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  • Syncing data between devel/live databases in Django

    - by T. Stone
    With Django's new multi-db functionality in the development version, I've been trying to work on creating a management command that let's me synchronize the data from the live site down to a developer machine for extended testing. (Having actual data, particularly user-entered data, allows me to test a broader range of inputs.) Right now I've got a "mostly" working command. It can sync "simple" model data but the problem I'm having is that it ignores ManyToMany fields which I don't see any reason for it do so. Anyone have any ideas of either how to fix that or a better want to handle this? Should I be exporting that first query to a fixture first and then re-importing it? from django.core.management.base import LabelCommand from django.db.utils import IntegrityError from django.db import models from django.conf import settings LIVE_DATABASE_KEY = 'live' class Command(LabelCommand): help = ("Synchronizes the data between the local machine and the live server") args = "APP_NAME" label = 'application name' requires_model_validation = False can_import_settings = True def handle_label(self, label, **options): # Make sure we're running the command on a developer machine and that we've got the right settings db_settings = getattr(settings, 'DATABASES', {}) if not LIVE_DATABASE_KEY in db_settings: print 'Could not find "%s" in database settings.' % LIVE_DATABASE_KEY return if db_settings.get('default') == db_settings.get(LIVE_DATABASE_KEY): print 'Data cannot synchronize with self. This command must be run on a non-production server.' return # Fetch all models for the given app try: app = models.get_app(label) app_models = models.get_models(app) except: print "The app '%s' could not be found or models could not be loaded for it." % label for model in app_models: print 'Syncing %s.%s ...' % (model._meta.app_label, model._meta.object_name) # Query each model from the live site qs = model.objects.all().using(LIVE_DATABASE_KEY) # ...and save it to the local database for record in qs: try: record.save(using='default') except IntegrityError: # Skip as the record probably already exists pass

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  • Use Excel VBA to fill out and submit Google Docs form

    - by guitarthrower
    I'm trying to do something like this post but with Excel VBA. I would like to submit a response on a google docs form each time a button is pressed on an Excel add-in. The addin will be an XLA file and written in VBA. I want to be able to collect what features the users are using. If someone has a better solution, I'm open. ---Edit--- This is the form I am trying to write to (excerpt of the code for one of the fields.) <div class="errorbox-good"> <div class="ss-item ss-item-required ss-text"> <div class="ss-form-entry"> <label for="entry_0" class="ss-q-title"> UserName <span class="ss-required-asterisk">*</span> </label> <label for="entry_0" class="ss-q-help"></label> <input type="text" id="entry_0" class="ss-q-short" value="" name="entry.0.single"> </div> </div> </div>

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  • XML comments on delegate declared events

    - by Matt Whitfield
    I am visiting some old code, and there are quite a few events declared with delegates manually rather than using EventHandler<T>, like this: /// <summary> /// Delegate for event Added /// </summary> /// <param name="index">Index of the item</param> /// <param name="item">The item itself</param> public delegate void ItemAdded(int index, T item); /// <summary> /// Added is raised whenever an item is added to the collection /// </summary> public event ItemAdded Added; All well and good, until I come to use sandcastle to document the library, because it then can't find any XML comments for the private Added field that is generated by the event declaration. I want to try and sort that out, but what I would like to do is either: Get sandcastle to ignore the auto-generated private field without telling it to ignore all private fields entirely or Get XML comments generated for the private field Is there any way of achieving this without re-factoring the code to look like this: /// <summary> /// Delegate for event <see cref="Added"/> /// </summary> /// <param name="index">Index of the item</param> /// <param name="item">The item itself</param> public delegate void ItemAdded(int index, T item); /// <summary> /// Private storage for the event firing delegate for the <see cref="Added"/> event /// </summary> private ItemAdded _added; /// <summary> /// Added is raised whenever an item is added to the collection /// </summary> public event ItemAdded Added { add { _added += value; } remove { _added -= value; } }

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  • jQuery validate plugin against custom jQueryUI datePickers

    - by Enrique
    I have some datePickers I've customized these so they show only month and year This is the code to create them jQuery("input[name*='fechauso']").each(function() { jQuery(this).datepicker({ changeMonth: true, changeYear: true, showButtonPanel: true, dateFormat: 'MM yy', constrainInput: true, showOn: 'button', buttonText: 'Seleccionar...', onClose: function(dateText, inst) { var month = jQuery("#ui-datepicker-div .ui-datepicker-month :selected").val(); var year = jQuery("#ui-datepicker-div .ui-datepicker-year :selected").val(); jQuery(this).datepicker('setDate', new Date(year, month, 1)); } }); }); Now I've added a custom validator method (using plugin) to check this: If user didn't select a date using the button, field is empty, so the custom validator method should fire. This doesn't happen. Here is the custom validate method jQuery.validator.addMethod("isEmpty", function(value, element) { return (value == ''); }, "Must select a date with the button besides control"); jQuery("#ct_2_fechauso").rules("add", { required: "#campotilde_psico:checked", isEmpty: true }); The problem is that even if I select a date, it always ask me to select a date again. datePicker fields should be readonly

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  • What harm can javascript do?

    - by The King
    I just happen to read the joel's blog here... So for example if you have a web page that says “What is your name?” with an edit box and then submitting that page takes you to another page that says, Hello, Elmer! (assuming the user’s name is Elmer), well, that’s a security vulnerability, because the user could type in all kinds of weird HTML and JavaScript instead of “Elmer” and their weird JavaScript could do narsty things, and now those narsty things appear to come from you, so for example they can read cookies that you put there and forward them on to Dr. Evil’s evil site. Since javascript runs on client end. All it can access or do is only on the client end. It can read informations stored in hidden fields and change them. It can read, write or manipulate cookies... But I feel, these informations are anyway available to him. (if he is smart enough to pass javascript in a textbox. So we are not empowering him with new information or providing him undue access to our server... Just curious to know whether I miss something. Can you list the things that a malicious user can do with this security hole. Edit : Thanks to all for enlightening . As kizzx2 pointed out in one of the comments... I was overlooking the fact that a JavaScript written by User A may get executed in the browser of User B under numerous circumstances, in which case it becomes a great risk.

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  • Declaring Intent Filter in android

    - by Rahul Varma
    Hi, I have problem in declaring the intents on my app. I have a form with text fields and spinner. I have added a button which onClick must display Datepicker. I have declared the DatePicker as a new class and added to intent onCLick. date.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View view) { Intent i=new Intent(SendMail.this,DatePicker.class); startActivity(i); } }); In manifest i have declared <activity android:name=".DatePicker"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER" /> </intent-filter> </activity> Now the problem is when i click the button the whole form is getting reset and all the spinner values are getting vanished. This must be because of declaring the intent wrongly. So, can anyone specify how to declare my intent so that the DatePicker will be called on the main form iteself

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  • PHP OOP: Providing Domain Entities with "Identity"

    - by sunwukung
    Bit of an abstract problem here. I'm experimenting with the Domain Model pattern, and barring my other tussles with dependencies - I need some advice on generating Identity for use in an Identity Map. In most examples for the Data Mapper pattern I've seen (including the one outlined in this book: http://apress.com/book/view/9781590599099) - the user appears to manually set the identity for a given Domain Object using a setter: $UserMapper = new UserMapper; //returns a fully formed user object from record sets $User = $UserMapper->find(1); //returns an empty object with appropriate properties for completion $UserBlank = $UserMapper->get(); $UserBlank->setId(); $UserBlank->setOtherProperties(); Now, I don't know if I'm reading the examples wrong - but in the first $User object, the $id property is retrieved from the data store (I'm assuming $id represents a row id). In the latter case, however, how can you set the $id for an object if it has not yet acquired one from the data store? The problem is generating a valid "identity" for the object so that it can be maintained via an Identity Map - so generating an arbitrary integer doesn't solve it. My current thinking is to nominate different fields for identity (i.e. email) and demanding their presence in generating blank Domain Objects. Alternatively, demanding all objects be fully formed, and using all properties as their identity...hardly efficient. (Or alternatively, dump the Domain Model concept and return to DBAL/DAO/Transaction Scripts...which is seeming increasingly elegant compared to the ORM implementations I've seen...)

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  • SSIS: "Failure inserting into the read-only column <ColumnName>"

    - by Cory
    I have an Excel source going into an OLE DB destination. I'm inserting data into a view that has an INSTEAD OF trigger that handles all inserts. When I try to execute the package I receive this error: "Failure inserting into the read-only column ColumnName" What can I do to let SSIS know that this view is safe to insert into because there is an INSTEAD OF trigger that will handle the insert? EDIT (Additional info): Some more additional info. I have a flat file that is being inserted into a normalized database. My initial problem was how do I take a flat file and insert that data into multiple tables while keeping track of all the primary/foreign key relationships. My solution was to create a VIEW that mimicked the structure of the flat file and then create an INSTEAD OF trigger on that view. In my INSTEAD OF trigger I would handle the logic of maintaining all the relationships between tables My view looks something like this. CREATE VIEW ImportView AS SELECT CONVERT(varchar(100, NULL) AS CustomerName, CONVERT(varchar(100), NULL) AS Address1, CONVERT(varchar(100), NULL) AS Address2, CONVERT(varchar(100), NULL) AS City, CONVERT(char(2), NULL) AS State, CONVERT(varchar(250), NULL) AS ItemOrdered, CONVERT(int, NULL) AS QuantityOrdered ... I will never need to select from this view, I only use it to insert data into it from this flat file I receive. I need someway to tell SQL Server that the fields aren't really read only because there is an INSTEAD OF trigger on this view.

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  • Using Javascript to flip flop a textbox's readonly flag

    - by Velika
    I have a frame with several radio buttons where the user is supposed to select the "Category" that his Occupation falls into and then unconditionally also specify his occupation. If the user selects "Retired", the requirement is to prefill "Retired" in the "Specify Occupation" text box and to disable it to prevent it from being changed. The Specify Occupation text box should also no longer be a tab stop. If the user selects a radio button other than Retired the Specify Occupation text box should be enabled and once again in the normal tab sequence. Originally, I was setting and clearing the disabled property on the Specify occupation textbox, then I found out that, upon submitting the form, disabled fields are excluded from the submit and the REQUIRED validator on the Specify Occupation textbox was being raised because the textbox was being blanked out. What is the best way to solve this? My approach below was to mimic a disabled text box by setting/resetting the readonly attribute on the text box and changing the background color to make it appear disabled. (I suppose I should be changing the forecolor instead of teh background color). Nevertheless, my code to make the textbox readonly and to reset it doesn't appear to be working. function OccupationOnClick(sender) { debugger; var optOccupationRetired = document.getElementById("<%= optOccupationRetired.ClientId %>"); var txtSpecifyOccupation = document.getElementById("<%= txtSpecifyOccupation.ClientId %>"); var optOccupationOther = document.getElementById("<%= optOccupationOther.ClientId %>"); if (sender == optOccupationRetired) { txtSpecifyOccupation.value = "Retired" txtSpecifyOccupation.readonly = "readonly"; txtSpecifyOccupation.style.backgroundColor = "#E0E0E0"; txtSpecifyOccupation.tabIndex = -1; } else { if (txtSpecifyOccupation.value == "Retired") txtSpecifyOccupation.value = ""; txtSpecifyOccupation.style.backgroundColor = "#FFFFFF"; txtSpecifyOccupation.readonly = ""; txtSpecifyOccupation.tabIndex = 0; } } Can someone provide a suggest for the best way to handle this scenario and porovide a tweek to the code above to fix the setting/resetting on the readonly property?

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  • SharePoint Designer Workflow: Unruly 'Collect User Data' Action

    - by Jeremy
    I'm a student in a SharePoint class online. This problem has riddled everyone I've discussed it with, including the teacher. There seems to be some sort of problem when I create a workflow with the collect data action. I can create workflows that send e-mails and use the other actions just fine. What could be causing this problem? My reproduction steps are simple: Create a new Site Collection with the Blank Site template. Create a new Custom List. In SharePoint Designer, start a new workflow on the Custom List. Add the collect data action to the workflow. Set the user to the one that created the task. Set the data to anything. A single check box, a string, Choice, doesn't matter. Leave the output variable as default. Mystery error appears! When the Check Workflow button is pressed, nothing happens. No message box appears at all. The warning icon in the Steps panel merely points out that there are some errors, it isn't specific as to what they are. Additionally, when I click on the data object again after it's been created, it doesn't populate the form with the old values. It goes back to the default name with no fields. So there's definitely something going wrong here. I've narrowed the problem down to the data object, but I don't know what to do about it. The workflow acts like normal for other activities. For example, delete the Collect Data action and add a Send Email one instead and it compiles and runs successfully.

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  • how to refer to the current struct in an overloaded operator?

    - by genesys
    Hi! I have a struct for which i want to define a relative order by defining < , , <= and = operators. actually in my order there won't be any equality, so if one struct is not smaller than another, it's automatically larger. I defined the first operator like this: struct MyStruct{ ... ... bool operator < (const MyStruct &b) const {return (somefancycomputation);} }; now i'd like to define the other operators based on this operator, such that <= will return the same as < and the other two will simply return the oposite. so for example for the operator i'd like to write something like bool operator > (const MyStruct &b) const {return !(self<b);} but i don't know how to refere to this 'self' since i can refere only to the fields inside the current struct. whole is in C++ hope my question was understandable :) thank you for the help!

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  • ASP.Net MVC vs ASP.Net for Complex workflows

    - by Grant Sutcliffe
    I have just become involved in migrating a series of complex workflows with InfoPath UIs to Web-based UIs. I am new to ASP.Net MVC but have started to evaluate it as the technology versus classic ASP.Net for the job. As is typical of most workflows, in each state there are a number of business rules that determine (a) who can view what content; (2) who can edit what content; (3) what the user action options might be (Edit; Reject; Approve), etc. In essence, there is a lot of logic that needs to be applied to each request before presenting the appropriate view. Being more experienced in ASP.Net, I know that presenting the form(s) as required can be easily achieved through code behind pages (enable / disable / hide fields). I have not seen how this can be achieved with ASP.Net MVC (but am realising that new thinking is required of me when working with MVC - ‘Give only the content on a particular View + limited user action options’). Therefore, if using ASP.Net MVC, it looks like I would need to create a lot of views. Much of the content in each view would be the same. Only field enabled status or buttons would differ in most instances for these views in each state. For example: Step01Initiate (‘Has Save’ button); Step01OriginatorView (has ‘Edit’ Button) ; Step01OriginatorEdit (has ‘Save’ button); Step01Review (has ‘Accept’ / ‘Reject’ buttons); Step01ReviewReject (for reviewer notes; has ‘Save’ / ‘Cancel’ buttons). With workflows of up to six states, this would result in a lot of views. I can see the advantages of choosing ASP.MVC (1) ‘thin’ Views in terms of content; and (2) with logic consolidation in Controllers and different Models. Am I thinking along the right lines in terms of applying the MVC – ‘plenty of views’; or is there a better way to achieve my goal (using ASP.Net MVC or classic ASP.Net)?

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  • Efficient splitting of elements in a field

    - by Gary
    I have a field in a text file exported from a database. The field contains addresses but sometimes they are quite long and the database allows them to contain multiple lines. When exported, the newline character gets replaced with a dollar sign like this: first part of very long address$second part of very long address$third part of very long address Not every address has multiple lines and no address contains more than three lines. The length of each line is variable. I'm massaging the data for import into MS Access which is used for a mailmerge. I want to split the field on the $ sign if it's there but if the field only contains 1 line, I want to set my two extra output fields to a zero length string so that I don't wind up with blank lines in the address when it gets printed. I have an awk file that's working correctly on all the other data in the textfile but I need to get this last bit working. I tried the below code. Aside from the fact that I get a syntax error at the else, I'm not sure this is a good way to do what I want. This is being done with gawk on Windows. BEGIN { FS = "|" } $1 != "HEADER" { if ($6 ~ /\$/) split($6, arr, "$") address = arr[1] addresstwo = arr[2] addressthree = arr[3] addressLength = length(address) addressTwoLength = length(addresstwo) addressThreeLength = length(addressthree) else { address = $6 addressLength = length($6) addresstwo = "" addressTwoLength = length(addresstwo) addressthree = "" addressThreeLength = length(addressthree) } printf("%*s\t%*s\t\%*s\n", addressLength, address, addressTwoLength, addresstwo, addressThreeLength, addressthree) }

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  • Elegant Algorithm for Parsing Data Stream Into Record

    - by Matt Long
    I am interfacing with a hardware device that streams data to my app over Wifi. The data is streaming in just fine. The data contains a character header (DATA:) that indicates a new record has begun. The issues is that the data I receive doesn't necessarily fall on the header boundary, so I have to capture the data until what I've captured contains the header. Then, everything that precedes the header goes into the previous record and everything that comes after it goes into a new record. I have this working, but wondered if anyone has done this before and has a good computer-sciencey way to solve the problem. Here's what I do: Convert the NSData of the current read to an NSString Append the NSString to a placeholder string Check placeholder string for the header (DATA:). If the header is not there, just wait for the next read. If the header exists, append whatever precedes it to a previous record placeholder and hand that placeholder off to an array as a complete record that I can further parse into fields. Take whatever shows up after the header and place it in the record placeholder so that it can be appended to in the next read. Repeat steps 3 - 5. Let me know if you see any flaws with this or have a suggestion for a better way. Seems there should be some design pattern for this, but I can't think of one. Thanks.

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  • Select highest rated, oldest track

    - by Blair McMillan
    I have several tables: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Tracks]( [Id] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [Artist_Id] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [Album_Id] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [Title] [nvarchar](255) NOT NULL, [Length] [int] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Tracks_1] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [Id] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] CREATE TABLE [dbo].[TrackHistory]( [Id] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [Track_Id] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [Datetime] [datetime] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_TrackHistory] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [Id] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] INSERT INTO [cooltunes].[dbo].[TrackHistory] ([Track_Id] ,[Datetime]) VALUES ("335294B0-735E-4E2C-8389-8326B17CE813" ,GETDATE()) CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Ratings]( [Id] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [Track_Id] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [User_Id] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [Rating] [tinyint] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Ratings] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [Id] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] INSERT INTO [cooltunes].[dbo].[Ratings] ([Track_Id] ,[User_Id] ,[Rating]) VALUES ("335294B0-735E-4E2C-8389-8326B17CE813" ,"C7D62450-8BE6-40F6-80F1-A539DA301772" ,1) Users User_Id|Guid Other fields Links between the tables are pretty obvious. TrackHistory has each track added to it as a row whenever it is played ie. a track will appear in there many times. Ratings value will either be 1 or -1. What I'm trying to do is select the Track with the highest rating, that is more than 2 hours old, and if there is a duplicate rating for a track (ie a track receives 6 +1 ratings and 1 - rating, giving that track a total rating of 5, another track also has a total rating of 5), the track that was last played the longest ago should be returned. (If all tracks have been played within the last 2 hours, no rows should be returned) I'm getting somewhere doing each part individually using the link above, SUM(Value) and GROUP BY Track_Id, but I'm having trouble putting it all together. Hopefully someone with a bit more (MS)SQL knowledge will be able to help me. Many thanks!

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  • Flash As3.0 PHP Variables?

    - by user311421
    Is it possible to make php variables public and accessible anywhere on the timeline? The script I included works fine if I set it as the document class only (it won't work if I try importing it). The variables pass the text to dynamic text fields on the main timeline. The problem: It will pull the information and display it when the SWF first loads but if I move to my second frame and then back it erases the information. It also will not pass any variables to the second frame. The only way to see the variables after going back to the first frame is to reload the whole SWF. I'm pretty much stuck at this point trying to make the variables persistent through all frames. this is my code: package { import flash.display.MovieClip; import flash.events.*; import flash.net.*; import flash.display.Stage; public class Main extends MovieClip { public function Main() { var request:URLRequest = new URLRequest("http://localhost/mytest2/dataLayer.php"); request.method = URLRequestMethod.GET; var loader:URLLoader = new URLLoader(); loader.dataFormat = URLLoaderDataFormat.VARIABLES; loader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, completeHandler); loader.load(request); function completeHandler(evt:Event) { var username = evt.target.data.username; var pclass = evt.target.data.pclass; var hpoints = evt.target.data.hpoints; var spoints = evt.target.data.spoints; username_txt.text = username; class_txt.text = pclass; hpoints_txt.text = hpoints; spoints_txt.text = spoints; } } } }

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  • How are Scala closures transformed to Java objects?

    - by iguana
    I'm currently looking at closure implementations in different languages. When it comes to Scala, however, I'm unable to find any documentation on how a closure is mapped to Java objects. It is well documented that Scala functions are mapped to FunctionN objects. I assume that the reference to the free variable of the closure must be stored somewhere in that function object (as it is done in C++0x, e.g.). I also tried compiling the following with scalac and then decompiling the class files with JD: object ClosureExample extends Application { def addN(n: Int) = (a: Int) => a + n var add5 = addN(5) println(add5(20)) } In the decompiled sources, I see an anonymous subtype of Function1, which ought to be my closure. But the apply() method is empty, and the anonymous class has no fields (which could potentially store the closure variables). I suppose the decompiler didn't manage to get the interesting part out of the class files... Now to the questions: Do you know how the transformation is done exactly? Do you know where it is documented? Do you have another idea how I could solve the mystery?

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  • Can I use the auto-generated Linq-to-SQL entity classes in 'disconnected' mode?

    - by Gary McGill
    Suppose I have an automatically-generated Employee class based on the Employees table in my database. Now suppose that I want to pass employee data to a ShowAges method that will print out name & age for a list of employees. I'll retrieve the data for a given set of employees via a linq query, which will return me a set of Employee instances. I can then pass the Employee instances to the ShowAges method, which can access the Name & Age fields to get the data it needs. However, because my Employees table has relationships with various other tables in my database, my Employee class also has a Department field, a Manager field, etc. that provide access to related records in those other tables. If the ShowAges method were to invoke any of those methods, this would cause lots more data to be fetched from the database, on-demand. I want to be sure that the ShowAges method only uses the data I have already fetched for it, but I really don't want to have to go to the trouble of defining a new class which replicates the Employee class but has fewer methods. (In my real-world scenario, the class would have to be considerably more complex than the Employee class described here; it would have several 'joined' classes that do need to be populated, and others that don't). Is there a way to 'switch off' or 'disconnect' the Employees instances so that an attempt to access any property or related object that's not already populated will raise an exception? If not, then I assume that since this must be a common requirement, there might be an already-established pattern for doing this sort of thing?

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  • Serialize a C# class to xml. Store the XML as a string in SQL Server and then restore the class late

    - by BrianK
    I want to serialize a class to xml and store that in a field in a database. I can serialize with this: StringWriter sw = new StringWriter(); XmlSerializer xmlser = new XmlSerializer(typeof(MyClass)); xmlser.Serialize(sw, myClassVariable); string s = sw.ToString(); sw.Close(); Thats works, but it has the namesapces in it. xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" Will these slow down the deserialization because it will go out to those and verify the XML? I got rid of the namespaces by creating a blank XmlSerializerNamespaces and using that to serialize, but then the xml still had namespaces around integer variables: <anyType xmlns:q1="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" d3p1:type="q1:int" xmlns:d3p1="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> 3 </anyType> My question is: Is it necessary to have the namesapces for deserialization and if not, how to get rid of them? How do I tell it fields are ints so it doesnt put in "anytype" Thanks, Brian

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  • MYSQL fetch 10 posts, each w/ vote count, sorted by vote count, limited by where clause on posts

    - by nibblebot
    I want to fetch a set of Posts w/ vote count listed, sorted by vote count (e.g.) Post 1 - Post Body blah blah - Votes: 500 Post 2 - Post Body blah blah - Votes: 400 Post 3 - Post Body blah blah - Votes: 300 Post 4 - Post Body blah blah - Votes: 200 I have 2 tables: Posts - columns - id, body, is_hidden Votes - columns - id, post_id, vote_type_id Here is the query I've tried: SELECT p.*, v.yes_count FROM posts p LEFT JOIN (SELECT post_id, vote_type_id, COUNT(1) AS yes_count FROM votes WHERE (vote_type_id = 1) GROUP BY post_id ORDER BY yes_count DESC LIMIT 0, 10) v ON v.post_id = p.id WHERE (p.is_hidden = 0) ORDER BY yes_count DESC LIMIT 0, 10 Correctness: The above query almost works. The subselect is including votes for posts that have is_hidden = 1, so when I left join it to posts, if a hidden post is in the top 10 (ranked by votes), I can end up with records with NULL on the yes_count field. Performance: I have ~50k posts and ~500k votes. On my dev machine, the above query is running in .4sec. I'd like to stay at or below this execution time. Indexes: I have an index on the Votes table that covers the fields: vote_type_id and post_id EXPLAIN id select_type table type possible_keys key key_len ref rows Extra 1 PRIMARY p ALL NULL NULL NULL NULL 45985 Using where; Using temporary; Using filesort 1 PRIMARY <derived2> ALL NULL NULL NULL NULL 10 2 DERIVED votes ref VotingPost VotingPost 4 319881 Using where; Using index; Using temporary; Using filesort

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  • Can ElementTree be told to preserve the order of attributes?

    - by dmckee
    I've written a fairly simple filter in python using ElementTree to munge the contexts of some xml files. And it works, more or less. But it reorders the attributes of various tags, and I'd like it to not do that. Does anyone know a switch I can throw to make it keep them in specified order? Context for this I'm working with and on a particle physics tool that has a complex, but oddly limited configuration system based on xml files. Among the many things setup that way are the paths to various static data files. These paths are hardcoded into the existing xml and there are no facilities for setting or varying them based on environment variables, and in our local installation they are necessarily in a different place. This isn't a disaster because the combined source- and build-control tool we're using allows us to shadow certain files with local copies. But even thought the data fields are static the xml isn't, so I've written a script for fixing the paths, but with the attribute rearrangement diffs between the local and master versions are harder to read than necessary. This is my first time taking ElementTree for a spin (and only my fifth or sixth python project) so maybe I'm just doing it wrong. Abstracted for simplicity the code looks like this: tree = elementtree.ElementTree.parse(inputfile) i = tree.getiterator() for e in i: e.text = filter(e.text) tree.write(outputfile) Reasonable or dumb? Related links: How can I get the order of an element attribute list using Python xml.sax? Preserve order of attributes when modifying with minidom

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  • Delphi dbExpress and Interbase: UTF8 migration steps and risks?

    - by mjustin
    Currently, our database uses Win1252 as the only character encoding. We will have to support Unicode in the database tables soon, which means we have to perform this migration for four databases and around 80 Delphi applications which run in-house in a 24/7 environment. Are there recommendations for database migrations to UTF-8 (or UNICODE_FSS) for Delphi applications? Some questions listed below. Many thanks in advance for your answers! are there tools which help with the migration of the existing databases (sizes between 250 MB and 2 GB, no Blob fields), by dumping the data, recreating the database with UNICODE_FSS or UTF-8, and loading the data back? are there known problems with Delphi 2009, dbExpress and Interbase 7.5 related to Unicode character sets? would you recommend to upgrade the databases to Interbase 2009 first? (This upgrade is planned but does not have a high priority) can we simply migrate the database and Delphi will handle the Unicode character sets automatically, or will we have to change all character field types in every Datamodule (dfm and source code) too? which strategy would you recommend to work on the migration in parallel with the normal development and maintenance of the existing application? The application runs in-house so development and database administration is done internally.

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  • Creating a Facebook session for getting page info

    - by Marty Haught
    I am trying to get info on a page that my user is admin for. This user has granted my fb_connect app offline access. I have saved the session_key that allows offline access (it has the user's id in it). I am able to publish to this fan page with this session key. But when I try to access the page's info I get an SessionExpired error. This doesn't make sense. Look at the code and output below: p is is a 'profile' object that holds the three pieces of relevant fb data (user_id, session_key and page id) fb_session = Facebooker::Session.create = # fb_session.secure_with!(p.fb_session_key, p.fb_user_id, 0) = nil fb_session.user.has_permission?("offline_access") = true fb_session.user.has_permission?("publish_stream") = true fb_session.user.has_permission?("read_stream") = true pages = fb_session.fql_query("select fan_count from page where page_id = #{p.fb_page_id}") Facebooker::Session::SessionExpired: Session key invalid or no longer valid ... pages = fb_session.pages(:fields = {:page_ids = p.fb_page_id}) Facebooker::Session::SessionExpired: Session key invalid or no longer valid ... pages = Facebooker::Session.create.fql_query("select fan_count from page where page_id = #{p.fb_page_id}") = [#] Perhaps I'm not creating the session right or maybe offline access doesn't give me access to the user's page even though I have permissions to push to it. As you can see when I just use an anon session I'm able to get the fan count, which I'm guessing is publicly available. Does anyone have an idea on this?

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  • How can I extend this SQL query to find the k nearest neighbors?

    - by Smigs
    I have a database full of two-dimensional data - points on a map. Each record has a field of the geometry type. What I need to be able to do is pass a point to a stored procedure which returns the k nearest points (k would also be passed to the sproc, but that's easy). I've found a query at http://blogs.msdn.com/isaac/archive/2008/10/23/nearest-neighbors.aspx which gets the single nearest neighbour, but I can't figure how to extend it to find the k nearest neighbours. This is the current query - T is the table, g is the geometry field, @x is the point to search around, Numbers is a table with integers 1 to n: DECLARE @start FLOAT = 1000; WITH NearestPoints AS ( SELECT TOP(1) WITH TIES *, T.g.STDistance(@x) AS dist FROM Numbers JOIN T WITH(INDEX(spatial_index)) ON T.g.STDistance(@x) < @start*POWER(2,Numbers.n) ORDER BY n ) SELECT TOP(1) * FROM NearestPoints ORDER BY n, dist The inner query selects the nearest non-empty region and the outer query then selects the top result from that region; the outer query can easily be changed to (e.g.) SELECT TOP(20), but if the nearest region only contains one result, you're stuck with that. I figure I probably need to recursively search for the first region containing k records, but without using a table variable (which would cause maintenance problems as you have to create the table structure and it's liable to change - there're lots of fields), I can't see how.

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  • Query on object id in VQL

    - by Banang
    I'm currently working with the versant object database (using jvi), and have a case where I need to query the database based on an object id. What I'm trying to achieve is something along the lines of Employee employee = new Employee("Mr. Pickles"); session.commit(); FundVQLQuery q = new FundVQLQuery(session, "select * from Employee employee where employee = $1"); q.bind(employee); q.execute(); However, I'm finding out the hard way (I get an EVJ_NOT_A_VALID_KEY_TYPE error thrown at me) that this is infact not the way to do it. Anyone got any experience in working with VQL? Your help is much apreciated! A small clarification: The problem is I'm running some performance tests on the database using the pole position framework, and one of the tests in that framework requires me to fetch an object from the database using either an object reference or a low level object id. Thus, I'm not allowed to reference specific fields in the employee object, but must perform the query on the object in its entirety. So, it's not allowed for me to go "select * from Employee e where e.id = 4", I need it to use the entire object. Accepted answer: Since there is some sort of lunacy magic built into SO that prevents me to mark an accepted answer after a bounty has run out, readers should know that the answer posted by Chris Holmes solves this issue. Readers are encouraged to up-vote his post to further signalize the correctness of his answer to any future readers of this thread.

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