Search Results

Search found 5769 results on 231 pages for 'wcf routing'.

Page 24/231 | < Previous Page | 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31  | Next Page >

  • URL Routing to Default Page

    - by ewitkows
    Hi everyone, I have an asp.net 4.0 web forms app setup with url rereouting. In development, my app's URL looks perfect. I have a page called enrollnow.aspx that responds to the routing, so if I type in localhost/enrollnow/abc, my app responds as expected. Once promoted into my staging environment however, the URL is off. I have a domain, and a virtual dir created off of my domain called "enrollnow". So basically, my URL outside of development is: mydomain.com/enrollnow/enrollnow/abc - where the first enrollnow is the directory, the second enrollnow is the page name, and the abc is my route value. Is there any way I can have the "default page" respond, so the second enrollnow (which is enrollnow.asp) isnt required? Perhaps I can rename my enrollnow.aspx page to default.aspx, or I can change the mapping in my routetable? Heres my routetable, incase that helps. thanks! Routetable: RouteTable.Routes.Add("PURLRoute", New Route("EnrollNow/{PURL_ID}", New PageRouteHandler("~/EnrollNow.aspx")))

    Read the article

  • an asp.net routing issue

    - by Adam Right
    my route implementation on Global.asax protected void Application_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { this.intRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } void intRoutes(RouteCollection Rts) { Rts.MapPageRoute("search", "{language}/{page}", "~/search.aspx"); Rts.MapPageRoute("category", "{language}/{name}/{no}/{categoryname}", "~/category.aspx"); Rts.MapPageRoute("product", "{language}/{name}/{no}/{productname}", "~/product.aspx"); } the problem is; if i use product routing on a hyperlink, like as follows; <asp:HyperLink ID="hyProduct" NavigateUrl='<%#HttpUtility.UrlDecode(((Page)HttpContext.Current.Handler).GetRouteUrl("product", new{ language=getUIFromHelper(),name=getNameFromHelper(),no=Eval("code"),productname=getProductNameFromHelper(Eval("name"))})) %>' runat="server" Text="something" /> everything goes fine, the link is written as expected like /en/products/06.008.001.150.0510/davis-fish-seeker-green but when i click that link the category.aspx page runs insted of product.aspx. am i missing out something ?

    Read the article

  • Simple rails routing / url question

    - by justinbach
    I'm using Ryan Bates' nifty authentication in my application for user signup and login. Each user has_many :widgets, but I'd like to allow users to browse other users' widgets. I'm thinking that a url scheme like /username/widgets/widget_id would make a lot of sense--it would keep all widget-related code in the same place (the widgets controller). However, I'm not sure how to use this style of URL in my app. Right now my codebase is such that it permits logged-in users to browse only their own widgets, which live at /widgets/widget_id. What changes would I need to make to routes.rb, my models classes, and any place where links to a given widget are needed? I've done Rails work before but am a newb when it comes to more complicated routing, etc, so I'd appreciate any feedback. Thanks for your consideration!

    Read the article

  • How to go about designing an intermediate routing filter program to accept input and forward accordingly?

    - by phileaton
    My predicament: I designed an app, written in Python, to read my mail and check for messages that contain a certain digital signature. It opens these and looks for keywords. If the message contains these keywords, certain related functions area executed on the computer. It is a way I can control my computer from my cell phone without being there. I am still in the beginning stages and it can only currently remotely open and close applications/processes. The obvious issue is security risks. I hoped to spearhead that by requiring and checking for that digital signature. However, my issue comes when I'd like to make this program usable by multiple users. The idea is that the user will send keywords: username and password, for instance, to log into their personal email account and send messages to it to be parsed. Please ignore the security implications of sending non-encoded passwords through email. (Though if you could help me on that part I'd much appreciate it as well, but currently, that is not the scope of my question.) My issue is designing an intermediary process that will take an email/password to read an email and scan for those keywords. The issue is, that the program has to be accessing an email to read the email for the username/password! I have got myself into a loop and cannot figure out how to have this required intermediary program. I could just create an arbitrary email account and have that check for login-creds, but is there a better way of doing this than that? Also, is there a better way of communicating with a computer remotely than this? Especially if the computer is not a server and is behind a router with only a subnet ip? If I am asking this question in the wrong place, I deeply apologize. Any help would be much appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Inconsistent Routing Results in MVC

    - by HapiDjus
    Seems I'm still missing something to the MVC routing concept. I have a route that follows nearly the same pattern as another route in an area but for what ever reason I get a 404 every time I attempt to run it. I've tried to use Phil Haack's Route Tester DLL and according to that it hits the correct route (matched route comes out to common/itemhistory/{contentid}). When I try to run it for real, it blows up. I'm trying to map a call to a JsonResult by passing a Guid. I've had success with other routes working fine (common is an area in my site). What could I be doing wrong? context.MapRoute( "ItemHistory", "common/itemhistory/{contentid}", new { controller = "common", action = "GetItemHistory" }, new { contentid = @"^(\{){0,1}[0-9a-fA-F]{8}\-[0-9a-fA-F]{4}\-[0-9a-fA-F]{4}\-[0-9a-fA-F]{4}\-[0-9a-fA-F]{12}(\}){0,1}$" } ); context.MapRoute( "Common_default", "common/{action}", new { controller="common", action = "Index" } );

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Custom Routing Long Custom Route not Clicking in my Head

    - by percent20
    I have spent several hours today reading up on doing Custom Routing in ASP.NET MVC. I can understand how to do any type of custom route if it expands from or is similar/smaller than the Default Route. However, I am trying figure out how to do a route similar to: /Language/{id}/Question/{id}/ And what I would like, too, is similar to how SO works. Something like: /Language/{id}/Arabic/Question/{ID}/Some-Question-Title Where "Arabic" and "Some-Question-Title" can be almost anything because what really matters is the ID's Am I going beyond what can be done with the extended URL past the language ID?

    Read the article

  • WCF RIA Services DomainContext Abstraction Strategies–Say That 10 Times!

    - by dwahlin
    The DomainContext available with WCF RIA Services provides a lot of functionality that can help track object state and handle making calls from a Silverlight client to a DomainService. One of the questions I get quite often in our Silverlight training classes (and see often in various forums and other areas) is how the DomainContext can be abstracted out of ViewModel classes when using the MVVM pattern in Silverlight applications. It’s not something that’s super obvious at first especially if you don’t work with delegates a lot, but it can definitely be done. There are various techniques and strategies that can be used but I thought I’d share some of the core techniques I find useful. To start, let’s assume you have the following ViewModel class (this is from my Silverlight Firestarter talk available to watch online here if you’re interested in getting started with WCF RIA Services): public class AdminViewModel : ViewModelBase { BookClubContext _Context = new BookClubContext(); public AdminViewModel() { if (!DesignerProperties.IsInDesignTool) { LoadBooks(); } } private void LoadBooks() { _Context.Load(_Context.GetBooksQuery(), LoadBooksCallback, null); } private void LoadBooksCallback(LoadOperation<Book> books) { Books = new ObservableCollection<Book>(books.Entities); } } Notice that BookClubContext is being used directly in the ViewModel class. There’s nothing wrong with that of course, but if other ViewModel objects need to load books then code would be duplicated across classes. Plus, the ViewModel has direct knowledge of how to load data and I like to make it more loosely-coupled. To do this I create what I call a “Service Agent” class. This class is responsible for getting data from the DomainService and returning it to a ViewModel. It only knows how to get and return data but doesn’t know how data should be stored and isn’t used with data binding operations. An example of a simple ServiceAgent class is shown next. Notice that I’m using the Action<T> delegate to handle callbacks from the ServiceAgent to the ViewModel object. Because LoadBooks accepts an Action<ObservableCollection<Book>>, the callback method in the ViewModel must accept ObservableCollection<Book> as a parameter. The callback is initiated by calling the Invoke method exposed by Action<T>: public class ServiceAgent { BookClubContext _Context = new BookClubContext(); public void LoadBooks(Action<ObservableCollection<Book>> callback) { _Context.Load(_Context.GetBooksQuery(), LoadBooksCallback, callback); } public void LoadBooksCallback(LoadOperation<Book> lo) { //Check for errors of course...keeping this brief var books = new ObservableCollection<Book>(lo.Entities); var action = (Action<ObservableCollection<Book>>)lo.UserState; action.Invoke(books); } } This can be simplified by taking advantage of lambda expressions. Notice that in the following code I don’t have a separate callback method and don’t have to worry about passing any user state or casting any user state (the user state is the 3rd parameter in the _Context.Load method call shown above). public class ServiceAgent { BookClubContext _Context = new BookClubContext(); public void LoadBooks(Action<ObservableCollection<Book>> callback) { _Context.Load(_Context.GetBooksQuery(), (lo) => { var books = new ObservableCollection<Book>(lo.Entities); callback.Invoke(books); }, null); } } A ViewModel class can then call into the ServiceAgent to retrieve books yet never know anything about the DomainContext object or even know how data is loaded behind the scenes: public class AdminViewModel : ViewModelBase { ServiceAgent _ServiceAgent = new ServiceAgent(); public AdminViewModel() { if (!DesignerProperties.IsInDesignTool) { LoadBooks(); } } private void LoadBooks() { _ServiceAgent.LoadBooks(LoadBooksCallback); } private void LoadBooksCallback(ObservableCollection<Book> books) { Books = books } } You could also handle the LoadBooksCallback method using a lambda if you wanted to minimize code just like I did earlier with the LoadBooks method in the ServiceAgent class.  If you’re into Dependency Injection (DI), you could create an interface for the ServiceAgent type, reference it in the ViewModel and then inject in the object to use at runtime. There are certainly other techniques and strategies that can be used, but the code shown here provides an introductory look at the topic that should help get you started abstracting the DomainContext out of your ViewModel classes when using WCF RIA Services in Silverlight applications.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC2 Routing Issue With StructureMap

    - by alphadogg
    So, in global.asax, I have: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.IgnoreRoute(" { *favicon }", new { favicon = @"(.*/)?favicon.ico(/.*)?" }); routes.IgnoreRoute("{*robotstxt}", new { robotstxt = @"(.*/)?robots.txt(/.*)?" }); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); } protected void Application_Start() { var container = new Container(); ServiceLocator.SetLocatorProvider(() => new StructureMapServiceLocator(container)); ComponentRegistrar.Register(container); Debug.WriteLine(container.WhatDoIHave()); // original MVC2 code at project startup AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } and in my StructureMapControllerFactory, I have: protected override IController GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) { if (requestContext == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("requestContext"); } if (controllerType == null) { //return base.GetControllerInstance(requestContext, controllerType); controllerType = GetControllerType(requestContext, "Home"); requestContext.RouteData.Values["Controller"] = "Home"; requestContext.RouteData.Values["action"] = "Index"; } try { return theContainer.GetInstance(controllerType) as Controller; } catch (StructureMapException) { System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine(theContainer.WhatDoIHave()); throw; } } Now, normally, in most examples you find on the net, when controllerType is null, you have the commented out line (base.GetControllerInstance()) that handles it. However, if I use that, I get an error about not finding the controller for default.aspx when the controllerType is null at startup of the web app. If I force the use of the Home controller, I get the site to appear. What am I doing wrong? Is it a problem in routing?

    Read the article

  • inbound/outbound url routing in asp.net MVC

    - by Stephane
    The routing I need is quite simple, I must be missing something there. As code example I put the simpler situation where I can reproduce my behavior. You have this ActionMethod : public ActionResult Index(string provider) { ViewData["Message"] = provider; return View("Index"); } And you have this route : routes.MapRoute( null, "{controller}/{action}/{provider}", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", provider = "Default" } ); // Parameter defaults You can call /Home/Index/Custom and provider will take the value "Custom" What Route would I need if I want the url /?provider=Custom to map the provider to the parameter. I thought that would just work, because the default controller and the default action would be used, and the provider from the querystring would be used instead of the default one. but the querystring is just ignored here. That's a problem in my situation as I have a form using HTTP GET method. The form action has to be Html.BeginForm(c=c.Index(null)) which is resolved as / and the value of my form are added in the querystring. (the provider being a dropdown in the form) So the url built by the form is /?abc=value&cde=value...

    Read the article

  • How to use ASP.NET Routing in a Quote of the Day Website

    - by SidC
    Good Afternoon, A client is interested in creating an ASP.NET 2.0 website whose purpose is to serve up a "quote of the day". He wants the quotes on static content pages all attached to the same master page. The quote pages must be viewed in a certain sequence, and site browsers cannot view any other pages than the starting page when browsing to the site. That is, everyone must go to page 001.aspx when entering the site. Two Questions: 1. The content pages are going to be created by the client using an excel data source and a merge process by which each quote page is created eg. 001.aspx, 002.aspx etc. This seems clunky to me at best. Would ASP.NET Dynamic Data be a better solution here? I'm new to ASP.NET Routing and URL Rewriting as a whole. How would I setup a route table to ensure that users always entered the site on the same entry page, and create a route table such that default.aspx resolves to 001.aspx? Thanks, Sid

    Read the article

  • WCF timeout exception detailed investigation

    - by Jason Kealey
    We have an application that has a WCF service (*.svc) running on IIS7 and various clients querying the service. The server is running Win 2008 Server. The clients are running either Windows 2008 Server or Windows 2003 server. I am getting the following exception, which I have seen can in fact be related to a large number of potential WCF issues. System.TimeoutException: The request channel timed out while waiting for a reply after 00:00:59.9320000. Increase the timeout value passed to the call to Request or increase the SendTimeout value on the Binding. The time allotted to this operation may have been a portion of a longer timeout. ---> System.TimeoutException: The HTTP request to 'http://www.domain.com/WebServices/myservice.svc/gzip' has exceeded the allotted timeout of 00:01:00. The time allotted to this operation may have been a portion of a longer timeout. I have increased the timeout to 30min and the error still occurred. This tells me that something else is at play, because the quantity of data could never take 30min to upload or download. The error comes and goes. At the moment, it is more frequent. It does not seem to matter if I have 3 clients running simultaneously or 100, it still occurs once in a while. Most of the time, there are no timeouts but I still get a few per hour. The error comes from any of the methods that are invoked. One of these methods does not have parameters and returns a bit of data. Another takes in lots of data as a parameter but executes asynchronously. The errors always originate from the client and never reference any code on the server in the stack trace. It always ends with: at System.Net.HttpWebRequest.GetResponse() at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelFactory.HttpRequestChannel.HttpChannelRequest.WaitForReply(TimeSpan timeout) On the server: I've tried (and currently have) the following binding settings: maxBufferSize="2147483647" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647" maxBufferPoolSize="2147483647" It does not seem to have an impact. I've tried (and currently have) the following throttling settings: <serviceThrottling maxConcurrentCalls="1500" maxConcurrentInstances="1500" maxConcurrentSessions="1500"/> It does not seem to have an impact. I currently have the following settings for the WCF service. [ServiceBehavior(InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.Single, ConcurrencyMode = ConcurrencyMode.Single)] I ran with ConcurrencyMode.Multiple for a while, and the error still occurred. I've tried restarting IIS, restarting my underlying SQL Server, restarting the machine. All of these don't seem to have an impact. I've tried disabling the Windows firewall. It does not seem to have an impact. On the client, I have these settings: maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647" <system.net> <connectionManagement> <add address="*" maxconnection="16"/> </connectionManagement> </system.net> My client closes its connections: var client = new MyClient(); try { return client.GetConfigurationOptions(); } finally { client.Close(); } I have changed the registry settings to allow more outgoing connections: MaxConnectionsPerServer=24, MaxConnectionsPer1_0Server=32. I have now just recently tried SvcTraceViewer.exe. I managed to catch one exception on the client end. I see that its duration is 1 minute. Looking at the server side trace, I can see that the server is not aware of this exception. The maximum duration I can see is 10 seconds. I have looked at active database connections using exec sp_who on the server. I only have a few (2-3). I have looked at TCP connections from one client using TCPview. It usually is around 2-3 and I have seen up to 5 or 6. Simply put, I am stumped. I have tried everything I could find, and must be missing something very simple that a WCF expert would be able to see. It is my gut feeling that something is blocking my clients at the low-level (TCP), before the server actually receives the message and/or that something is queuing the messages at the server level and never letting them process. If you have any performance counters I should look at, please let me know. (please indicate what values are bad, as some of these counters are hard to decypher). Also, how could I log the WCF message size? Finally, are there any tools our there that would allow me to test how many connections I can establish between my client and server (independently from my application) Thanks for your time! Extra information added June 20th: My WCF application does something similar to the following. while (true) { Step1GetConfigurationSettingsFromServerViaWCF(); // can change between calls Step2GetWorkUnitFromServerViaWCF(); DoWorkLocally(); // takes 5-15minutes. Step3SendBackResultsToServerViaWCF(); } Using WireShark, I did see that when the error occurs, I have a five TCP retransmissions followed by a TCP reset later on. My guess is the RST is coming from WCF killing the connection. The exception report I get is from Step3 timing out. I discovered this by looking at the tcp stream "tcp.stream eq 192". I then expanded my filter to "tcp.stream eq 192 and http and http.request.method eq POST" and saw 6 POSTs during this stream. This seemed odd, so I checked with another stream such as tcp.stream eq 100. I had three POSTs, which seems a bit more normal because I am doing three calls. However, I do close my connection after every WCF call, so I would have expected one call per stream (but I don't know much about TCP). Investigating a bit more, I dumped the http packet load to disk to look at what these six calls where. 1) Step3 2) Step1 3) Step2 4) Step3 - corrupted 5) Step1 6) Step2 My guess is two concurrent clients are using the same connection, that is why I saw duplicates. However, I still have a few more issues that I can't comprehend: a) Why is the packet corrupted? Random network fluke - maybe? The load is gzipped using this sample code: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms751458.aspx - Could the code be buggy once in a while when used concurrently? I should test without the gzip library. b) Why would I see step 1 & step 2 running AFTER the corrupted operation timed out? It seems to me as if these operations should not have occurred. Maybe I am not looking at the right stream because my understanding of TCP is flawed. I have other streams that occur at the same time. I should investigate other streams - a quick glance at streams 190-194 show that the Step3 POST have proper payload data (not corrupted). Pushing me to look at the gzip library again.

    Read the article

  • jscript1.js error in webforms when applying routing

    - by Sean N
    Hello I have a project using webforms. I applied routing on one of the page. My route is structure like this : http://localhost:3576/Request/Admin/Rejected/ = http://localhost:3576/Request/{role}/{action}/{id} Everything works great but i have a javascript error: Webpage error details User Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 5.1; Trident/4.0; .NET CLR 1.1.4322; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.0.04506.30; .NET CLR 3.0.04506.648; .NET CLR 3.5.21022; InfoPath.2; .NET CLR 3.0.4506.2152; .NET CLR 3.5.30729) Timestamp: Fri, 7 May 2010 13:35:54 UTC Message: Syntax error Line: 3 Char: 1 Code: 0 URI: http://localhost:3576/Request/Admin/Rejected/JScript1.js I think it's trying to route to the file where i stored my javascript functions. Any suggestion?

    Read the article

  • Postback not working with ASP.NET Routing (Validation of viewstate MAC failed)

    - by Robert
    Hi. I'm using the ASP.NET 3.5 SP1 System.Web.Routing with classic WebForms, as described in http://chriscavanagh.wordpress.com/2008/04/25/systemwebrouting-with-webforms-sample/ All works fine, I have custom SEO urls and even the postback works. But there is a case where the postback always fails and I get a: Validation of viewstate MAC failed. If this application is hosted by a Web Farm or cluster, ensure that configuration specifies the same validationKey and validation algorithm. AutoGenerate cannot be used in a cluster. Here is the scenario to reproduce the error: Create a standard webform mypage.aspx with a button Create a Route that maps "a/b/{id}" to "~/mypage.aspx" When you execute the site, you can navigate http://localhost:XXXX/a/b/something the page works. But when you press the button you get the error. The error doen't happen when the Route is just "a/{id}". It seems to be related to the number of sub-paths in the url. If there are at least 2 sub-paths the viewstate validation fails. You get the error even with EnableViewStateMac="false". Any ideas? Is it a bug? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Rails 3) Delete, Destory, and Routing

    - by Maximus S
    The problem is the code below <%= button_to t('.delete'), @post, :method => :delete, :class => :destroy %> My Post model has many relations that are dependent on delete. However, the code above will only remove the post, leaving its relations intact. The problem is that methods delete and destroy are different in that method delete doesn't instantiate the object. So I need to use "destroy" instead of "delete" my post. <%= button_to t('.delete'), @post, :method => :destroy %> gives me routing error. No route matches [POST] "/posts/2" <%= button_to t('.delete'), @post, Post.destroy(@post) %> deletes the post without clicking the button. Could anyone help me with this? UPDATE: application.js //= require jquery //= require jquery-ui //= require jquery_ujs //= require bootstrap-modal //= require bootstrap-typeahead //= require_tree . rake routes DELETE (/:locale)/posts/:id(.:format) posts#destroy Post model has_many :tag_links, :dependent => :destroy has_many :tags, :through => :tag_links Tag model has_many :tag_links, :dependent => :destroy has_many :posts, :through => :tag_links Problem: When I delete a post, all the tag_links are destroyed but tags still exist.

    Read the article

  • Extremely Difficult Problem with ASP.Net 4.0 WebForms app using Routing

    - by dudeNumber4
    I have a completed app running in a QA environment. Everything works fine under most circumstances. If you hit a plain URL (no identifying information in the URL), you see an intro page with a button (generated by an asp LinkButton control) that posts back and directs you to another page. The markup looks the same when it fails and when it doesn't. When such a URL is followed from, e.g., Word and the default browser is IE, the intro page loads fine, but clicking the button causes an error. When not debugging, this behavior occurs every time. While debugging, the error occurs only ~ 1 in 10 times (closing the browser instance and starting over every time). When the error occurs, the intro page Page_Load fires and IsPostBack is false. Somehow, instead of a post, a get is being issued. When I run fiddler to try to analyze the actual calls (can't use firebug because it never happens using Firefox), everything works every time. I don't know whether this issue has anything to do with routing, and I've no idea even what to look at next. The strange thing is, when I debug, the intro page doesn't fully load every time. Only about 1 in 3 times does it fully load even if I've just cleared browser cache. When I run it through fiddler, it fully loads and works fine every time.

    Read the article

  • Role of Microsoft certifications ADO.Net, ASP.Net, WPF, WCF and Career?

    - by Steve Johnson
    I am a Microsoft fan and .Net enthusiast. I want to align my career in the lines of current and future .Net technologies. I have an MCTS in ASP.Net 3.5. The question is about the continuation of certifications and my career growth and maybe a different job! I want to keep pace with future Microsoft .Net technologies. My current job however doesn't allow so.So i bid to do .Net based certifications to stay abreast with latest .Net technologies. My questions: What certifications should i follow next? I have MCTS .Net 3.5 WPF(Exam 70-502) and MCTS .Net 3.5 WCF(Exam 70-504) in my mind so that i can go for Silverlight development and seek jobs related to Silverlight development. What other steps i need to take in order to develop professional expertise in technologies such as WPF, WCF and Silverlight when my current employer is reluctant to shift to latest .Net technologies? I am sure that there are a lot of people of around here who are working with .Net technologies and they have industrial experience. I being a new comer and starter in my career need to take right decision and so i am seeking help from this community in guiding me to the right path. Expert replies are much appreciated and thanks in advance. Best Regards Steve.

    Read the article

  • When adding WCF service reference, configuration details are not added to web.config

    - by Mikey Cee
    Hi, I am trying to add a WCF service reference to my web application using VS2010. It seems to add OK, but the web.config is not updated, meaning I get a runtime exception: Could not find default endpoint element that references contract 'CoolService.CoolService' in the ServiceModel client configuration section. This might be because no configuration file was found for your application, or because no endpoint element matching this contract could be found in the client element. Obviously, because the service is not defined in my web.config. Steps to reproduce: Right click solution Add New Project ASP.NET Empty Web Application. Right click Service References in the new web app Add Service Reference. Enter address of my service and click Go. My service is visible in the left-hand Services section, and I can see all its operations. Type a namespace for my service. Click OK. The service reference is generated correctly, and I can open the Reference.cs file, and it all looks OK. Open the web.config file. It is still empty! <system.web> <compilation debug="true" targetFramework="4.0" /> </system.web> <system.serviceModel> <bindings /> <client /> </system.serviceModel> Why is this happening? It also happens with a console application, or any other project type I try. Any help? Here is the app.config from my WCF service: <?xml version="1.0"?> <configuration> <system.web> <compilation debug="true" /> </system.web> <!-- When deploying the service library project, the content of the config file must be added to the host's app.config file. System.Configuration does not support config files for libraries. --> <system.serviceModel> <services> <service name="CoolSQL.Server.WCF.CoolService"> <endpoint address="" binding="webHttpBinding" contract="CoolSQL.Server.WCF.CoolService" behaviorConfiguration="SilverlightFaultBehavior"> <identity> <dns value="localhost" /> </identity> </endpoint> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange" /> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress="http://localhost:8732/Design_Time_Addresses/CoolSQL.Server.WCF/CoolService/" /> </baseAddresses> </host> </service> </services> <behaviors> <endpointBehaviors> <behavior name="webBehavior"> <webHttp /> </behavior> <behavior name="SilverlightFaultBehavior"> <silverlightFaults /> </behavior> </endpointBehaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name=""> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="true" /> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="true" /> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> <bindings> <webHttpBinding> <binding name="DefaultBinding" bypassProxyOnLocal="true" useDefaultWebProxy="false" hostNameComparisonMode="WeakWildcard" sendTimeout="00:05:00" openTimeout="00:05:00" receiveTimeout="00:00:10" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647" transferMode="Streamed"> <readerQuotas maxArrayLength="2147483647" maxStringContentLength="2147483647" /> </binding> </webHttpBinding> </bindings> <extensions> <behaviorExtensions> <add name="silverlightFaults" type="CoolSQL.Server.WCF.SilverlightFaultBehavior, CoolSQL.Server.WCF" /> </behaviorExtensions> </extensions> <diagnostics> <messageLogging logEntireMessage="true" logMalformedMessages="false" logMessagesAtServiceLevel="true" logMessagesAtTransportLevel="false" maxMessagesToLog="3000" maxSizeOfMessageToLog="2000" /> </diagnostics> </system.serviceModel> <startup> <supportedRuntime version="v4.0" sku=".NETFramework,Version=v4.0" /> </startup> <system.diagnostics> <sources> <source name="System.ServiceModel.MessageLogging" switchValue="Information, ActivityTracing"> <listeners> <add name="messages" type="System.Diagnostics.XmlWriterTraceListener" initializeData="c:\messages.e2e" /> </listeners> </source> </sources> </system.diagnostics> </configuration>

    Read the article

  • Exposing BL as WCF service

    - by Oren Schwartz
    I'm working on a middle-tier project which encapsulates the business logic (uses a DAL layer, and serves a web application server [ASP.net]) of a product deployed in a LAN. The BL serves as a bunch of services and data objects that are invoked upon user action. At present times, the DAL acts as a separate application whereas the BL uses it, but is consumed by the web application as a DLL. Both the DAL and the web application are deployed on different servers inside organization, and since the BL DLL is consumed by the web application, it resides in the same server. The worst thing about exposing the BL as a DLL is that we lost track with what we expose. Deployment is not such a big issue since mostly, product versions are deployed together. Would you recommend migrating from DLL to WCF service? if so, why ? Do you know anyone who had a similar experience ?

    Read the article

  • Exposing BL as WCF service

    - by Oren Schwartz
    I'm working on a middle-tier project which encapsulates the business logic (uses a DAL layer, and serves a web application server [ASP.net]) of a product deployed in a LAN. The BL serves as a bunch of services and data objects that are invoked upon user action. At present times, the DAL acts as a separate application whereas the BL uses it, but is consumed by the web application as a DLL. Both the DAL and the web application are deployed on different servers inside organization, and since the BL DLL is consumed by the web application, it resides in the same server. The worst thing about exposing the BL as a DLL is that we lost track with what we expose. Deployment is not such a big issue since mostly, product versions are deployed together. Would you recommend migrating from DLL to WCF service? if so, why ? Do you know anyone who had a similar experience ? Thank you !

    Read the article

  • WCF Communication Problem

    - by vincpa
    Two separate servers, one is an IIS7 web application trying to connect to a WCF service on the other server. The initial connect always fails, sometimes the second, after that, everything works normal. What could be the cause of this problem? The exception that gets thrown is EndpointNotFoundException Could not connect to net.tcp://192.168.0.83/MgrService/Manager.svc. The connection attempt lasted for a time span of 00:00:21.0289348. TCP error code 10060: A connection attempt failed because the connected party did not properly respond after a period of time, or established connection failed because connected host has failed to respond 192.168.0.83:808.

    Read the article

  • Calling webservice from WCF service

    - by Balaji
    I am having an issue consuming a webservice (c#.net) from a WCF service. The error i am getting is EndPointNotFoundException "TCP error code 10061: No connection could be made because the target machine actively refused it" I wrote a unit test to check if i could send a request to the web service and it worked fine [The unit test is using the same binding configuration as my WCF service] The web service and WCF service (client) have basichttp binding. Did anyone had similar kind of issue calling a webservice from a WCF service? The service Model section is as follows <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="DataService" closeTimeout="00:05:00" openTimeout="00:05:00" receiveTimeout="00:10:00" sendTimeout="00:05:00" allowCookies="false" bypassProxyOnLocal="false" hostNameComparisonMode="StrongWildcard" maxBufferSize="65536" maxBufferPoolSize="524288" maxReceivedMessageSize="65536" messageEncoding="Text" textEncoding="utf-8" transferMode="Buffered" useDefaultWebProxy="true"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="32" maxStringContentLength="8192" maxArrayLength="16384" maxBytesPerRead="4096" maxNameTableCharCount="16384"/> <security mode="None"> <transport clientCredentialType="None" proxyCredentialType="None" realm=""/> <message clientCredentialType="UserName" algorithmSuite="Default"/> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint address="http://10.22.33.67/Service/DataService.asmx" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="DataService" contract="Service.DataService" name="DataService"/> </client> <services> <service name="TestToConsumeDataService.WCFHost.Service1" behaviorConfiguration="TestToConsumeDataService.WCFHost.Service1Behavior"> <!-- Service Endpoints --> <endpoint address="" binding="basicHttpBinding" contract="TestToConsumeDataService.WCFHost.IService1"> <!-- Upon deployment, the following identity element should be removed or replaced to reflect the identity under which the deployed service runs. If removed, WCF will infer an appropriate identity automatically. --> <identity> <dns value="localhost"/> </identity> </endpoint> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange"/> </service> </services> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="TestToConsumeDataService.WCFHost.Service1Behavior"> <!-- To avoid disclosing metadata information, set the value below to false and remove the metadata endpoint above before deployment --> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="true"/> <!-- To receive exception details in faults for debugging purposes, set the value below to true. Set to false before deployment to avoid disclosing exception information --> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="false"/> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> </system.serviceModel> The unit test project is also using the same service model section and it works. The only issue is while calling the service from another WCF service. Could you please suggest.

    Read the article

  • How do I setup routing for 2 companies with different Internet connections on the same LAN?

    - by Clint Miller
    Here's the setup: 2 companies (A & B) share office space and a LAN. A 2nd ISP is brought in and company A wants it's own Internet connection (ISP A) and company B wants it's own Internet connection (ISP B). VLANs are deployed internally to separate the 2 company's networks (company A: VLAN 1, company B: VLAN 2, shared VOIP: VLAN 3). With separate VLANs it's simple enough to use separate DHCP servers (or separate scopes on the same server) to assign the default gateway to each company's gateway for their Internet connection. Static routes can be created on each gateway to point traffic destined for the other company's VLAN or the voice VLAN so that all nodes are reachable as expected. However, I think this is a form of asymmetrical routing, right? (The path from node A1 to node B1 is not the same as the path back from node B1 to node A1). Can I setup policy-based routing to correct this? In that case, can I assign the same default gateway to every device on all VLANs and create a routing policy on a L3 switch to look at the source address and forward traffic to the appropriate next hop? In that case, I want the routing logic to go like this: If the destination address is known, forward the traffic (traffic destined for a different VLAN). If the destination address is unknown, forward the traffic to ISP A's gateway if the source address is on VLAN A; or forward the traffic to ISP B's gateway if the source address is VLAN B. Am I thinking about this problem in the correct way? Is there another way to solve this problem that I am overlooking?

    Read the article

  • How do I setup routing for two companies with different Internet connections on the same LAN?

    - by Clint Miller
    Here's the setup: Two companies (A & B) share office space and a LAN. A 2nd ISP is brought in and company A wants its own Internet connection (ISP A) and company B wants its own Internet connection (ISP B). VLANs are deployed internally to separate the two companies' networks (company A: VLAN 1, company B: VLAN 2, shared VOIP: VLAN 3). With separate VLANs it's simple enough to use separate DHCP servers (or separate scopes on the same server) to assign the default gateway to each company's gateway for their Internet connection. Static routes can be created on each gateway to point traffic destined for the other company's VLAN or the voice VLAN so that all nodes are reachable as expected. However, I think this is a form of asymmetrical routing, right? (The path from node A1 to node B1 is not the same as the path back from node B1 to node A1). Can I set up policy-based routing to correct this? In that case, can I assign the same default gateway to every device on all VLANs and create a routing policy on a L3 switch to look at the source address and forward traffic to the appropriate next hop? In that case, I want the routing logic to go like this: If the destination address is known, forward the traffic (traffic destined for a different VLAN). If the destination address is unknown, forward the traffic to ISP A's gateway if the source address is on VLAN A; or forward the traffic to ISP B's gateway if the source address is VLAN B. Am I thinking about this problem in the correct way? Is there another way to solve this problem that I am overlooking?

    Read the article

  • Polymorphic urls with singular resources

    - by Brendon Muir
    I'm getting strange output when using the following routing setup: resources :warranty_types do resources :decisions end resource :warranty_review, :only => [] do resources :decisions end I have many warranty_types but only one warranty_review (thus the singular route declaration). The decisions are polymorphically associated with both. I have just a single decisions controller and a single _form.html.haml partial to render the form for a decision. This is the view code: = simple_form_for @decision, :url => [@decision_tree_owner, @decision.becomes(Decision)] do |form| The warranty_type url looks like this (for a new decision): /warranty_types/2/decisions whereas the warranty_review url looks like this: /admin/warranty_review/decisions.1 I think because the warranty_review id has no where to go, it's just getting appended to the end as an extension. Can someone explain what's going on here and how I might be able to fix it? I can work around it by trying to detect for a warranty_review class and substituting @decision_tree_owner with :warranty_review and this generates the correct url, but this is messy. I would have thought that the routing would be smart enough to realise that warranty_review is a singular resource and thus discard the id from the URL. This is Rails 3 by the way :)

    Read the article

  • Can I create a custom roleprovider through a WCF service?

    - by RJ
    I have a web application that accesses a database through a wcf service. The idea is to abstract the data from the web application using the wcf service. All that works fine but I am also using the built in roleprovider using the SqlRoleManager which does access the aspnetdb database directly. I would like to abstract the roleprovider by creating a custom roleprovider in a wcf service and then accessing it through the wcf service. I have created the custom role provider and it works fine but now I need to place it in a wcf service. So before I jump headlong into trying to get this to work through the WCF service, I created a second class in the web application that accessed the roleprovider class and changed my web config roleprovider parameters to use that class. So my roleprovider class is called, "UcfCstRoleProvider" and my web.config looks like this: <roleManager enabled="true" defaultProvider="UcfCstRoleProvider"> <providers> <add name="UcfCstRoleProvider" type="Ucf.Security.Wcf.WebTests.UcfCstRoleProvider, Ucf.Security.Wcf.WebTests" connectionStringName="SqlRoleManagerConnection" applicationName="SMTP" /> </providers> </roleManager> My class starts like this: public class UcfCstRoleProvider : RoleProvider { private readonly WindowsTokenRoleProvider _roleProxy = new WindowsTokenRoleProvider(); public override string ApplicationName { get { return _roleProxy.ApplicationName; } set { _roleProxy.ApplicationName = value; } } As I said, this works fine. So the second class is called BlRoleProvider that has identical properties and parameters as the roleprovide but does not implement RoleProvider. I changed the web.config to point to this class like this: <roleManager enabled="true" defaultProvider="BlRoleProvider"> <providers> <add name="UcfCstRoleProvider" type="Ucf.Security.Wcf.WebTests.BlRoleProvider, Ucf.Security.Wcf.WebTests" connectionStringName="SqlRoleManagerConnection" applicationName="SMTP" /> </providers> </roleManager> But I get this error. "Provider must implement the class 'System.Web.Security.RoleProvider'." I hope I have explained well enough to show what I am trying to do. If I can get the roleprovider to work through another class in the same application, I am sure it will work through the WCF service but how do I get past this error? Or maybe I took a wrong turn and there is a better way to do what I want to do??

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31  | Next Page >