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  • Soapui & populating database before

    - by mada
    SoapUi & database data needed Hi, In a J2ee project( spring ws + hibernate +postgresql+maven 2 + tomcat),We have created webservices with full crud operations. We are currently testing them with SoapUi (not yet integrated in the integration-test maven phase ). We need tomcat to test them. Actually before the phase test, with a maven plugin, only one time, some datas are injected in the database before the launch of all tests through many sql files. But the fact is that to test some webservices i need some data entry & their Id (primary key) A- What is the best way to create them ? 1- populate one of the previous .sql test file. But now we have a big dependency where i have to be careful to use the same id use in a insert in the sql file in SoapUi too. And if any developper drop the value, the test will broke. 2- create amongst the .sql file test a soapui.sql where ALL data needed for the Sopaui test will be concentrated. The advantage is that the maintenance will be much more easy. 3-because i have Ws available for all crud operations, i can create before any testsuite a previous testsuite called setup-testsuiteX. In this one, i will use those Ws to inject datas in the databse & save id in variables thanks to the feature "property transfer" 4-launch the soapui test xml file with a junit java test & in the Setup Method (we are using spring test), we will populate the database with DbUnit. Drawback: they are already data in the database & some conflicts may appear due to constraint.And now i have a dependency between: - dbUnit Xml file (with the value primary key) - sopaui test where THOSe value of primarykey will be used advantage: A automatic rollback is possible for DbUnit Data but i dont know how it will react because those data have been used with the Ws. 5- your suggestion ? better idea ? Testing those Ws create datas in the DB. How is the best way to remove them at the end ? (in how daostest we were using a automatic rollback with spring test to let the database clean) Thanks in advance for your hep & sorry for my english, it is not my mother thongue. Regards.

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  • How to insert a DataTable with existing Key to a SQL Server Table.

    - by user296575
    I am working with VB.NET.. i have a DataTable called "QUESTION", containing 3 fields: QuestionNumber (unique integer key) QuestionText QuestionType In my SQL Server database I created a Table called "QUESTION" with the same fields. QuestionNumber is defined as integer unique key, auto increment Now, when i make a bulk copy to insert the DataTable into the SQL Server, the database overwrites my QuestionNumber from the DataTable and generates new ones (starting from 1 increment 1). How do i have to change my database setup, that the original QuestionNumbers are copied into the database?

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  • operator+ overload returning object causing memory leaks, C++

    - by lampshade
    The problem i think is with returing an object when i overload the + operator. I tried returning a reference to the object, but doing so does not fix the memory leak. I can comment out the two statements: dObj = dObj + dObj2; and cObj = cObj + cObj2; to free the program of memory leaks. Somehow, the problem is with returning an object after overloading the + operator. #include <iostream> #include <vld.h> using namespace std; class Animal { public : Animal() {}; virtual void eat() = 0 {}; virtual void walk() = 0 {}; }; class Dog : public Animal { public : Dog(const char * name, const char * gender, int age); Dog() : name(NULL), gender(NULL), age(0) {}; virtual ~Dog(); Dog operator+(const Dog &dObj); private : char * name; char * gender; int age; }; class MyClass { public : MyClass() : action(NULL) {}; void setInstance(Animal &newInstance); void doSomething(); private : Animal * action; }; Dog::Dog(const char * name, const char * gender, int age) : // allocating here, for data passed in ctor name(new char[strlen(name)+1]), gender(new char[strlen(gender)+1]), age(age) { if (name) { size_t length = strlen(name) +1; strcpy_s(this->name, length, name); } else name = NULL; if (gender) { size_t length = strlen(gender) +1; strcpy_s(this->gender, length, gender); } else gender = NULL; if (age) { this->age = age; } } Dog::~Dog() { delete name; delete gender; age = 0; } Dog Dog::operator+(const Dog &dObj) { Dog d; d.age = age + dObj.age; return d; } void MyClass::setInstance(Animal &newInstance) { action = &newInstance; } void MyClass::doSomething() { action->walk(); action->eat(); } int main() { MyClass mObj; Dog dObj("Scruffy", "Male", 4); // passing data into ctor Dog dObj2("Scooby", "Male", 6); mObj.setInstance(dObj); // set the instance specific to the object. mObj.doSomething(); // something happens based on which object is passed in dObj = dObj + dObj2; // invoke the operator+ return 0; }

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  • jQuery.extend() not giving deep copy of object formed by constructor

    - by two7s_clash
    I'm trying to use this to clone a complicated Object. The object in question has a property that is an array of other Objects, and each of these have properties of different types, mostly primitives, but a couple further Objects and Arrays. For example, an ellipsed version of what I am trying to clone: var asset = new Assets(); function Assets() { this.values = []; this.sectionObj = Section; this.names = getNames; this.titles = getTitles; this.properties = getProperties; ... this.add = addAsset; function AssetObj(assetValues) { this.name = ""; this.title = ""; this.interface = ""; ... this.protected = false; this.standaloneProtected = true; ... this.chaptersFree = []; this.chaptersUnavailable = []; ... this.mediaOptions = { videoWidth: "", videoHeight: "", downloadMedia: true, downloadMediaExt: "zip" ... } this.chaptersAvailable = []; if (typeof assetValues == "undefined") { return; } for (var name in assetValues) { if (typeof assetValues[name] == "undefined") { this[name] = ""; } else { this[name] = assetValues[name]; } } ... function Asset() { return new AssetObj(); } ... function getProperties() { var propertiesArray = new Array(); for (var property in this.values[0]) { propertiesArray.push(property); } return propertiesArray; } ... function addAsset(assetValues) { var newValues; newValues = new AssetObj(assetValues); this.values.push(newValues); } } When I do var copiedAssets = $.extend(true, {}, assets); copiedAssets.values == [], while assets.values == [Object { name="section_intro", more...}, Object { name="select_textbook", more...}, Object { name="quiz", more...}, 11 more...] When I do var copiedAssets = $.extend( {}, assets); all copiedAssets.values.[X].properties are just pointers to the value in assets. What I want is a true deep copy all the way down. What am I missing? Do I need to write a custom extend function? If so, any recommended patterns?

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  • Cannot figure out how to take in generic parameters for an Enterprise Framework library sql statemen

    - by KallDrexx
    I have written a specialized class to wrap up the enterprise library database functionality for easier usage. The reasoning for using the Enterprise Library is because my applications commonly connect to both oracle and sql server database systems. My wrapper handles both creating connection strings on the fly, connecting, and executing queries allowing my main code to only have to write a few lines of code to do database stuff and deal with error handling. As an example my ExecuteNonQuery method has the following declaration: /// <summary> /// Executes a query that returns no results (e.g. insert or update statements) /// </summary> /// <param name="sqlQuery"></param> /// <param name="parameters">Hashtable containing all the parameters for the query</param> /// <returns>The total number of records modified, -1 if an error occurred </returns> public int ExecuteNonQuery(string sqlQuery, Hashtable parameters) { // Make sure we are connected to the database if (!IsConnected) { ErrorHandler("Attempted to run a query without being connected to a database.", ErrorSeverity.Critical); return -1; } // Form the command DbCommand dbCommand = _database.GetSqlStringCommand(sqlQuery); // Add all the paramters foreach (string key in parameters.Keys) { if (parameters[key] == null) _database.AddInParameter(dbCommand, key, DbType.Object, null); else _database.AddInParameter(dbCommand, key, DbType.Object, parameters[key].ToString()); } return _database.ExecuteNonQuery(dbCommand); } _database is defined as private Database _database;. Hashtable parameters are created via code similar to p.Add("@param", value);. the issue I am having is that it seems that with enterprise library database framework you must declare the dbType of each parameter. This isn't an issue when you are calling the database code directly when forming the paramters but doesn't work for creating a generic abstraction class such as I have. In order to try and get around that I thought I could just use DbType.Object and figure the DB will figure it out based on the columns the sql is working with. Unfortunately, this is not the case as I get the following error: Implicit conversion from data type sql_variant to varchar is not allowed. Use the CONVERT function to run this query Is there any way to use generic parameters in a wrapper class or am I just going to have to move all my DB code into my main classes?

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  • Should Databases be used just for persistence

    - by Raju
    A lot of web applications having a 3 tier architecture are doing all the processing in the app server and use the database for persistence just to have database independence. After paying a huge amount for a database, doing all the processing including batch at the app server and not using the power of the database seems to be a waste. I have a difficulty in convincing people that we need to use best of both worlds.

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  • Schema to support dynamic properties

    - by Johan Fredrik Varen
    Hi people. I'm working on an editor that enables its users to create "object" definitions in real-time. A definition can contain zero or more properties. A property has a name a type. Once a definition is created, a user can create an object of that definition and set the property values of that object. So by the click of a mouse-button, the user should ie. be able to create a new definition called "Bicycle", and add the property "Size" of type "Numeric". Then another property called "Name" of type "Text", and then another property called "Price" of type "Numeric". Once that is done, the user should be able to create a couple of "Bicycle" objects and fill in the "Name" and "Price" property values of each bike. Now, I've seen this feature in several software products, so it must be a well-known concept. My problem started when I sat down and tried to come up with a DB schema to support this data structure, because I want the property values to be stored using the appropriate column types. Ie. a numeric property value is stored as, say, an INT in the database, and a textual property value is stored as VARCHAR. First, I need a table that will hold all my object definitions: Table obj_defs id | name | ---------------- 1 | "Bicycle" | 2 | "Book" | Then I need a table for holding what sort of properties each object definition should have: Table prop_defs id | obj_def_id | name | type | ------------------------------------ 1 | 1 | "Size" | ? | 2 | 1 | "Name" | ? | 3 | 1 | "Price" | ? | 4 | 2 | "Title" | ? | 5 | 2 | "Author" | ? | 6 | 2 | "ISBN" | ? | I would also need a table that holds each object: Table objects id | created | updated | ------------------------------ 1 | 2011-05-14 | 2011-06-15 | 2 | 2011-05-14 | 2011-06-15 | 3 | 2011-05-14 | 2011-06-15 | Finally, I need a table that will hold the actual property values of each object, and one solution is for this table to have one column for each possible value type, such as this: Table prop_vals id | prop_def_id | object_id | numeric | textual | boolean | ------------------------------------------------------------ 1 | 1 | 1 | 27 | | | 2 | 2 | 1 | | "Trek" | | 3 | 3 | 1 | 1249 | | | 4 | 1 | 2 | 26 | | | 5 | 2 | 2 | | "GT" | | 6 | 3 | 2 | 159 | | | 7 | 4 | 3 | | "It" | | 8 | 5 | 3 | | "King" | | 9 | 6 | 4 | 9 | | | If I implemented this schema, what would the "type" column of the prop_defs table hold? Integers that each map to a column name, varchars that simply hold the column name? Any other possibilities? Would a stored procedure help me out here in some way? And what would the SQL for fetching the "name" property of object 2 look like?

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  • data to be saved in SQLite and want to retrive data from there

    - by Mona
    In android, is it possible that we insert our database in SQLite and get back that data on our EditText boxes. I want to get data from database and populate it in my application activity. How can i do that. I want to save, update and delete my database in SQLite and most important i want to get data from database that is saved in SQLite tables. How can it be possible. Kindly guide. I will be thankfull to you

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  • How optimize queries with fully qualified names in t-sql?

    - by tomaszs
    Whe I call: select * from Database.dbo.Table where NAME = 'cat' It takes: 200 ms And when I change database to Database in Management Studio and call it without fully qualified name it's much faster: select * from Table where NAME = 'cat' It takes: 17 ms Is there any way to make fully qualified queries faster without changing database?

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  • Object relationships

    - by Hammerstein
    This stems from a recent couple of posts I've made on events and memory management in general. I'm making a new question as I don't think the software I'm using has anything to do with the overall problem and I'm trying to understand a little more about how to properly manage things. This is ASP.NET. I've been trying to understand the needs for Dispose/Finalize over the past few days and believe that I've got to a stage where I'm pretty happy with when I should/shouldn't implement the Dispose/Finalize. 'If I have members that implement IDisposable, put explicit calls to their dispose in my dispose method' seems to be my understanding. So, now I'm thinking maybe my understanding of object lifetimes and what holds on to what is just wrong! Rather than come up with some sample code that I think will illustrate my point, I'm going to describe as best I can actual code and see if someone can talk me through it. So, I have a repository class, in it I have a DataContext that I create when the repository is created. I implement IDisposable, and when my calling object is done, I call Dispose on my repository and explicitly call DataContext.Dispose( ). Now, one of the methods of this class creates and returns a list of objects that's handed back to my front end. Front End - Controller - Repository - Controller - Front End. (Using Redgate Memory Profiler, I take a snapshot of my software when the page is first loaded). My front end creates a controller object on page load and then makes a request to the repository sending back a list of items. When the page is finished loading, I call Dispose on the controller which in turn calls dispose on the context. In my mind, that should mean that my connection is closed and that I have no instances of my controller class. If I then refresh the page, it jumps to two 'Live' instances of the controller class. If I look at the object retention graph, the objects I created in my call to the list are being held onto ultimately by what looks like Linq. The controller/repository aside, if I create a list of objects somewhere, or I create an object and return it somewhere, am I safe to just assume that .NET will eventually come and clean things up for me or is there a best practice? The 'Live' instances suggest to me that these are still in memory and active objects, the fact that RMP apparently forces GC doesn't mean anything?

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  • Entity Framework: An object with the same key already exists in the objectstatemanager

    - by NealR
    I see that this question has been asked a lot, however I haven't found anything yet that solves the problem I'm having. Obviously i'm using the Entity Framework to perform an update to a record. Once the updates are complete, however, whenever I try to save I get the following error message: An object with the same key already exists in the objectstatemanager At first I was passing in a collection object from the view that contained a copy of the the ZipCodeTerritory model object zipToUpdate. I changed the code by pulling this object out and just sending in the relevant fields instead. However, I'm still getting the same error. What's also weird is the first time I run this code, it works fine. Any attempt after that I get the error. Controller Here is the code from the method calling the edit function public static string DescriptionOnly(ZipCodeIndex updateZip) { if (!string.IsNullOrWhiteSpace(updateZip.newEffectiveDate) || !string.IsNullOrWhiteSpace(updateZip.newEndDate)) { return "Neither effective or end date can be present if updating Territory Code only; "; } _updated = 0; foreach (var zipCode in updateZip.displayForPaging.Where(x => x.Update)) { ProcessAllChanges(zipCode, updateZip.newTerritory, updateZip.newStateCode, updateZip.newDescription, updateZip.newChannelCode); } _msg += _updated + " record(s) updated; "; return _msg; } And here is the method that actually does the updating. private static void ProcessAllChanges(ZipCodeTerritory zipToUpdate, string newTerritory, string newStateCode, string newDescription, string newChannelCode) { try { if (!string.IsNullOrWhiteSpace(newTerritory)) zipToUpdate.IndDistrnId = newTerritory; if (!string.IsNullOrWhiteSpace(newStateCode)) zipToUpdate.StateCode = newStateCode; if (!string.IsNullOrWhiteSpace(newDescription)) zipToUpdate.DrmTerrDesc = newDescription; if (!string.IsNullOrWhiteSpace(newChannelCode)) zipToUpdate.ChannelCode = newChannelCode; if (zipToUpdate.EndDate == DateTime.MinValue) zipToUpdate.EndDate = DateTime.MaxValue; _db.Entry(zipToUpdate).State = EntityState.Modified; _db.SaveChanges(); _updated++; } catch (DbEntityValidationException dbEx) { _msg += "Error during update; "; EventLog.WriteEntry("Monet", "Error during ProcessAllChanges: " + zipToUpdate.ToString() + " |EX| " + dbEx.Message); } catch (Exception ex) { _msg += "Error during update; "; EventLog.WriteEntry("Monet", "Error during ProcessAllChanges: " + zipToUpdate.ToString() + " |MESSAGE| " + ex.Message); } } EDIT The ZipCodeIndex object contains a list of ZipCodeTerritory model objects. These aren't being pulled from a linq query, but instead simply passed back to the controller from the view. Here is the signature of the controller method that starts the process: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Update(ZipCodeIndex updateZip, string button)

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  • Varnish cached 'MISS status' object?

    - by Hesey
    My site uses nginx, varnish, jboss. And some url will be cached by varnish, it depends a response header from jboss. The first time, jboss tells varnish doesn't cache this url. Then the second request, jboss tells varnish to cache, but varnish won't cache it. I used varnishstat and found that 1 object is cached in Varnish, is that the 'MISS status' object? I remove grace code and the problem still exists. When I PURGE this url, varnish works fine and cache the url then. But I can't PURGE so much urls every startup time, how can I fix this? The configuration: acl local { "localhost"; } backend default { .host = "localhost"; .port = "8080"; .probe = { .url = "/preload.htm"; .interval = 3s; .timeout = 1s; .window = 5; .threshold = 3; } } sub vcl_deliver { if (req.request == "PURGE") { remove resp.http.X-Varnish; remove resp.http.Via; remove resp.http.Age; remove resp.http.Content-Type; remove resp.http.Server; remove resp.http.Date; remove resp.http.Accept-Ranges; remove resp.http.Connection; set resp.http.keeplive="true"; } else { if (obj.hits > 0) { set resp.http.X-Cache = "HIT"; } else { set resp.http.X-Cache = "MISS"; } } } sub vcl_recv { if(req.url ~ "/check.htm"){ error 404 "N"; } if( req.http.host ~ "store." || req.request == "POST"){ return (pipe); } if (req.backend.healthy) { set req.grace = 30s; } else { set req.grace = 10m; } set req.http.x-cacheKey = "0"; if(req.url ~ "/shop/view_shop.htm" || req.url ~ "/shop/viewShop.htm" || req.url ~ "/index.htm"){ if(req.url ~ "search=y"){ set req.http.x-cacheKey = req.http.host + "/search.htm"; }else if(req.url !~ "bbs=y" && req.url !~ "shopIntro=y" && req.url !~ "shop_intro=y"){ set req.http.x-cacheKey = req.http.host + "/index.htm"; } }else if(req.url ~ "/search"){ set req.http.x-cacheKey = req.http.host + "/search.htm"; } if( req.http.x-cacheKey == "0" && req.url !~ "/i/"){ return (pipe); } if (req.request == "PURGE") { if (client.ip ~ local) { return (lookup); } else { error 405 "Not allowed."; } } if (req.url ~ "/i/") { set req.http.x-shop-url = req.original_url; }else { unset req.http.cookie; } } sub vcl_fetch { set beresp.grace = 10m; #unset beresp.http.x-cacheKey; if (req.url ~ "/i/" || req.url ~ "status" ){ set beresp.ttl = 0s; /* ttl=0 for dynamic content */ } else if(beresp.http.x-varnish-cache != "1"){ set beresp.do_esi = true; /* Do ESI processing */ set beresp.ttl = 0s; unset beresp.http.set-cookie; } else { set beresp.do_esi = true; /* Do ESI processing */ set beresp.ttl = 1800s; unset beresp.http.set-cookie; } } sub vcl_hash { hash_data(req.http.x-cacheKey); return (hash); } sub vcl_error { if (req.request == "PURGE") { return (deliver); } else { set obj.http.Content-Type = "text/html; charset=gbk"; synthetic {"<!--ve-->"}; return (deliver); } } sub vcl_hit { if (req.request == "PURGE") { set obj.ttl = 0s; error 200 "Purged."; } } sub vcl_miss { if (req.request == "PURGE") { error 404 "N"; } }

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  • Help! The log file for database 'tempdb' is full. Back up the transaction log for the database to fr

    - by michael.lukatchik
    We're running SQL Server 2000. In our database, we have an "Orders" table with approximately 750,000 rows. We can perform simple SELECT statements on this table. However, when we want to run a query like SELECT TOP 100 * FROM Orders ORDER BY Date_Ordered DESC, we receive the following message: Error: 9002, Severity: 17, State: 6 The log file for database 'tempdb' is full. Back up the transaction log for the database to free up some log space. We have other tables in our database which are similar in size of the amount of records that are in the tables (i.e. 700,000 records). On these tables, we can run any queries we'd like and we never receive a message about 'tempdb being full'. To resolve this, we've backed up our database, shrunk the actual database and also shrunk the database and files in the tempdb system database, but this hasn't resolved the issue. The size of our log file is set to autogrow. We're not sure where to go next. Are there any ideas why we still might be receiving this message? Error: 9002, Severity: 17, State: 6 The log file for database 'tempdb' is full. Back up the transaction log for the database to free up some log space.

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  • compareTo() method java is acting weird

    - by Ron Paul
    hi im having trouble getting this to work im getting an error here with my object comparison...how could I cast the inches to a string ( i never used compare to with anything other than strings) , or use comparison operators to compare the intigers, Object comparison = this.inches.compareTo(obj.inches); here is my code so far import java.io.*; import java.util.*; import java.lang.Integer; import java.lang.reflect.Array; public class Distance implements Comparable<Distance> { private static final String HashCodeUtil = null; private int feet; private int inches; private final int DEFAULT_FT = 1; private final int DEFAULT_IN = 1; public Distance(){ feet = DEFAULT_FT; inches = DEFAULT_IN; } public Distance(int ft, int in){ feet = ft; inches = in; } public void setFeet(int ft){ try { if(ft<0){ throw new CustomException("Distance is not negative"); } } catch(CustomException c){ System.err.println(c); feet =ft; } } public int getFeet(){ return feet; } public void setInches(int in){ try { if (in<0) throw new CustomException("Distance is not negative"); //inches = in; } catch(CustomException c) { System.err.println(c); inches = in; } } public int getInches(){ return inches; } public String toString (){ return "<" + feet + ":" + inches + ">"; } public Distance add(Distance m){ Distance n = new Distance(); n.inches = this.inches + m.inches; n.feet = this.feet + m.feet; while(n.inches>12){ n.inches = n.inches - 12; n.feet++; } return n; } public Distance subtract(Distance f){ Distance m = new Distance(); m.inches = this.inches - f.inches; m.feet = this.feet - f.feet; while(m.inches<0){ m.inches = m.inches - 12; feet--; } return m; } @Override public int compareTo(Distance obj) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub final int BEFORE = -1; final int EQUAL = 0; final int AFTER = 1; if (this == obj) return EQUAL; if(this.DEFAULT_IN < obj.DEFAULT_FT) return BEFORE; if(this.DEFAULT_IN > obj.DEFAULT_FT) return AFTER; Object comparison = this.inches.compareTo(obj.inches); if (this.inches == obj.inches) return compareTo(null); assert this.equals(obj) : "compareTo inconsistent with equals"; return EQUAL; } @Override public boolean equals( Object obj){ if (obj != null) return false; if (!(obj intanceof Distance)) return false; Distance that = (Distance)obj; ( this.feet == that.feet && this.inches == that.inches); return true; else return false; } @Override public int hashCode(int, int) { int result = HashCodeUtil.inches; result = HashCodeUtil.hash(result, inches ); result = HashCodeUtil.hash(result, feet); ruturn result; }

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  • SQLite Step Failed: attempt to write a readonly database , using wrapper

    - by user271753
    I keep getting an error "SQLite Step Failed: attempt to write a readonly database" when using this code to copy a database: -(void)createEditableCopyOfDatabaseIfNeeded { // Testing for existence BOOL success; NSFileManager *fileManager = [NSFileManager defaultManager]; NSError *error; NSArray *paths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDirectory = [paths objectAtIndex:0]; NSString *writableDBPath = [documentsDirectory stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"Money.sqlite"]; success = [fileManager fileExistsAtPath:writableDBPath]; if (success) return; // The writable database does not exist, so copy the default to // the appropriate location. NSString *defaultDBPath = [[[NSBundle mainBundle] resourcePath] stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"Money.sqlite"]; success = [fileManager copyItemAtPath:defaultDBPath toPath:writableDBPath error:&error]; if(!success) { NSAssert1(0,@"Failed to create writable database file with Message : '%@'.", [error localizedDescription]); } } I am using the above code in AppDelegate and this: NSString *writableDBPath = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"Money" ofType:@"sqlite"]; In ViewController.m I am using http://th30z.netsons.org/2008/11/objective-c-sqlite-wrapper/ what am I doing wrong? This is happening again and again... It was working fine before but again the problem started.

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  • Pass object to dynamically loaded ListView ItemTemplate

    - by mickyjtwin
    I have been following the following post on using multiple ItemTemplates in a ListView control. While following this example does produce output, I am trying ot figure out how to psas an object through to the ItemTemplate's user control, which I do not seem to be able to do/figure out. protected void lvwComments_OnItemCreated(object sender, ListViewItemEventArgs e) { ListViewDataItem currentItem = (e.Item as ListViewDataItem); Comment comment = (Comment)currentItem.DataItem; if (comment == null) return; string controlPath = string.Empty; switch (comment.Type) { case CommentType.User: controlPath = "~/layouts/controls/General Comment.ascx"; break; case CommentType.Official: controlPath = "~/layouts/controls/Official Comment.ascx"; break; } lvwComments.ItemTemplate = LoadTemplate(Controlpath); } The User Control is as follows: public partial class OfficialComment : UserControl { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { } } In the example, the values are being output in the ascx page: <%# Eval("ItemName") %> however I need to access the ListItem in this control to do other logic. I cannot figure out how I to send through my Comment item. The sender object and EventArgs do not contain the info.

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  • publishing asp.net website give "Object reference not set to an instance of an object." error

    - by Johan
    Good day I am using VS 2008 I am getting fed up with this error. I have search all over the web and tried every possible suggestion to this error I could find. 1. delete app_code, build, add files back, publish. (did not work) 2. delete temporary asp.net files (did not work) in the end I even tried the command line and get the following stacktrace. error ASPRUNTIME: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. [NullReferenceException]: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at System.Web.Compilation.BuildManager.CopyPrecompiledFile(VirtualFile vfile, String destPhysicalPath) at System.Web.Compilation.BuildManager.CopyStaticFilesRecursive(VirtualDirect ory sourceVdir, String destPhysicalDir, Boolean topLevel) at System.Web.Compilation.BuildManager.CopyStaticFilesRecursive(VirtualDirect ory sourceVdir, String destPhysicalDir, Boolean topLevel) at System.Web.Compilation.BuildManager.CopyStaticFilesRecursive(VirtualDirect ory sourceVdir, String destPhysicalDir, Boolean topLevel) at System.Web.Compilation.BuildManager.PrecompileAppInternal(VirtualPath star tingVirtualDir) at System.Web.Compilation.BuildManager.PrecompileApp(VirtualPath startingVirt ualDir) at System.Web.Compilation.BuildManager.PrecompileApp(ClientBuildManagerCallba ck callback) at System.Web.Compilation.BuildManagerHost.PrecompileApp(ClientBuildManagerCa llback callback) at System.Web.Compilation.BuildManagerHost.PrecompileApp(ClientBuildManagerCa llback callback) at System.Web.Compilation.ClientBuildManager.PrecompileApplication(ClientBuil dManagerCallback callback, Boolean forceCleanBuild) at System.Web.Compilation.ClientBuildManager.PrecompileApplication(ClientBuil dManagerCallback callback) at System.Web.Compilation.Precompiler.Main(String[] args) I used the following command line: aspnet_compiler.exe -p d:\code\websites\brokerweb -v / d:\code\websites\published -f -c -errorstack -u Please help as I cannot publish this site at all at present and it worked fine for quite a long time now before this stupid error. Regards Johan

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  • Using a Visual Sourcesafe 2005 database with VB6 still launches VSS 6.0d

    - by John Galt
    I know all versions of VSS have many horror stories and I feel I will escape to a better source control mechanism someday but in the short term I am just trying to do a little cleanup and would like your advice on this issue: Objective - consolidate old VB6 source code in a "new" VSS 2005 database (currently all these old projects are checked in to an "old" VSS 6.0d database); eventually, eliminate the "old" VSS. Progress so far - The new VSS 2005 database now contains a mixture of projects. Some are using Visual Studio 2008, some use Vstudio 2005, and the more recently added ones are the above mentioned VB6 projects. Individually all these projects and "solutions" come up OK, I can check in - check out, launch SourceSafe, view differences, etc. But all the VB6 projects now in a VSS 2005 database launch VSS 6.0d when asked, rather than VSS 2005. Is this normal and just something to cope with until I get to some better nonVSS approach? Or can VB6 be re-configured someway to launch VSS 2005 when I click Tools-SourceSafe-Run SourceSafe? I seem to recall VSS 6.0d got "integrated" into VB6 by way of the "Add-In Manager". At this point, the development PC with VB6 installed has both VSS 2005 and VSS 6.0d clients installed.

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  • flushing database cache in SWI-Prolog

    - by JPro
    We are using swi-prolog to run our testcases. Whenever the test starts, I am opening the connection to MYSQL database and storing the Name of the Test hat is being done and then closing the DB. These tests run for about 2 days continuously. After the tests are done, the results basically gets stored in folder in the server. There is a predicate in another prolog file that is called to update the results to the MYSQL database. The code is simple, I use odbc library and just call odbc_* predicates to connect and update the mysql by issuing direct queries. The actual problem is : If I try to call the Predicate from the same Prolog window, where the test just got completed, I get an error as updating to the DB server. Although I do not get any error in the connection. If I close the session of that prolog with halt and closing all the open prolog windows , then open an other complete new instance of Prolog and run the predicate the update goes well. I have a feeling that there is some connection reference to the MySQL DB in Prolog database. Is there any way to clear the database in prolog so that I can run the same predicate without closing any existing prolog windows? Any ideas appreciated. Thanks.

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  • not able to Deserialize xml into object

    - by Ravisha
    I am having following peice of code ,where in i am trying to serialize and deserailize object of StringResource class. Please note Resource1.stringXml = its coming from resource file.If i pass strelemet.outerXMl i get the object from Deserialize object ,but if i pass Resource1.stringXml i am getting following exception {"< STRING xmlns='' was not expected."} System.Exception {System.InvalidOperationException} class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { StringResource str = new StringResource(); str.DELETE = "CanDelete"; str.ID= "23342"; XmlElement strelemet = SerializeObjectToXmlNode (str); StringResource strResourceObject = DeSerializeXmlNodeToObject<StringResource>(Resource1.stringXml); Console.ReadLine(); } public static T DeSerializeXmlNodeToObject<T>(string objectNodeOuterXml) { try { TextReader objStringsTextReader = new StringReader(objectNodeOuterXml); XmlSerializer stringResourceSerializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(T),string.Empty); return (T)stringResourceSerializer.Deserialize(objStringsTextReader); } catch (Exception excep) { return default(T); } } public static XmlElement SerializeObjectToXmlNode(object obj) { using (MemoryStream memoryStream = new MemoryStream()) { try { XmlSerializerNamespaces xmlNameSpace = new XmlSerializerNamespaces(); xmlNameSpace.Add(string.Empty, string.Empty); XmlWriterSettings writerSettings = new XmlWriterSettings(); writerSettings.CloseOutput = false; writerSettings.Encoding = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8; writerSettings.Indent = false; writerSettings.OmitXmlDeclaration = true; XmlWriter writer = XmlWriter.Create(memoryStream, writerSettings); XmlSerializer xmlserializer = new XmlSerializer(obj.GetType()); xmlserializer.Serialize(writer, obj, xmlNameSpace); writer.Close(); memoryStream.Position = 0; XmlDocument serializeObjectDoc = new XmlDocument(); serializeObjectDoc.Load(memoryStream); return serializeObjectDoc.DocumentElement; } catch (Exception excep) { return null; } } } } public class StringResource { [XmlAttribute] public string DELETE; [XmlAttribute] public string ID; } < STRING ID="1" DELETE="True" /

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  • Data Binding to an object in C#

    - by Allen
    Objective-c/cocoa offers a form of binding where a control's properties (ie text in a textbox) can be bound to the property of an object. I am trying to duplicate this functionality in C# w/ .Net 3.5. I have created the following very simple class in the file MyClass.cs: class MyClass { private string myName; public string MyName { get { return myName; } set { myName = value; } } public MyClass() { myName = "Allen"; } } I also created a simple form with 1 textbox and 1 button. I init'd one instance of Myclass inside the form code and built the project. Using the DataSource Wizard in Vs2008, i selected to create a data source based on object, and selected the MyClass assembly. This created a datasource entity. I changed the databinding of the textbox to this datasource; however, the expected result (that the textbox's contents would be "allen") was not achieved. Further, putting text into the textbox is not updating the name property of the object. I know i'm missing something fundamental here. At some point i should have to tie my instance of the MyClass class that i initialized inside the form code to the textbox, but that hasn't occurred. Everything i've looked at online seems to gloss over using DataBinding with an object (or i'm missing the mark entirely), so any help is great appreciated. ----Edit--- Utilizing what i learned by the answers, i looked at the code generated by Visual Studio, it had the following: this.myClassBindingSource.DataSource = typeof(BindingTest.MyClass); if i comment that out and substitute : this.myClassBindingSource.DataSource = new MyClass(); i get the expected behavior. Why is the default code generated by VS like it is? Assuming this is more correct than the method that works, how should i modify my code to work within the bounds of what VS generated?

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  • Macro access to members of object where macro is defined

    - by Marc Grue
    Say I have a trait Foo that I instantiate with an initial value val foo = new Foo(6) // class Foo(i: Int) and I later call a second method that in turn calls myMacro foo.secondMethod(7) // def secondMethod(j: Int) = macro myMacro then, how can myMacro find out what my initial value of i (6) is? I didn't succeed with normal compilation reflection using c.prefix, c.eval(...) etc but instead found a 2-project solution: Project B: object CompilationB { def resultB(x: Int, y: Int) = macro resultB_impl def resultB_impl(c: Context)(x: c.Expr[Int], y: c.Expr[Int]) = c.universe.reify(x.splice * y.splice) } Project A (depends on project B): trait Foo { val i: Int // Pass through `i` to compilation B: def apply(y: Int) = CompilationB.resultB(i, y) } object CompilationA { def makeFoo(x: Int): Foo = macro makeFoo_impl def makeFoo_impl(c: Context)(x: c.Expr[Int]): c.Expr[Foo] = c.universe.reify(new Foo {val i = x.splice}) } We can create a Foo and set the i value either with normal instantiation or with a macro like makeFoo. The second approach allows us to customize a Foo at compile time in the first compilation and then in the second compilation further customize its response to input (i in this case)! In some way we get "meta-meta" capabilities (or "pataphysic"-capabilities ;-) Normally we would need to have foo in scope to introspect i (with for instance c.eval(...)). But by saving the i value inside the Foo object we can access it anytime and we could instantiate Foo anywhere: object Test extends App { import CompilationA._ // Normal instantiation val foo1 = new Foo {val i = 7} val r1 = foo1(6) // Macro instantiation val foo2 = makeFoo(7) val r2 = foo2(6) // "Curried" invocation val r3 = makeFoo(6)(7) println(s"Result 1 2 3: $r1 $r2 $r3") assert((r1, r2, r3) ==(42, 42, 42)) } My question Can I find i inside my example macros without this double compilation hackery?

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  • Problem with XML encoding of database contents with Latin characters

    - by user89691
    I have an ASP Access database that contains strings in various European languages. The database was populated prior by agents in the respective countries. It contains entries with accented etc characters as you would expect. If I open the database with MS Access these characters show up fine. For example the the German equivalent of "Open" shows as "Öffnen" (hopefully you can see an "O" with 2 dots above it!). I have ASP code that reads the database and returns records in XML. The text is passed to XMLEncode to construct the XML, but that only seems to deal with the 5 specials like "<", "&", etc. If I dump the XML the accented characters are unchanged. <English>Open</English> <German>Öffnen</German> If I look at the raw packets with Wireshark I see that the "Ö" byte is hex D6, which appears to be it's decimal Unicode and ISO 8859-1 value. The problem starts when I try to parse the XML in client-side JS. I get: "An invalid character was found in text content" from IE. FF and Chrome happily accept the XML without hiccup but the browser shows the "Ö" character as a diamond with a question mark inside. http://www.validome.org/xml/validate/ reports "encoding error." http://www.w3schools.com/dom/dom_validate.asp thinks it is fine. The XML is UTF-8 encoded. What do I need to do to have IE accept my XML without complaint? What do I need to do to have browsers display the stuff correctly?

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  • Accessing a com object's vtable in c#

    - by Martin Booth
    I'm attempting to access a com object's vtable in memory and getting nowhere. From what I have read, the first 4 bytes in memory of a com object should be a pointer to the vtableptr, which in turn is a pointer to the vtable. Although I'm not sure I expect to find my test method at slot 7 in this com object I have tried them all and nothing looks like the address of my function. If anyone can make the necessary changes to this sample to get it to work (the aim is just to try and invoke the Test method on the Tester class by accessing the com object's vtable and locating the method in whichever row it turns up) I would be very grateful. I know it is rare that anyone would need to do this, but please accept I do need to do something quite similar and have considered the alternatives Thanks in advance [ComVisible(true)] public class Tester { public void Test() { MessageBox.Show("Here"); } } public delegate void TestDelegate(); private void main() { Tester t = new Tester(); GCHandle objectHandle = GCHandle.Alloc(t); IntPtr objectPtr = GCHandle.ToIntPtr(objectHandle); IntPtr vTable = (IntPtr)Marshal.ReadInt32(objectPtr); IntPtr vTablePtr = (IntPtr)Marshal.ReadInt32(vTable); IntPtr functionPtr = (IntPtr)Marshal.ReadInt32(vTablePtr, 7 * 4); // 7 may be incorrect but i have tried many different values TestDelegate func = (TestDelegate)Marshal.GetDelegateForFunctionPointer(functionPtr, typeof(TestDelegate)); func(); objectHandle.Free(); }

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