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  • Amazon EC2 Nat Instance - goes out but not back in

    - by nocode
    I've followed Amazon's steps and list what I've done. I've created 6 subnets (4 private SN1: 10.50.1.0/24, SN2: 10.50.2.0/24, SN3: 10.50.3.0/24, SN4: 10.50.4.0/24) and 2 public (SN5: 10.50.101.0/24 and SN6: 10.50.102.0/24) -I have a Bastion host and a NAT instance on SN5 and assigned EIP's to both. I created a test instance on SN1. edit: -NAT instance has source/destination check disabled -On the NAT instance, I had enabled the following commands to be bootstrapped: echo 1 > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward iptables -t nat -A POSTROUTING -s 10.0.0.0/16 -j MASQUERADE -In my VPC, the private subnets have their own route table and configured 0.0.0.0/0 to the NAT instance with 4 subnets being associated with the route table. I have a second route table for my public subnets and 0.0.0.0/16 is pointed towards the IGW (with the other 2 subnets associated with it). -For Security Groups, I have the NAT instance accepting all traffic on each of the 4 subnets and all OUTBOUND traffic is allowed. For my test server, I have allowed all outbound access and have allowed all traffic from the public subnet of the NAT host. I can ping internally with no issues. On my test instance, if I try to ping google.com, DNS resolves however I don't get a reply back. On my NAT instance, I run a tcpdump and can see the request being requested to google.com but it's not sending the reply back. My NAT host can ping and receive a reply from google. From the test host, when I ping the NAT instance, the tcpdump shows a request and receive. Is there something I'm missing? EDIT: I've figured it out - I had to save the iptable config and restart the service.

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  • Apache going straight to 100% mem usage on localhost

    - by Dennis Pedrie
    Hi, I'm running XAMPP on a OS X testing server... I'm the only person sending requests to the server. I've never messed with Apache config before, so I'm kinda without a paddle here. When I start Apache, I get ~10 httpd processes started, and 95% idle CPU. When I request a WordPress page, the CPU usage goes to 50%, and the page loads in about five seconds. It seems like once the page has finished loading, the CPU usage jumps to 100%, almost all of that httpd. A ton of processes get started, and they don't go away, and their CPU usage stays the same. I've changed the MaxRequestPerChild setting and so forth, but nothing seems to solve the problem. Even now, having not send any requests for about 15 minutes, the CPU usage is at 100%. Here's the applicable settings: Timeout 10 KeepAlive On MaxKeepAliveRequests 0 KeepAliveTimeout 3 <IfModule mpm_prefork_module> StartServers 5 MinSpareServers 0 MaxSpareServers 2 MaxClients 20 MaxRequestsPerChild 50 </IfModule> I had always thought that once the request was made, Apache killed the process. Is there anything I can do to bring down the CPU usage, or is this just something I'll have to deal with? Thanks for helping out an Apache idiot.

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  • Cisco IOS BVI ACL: Only allow established UDP

    - by George Bailey
    Related: Cisco IOS ACL: Don't permit incoming connections just because they are from port 80 I know we can use the established keyword for TCP.. but what can we do for UDP (short of replacing a Bridge or BVI with a NAT)? Answer I found out what "UDP has no connection" means. DNS uses UDP for example.. named (DNS server) is lisenting on port 53 nslookup (DNS client) starts listening on some random port and sends a packet to port 53 of the server and notes the source port in that packet. nslookup will retry 3 times if necessary. Also the packets are so small that it does not have to worry about them coming in the wrong order. If nslookup receives a response on that port that comes from the servers IP and port then it stops listening. If the server tried to send two responses (for example a response and a response to the retry) then the server would not care if either of them made it because the client has the job to retry. In fact.. unless ICMP 3/3 packet gets through the server would not know about a failure. This is different from TCP where you get connection closed or timed out errors. DNS allows for an easy retry from the client as well as small packets.. so UDP is an excellent choice because it is more efficient. In UDP you would see nslookup sends request named sends answer In TCP you would see nslookup's machine sends SYN named's machine sends SYN-ACK nslookup's machine sends ACK and the request named's machine sends the response That is much more than is necessary for a tiny DNS packet

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  • There are currently no logon servers available

    - by Ian Robinson
    I am running a Windows 7 laptop that is joined to my company's domain. When I installed Windows 7, I created an account for myself, joined to the domain, and it had been working quite well even though I'm physically remote most of the time, and not actually on the network. However, today I created a new local user account (non-admin) for my little brother. While he was using it, he decided he wanted to install a program, because his account is not an admin, he was prompted to enter Administrator credentials to allow the program to make changes to his computer. I entered my credentials, and this is the first time I ran into the error message: There are currently no logon servers available to service the logon request. I tried logging off and loggin back in, rebooting, etc etc, and no matter what, every time I try to authenticate as my "normal" domain account - I get that message. I can no longer access my computer as an administrator. I no longer know how to log in to my machine using any other account aside from my little brother's non-admin account. I don't have any other local accounts created, and the default local admin account was never enabled. I'd appreciate any ideas on how I can recover access to my account. Let me know if I can provide any more information. FYI - This is a similar question but not sure any of the answers help me in my case. http://serverfault.com/questions/71632/there-are-currently-no-logon-servers-available-to-service-the-logon-request

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  • ipv6 reverse DNS delegation

    - by user1709492
    I currently have 2001:1973:2303::/48 assigned to me and i'll be assigning /64's to customer's I'd like to have 1 zonefile for the /48 where i can essentially point / redirect query to different nameservers. Example ( Desired effect ) 2001:1973:2303:1234::/64 -> ns1.example.com, ns2.example.com 2001:1973:2303:2345::/64 -> ns99.example2.com, ns100.example2.com 2001:1973:2303:4321::/64 -> ns1.cust1.com, ns2.cust1.com Current /48 zonefile $TTL 3h $ORIGIN 3.0.3.2.3.7.9.1.1.0.0.2.ip6.arpa. @ IN SOA ns3.example.ca. ns4.example.ca. ( 2011071030 ; serial 3h ; refresh after 3 hours 1h ; retry after 1 hour 1w ; expire after 1 week 1h ) ; negative caching TTL of 1 hour IN NS ns3.example.ca. IN NS ns4.example.ca. 1234 IN NS ns1.example.com. NS ns2.example.com. 2345 IN NS ns99.example2.com. NS ns100.example2.com. 4321 IN NS ns1.cust1.com. NS ns2.cust1.com. Where am i going wrong ? My request seems simple to me atleast. To put it in terms of firewalling i want to redirect traffic client queries 2001:1973:2303:4321::1 - ns3.example.ca sees the request and redirects the query to ns1.cust1.com - ns1.cust1.com answers the query with omg.itworks.ca ( provided ns1.cust1.com is properly configured.

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  • HELP PLEASE!!!! External component has thrown an exception. ASP.NET ASPX PAGE POST

    - by Brandon
    I have an aspx page that communicates with a webservice I have. It connects to an SQL Server database on my virtual dedicated server. With just a little usage, I get this error External component has thrown an exception. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Runtime.InteropServices.SEHException: External component has thrown an exception. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [SEHException (0x80004005): External component has thrown an exception.] Luxand.FSDK.Initialize(String DataFilesPath) +0 WebService.onLoad() +70 WebService..ctor() +91 facematch.btn_submit_Click(Object sender, EventArgs e) +218 System.Web.UI.WebControls.Button.OnClick(EventArgs e) +105 System.Web.UI.WebControls.Button.RaisePostBackEvent(String eventArgument) +107 System.Web.UI.WebControls.Button.System.Web.UI.IPostBackEventHandler.RaisePostBackEvent(String eventArgument) +7 System.Web.UI.Page.RaisePostBackEvent(IPostBackEventHandler sourceControl, String eventArgument) +11 System.Web.UI.Page.RaisePostBackEvent(NameValueCollection postData) +33 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +1746

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  • How browsers handle multiple IPs

    - by Sandman4
    Can someone direct me to information on exact browsers behavior when browser gets multiple A records for a given hostname (say ip1 and ip2), and one of them is not accessible. I interested in EXACT details, like (but not limited to): Will browser get 2 IPs from OS, or it will get only one ? Which ip will browser try first (random or always the first one) ? Now, let's say browser started with the failed ip1 For how long will browser try ip1 ? If user hits "stop" while it waits for ip1, and then clicks refresh which IP will browser try ? What will happen when it times-out - will it start trying ip2 or give error ? (And if error, which ip will browser try when user clicks refresh). When user clicks refresh, will any browser attempt new DNS lookup ? Now let's assume browser tried working ip2 first. For the next page request, will browser still use ip2, or it may randomly switch ips ? For how long browsers keep IPs in their cache ? When browsers sends a new DNS request, and get SAME ips, will it CONTINUE to use the same known-to-be-working IP, or the process starts from scratch and it may try any of the two ? Of course it all may be browser dependent, and may also vary between versions and platforms, I'd be happy to have maximum of details. The purpose of this - I'm trying to understand what exactly users will experience when round-robin DNS based used and one of the hosts fails. Please, I'm NOT asking about how bad DNS load balancing is, and please refrain from answering "don't do it", "it's a bad idea", "you need heartbeat/proxy/BGP/whatever" and so on.

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  • Firefox: Unload a tab manually

    - by unor
    Firefox has a setting "Don't load tabs until selected" (see How do I make Firefox 13 Load All My Tabs on Startup or when Resuming Reload). I like that behaviour. I am searching for a way to "deload"/deactivate a tab manually for a session (until I reload it). It should stop all running JavaScript functions and plugins (like Flash). The whole webpage content may disappear until I reload/re-activate the tab, but that is not a requirement. The title has to be displayed as tab label (like it is the case with the startup setting, too). The workaround would be to restart Firefox and don't switch to the tab I want to be deactivated. This is pretty annoying, of course. EDIT: Here is what I found so far (thanks, @bytebuster!) BarTab no longer being maintained (see why) BarTab Lite seems to miss this functionality from BarTab Dormancy experimental; comes with warning that it "may eat your session" Tab Mix Plus Feature request: Unload Tab feature Tab Utilites seems to offer this functionality only for automatic unloading Feature request: Add "unload tab" to tab context menu. UnloadTab removed from addons.mozilla.org (who knows why)

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  • Trouble with nginx and serving from multiple directories under the same domain

    - by Phase
    I have nginx setup to serve from /usr/share/nginx/html, and it does this fine. I also want to add it to serve from /home/user/public_html/map on the same domain. So: my.domain.com would get you the files in /usr/share/nginx/html my.domain.com/map would get you the files in /home/user/public_html/map With the below configuration (/etc/nginx/nginx.conf) it appears to be going to my.domain.com/map/map as noticed by this: 2011/03/12 09:50:26 [error] 2626#0: *254 "/home/user/public_html/map/map/index.html" is forbidden (13: Permission denied), client: <edited ip address>, server: _, request: "GET /map/ HTTP/1.1", host: "<edited>" I've tried a few things but I'm still not able to get it to cooperate, so any help would be greatly appreciated. ####################################################################### # # This is the main Nginx configuration file. # ####################################################################### #---------------------------------------------------------------------- # Main Module - directives that cover basic functionality #---------------------------------------------------------------------- user nginx; worker_processes 1; error_log /var/log/nginx/error.log; pid /var/run/nginx.pid; #---------------------------------------------------------------------- # Events Module #---------------------------------------------------------------------- events { worker_connections 1024; } #---------------------------------------------------------------------- # HTTP Core Module #---------------------------------------------------------------------- http { include /etc/nginx/mime.types; default_type application/octet-stream; log_format main '$remote_addr - $remote_user [$time_local] "$request" ' '$status $body_bytes_sent "$http_referer" ' '"$http_user_agent" "$http_x_forwarded_for"'; access_log /var/log/nginx/access.log main; sendfile on; keepalive_timeout 65; server { listen 80; server_name _; #access_log logs/host.access.log main; location / { root /usr/share/nginx/html; index index.html index.htm; } location /map { root /home/user/public_html/map; index index.html index.htm; } error_page 404 /404.html; location = /404.html { root /usr/share/nginx/html; } error_page 500 502 503 504 /50x.html; location = /50x.html { root /usr/share/nginx/html; } } include /etc/nginx/conf.d/*.conf; }

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  • VMWare web UI intermittent access on CentOS

    - by PeteWilliams
    I've got a CentOS 5.2 server that I'm trying to get set up as a development environment. As part of this, I planned to install VMWare Server 2 and set up several virtual development servers. I've got as far as installing VMWare Server 2 but access to the remote control panel is only working intermittently. If I access it through Firefox at https://127.0.0.1:8333/ui/# it usually says either: "Connection intterupted: connection was reset before the page loaded" Or "Firefox can't establish a connection to the server at 127.0.0.1" But every now and then it lets me in and I'll manage a few clicks in the web UI before it kicks me out with the following error: "The server could not complete a request (HTTP 0 ). The server encountered an unexpected condition that prevented it from fulfilling the request. If this problem persists, please contact your system administrator." I've done all the updates available in CentOS except one OpenOffice one that is causing a conflict, and I re-ran wmware-config.pl after updating the kernel. Though I went with all the defaults as I don't really know what I'm doing! I've since rebooted and nothing changed. I've also tried accessing the control panel remotely from another machine in the network and the results are the same. Does anyone have any ideas what might be causing this and how I can resolve it? I'm afraid I'm a developer playing at sys-admin, so I may be missing something obvious! Many thanks Pete Update I have now reinstalled both the operating system and VMWare and I'm still getting the same issue. I wonder if it's a result of the settings I'm putting in on the config.pl script..?

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  • How can I make IPv6 on OpenVPN work using a tap device?

    - by Lekensteyn
    I've managed to setup OpenVPN for full IPv4 connectivity using tap0. Now I want to do the same for IPv6. Addresses and network setup (note that my real prefix is replaced by 2001:db8): 2001:db8::100:0:0/96 my assigned IPv6 range 2001:db8::100:abc:0/112 OpenVPN IPv6 range 2001:db8::100:abc:1 tap0 server side (set as gateway on client) 2001:db8::100:abc:2 tap0 client side 2001:db8::1:2:3:4 gateway for server Home laptop (tap0: 2001:db8::100:abc:2/112 gateway 2001:db8::100:abc:1/112) | | | (running Kubuntu 10.10; OpenVPN 2.1.0-3ubuntu1) | wifi | | router | | OpenVPN INTERNET | eth0 | /tap0 VPS (eth0:2001:db8::1:2:3:4/64 gateway 2001:db8::1) (tap0: 2001:db8::100:abc:1/112) (running Debian 6; OpenVPN 2.1.3-2) The server has both native IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity, the client has only IPv4. I can ping6 to and from my server over OpenVPN, but not to other machines (for example, ipv6.google.com). Using tcpdump on both the server and client, I can see that packets are actually transferred over tap0 to eth0. The router (2001:db8::1) send a neighbor solicitation for the client (2001:db8::100:abc:2) to eth0 after it receives the ICMP6 echo-request. The server does not respond to that solicitation, which causes the ICMP6 echo-request not be routed to the destination. How can I make this IPv6 connection work?

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  • Domain Trust 2008 to 2003

    - by nick3216
    I'm having trouble setting up the trust relationship between a Windows Server 2003 and a Windows Server 2008 AD. Domain a is Windows Server 2003 Forest functional level. Domain b is a Windows Server 2008 Forest functional level. I can set up the incoming side of the trust relationship on domain "a" so that it trusts domain "b". Try as I might on domain "b" I can't set up the outgoing side of the trust relationship to domain "a". The GUI interface gives an unhelpful 'The request is not supported'. I'm not sure netdom is being more or less helpful as it refers me to FilterSIDs netdom trust /add b /uo:b\admin /po:* /d:a /ud:a\admin /pd:* /oneside:trusting To improve the security of this external trust, security identifier (SID) filtering is enabled, however, if users have been migrated to the trusted domain and their SID histories have been preserved, you may choose to turn off this feature. For more information about SID filtering and how to turn it off, see the help for netdom trust /FilterSids or see Help and Support. The request is not supported. The command failed to complete succesfully. I say 'less helpful' because Windows Server 2008 doesn't support the /FilterSIDs option. How can we force creation of this trust? Edit: Just to clarify I've checked that the [Computer Configuration\Windows Settings\Security Settings\Local Policies\Security Options] "Network access: Allow anonymous SID/Name translation” is enabled on both sides of the trust as per http://social.technet.microsoft.com/Forums/en/winserverDS/thread/cc61fc25-3569-4413-bbfd-92390eb31118

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  • plesk: how to configure reverse proxy rules properly?

    - by rvdb
    I'm trying to configure reverse proxy rules in vhost.conf. I have Apache-2.2.8 on Ubuntu-8.04, monitored by Plesk-10.4.4. What I'm trying to achieve is defining a reverse proxy rule that defers all traffic to -say- http://mydomain/tomcat/ to the Tomcat server running on port 8080. I have mod_rewrite and mod_proxy loaded in Apache. As far as I understand mod_proxy docs, entering following rules in /var/www/vhosts/mydomain/conf/vhost.conf should work: <Proxy *> Order deny,allow Allow from all </Proxy> ProxyRequests off RewriteRule ^/tomcat/(.*)$ http://mydomain:8080/$1 [P] Yet, I am getting a HTTP 500: internal server error when requesting above URL. (Note: I decided to use a rewrite rule in order to at least get some information logged.) I have made mod_rewrite log extensively, and find following entries in the logs [note: due to a limitation of max. 2 URLs in posts of new users, I have modified all following URLs so that they only contain 1 slash after http:. In case you're suspecting typos: this was done on purpose): 81.241.230.23 - - [19/Mar/2012:16:42:59 +0100] [mydomain/sid#b06ab8][rid#1024af8/initial] (2) init rewrite engine with requested uri /tomcat/testApp/ 81.241.230.23 - - [19/Mar/2012:16:42:59 +0100] [mydomain/sid#b06ab8][rid#1024af8/initial] (3) applying pattern '^/tomcat/(.*)$' to uri '/tomcat/testApp/' 81.241.230.23 - - [19/Mar/2012:16:42:59 +0100] [mydomain/sid#b06ab8][rid#1024af8/initial] (2) rewrite '/tomcat/testApp/' - 'http:/mydomain:8080/testApp/' 81.241.230.23 - - [19/Mar/2012:16:42:59 +0100] [mydomain/sid#b06ab8][rid#1024af8/initial] (2) forcing proxy-throughput with http:/mydomain:8080/testApp/ 81.241.230.23 - - [19/Mar/2012:16:42:59 +0100] [mydomain/sid#b06ab8][rid#1024af8/initial] (1) go-ahead with proxy request proxy:http:/mydomain:8080/testApp/ [OK] This suggests that the rewrite and proxy part is processed ok; still the proxied request produces a 500 error. Yet: Addressing the testApp directly via http:/mydomain:8080/testApp does work. The same setup does work on my local computer. Is there something else (Plesk-related, perhaps?) I should configure? Many thanks for any pointers! Ron

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  • Use subpath internal proxy for subdomains, but redirect external clients if they ask for that subpath?

    - by HostileFork
    I have a VirtualHost that I'd like to have several subdomains on. (For the sake of clarity, let's say my domain is example.com and I'm just trying to get started by making foo.example.com work, and build from there.) The simplest way I found for a subdomain to work non-invasively with the framework I have was to proxy to a sub-path via mod_rewrite. Thus paths would appear in the client's URL bar as http://foo.example.com/(whatever) while they'd actually be served http://foo.example.com/foo/(whatever) under the hood. I've managed to do that inside my VirtualHost config file like this: ServerAlias *.example.com RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^foo\.example\.com [NC] # <--- RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/foo/.*$ [NC] # AND is implicit with above RewriteRule ^/(.*)$ /foo/$1 [PT] (Note: It was surprisingly hard to find that particular working combination. Specifically, the [PT] seemed to be necessary on the RewriteRule. I could not get it to work with examples I saw elsewhere like [L] or trying just [P]. It would either not show anything or get in loops. Also some browsers seemed to cache the response pages for the bad loops once they got one... a page reload after fixing it wouldn't show it was working! Feedback welcome—in any case—if this part can be done better.) Now I'd like to make what http://foo.example.com/foo/(whatever) provides depend on who asked. If the request came from outside, I'd like the client to be permanently redirected by Apache so they get the URL http://foo.example.com/(whatever) in their browser. If it came internally from the mod_rewrite, I want the request to be handled by the web framework...which is unaware of subdomains. Is something like that possible?

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  • Ngix rewrite is not working as expected

    - by SamFisher83
    I am trying to learn how to use nginx and how to use its rewrite functionality Nginx seems to be doing the rewrite: 2012/03/27 16:30:26 [notice] 16216#0: *3 "foo.php" matches "/foo.php", client: 61.90.22.223, server: localhost, request: "GET /foo.php HTTP/1.1", host: "domain.com" 2012/03/27 16:30:26 [notice] 16216#0: *3 rewritten data: "img.php", args: "", client: 61.90.22.223, server: localhost, request: "GET /foo.php HTTP/1.1", host: "domain.com" but in my access log I am getting the following: 61.90.22.223 - - [27/Mar/2012:16:26:54 +0000] "GET /foo.php HTTP/1.1" 404 31 "-" "Mozilla/5.0 (Windows NT 6.1; rv:11.0) Gecko/20100101 Firefox/11.0" 61.90.22.223 - - [27/Mar/2012:16:30:26 +0000] "GET /foo.php HTTP/1.1" 404 31 "-" "Mozilla/5.0 (Windows NT 6.1; rv:11.0) Gecko/20100101 Firefox/11.0" There is an img.php in the root directory so I am not sure why I am getting a 404 error Here is part of the configuration block: rewrite foo.php img.php last; location / { try_files $uri $uri/ /index.html; } location ~ \.php$ { fastcgi_pass 127.0.0.1:9000; fastcgi_index index.php; include fastcgi_params; } # deny access to .htaccess files, if Apache's document root # concurs with nginx's one # location ~ /\.ht { deny all; }

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  • mysql thread count

    - by Ryan M.
    We have a web application that uses apache and mysql. Generally (according to Munin) our MySQL thread count sits between 2 and 4 at all times. The other day, our server almost came to a halt. HTTP requests were slow or wouldn't go through at all, SSH would work, but would take 30+ seconds to register keystrokes, etc.. So we pull up Munin and the only thing that's out of normal boundaries is the Mysql thread count. CPU usage was under 1%, load was under 1.0, plenty of available RAM. As mentioned before, the thread count floats around 2 to 4. At the time of our slow downs it had spiked to 14. So I start poking around the Internet and I see that in most cases, you'll start to see a higher thread count when you start running into slow queries. If I understand it correctly, the request comes in that takes a while to process, in the mean time other requests are coming in, so a new thread will be created to work on the request (yes?). But at the time of the slow down, we had 0 slow queries. My question is: What else can cause mysql to create additional threads. And would this sudden spike in threads possibly cause the server to slow down? To fix the issue, we restarted apache and everything went back to it's beautiful, normal self. Considering the the Server Vitals (CPU, RAM, Network, etc) were all ideal, and the thread count was the only thing out of place, this seems like the most logical thing to pursue as the possible cause. If it matters, we're on Mysql 5.1.40. Server is FreeBSD 7.2 and the server in question is inside a jail.

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  • How to get http requests details in a tcpdump?

    - by tucson
    I am trying to get a tcpdump trace of some http requests. Here is what I got so far (I replaced the real IP addresses with REMOTE and LOCAL): C:\>Windump -na -i 3 ip host REMOTE and ip src LOCAL and tcp port 80 Windump: listening on \Device\NPF_{8056BE5E-BDBB-44E6-B492-9274B410AD66} 13:13:34.985460 IP LOCAL.4261 > REMOTE.80: . 1784894764:1784894765(1) ack 1268208398 win 65535 13:13:38.589175 IP LOCAL.4302 > REMOTE.80: F 3708464308:3708464308(0) ack 982485614 win 65535 13:13:38.589285 IP LOCAL.4303 > REMOTE.80: F 890175362:890175362(0) ack 2462862919 win 65535 13:13:38.589330 IP LOCAL.4304 > REMOTE.80: F 1838079178:1838079178(0) ack 156173959 win 65535 13:13:38.589374 IP LOCAL.4305 > REMOTE.80: F 3952718843:3952718843(0) ack 2209231545 win 65535 13:13:38.589413 IP LOCAL.4306 > REMOTE.80: F 446105750:446105750(0) ack 3141849979 win 65535 13:13:38.590265 IP LOCAL.4302 > REMOTE.80: . ack 2 win 65535 13:13:38.590403 IP LOCAL.4304 > REMOTE.80: . ack 2 win 65535 13:13:38.590429 IP LOCAL.4303 > REMOTE.80: . ack 2 win 65535 13:13:38.590484 IP LOCAL.4305 > REMOTE.80: . ack 2 win 65535 13:13:38.590514 IP LOCAL.4306 > REMOTE.80: . ack 2 win 65535 But I do not get the following level of details: Request URL:http://domain.com/index.php Request Method:POST Status Code:200 OK POST /index.php HTTP/1.1 Host: domain.com Connection: keep-alive Content-Length: 151 Cache-Control: max-age=0 etc How can I get this level of data?

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  • Apache Bench reports different result with same page

    - by Aspis
    I'm running into a little problem base-lining an Apache2/fcgi/php-fpm server I am setting up. 1) If I run: ab -n 15000 http://mysite.com/index.php. Apache Bench returns Time per request: 41ms but document length: 0 bytes and html transferred: 0 bytes. The Transfer rate: 7.9Kb/s. 2) If I run: ab -n 15000 http://mysite.com/ Apache Bench returns Time per request: 83ms along with the accurate document length and html transferred total. The APC cache status reports identical hit counts from both test. Also Apache Bench reports no errors in either case. Overall, no errors on any test sites and all logs are clean, etc. DocumentRoot is set to index.php so I would expect both of these test runs to produced a similar result. My 2 question(s) are: 1) why the discrepancy? 2) which is the correct result? I've seen plenty of results like test 1 posted (with out question) but frankly from my own experience and those of others, accurate testing is hard to come by. Even with out goofy issues like this.

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  • SharePoint extranet security concerns, am I right to be worried?

    - by LukeR
    We are currently running MOSS 2007 internally, and have been doing so for about 12 months with no major issues. There has now been a request from management to provide access from the internet for small groups (initially) which are comprised of members from other Community Organisations like ours. Committees and the like. My first reaction was not joy when presented with this request, however I'd like to make sure the apprehension is warranted. I have read a few docs on TechNet about security hardening with regard to SharePoint, but I'm interested to know what others have done. I've spoken with another organisation who has already implemented something similar, and they have essentially port-forwarded from the internet to their internal production MOSS server. I don't really like the sound of this. Is it adviseable/necessary to run a DMZ type configuration, with a separate web front-end on a contained network segment? Does that even offer me any greater security than their setup? Some of the configurations from a TechNet doc aren't really feasible, given our current network budget. I've already made my concerns known to management, but it appears it will go ahead in some form or another. I'm tempted to run a completely isolated, seperate install just for these types of users. Should I even be concerned about it? Any thoughts, comments would be most welcomed at this point.

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  • How can I setup OpenVPN with IPv4 and IPv6 using a tap device?

    - by Lekensteyn
    I've managed to setup OpenVPN for full IPv4 connectivity using tap0. Now I want to do the same for IPv6. Addresses and network setup (note that my real prefix is replaced by 2001:db8): 2001:db8::100:0:0/96 my assigned IPv6 range 2001:db8::100:abc:0/112 OpenVPN IPv6 range 2001:db8::100:abc:1 tap0 (on server) (set as gateway on client) 2001:db8::100:abc:2 tap0 (on client) 2001:db8::1:2:3:4 gateway for server Home laptop (tap0: 2001:db8::100:abc:2/112 gateway 2001:db8::100:abc:1/112) | | | (running Kubuntu 10.10; OpenVPN 2.1.0-3ubuntu1) | wifi | | router | | OpenVPN INTERNET | eth0 | /tap0 VPS (eth0:2001:db8::1:2:3:4/64 gateway 2001:db8::1) (tap0: 2001:db8::100:abc:1/112) (running Debian 6; OpenVPN 2.1.3-2) The server has both native IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity, the client has only IPv4. I can ping6 to and from my server over OpenVPN, but not to other machines (for example, ipv6.google.com). net.ipv6.conf.all.forwarding is set to 1, I've tried disabling net.ipv6.conf.all.accept_ra as well, without luck. Using tcpdump on both the server and client, I can see that packets are actually transferred over tap0 to eth0. The router (2001:db8::1) send a neighbor solicitation for the client (2001:db8::100:abc:2) to eth0 after it receives the ICMP6 echo-request. The server does not respond to that solicitation, which causes the ICMP6 echo-request not be routed to the destination. How can I make this IPv6 connection work?

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  • TLS_REQCERT and PHP with LDAPS

    - by John
    Problem: Secure LDAP queries via command-line and PHP to an AD domain controller with a self-signed certificate. Background: I am working on a project where I need to enable LDAP look-ups from a PHP web application to a MS AD domain controller that is using a self-signed certificate. This self-signed certificate is also using a domain name that is not a FQDN - think of something like people.campus as the domain name. The web application would take the user's credentials and pass them on to the AD domain controller to verify if the credntials are a match or not. This seems simple, but I am having problems trying to get PHP and the self-signed certificate to work. Some people have suggested that I changed the TLS_REQCERT variable from "request" to "never" within the OpenLDAP configuration. I am concerned that this might have larger implications such as a man-in-the-middle attack and I am not comfortable changing this setting to never. I have also read some places online where one can take a certificate and place it as a trusted source within the openldap configuration file. I am curious if that is something that I could do for the situation that I have? Can I, from the command line, obtain the self-signed certificate that the AD domain controller is using, save it to a file, and then have openldap use that file for the trust that it needs so that I do not need to adjust the variable from request to never? I do not have access to the AD domain controller and as a result cannot export the certificate. If there is a way to obtain the certificate from the command line, what commands do I need to use? Is there an alternate method of handling this issue that would be better in the long run? I have some CentOS servers and some Ubuntu servers that I am working with to try and get this going on. Thanks in advance for your help and ideas.

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  • Requests are making it to my app server, but not into node.js -- why?

    - by Zane Claes
    I detailed in this question on StackOverflow how some random requests are not making it from the client to my Node.js app server, resulting in a gateway timeout. In summary, identical requests are, at random, not even making it far enough to trigger a console.log() in my first line of express middleware. I need to narrow down the problem, though, to find out WHERE the traffic is being lost and it was suggested that I try a packet sniffer on my app servers. Here's my setup: 2x Load Balancers (m1.larges) 2x node.js servers (also m1.large) Here's what's interesting/unusual: the node.js servers started as PHP servers with an Apache stack and continue to serve PHP files for my domain (streamified.me). However, I use a little httpd.conf magic on the app servers so that requests to api.streamified.me get routed over port 8888 to the node.js server: RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^api.streamified.me RewriteRule ^(.*) http://localhost:8888$1 [P] So, the request hits the load balancer = goes to an app server = gets routed to port 8888 if it's intended for the API = gets handled by node.js So, in the same httpd.conf file, I turned on RewriteLogLevel 5 and then created a simple PHP+CURL script on my localhost to hit my api.streamified.me with a random URL (which should cause node.js to trigger a simple "not found" response) until it resulted in a Gateway timeout. Here, you can see that it has happened -- and the rewrite log shows that the request was definitely received by the app server and forwarded to port 8888... but it was never received by node.js (or, at least, the first line of code in the first line of middleware never gets it...) Image Link: http://i.stack.imgur.com/3OQxS.png

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  • Hadoop streaming job on EC2 stays in "pending" state

    - by liamf
    Trying to experiment with Hadoop and Streaming using cloudera distribution CDH3 on Ubuntu. Have valid data in hdfs:// ready for processing. Wrote little streaming mapper in python. When I launch a mapper only job using: hadoop jar /usr/lib/hadoop/contrib/streaming/hadoop-streaming*.jar -file /usr/src/mystuff/mapper.py -mapper /usr/src/mystuff/mapper.py -input /incoming/STBFlow/* -output testOP hadoop duly decides it will use 66 mappers on the cluster to process the data. The testOP directory is created on HDFS. A job_conf.xml file is created. But the job tracker UI at port 50030 never shows the job moving out of "pending" state and nothing else happens. CPU usage stays at zero. (the job is created though) If I give it a single file (instead of the entire directory) as input, same result (except Hadoop decides it needs 2 mappers instead of 66). I also tried using the "dumbo" Python utility and launching jobs using that: same result: permanently pending. So I am missing something basic: could someone help me out with what I should look for? The cluster is on Amazon EC2. Firewall issues maybe: ports are enabled explicitly, case by case, in the cluster security group.

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  • Is it okay to use an administrator account for everyday use if UAC is on?

    - by Valentin Radu
    Since I switched to Windows 7 about 3 years ago, and now using Windows 8.1, I have become familiar with the concept of User Account Control and used my PC the following way: a standard account which I use for every day work and the built-in Administrator account activated and used only to elevate processes when they request so, or to ”Run as administrator” applications when I need to. However, recently after reading more about User Account Control, I started wondering if my way of working is good? Or should I use an administrator account for every day work, since an administrator account is not elevated until requested by apps, or until I request so via the ”Run as administrator” option? I am asking this because I read somewhere that the built-in Administrator account is a true administrator, by which I mean UAC doesn't pop up when logged in within it, and I am scared of not having problems when potential malicious software come into scene. I have to mention that I do not use it on a daily basis, just when I need to elevate some apps. I barely log in into it 10 times a year... So, how's better? Thanks for your answers! And Happy New Year, of course! P.S. I asked this a year ago (:P) and I think I should reiterate it: is an administrator account as safe these days as a standard account coupled with the built-in Administrator account when needed?

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  • Apache returns HTTP 206 for GET /file.mp3

    - by javano
    I am making a get request to an SSL enabled site on apache (so wireshark isn't giving me anything to useful). In my Apache SSL access log I see the following entry: 1.2.3.4 - my.username [15/Nov/2012:16:52:01 +0000] "GET /uploads/file.mp3 HTTP/1.1" 206 534400 "https://site.com/uploads/layla.mp3" "Mozilla/5.0 (X11; Linux x86_64) AppleWebKit/535.19 (KHTML, like Gecko) Ubuntu/12.04 Chromium/18.0.1025.168 Chrome/18.0.1025.168 Safari/535.19" Why is this happening? I'm not familiar with the HTTP 206 response code but searching the Internet I can see it is a partial content GET requests. I understand correctly, my browser is making a partial GET request not for the full file. Is that correct? If so, is this a browser issue or is the web server instructing my browser to do so? I have tested in Firefox also and in both browser, I am not sent the file. If I rename the file to file.jpg I can download it through my browser and rename it to .mp3 and it plays. How can I troubleshoot this issue?

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