. Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• How to create a fully lazy singleton for generics

  - by Brendan Vogt

  I have the following code implementation of my generic singleton provider: public sealed class Singleton<T> where T : class, new() { Singleton() { } public static T Instance { get { return SingletonCreator.instance; } } class SingletonCreator { static SingletonCreator() { } internal static readonly T instance = new T(); } } This sample was taken from 2 articles and I merged the code to get me what I wanted: http://www.yoda.arachsys.com/csharp/singleton.html and http://www.codeproject.com/Articles/11111/Generic-Singleton-Provider. This is how I tried to use the code above: public class MyClass { public static IMyInterface Initialize() { if (Singleton<IMyInterface>.Instance == null // Error 1 { Singleton<IMyInterface>.Instance = CreateEngineInstance(); // Error 2 Singleton<IMyInterface>.Instance.Initialize(); } return Singleton<IMyInterface>.Instance; } } And the interface: public interface IMyInterface { } The error at Error 1 is: 'MyProject.IMyInterace' must be a non-abstract type with a public parameterless constructor in order to use it as parameter 'T' in the generic type or method 'MyProject.Singleton<T>' The error at Error 2 is: Property or indexer 'MyProject.Singleton<MyProject.IMyInterface>.Instance' cannot be assigned to -- it is read only How can I fix this so that it is in line with the 2 articles mentioned above? Any other ideas or suggestions are appreciated.

  Read the article

• Problem with looping a video in Flash

  - by Blaze

  I am trying to loop a video and i am having some issues with this in flash. You can view the video here: http://www.healthcarepros.net/travel.html Here the specific code for the flash video: <script language="javascript"> if (AC_FL_RunContent == 0) { alert("This page requires AC_RunActiveContent.js."); } else { AC_FL_RunContent( 'codebase', 'http://download.macromedia.com/pub/shockwave/cabs/flash/swflash.cab#version=9,0,0,0', 'width', '330', 'height', '245', 'src', 'healthcare-video', 'quality', 'high', 'pluginspage', 'http://www.macromedia.com/go/getflashplayer', 'align', 'middle', 'play', 'true', 'loop', 'true', 'scale', 'showall', 'wmode', 'window', 'devicefont', 'false', 'id', 'healthcare-video', 'bgcolor', '#ffffff', 'name', 'healthcare-video', 'menu', 'true', 'allowFullScreen', 'false', 'allowScriptAccess','sameDomain', 'movie', 'healthcare-video', 'salign', '' ); //end AC code } </script> <noscript> <object classid="clsid:d27cdb6e-ae6d-11cf-96b8-444553540000" codebase="http://download.macromedia.com/pub/shockwave/cabs/flash/swflash.cab#version=9,0,0,0" width="330" height="245" id="healthcare-video" align="middle"> <param name="allowScriptAccess" value="sameDomain" /> <param name="allowFullScreen" value="false" /> <param name="loop" value="true" /> <param name="play" value="true" /> <param name="movie" value="healthcare-video.swf" /><param name="quality" value="high" /><param name="bgcolor" value="#ffffff" /> <embed src="healthcare-video.swf" play="true" flashvars="autoplay=true&play=true" quality="high" bgcolor="#ffffff" width="330" height="245" name="healthcare-video" align="middle" allowScriptAccess="sameDomain" allowFullScreen="false" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" pluginspage="http://www.macromedia.com/go/getflashplayer" /> </object> Additionally, i have added in the parameter code that calls the loop function but for some reason it still doesnt seem to work, any suggestions?

  Read the article

• Directly call distutils' or setuptools' setup() function with command name/options, without parsing

  - by Ryan B. Lynch

  I'd like to call Python's distutils' or setuptools' setup() function in a slightly unconventional way, but I'm not sure whether distutils is meant for this kind of usage. As an example, let's say I currently have a 'setup.py' file, which looks like this (lifted verbatim from the distutils docs--the setuptools usage is almost identical): from distutils.core import setup setup(name='Distutils', version='1.0', description='Python Distribution Utilities', author='Greg Ward', author_email='[email protected]', url='http://www.python.org/sigs/distutils-sig/', packages=['distutils', 'distutils.command'], ) Normally, to build just the .spec file for an RPM of this module, I could run python setup.py bdist_rpm --spec-only, which parses the command line and calls the 'bdist_rpm' code to handle the RPM-specific stuff. The .spec file ends up in './dist'. How can I change my setup() invocation so that it runs the 'bdist_rpm' command with the '--spec-only' option, WITHOUT parsing command-line parameters? Can I pass the command name and options as parameters to setup()? Or can I manually construct a command line, and pass that as a parameter, instead? NOTE: I already know that I could call the script in a separate process, with an actual command line, using os.system() or the subprocess module or something similar. I'm trying to avoid using any kind of external command invocations. I'm looking specifically for a solution that runs setup() in the current interpreter. For background, I'm converting some release-management shell scripts into a single Python program. One of the tasks is running 'setup.py' to generate a .spec file for further pre-release testing. Running 'setup.py' as an external command, with its own command line options, seems like an awkward method, and it complicates the rest of the program. I feel like there may be a more Pythonic way.

  Read the article

• Full Text Search in MSSQL2008 shows wrong display_item for Thai language

  - by ensecoz

  I am working with MSSQL2008. My task is to investigate the issue where FTS cannot find the right result for Thai. First, I have the table which enables the FTS on the column 'ItemName' which is nvarchar. The Catalog is created with the Thai Language. Note that the Thai language is one of the languages that doesn't separate the word by spaces, so '????' '???' '????' are written like this in a sentence: '???????????' In the table, there are many rows that include the word (????); for example row#1 (ItemName: '???????????') On the webpage, I try to search for '????' but SQLServer cannot find it. So I try to investigate it by trying the following query in SQLServer: select * from sys.dm_fts_parser(N'"???????????"', 1054, 0, 0) ...to see how the words are broken. The first one is the text to be broken. The second parameter is to specify that we're using Thai (WorkBreaker, so on). Here is the result: row#1 (display_item: '????', source_item: '???????????') row#2 (display_item: '????', source_item: '???????????') row#3 (display_item: '??', source_item: '???????????') Notice that the first and second row display the wrong display_item '?' in the '????' isn't even Thai characters. '?' in '????' is not a Thai character either. So the question is where did those alien characters come from? I guess this why I cannot search for '????' because the word breaker is broken and keeping the wrong character in the indexes. Please help!

  Read the article

• .NET MVC custom routing with empty parameters

  - by user135498

  Hi All, I have a .net mvc with the following routes: routes.Add(new Route( "Lookups/{searchtype}/{inputtype}/{firstname}/{middlename}/{lastname}/{city}/{state}/{address}", new RouteValueDictionary( new { controller = "Lookups", action = "Search", firstname = (string)null, middlename = (string)null, lastname = (string)null, city = (string)null, state = (string)null, address = (string)null, SearchType = SearchType.PeopleSearch, InputType = InputType.Name }), new MvcRouteHandler()) ); routes.Add(new Route( "Lookups/{searchtype}/{inputtype}", new RouteValueDictionary( new { controller = "Lookups", action = "Search", firstname = "", middlename = "", lastname = "", city = "", state = "", address = "" }), new MvcRouteHandler()) ); routes.Add(new Route( "Lookups/{searchtype}/{inputtype}", new RouteValueDictionary( new { controller = "Lookups", action = "Search", firstname = "", middlename = "", lastname = "", city = "", state = "", address = "", SearchType = SearchType.PeopleSearch, InputType = InputType.Name }), new MvcRouteHandler()) ); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Account", action = "LogOn", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); The following request works fine: http://localhost:2608/Lookups/PeopleSearch/Name/john/w/smith/seattle/wa/123 main This request does not work: http://localhost:2608/Lookups/PeopleSearch/Name/john//smith//wa/ Not all requests will have all paramters and I would like empty parameters to be passed to the method as empty string or null. Where am I going wrong? The method: public ActionResult Search(string firstname, string middlename, string lastname, string city, string state, string address, SearchType searchtype, InputType inputtype) { SearchRequest r = new SearchRequest { Firstname = firstname, Middlename = middlename, Lastname = lastname, City = city, State = state, Address = address, SearchType = searchtype, InputType = inputtype }; return View(r); }

  Read the article

• MySQL Stored Procedures not working with SELECT (basic question)

  - by TMG

  Hello, I am using a platform (perfectforms) that requires me to use stored procedures for most of my queries, and having never used stored procedures, I can't figure out what I'm doing wrong. The following statement executes without error: DELIMITER // DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS test_db.test_proc// CREATE PROCEDURE test_db.test_proc() SELECT 'foo'; // DELIMITER ; But when I try to call it using: CALL test_proc(); I get the following error: #1312 - PROCEDURE test_db.test_proc can't return a result set in the given context I am executing these statements from within phpmyadmin 3.2.4, PHP Version 5.2.12 and the mysql server version is 5.0.89-community. When I write a stored procedure that returns a parameter, and then select it, things work fine (e.g.): DELIMITER // DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS test_db.get_sum// CREATE PROCEDURE test_db.get_sum(out total int) BEGIN SELECT SUM(field1) INTO total FROM test_db.test_table; END // DELIMITER ; works fine, and when I call it: CALL get_sum(@t); SELECT @t; I get the sum no problem. Ultimately, what I need to do is have a fancy SELECT statement wrapped up in a stored procedure, so I can call it, and return multiple rows of multiple fields. For now I'm just trying to get any select working. Any help is greatly appreciated.

  Read the article

• Binding type variables that only occur in assertions

  - by Giuseppe Maggiore

  Hi! I find it extremely difficult to describe my problem, so here goes nothing: I have a bunch of assertions on the type of a function. These assertions rely on a type variable that is not used for any parameter of the function, but is only used for internal bindings. Whenever I use this function it does not compile because, of course, the compiler has no information from which to guess what type to bind my type variable. Here is the code: {-# LANGUAGE MultiParamTypeClasses, FunctionalDependencies, FlexibleInstances, UndecidableInstances, FlexibleContexts, EmptyDataDecls, ScopedTypeVariables, TypeOperators, TypeSynonymInstances #-} class C a a' where convert :: a -> a' class F a b where apply :: a -> b class S s a where select :: s -> a data CInt = CInt Int instance S (Int,String) Int where select (i,_) = i instance F Int CInt where apply = CInt f :: forall s a b . (S s a, F a b) => s -> b f s = let v = select s :: a y = apply v :: b in y x :: Int x = f (10,"Pippo") And here is the generated error: FunctorsProblems.hs:21:4: No instances for (F a Int, S (t, [Char]) a) arising from a use of `f' at FunctorsProblems.hs:21:4-17 Possible fix: add an instance declaration for (F a Int, S (t, [Char]) a) In the expression: f (10, "Pippo") In the definition of `x': x = f (10, "Pippo") Failed, modules loaded: none. Prelude>

  Read the article

• Javascript API not working for Chrome or Safari on JW Player 5.9

  - by Lando

  I am working on a custom interface for the JW Player which displays the current track title and has play/pause, next track, previous track and volume toggle buttons. It works for IE8/9 and FF but fails for Chrome and Safari. Chrome's console gives the following error: Uncaught TypeError: Object # has no method 'addControllerListener' This is the code I am using for testing. <div id="container">Loading the player ...</div> <script type="text/javascript"> jwplayer("container").setup({ image: "preview.jpg", height: 320, width: 480, modes: [ { type: "html5" }, { type: "flash", src: "player.swf" } ], 'playlist': [ { 'file': "audio/01.mp3", 'title': "Track 1" }, { 'file': "audio/02.mp3", 'title': "Track 2" }, { 'file': "audio/03.mp3", 'title': "Track 3" } ], }); function playerReady(obj) { player = document.getElementById(obj.id); displayFirstItem(); }; function displayFirstItem() { try { playlist = player.getPlaylist(); } catch(e) { setTimeout("displayFirstItem()", 100); } player.addControllerListener('ITEM', 'itemMonitor'); itemMonitor({index:0}); }; function itemMonitor(obj) { $('#nowplaying').html('<span><strong>Now Playing:</strong> ' + playlist[obj.index]['title'] + '</span>'); }; </script> <div id="nowplaying"></div> <div class="control_bar"> <ul> <li onclick='player.sendEvent("play");'>[ &#8250; ] Play / Pause</li> <li onclick='player.sendEvent("prev");'>[ &laquo; ] Previous item</li> <li onclick='player.sendEvent("next");'>[ &raquo; ] Next item</li> </ul> </div> I have searched and tried several modifications, like adding the javascriptid parameter, nothing seems to work for Chrome or Safari. Any ideas? Thanks

  Read the article

• CallbackValidator called with empty string

  - by Paolo Tedesco

  I am writing a custom configuration section, and I would like to validate a configuration property with a callback, like in this example: using System; using System.Configuration; class CustomSection : ConfigurationSection { [ConfigurationProperty("stringValue", IsRequired = false)] [CallbackValidator(Type = typeof(CustomSection), CallbackMethodName = "ValidateString")] public string StringValue { get { return (string)this["stringValue"]; } set { this["stringValue"] = value; } } public static void ValidateString(object value) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty((string)value)) { throw new ArgumentException("string must not be empty."); } } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { CustomSection cfg = (CustomSection)ConfigurationManager.GetSection("customSection"); Console.WriteLine(cfg.StringValue); } } And my App.config file looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <configSections> <section name="customSection" type="CustomSection, config-section"/> </configSections> <customSection stringValue="lorem ipsum"/> </configuration> My problem is that when the ValidateString function is called, the value parameter is always an empty string, and therefore the validation fails. If i just remove the validator, the string value is correctly initialized to the value in the configuration file. What am I missing?

  Read the article

• Why is OCR(MODI.MiLANGUAGES.miLANG_ENGLISH, true, true) causing an OCR running error?

  - by Ian Wells

  Hi folks, I am using MODI to read tiff images and do what I need to do with the text. Some images work fine and then other tiff images always cause the method, OCR(MODI.MiLANGUAGES.miLANG_ENGLISH, true, true) to fail. I have researched this and tried different variations such as 'false','false' in the parameter list. I have also tried SYSDEFAULT instead of English but I still get the error. Can anyone please tell me why it would fail on some tiff images and not on others? I have done some research and found this answer: One possible cause is MODI trying to process a file without any recognisable text. A blank document, or one which has only drawings/scribbles and is effectively blank, will cause this exception. Obviously this is not good enough as there is no way I can have an app that decides to OCR some images and not others. I handle the exception, but the OCR object is not then initalised so I can't do what I need to do from there. This is a bloody nightmare! Why can't the method just do it's bloody job and if the image has some unreadable pages then just ignore them? I am using Windows 7 Ultimate and Office 2007 Ultimate. Visual Studio version is 2008 Thanks, IW

  Read the article

• Getting the Access Token from a Facebook Open Graph response in Ruby

  - by Gearóid

  Hi, I'm trying to implement single sign-on using facebook in my ruby sinatra app. So far, I've been following this tutorial: http://jaywiggins.com/2010/05/facebook-oauth-with-sinatra/ I am able to send a request for a user to connect to my application but I'm having trouble actually "getting" the access token. The user can connect without trouble and I receive a response with the "code" parameter, which I'm supposed to use to exchange an Access Token - but its here where I get stuck. So I submit a url with the following parameters: https://graph.facebook.com/oauth/access_token/{client_id}&{client_secret}&{code}&{redirect_uri} The words in the curly brackets above are obviously replaced by the values. I submit this using the following code: response = open(url) This doesn't seem to return anything of use in the way of an access token (it has a @base_uri which is the url I submitted above and few other parameters, though nothing useful looking). However, if I take that url I submitted and paste it into a browser, I receive back an access token. Can anyone tell me how I can get the request back from facebook and pull out the access token? Thanks.

  Read the article

• Hibernate: Check if object exists/changed

  - by swalkner

  Assuming I have an object Person with long id String firstName String lastName String address Then I'm generating a Person-object somewhere in my application. Now I'd like to check if the person exists in the database (= firstname/lastname-combination is in the database). If not = insert it. If yes, check, if the address is the same. If not = update the address. Of course, I can do some requests (first, try to load object with firstname/lastname), then (if existing), compare the address. But isn't there a simpler, cleaner approach? If got several different classes and do not like to have so many queries. I'd like to use annotations as if to say: firstname/lastname = they're the primary key. Check for them if the object exists. address is the parameter you have to compare if it stayed the same or not. Does Hibernate/JPA (or another framework) support something like that? pseude-code: if (database.containsObject(person)) { //containing according to compound keys if (database.containsChangedObject(person)) { database.updateObject(person); } } else { database.insertObject(person); }

  Read the article

• Hibernate JDBCConnectionException: Communications link failure and java.io.EOFException: Can not read response from server

  - by Marc

  I get a quite well-known using MySql jdbc driver : JDBCConnectionException: Communications link failure, java.io.EOFException: Can not read response from server. This is caused by the wait_timeout parameter in my.cnf. So I decided to use c3p0 pool connection along with Hibernate. Here is what I added to hibernate.cfg.xml : <property name="hibernate.connection.provider_class">org.hibernate.connection.C3P0ConnectionProvider</property> <property name="c3p0.min_size">10</property> <property name="c3p0.max_size">100</property> <property name="c3p0.timeout">1000</property> <property name="c3p0.preferredTestQuery">SELECT 1</property> <property name="c3p0.acquire_increment">1</property> <property name="c3p0.idle_test_period">2</property> <property name="c3p0.max_statements">50</property> idle_test_period is volontarily low for test purposes. Looking at the mysql logs I can see the "SELECT 1" request which is regularly sent to the mysql server so it works. Unfortunately I still get this EOF exception within my app if I wait longer than 'wait_timout' seconds (set to 10 for test purposes). I'm using Hibernate 4.1.1 and mysql-jdbc-connector 5.1.18. So what am I doing wrong? Thanks, Marc.

  Read the article

• How do I pass parameters between request-scoped beans

  - by smayers81

  This is a question that has been bothering me for sometime. My application uses ICEFaces for our UI framework and Spring 2.5 for Dependency Injection. In addition, Spring actually maintains all of our backing beans, not the ICEFaces framework, so our faces-config is basically empty. Navigation is not even really handled through navigation-rules. We perform manual redirects to new windows using window.open. All of our beans are defined in our appContext file as being request-scoped. I have Page ABC which is backed by BackingBeanABC. Inside that backing bean, I have a parameter say: private Order order; I then have Page XYZ backed by BackingBeanXYZ. When I redirect from page ABC to page XYZ, I want to transfer the 'order' property from ABC to XYZ. The problem is since everything is request-scoped and I'm performing a redirect, I am losing the value of 'description'. There has got to be an easier way to pass objects between beans in request scope during a redirect. Can anyone assist with this issue?

  Read the article

• how to create a changing variable for fsolve

  - by Shun Miyamoto

  i want fsolve to calculate the output for different uc each time (increasing uc by 0.001 each time). each output from fsolve should be sent to a simulink model seperatly. so i set a loop to do so, but i believe that at the currenty constellation (if it will work)will just calculate 1000 different values? is there a way to send out the values seperately? if not, how can i create a parameter uc. that goes from 0 to say 1000? i tried uc=0:0.001:1000, but again, the demension doen't seem to fit. how do i create a function that takes the next element of a vector/matrix each time the function is called? uc=0; for i=0:1000 x0=[1,1,1]; y=x0(1); u=x0(2); yc=x0(3); options=optimset('Display','off'); x= fsolve(@myfun,x0,options,uc,d,spacing_amplitude,spacing_width); end best regards

  Read the article

• drupal form textfield #default_value not working

  - by alvin.ng

  I am working on a custom module with multi-page form on drupal 6. I found that #default_value is not working when my '#type' = 'textfield'. However, when '#type'='textarea', it displays correctly with the '#default_value' specified. Basically, I wrote a FormFactory to return different form definition ($form) based on the post parameter received. Initially, it returns the display of directories list, user then selects from radio buttos until a specific directory contains a xml file, it will become edit form. The edit form will have text fields display the data (#default_value) inside the xml file, however the type 'textarea' works here rather than 'textfield'. How can I make my '#default_value' work in this case? Below is the non-working field definition: $form['pageset']['newsTitle'] = array( '#type' => 'textfield', '#title' => 'News Title', '#default_value' => "{$element->newsTitle}", '#rows' => 1, '#required' => TRUE, ); Then I changed it to textarea as shown below to make it work: $form['pageset']['newsTitle'] = array( '#type' => 'textarea', '#title' => 'News Title', '#default_value' => "{$element->newsTitle}", '#rows' => 1, '#required' => TRUE, );

  Read the article

• How do I DYNAMICALLY cast in C# and return for a property

  - by ken-forslund

  I've already read threads on the topic, but can't find a solution that fits. I'm working on a drop-down list that takes an enum and uses that to populate itself. i found a VB.NET one. During the porting process, I discovered that it uses DirectCast() to set the type as it returns the SelectedValue. See the original VB here: http://jeffhandley.com/archive/2008/01/27/enum-list-dropdown-control.aspx the gist is, the control has Type _enumType; //gets set when the datasource is set and is the type of the specific enum The SelectedValue property kind of looks like (remember, it doesn't work): public Enum SelectedValue //Shadows Property { get { // Get the value from the request to allow for disabled viewstate string RequestValue = this.Page.Request.Params[this.UniqueID]; return Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true) as _enumType; } set { base.SelectedValue = value.ToString(); } } Now this touches on a core point that I think was missed in the other discussions. In darn near every example, folks argued that DirectCast wasn't needed, because in every example, they statically defined the type. That's not the case here. As the programmer of the control, I don't know the type. Therefore, I can't cast it. Additionally, the following examples of lines won't compile because c# casting doesn't accept a variable. Whereas VB's CType and DirectCast can accept Type T as a function parameter: return Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true); or return Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true) as _enumType; or return (_enumType)Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true) ; or return Convert.ChangeType(Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true), _enumType); or return CastTo<_enumType>(Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true)); So, any ideas on a solution? What's the .NET 3.5 best way to resolve this?

  Read the article

• passing in javascript values into iframe tag

  - by Cedar Jensen

  What's the best way to pass in the value held in a javascript variable into an iframe call on the same html page? I'm trying to improve my site's page response times by moving ad serving javascript code (the typical document.write('<script type="text/javascript" src="..") into a separate iframe. (Based on this posting) The request to the ad server typically require a seed variable declared once per site and incremented each time page is loaded by the client. What I want to do is pass in the seed variable into the document invoked by my iframe section. The seed variable is initialized in the 'head' tag of my main html document: <head> <script type="text/javascript"> <!-- custom_seed=1; //--> </script> </head> Later in the html document, I make the request through an iframe which returns the html necessary to invoke the ad server. <body> <!-- a bunch of html to display the page --> <iframe src="somepage.html" width="100%" height="100%"> <p>No support for iframe</p> </iframe> </body> The html returned in the 'somepage.html' has a script used to call the ad server and needs to use the earlier declared seed variable as a parameter: <script type="text/javascript"> document.write('<script type="text/javascript" src="http://ad.server.net/...seed='+ custom_seed +'?"></script>'); custom_seed++; </script> What's a good way to achieve this?

  Read the article

• Not showing error when calling another function in Spring

  - by Javi

  Hello, I have a controller with 2 methods. The first one just add some lists to the model (the lists of my comboboxes) and return a JSP with a form. The second one validates the data and if there aren't errors it saves the data. The code looks like this: public String showForm(Model model){ //load some data into some lists return "tiles:myJSPfile"; } public String save(@Valid @ModelAttribute("MyData") Data data, BindingResult result, Model model){ if(result.hasErrors()){ //there are errors: show form with error messages //(but I need to reload the combobox lists) return showForm(model); } //save data } The problem is that in this way I don't see the error messages in the form (though I see by the debugger that it has found errors). I've thought that the problem comes because the showForm method doesn't have the error messages because it can't see the BindingResult, so I've added BindingResult as a parameter of showForm method, but it still doesn't work. I've added My Model Attribute as well but I get the same problem. If I just return the JSP file in the save method I can see the errors, but in this way I would need to add again in this other method the lists I had already added in the showForm (duplicated code). I can't save the data in session scope so it's compulsory to get again the lists after getting the error. if(result.hasErrors()){ //there are errors: show form with error messages return "tiles:myJSPfile"; } Why are errors not shown when I call a function to display my JSP different from the one I used for the validation? What's the best way to do this? Thanks.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 235 236 237 238 239 240 241 242 243 244 245 246  | Next Page >