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  • Managing server instance identity on EC2

    - by kikibobo
    I recently brought up a cluster on EC2, and I felt like I had to invent a lot of things. I'm wondering what kinds of tools, patterns, ideas are out there for how to deal with this. Some context: I had 3 different kinds of servers, so first I created AMIs for each of them. The first AMI had zookeeper, so step one in deploying the system was to get the zookeeper server running. My script then made a note of the mapping between EC2's completely arbitrary and unpredictable hostnames, and the zookeeper server. Then as I brought up new instances of the other 2 kinds of servers, the first thing I would do is ssh to the new server, and add the zookeeper server to its /etc/hosts file. Then as the server software on each instance starts up, it can find zookeeper. Obviously this is a problem that lots of people have to solve, and it probably works a little bit differently in different clouds. Are there products that address this concept? I was pretty surprised that EC2 didn't provide some kind of way to tie your own name to its name. Thanks for any ideas.

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  • MySQLDB query not returning all rows

    - by RBK
    I am trying to do a simple fetch using MySQLDB in Python. I have 2 tables(Accounts & Products). I have to look up Accounts table, get acc_id from it & query the Products table using it. The Products tables has more than 10 rows. But when I run this code it randomly returns between 0 & 6 rows each time I run it. Here's the code snippet: # Set up connection con = mdb.connect('db.xxxxx.com', 'user', 'password', 'mydb') # Create cursor cur = con.cursor() # Execute query cur.execute("SELECT acc_id FROM Accounts WHERE ext_acc = '%s'" % account_num ) # account_num is alpha-numberic and is got from preceding part of the program # A tuple is returned, so get the 0th item from it acc_id = cur.fetchone()[0] print "account_id = ", acc_id # Close the cursor - I was not sure if I can reuse it cur.close() # Reopen the cursor cur = con.cursor() # Second query cur.execute("SELECT * FROM Products WHERE account_id = %d" % acc_id) keys = cur.fetchall() print cur.rowcount # This prints incorrect row count for key in keys: # Does not print all rows. Tried to directly print keys instead of iterating - same result :( print key # Closing the cursor & connection cur.close() con.close() The weird part is, I tried to step through the code using a debugger(PyDev on Eclipse) and it correctly gets all rows(both the value stored in the variable 'keys' as well as console output are correct). I am sure my DB has correct data since I ran the same SQL on MySQL console & got the correct result. Just to be sure I was not improperly closing the connection, I tried using with con instead of manually closing the connection and it's the same result. I did RTFM but I couldn't find much in it to help me with this issue. Where am I going wrong? Thank you. EDIT: I noticed another weird thing now. In the line cur.execute("SELECT * FROM Products WHERE account_id = %d" % acc_id), I hard-coded the acc_id value, i.e made it cur.execute("SELECT * FROM Products WHERE account_id = %d" % 322) and it returns all rows

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  • DB optimization to use it as a queue

    - by anony
    We have a table called worktable which has some columns(key(primary key), ptime, aname, status, content) we have something called producer which puts in rows in this table and we have consumer which does an order-by on the key column and fetches the first row which has status as 'pending'. The consumer does some processing on this row: 1. updates status to "processing" 2. does some processing using content 3. deletes the row we are facing contention issues when we try to run multiple consumers(probably due to the order-by which does a full table scan)... using Advanced queues would be our next step but before we go there we want to check what is the max throughput we can achieve with multiple consumers and producer on the table. What are the optimizations we can do to get the best numbers possible? Can we do an in-memory processing where a consumer fetches 1000 rows at a time processes and deletes? will that improve? What are other possibilities? partitioning of table? parallelization? Index organized tables?...

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  • How to construct objects based on XML code?

    - by the_drow
    I have XML files that are representation of a portion of HTML code. Those XML files also have widget declarations. Example XML file: <message id="msg"> <p> <Widget name="foo" type="SomeComplexWidget" attribute="value"> inner text here, sets another attribute or inserts another widget to the tree if needed... </Widget> </p> </message> I have a main Widget class that all of my widgets inherit from. The question is how would I create it? Here are my options: Create a compile time tool that will parse the XML file and create the necessary code to bind the widgets to the needed objects. Advantages: No extra run-time overhead induced to the system. It's easy to bind setters. Disadvantages: Adds another step to the build chain. Hard to maintain as every widget in the system should be added to the parser. Use of macros to bind the widgets. Complex code Find a method to register all widgets into a factory automatically. Advantages: All of the binding is done completely automatically. Easier to maintain then option 1 as every new widget will only need to call a WidgetFactory method that registers it. Disadvantages: No idea how to bind setters without introducing a maintainability nightmare. Adds memory and run-time overhead. Complex code What do you think is better? Can you guys suggest a better solution?

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  • Google maps api Directions User defined Steps

    - by Via Lactea
    Hi All, I have a google map service with the stores mapped on it. I also have directions service (then you define two addresses or more and it shows you a way on this map, see google map api directions). So I wa?? to show the nearest stores to this way. Of course it could be the store located in the next streat of my way, so it also should be included to the list. So far I just found only an array of steps in the directions object which I get from google maps api. But these steps are predefined by google, so they can be too close one each to other and they also can be too far (if a part of your route is a highway or there is no any special steps on your way etc.) So, what I want to do. I want to make my own steps on the line that I get from google directions (for example to put these steps on my line every 500 meeters etc.), and after that to search every step for any stores around 200 meeters. Is it possible to do? I cannot find any solution of this idea in internet.

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  • Jquery conditionals, window locations, and viewdata. Oh my!

    - by John Stuart
    I have one last thing left on a project and its a doozy. Not only is this my first web application, but its the first app i used Jquery, CSS and MVC. I have no idea on how to proceed with this. What i am trying to do is: In my controller, a waste item is validated, and based on the results one of these things can happen. The validation is completed, nothing bad happens, which sets ViewData["FailedWasteId"] to -9999. Its a new waste item and the validation did not pass, which sets ViewData["FailedWasteId"] to 0. Its an existing waste item and the validation did not pass, which sets ViewData["FailedWasteId"] to the id of the waste item. This ViewData["FailedWasteId"] is set on page load using <%=Html.Hidden("wFailId", int.Parse(ViewData["WasteFailID"].ToString()))%> When the validations do not pass, then the page zooms (by window.location) to an invisible div, opens the invisible div etc. Hopefully my intentions are clear with this poor attempt at jquery. The new waste div is and the existing item divs are dynamically generated (this i know works) " So my question here is... Help? I cant even get the data to parse correctly, nor can i even get the conditionals to work. And since this happens after post, i cant get firebug to help my step through the debugger, as the script isnt loaded yet. $(document).ready(function () { var wasteId = parseInt($('#wFailId').text()); if (wasteId == -9999) { //No Issue } else if (wasteId < 0) { //Waste not saved to database } else if (wasteId == 0) { //New Waste window.location = '#0'; $('.editPanel').hide(); $('#GeneratedWasteGrid:first').before(newRow); $('.editPanel').appendTo('#edit-panel-row').slideDown('slow'); } else if (wasteId > 0) { //Waste saved to database } });

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  • A question of long-running and disruptive branches

    - by Matt Enright
    We are about to begin prototyping a new application that will share some existing infrastructure assemblies with an existing application, and also involve a significant subset of the existing domain model. Parts of the domain model will likely undergo some serious changes for this new application, and the endgame for all of this, once the new application has been fully specified and is launch-ready is that we would like to re-unify the models of the two applications (as well as share a database, link functionality, etc.), but for the duration of development, prototyping, etc, we will be using a separate database so that we can change things without worrying about impact to development or use of the existing application. Since it is a prototype, there will be a pretty long window during which serious changes or rearchitecturing can occur as product management experiments with different workflows, different customer bases are surveyed, and we try and keep up. We have already made a Subversion branch, so as to not impact concurrent development on the mature application, and are toying with 2 potential ways of moving forward with this: Use the svn branch as the sole mechanism of separation. Make our changes to the existing domain models, and evaluate their impact on the existing application (and make requisite changes to ProjectA) when we have established that our long-running side branch is stable enough for re-entry to trunk. "Fork" the shared code (temporarily): Copy ProjectA.Entities to NewProject.Entities, and treat all of the NewProject code as self-contained. When all of the perturbations around the model have died down and we feel satisfied, manually re-integrate the changes (as granular or sweeping as warranted) back into ProjectA.Entities, updating ProjectA to use the improved models at each step (this can take place either before or after the subversion merge has occurred). The subversion merge will then not handle recombination of any of the heavy changes here. Note: the "fork" method only applies to the code we see significant changes in store for, and whose modification will break ProjectA - shared infrastructure stuff for example, we would just modify in place (on our branch) and let the merge sort out. Development is hard, go shopping. Naturally, after not coming to an agreement, we're turning it over to the oracle of power that is SO. Any experience with any of these methods, pain points to watch out for, something new entirely?

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  • How to avoid raising an event to a closed form?

    - by Steve Dignan
    I'm having trouble handling the scenario whereby an event is being raised to a closed form and was hoping to get some help. Scenario (see below code for reference): Form1 opens Form2 Form1 subscribes to an event on Form2 (let's call the event FormAction) Form1 is closed and Form2 remains open Form2 raises the FormAction event In Form1.form2_FormAction, why does this return a reference to Form1 but button1.Parent returns null? Shouldn't they both return the same reference? If we were to omit step 3, both this and button1.Parent return the same reference. Here's the code I'm using... Form1: public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1 () { InitializeComponent(); } private void button1_Click ( object sender , EventArgs e ) { // Create instance of Form2 and subscribe to the FormAction event var form2 = new Form2(); form2.FormAction += form2_FormAction; form2.Show(); } private void form2_FormAction ( object o ) { // Always returns reference to Form1 var form = this; // If Form1 is open, button1.Parent is equal to form/this // If Form1 is closed, button1.Parent is null var parent = button1.Parent; } } Form2: public partial class Form2 : Form { public Form2 () { InitializeComponent(); } public delegate void FormActionHandler ( object o ); public event FormActionHandler FormAction = delegate { }; private void button1_Click ( object sender , EventArgs e ) { FormAction( "Button clicked." ); } } Ideally, I would like to avoid raising events to closed/disposed forms (which I'm not sure is possible) or find a clean way of handling this in the caller (in this case, Form1). Any help is appreciated.

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  • Grab two parts of a single, short string

    - by TankorSmash
    I'm looking to fill a python dict with TAG:definition pairs, and I'm using RegExr http://gskinner.com/RegExr/ to write the regex My first step is to parse a line, from http://www.id3.org/id3v2.3.0, or http://pastebin.com/VJEBGauL and pull out the ID3 tag and the associated definition. For example the first line: 4.20 AENC [#sec4.20 Audio encryption] would look like this myDict = {'AENC' : 'Audio encryption'} To grab the tag name, I've got it looking for at least 3 spaces, then 4 characters, then 4 spaces: {3}[a-zA-Z0-9]{4} {4} That part is easy enough. The second part, the definition, is not working out for me. So far, I've got (?<=(\[#.+?)) A Which should find, but not include the [# as well as an indeterminded set of characters until it finds: _A, but it's failing. If I remove .+? and replace _A with s it works out alright. What is going wrong? *The underscores represent spaces, which don't show up on SO. How do I grab the definition, ie,(Audio encryption) of the ID3v2 tag from the line, using RegEx?

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  • Iterative Reduction to Null Matrix

    - by user1459032
    Here's the problem: I'm given a matrix like Input: 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 At each step, I need to find a "second" matrix of 1's and 0's with no two 1's on the same row or column. Then, I'll subtract the second matrix from the original matrix. I will repeat the process until I get a matrix with all 0's. Furthermore, I need to take the least possible number of steps. I need to print all the "second" matrices in O(n) time. In the above example I can get to the null matrix in 3 steps by subtracting these three matrices in order: Expected output: 1 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 1 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 1 0 0 1 0 0 0 1 1 0 0 I have coded an attempt, in which I am finding the first maximum value and creating the second matrices based on the index of that value. But for the above input I am getting 4 output matrices, which is wrong: My output: 1 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 1 0 1 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 1 0 My solution works for most of the test cases but fails for the one given above. Can someone give me some pointers on how to proceed, or find an algorithm that guarantees optimality? Test case that works: Input: 0 2 1 0 0 0 3 0 0 Output 0 1 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 1 0 0

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  • Copy/publish images linked from the html files to another server and update the HTML files referenci

    - by Phil
    I am publishing content from a Drupal CMS to static HTML pages on another domain, hosted on a second server. Building the HTML files was simple (using PHP/MySQL to write the files). I have a list of images referenced in my HTML, all of which exist below the /userfiles/ directory. cat *.html | grep -oE [^\'\"]+userfiles[\/.*]*/[^\'\"] | sort | uniq Which produces a list of files http://my.server.com/userfiles/Another%20User1.jpg http://my.server.com/userfiles/image/image%201.jpg ... My next step is to copy these images across to the second server and translate the tags in the html files. I understand that sed is probably the tool I would need. E.g.: sed 's/[^"]\+userfiles[\/image]\?\/\([^"]\+\)/\/images\/\1/g' Should change http://my.server.com/userfiles/Another%20User1.jpg to /images/Another%20User1.jpg, but I cannot work out exactly how I would use the script. I.e. can I use it to update the files in place or do I need to juggle temporary files, etc. Then how can I ensure that the files are moved to the correct location on the second server

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  • visual studio attaching to a process in debug mode

    - by user1612986
    i have a strange problem. the dll that i built (lets call it my.dll) in c++ visual studio 2010 uses a third party library (say tp.lib) which in turn calls a third party dll (say tp.dll). for debugging prupose i have in configurationProperties-debugging-command: Excel.exe and configurationProperties-debugging-commandArguments: "$(TargetPath)" in my computer i also set PATH variable to the directory where tp.dll resides now when i hit the F5 in visual studio excel opens up with my.dll and crashes giving me a "cannot open in dos mode" error. the reason this happens is tp.dll is not deployed when debug version of my.dll is deployed. when i open an instance of excel seperately and manually drop the debug version of my.dll then everything works fine and i can see all my functions that i wrote in my.dll the only issue is now i do not know how to debug becuase i do not know how to attach visual studio to the instance of excel i opened up seperately. my question is: 1 how can i attach visual studio to an already opened instance of Excel or 2 how can i hit F5 and still make Excel pick up the required tp.dll from the directory specified in the PATH variable before it starts to deploy my.dll. any of these two will allow my to step through the code for the purpose of debugging. thanks in advance.

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  • Two references to the same domain/entity model

    - by Sbossb
    Problem I want to save the attributes of a model that have changed when a user edits them. Here's what I want to do ... Retrieve edited view model Get domain model and map back updated value Call the update method on repository Get the "old" domain model and compare values of the fields Store the changed values (in JSON) into a table However I am having trouble with step number 4. It seems that the Entity Framework doesn't want to hit the database again to get the model with the old values. It just returns the same entity I have. Attempted Solutions I have tried using the Find() and the SingleOrDefault() methods, but they just return the model I currently have. Example Code private string ArchiveChanges(T updatedEntity) { //Here is the problem! //oldEntity is the same as updatedEntity T oldEntity = DbSet.SingleOrDefault(x => x.ID == updatedEntity.ID); Dictionary<string, object> changed = new Dictionary<string, object>(); foreach (var propertyInfo in typeof(T).GetProperties()) { var property = typeof(T).GetProperty(propertyInfo.Name); //Get the old value and the new value from the models var newValue = property.GetValue(updatedEntity, null); var oldValue = property.GetValue(oldEntity, null); //Check to see if the values are equal if (!object.Equals(newValue, oldValue)) { //Values have changed ... log it changed.Add(propertyInfo.Name, newValue); } } var ser = new System.Web.Script.Serialization.JavaScriptSerializer(); return ser.Serialize(changed); } public override void Update(T entityToUpdate) { //Do something with this string json = ArchiveChanges(entityToUpdate); entityToUpdate.AuditInfo.Updated = DateTime.Now; entityToUpdate.AuditInfo.UpdatedBy = Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name; base.Update(entityToUpdate); }

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  • Java - Image encoding in XML

    - by Hoopla
    Hi everyone, I thought I would find a solution to this problem relatively easily, but here I am calling upon the help from ye gods to pull me out of this conundrum. So, I've got an image and I want to store it in an XML document using Java. I have previously achieved this in VisualBasic by saving the image to a stream, converting the stream to an array, and then VB's xml class was able to encode the array as a base64 string. But, after a couple of hours of scouring the net for an equivalent solution in Java, I've come back empty handed. The only success I have had has been by: import it.sauronsoftware.base64.*; import java.awt.image.BufferedImage; import org.w3c.dom.*; ... BufferedImage img; Element node; ... java.io.ByteArrayOutputStream os = new java.io.ByteArrayOutputStream(); ImageIO.write(img, "png", os); byte[] array = Base64.encode(os.toByteArray()); String ss = arrayToString(array, ","); node.setTextContent(ss); ... private static String arrayToString(byte[] a, String separator) { StringBuffer result = new StringBuffer(); if (a.length > 0) { result.append(a[0]); for (int i=1; i<a.length; i++) { result.append(separator); result.append(a[i]); } } return result.toString(); } Which is okay I guess, but reversing the process to get it back to an image when I load the XML file has proved impossible. If anyone has a better way to encode/decode an image in an XML file, please step forward, even if it's just a link to another thread that would be fine. Cheers in advance, Hoopla.

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  • Creating a image viewer window controll.

    - by Scott Chamberlain
    I am learning GDI+ and I am trying to make a display window with scroll bars (so I can only see part of the image at a time and I can scroll around it). I have read through the basics of GDI+ from several books but I have not found any good tutorials online or in books available to me about doing more advanced things like this. Any recommendations on guides or example code on how do do this? Here is what I have so far protected override void OnPaint(PaintEventArgs e) { base.OnPaint(e); if (Label != null) { using (Bitmap drawnLabel = new Bitmap(Label.LabelHeight, Label.LableLength, System.Drawing.Imaging.PixelFormat.Format1bppIndexed)) using (Graphics drawBuffer = Graphics.FromImage(drawnLabel)) { drawBuffer.ScaleTransform(_ImageScaleFactor, _ImageScaleFactor); foreach (Epl2.IDrawableCommand cmd in Label.Collection) { cmd.Paint(drawBuffer); } drawBuffer.ResetTransform(); } } } I would like to paint this in to a PictureBox I have on the control and control what is shown by a VScrollBar and HScrollBar but I don't know how to do that step. P.S. Label is a custom class that I have in my namespace, it is a object that represents a label you would print from a label printer.

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  • Why changing the images name on server results in calling the old ones?

    - by moderns
    I am running a slideshow on Ubuntu 12.04.1 that loads the images (slide1.jpg, slide2.jpg, slide3.jpg.., slide5.jpg) using the Javascript and styles as below: document.getElementById('slide_area').className='slide'+step; .slide1{background-image: url(../upload/slide1.jpg)} .slide2{background-image: url(../upload/slide2.jpg)} .slide3{background-image: url(../upload/slide3.jpg)} .slide4{background-image: url(../upload/slide4.jpg)} .slide5{background-image: url(../upload/slide5.jpg)} When I change the images names (show1.jpg, show2.jpg, show3.jpg.., show5.jpg) and also change the style as below: .slide1{background-image: url(../upload/show1.jpg)} .slide2{background-image: url(../upload/show2.jpg)} .slide3{background-image: url(../upload/show3.jpg)} .slide4{background-image: url(../upload/show4.jpg)} .slide5{background-image: url(../upload/show5.jpg)} And open the network section on Chrome, I see the server is calling the new name and old name for images! I added the header in the index.php: header("Cache-Control: no-store, no-cache, must-revalidate, max-age=0"); header("Expires: Sat, 26 Jul 1997 05:00:00 GMT"); // Date in the past header("Cache-Control: post-check=0, pre-check=0", false); header("Pragma: no-cache"); Nothing worked out with me and the slideshow doesn't work properly when I change the name of images even when clearing the browser cache as I load images sequentially (one by one) depending on imageObject.complete property! But without changing the name everything is going perfect and the images are loaded smoothly! Thank you for your help!

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  • Combine Arbitrary number of polygons together

    - by Jakobud
    I have an arbitrary number of polygons (hexes in this case) that are arranged randomly, but they are all touching another hex. Each individual hex has 6 x,y vertices. The vertex's are known for all the hexes. Can anyone point me in the direction of an algorithm that will combine all the hexes into a single polygon? Essentially I'm just looking for a function that spits out an array of vertex locations that are ordered in a way that when drawing lines from one to the next, it forms the polygon. This is my method so far: Create array of all the vertices for all the hexes. Determine the number of times a vertex occurs in the array If vertex is in the array 3+ times, delete the vertices from the array. If vertex is in the array 2 times, delete one of them. The next step is tricky though. I'm using canvas to draw out these polygons, which essentially involves drawing a line from one vertex to the next. So the order of the vertices in the final array is important. It can't be sorted arbitrarily. Also, I'm not looking for a "convex hull" algorithm, as that would not draw the polygon correctly. Are there any functions out there that do something like this? Am I on the right track or is there a better more efficient way?

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  • OpenLayers eraseFeatures doesn't erase features from map screen.

    - by Jenny
    I'm using OpenLayers, and have a layer for my Map, and a single Vector Layer. In this vector layer, I am using the DrawFeature control to draw a square. I have a listener waiting for a feature to be added, and then deleting any existing features (I only want one square at a time), like so: polygonLayer.events.register("beforefeatureadded", feature, function(evt){ console.log("Clearing existing polygons"); console.log(polygonLayer.features.length); polygonLayer.destroyFeatures(); polygonLayer.redraw(); });//end attempt at events registration When I check my layer.features.size, I can see that it's always 1, just like I expect, but the squares on the screen are still displayed. Even when I call .redraw() on the layer, the squares are still there. Is there some extra step I'm missing? Edit: You can find my code here: http://pastie.org/909644 Edit: Just realized: If I draw a square from previously existing coordinates, I can clear it just fine. It seems to be just the squares drawn from the controller that are an issue?

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  • Is it possible to access the SMIL timer from javascript?

    - by Will
    I'm trying to use SMIL to animate the typing of text into a field embedded in a SVG. I tried the following code in both Chrome and a SMIL-enable Firefox nightly, but it has no effect: <svg xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" xmlns:html="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <foreignObject> <html:input type="text" value=""> <set attributeName="value" to="Hello World" begin="0" dur="10s" fill="freeze" /> </html:input> </foreignObject> </svg> The text field appears, but remains empty. So, I thought I would register for the beginEvent and do the substitution manually. To test the events, I added: <rect id="rect" x="0" y="0" width="10" height="10"> <animate id="dx" attributeName="x" attributeType="XML" begin="0s" dur="1s" fill="freeze" from="0" to="-10" /> </rect> As well as the javascript that made sense from the event model: window.addEventListener( 'load', function() { function listen( id ) { var elem = document.getElementById( id ) elem.addEventListener( 'beginEvent', function() { console.log( 'begin ' + id ) }, false ) elem.addEventListener( 'endEvent', function() { console.log( 'end ' + id ) }, false ) } listen( 'rect' ) listen( 'dx' ) }) But there's no events fired on either the rect or the animate in either browser. The next logical step seems to be to simulate the animation (ala. FakeSmile), but I want to use the browser's animation timer if at all possible.

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  • Protecting routes with authentication in an AngularJS app

    - by Chris White
    Some of my AngularJS routes are to pages which require the user to be authenticated with my API. In those cases, I'd like the user to be redirected to the login page so they can authenticate. For example, if a guest accesses /account/settings, they should be redirected to the login form. From brainstorming I came up with listening for the $locationChangeStart event and if it's a location which requires authentication then redirect the user to the login form. I can do that simple enough in my applications run() event: .run(['$rootScope', function($rootScope) { $rootScope.$on('$locationChangeStart', function(event) { // Decide if this location required an authenticated user and redirect appropriately }); }]); The next step is keeping a list of all my applications routes that require authentication, so I tried adding them as parameters to my $routeProvider: $routeProvider.when('/account/settings', {templateUrl: '/partials/account/settings.html', controller: 'AccountSettingCtrl', requiresAuthentication: true}); But I don't see any way to get the requiresAuthentication key from within the $locationChangeStart event. Am I overthinking this? I tried to find a way for Angular to do this natively but couldn't find anything.

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  • asp.net - updatepannel can't read innerHTML?

    - by omega
    In my asp.net page, I have a jquery sortable accordian (in an update panel) I use so that clients can re-arrange items. Then to save it, users would click a button (thats created from jquery) and it would traverse through the accoridion in the DOM, and write the info to a asp control textbox. Then invoke the click function of a asp button control, which then reads that information and saves the data. But now I decided to simplify this step, and use html agility pack in c#, so users click the asp button control (inside an update panel), and then it would get the innerHTML of the accordian. But the problem is, the html it's getting is not the reflecting the changes a user can make to the accordion (i.e. re arranging it), it the same as when the DOM was ready on page load... But note that, using javascript to write the innerHTML to a textbox, then from the c# function, I can read the up to date html from the accordian. Does anyone know why this is happening and how to get the up to data html from the accordian in c#?

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  • Linking Error Building 64bit Qt app on 32bit XP machine.

    - by photo_tom
    I'm trying to build a 64 bit version of my application (and yes I really do need the memory) on my 32bit xp dev box for production testing on our Vista64 server. Previously, I have built w/o any errors the Qt 4.6.2 DLL's in 64 bit mode. That step went vary smooth. Just to get started in building production, I'm trying to rebuild Qt's Star Delegate demo in 64bit mode. I converted the 32bit to 64bit app by changing the application configuration and adjusting the library's to the 64bit venisons. Now, when I go to link, I'm getting the following error when I link 1>------ Build started: Project: stardelegate, Configuration: Release x64 ------ 1>Linking... 1>MSVCRT.lib(crtexew.obj) : error LNK2001: unresolved external symbol WinMain 1>release64\stardelegate.exe : fatal error LNK1120: 1 unresolved externals Suggestions? edit - After some more searching, discovered if I link as a console app it will work and run. But not as a windows app. And I don't have this problem in 32 bit mode.

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  • Question about how AppFabric's cache feature can be used.

    - by Kevin Buchan
    Question about how AppFabric's cache feature can be used. I apologize for asking a question that I should be able to answer from the documentation, but I have read and read and searched and cannot answer this question, which leads me to believe that I have a fundamentally flawed understanding of what AppFabric's caching capabilities are intended for. I work for a geographically disperse company. We have a particular application that was originally written as a client/server application. It’s so massive and business critical that we want to baby step converting it to a better architected solution. One of the ideas we had was to convert the app to read its data using WCF calls to a co-located web server that would cache communication with the database in the United States. The nature of the application is such that everyone will tend to be viewing the same 2000 records or so with only occasional updates and those updates will be made by a limited set of users. I was hoping that AppFabric’s cache mechanism would allow me to set up one global cache and when a user in Asia, for example, requested data that was not in the cache or was stale that the web server would read from the database in the USA, provide the data to the user, then update the cache which would propagate that data to the other web servers so that they would know not to go back to the database themselves. Can AppFabric work this way or should I just have the servers retrieve their own data from the database?

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  • Processing a resultset to look up foriegn keys (and poulate a new table!)

    - by Gilly
    Hi, I've been handed a dataset that has some fairly basic table structures with no keys at all. eg {myRubishTable} - Area(varchar),AuthorityName(varchar),StartYear(varchar),StartMonth(varcha),EndYear(varchar),EndMonth(varchar),Amount(Money) there are other tables that use the Area and AuthorityName columns as well as a general use of Month and Years so I I figured a good first step was to pull Area and Authority into their own tables. I now want to process the data in the original table and lookup the key value to put into my new table with foreign keys which looks like this. (lookup Tables) {Area} - id (int, PK), name (varchar(50)) {AuthorityName} - id(int, PK), name(varchar(50) (TargetTable) {myBetterTable} - id (int,PK), area_id(int FK-Area),authority_name_id(int FK-AuthorityName),StartYear (varchar),StartMonth(varchar),EndYear(varchar),EndMonth(varchar),Amount(money) so row one in the old table read MYAREA, MYAUTHORITY,2009,Jan,2010,Feb,10000 and I want to populate the new table with 1,1,1,2009,Jan,2010,Feb,10000 where the first '1' is the primary key and the second two '1's are the ids in the lookup tables. Can anyone point me to the most efficient way of achieving this using just SQL? Thanks in advance Footnote:- I've achieved what I needed with some pretty simple WHERE clauses (I had left a rogue tablename in the FROM which was throwing me :o( ) but would be interested to know if this is the most efficient. ie SELECT [area].[area_id], [authority].[authority_name_id], [myRubishTable].[StartYear], [myRubishTable].[StartMonth], [myRubishTable].[EndYear], [myRubishTable].[EndMonth], [myRubishTable].[Amount] FROM [myRubishTable],[Area],[AuthorityName] WHERE [myRubishTable].[Area]=[Area].[name] AND [myRubishTable].[Authority Name]=[dim_AuthorityName].[name] TIA

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  • C++, inject additional data in a method

    - by justik
    I am adding the new modul in some large library. All methods here are implemented as static. Let mi briefly describe the simplified model: typedef std::vector<double> TData; double test ( const TData &arg ) { return arg ( 0 ) * sin ( arg ( 1 ) + ...;} double ( * p_test ) ( const TData> &arg) = &test; class A { public: static T f1 (TData &input) { .... //some computations B::f2 (p_test); } }; Inside f1() some computations are perfomed and a static method B::f2 is called. The f2 method is implemented by another author and represents some simulation algorithm (example here is siplified). class B { public: static double f2 (double ( * p_test ) ( const TData &arg ) ) { //difficult algorithm working p_test many times double res = p_test(arg); } }; The f2 method has a pointer to some weight function (here p_test). But in my case some additional parameters computed in f1 for test() methods are required double test ( const TData &arg, const TData &arg2, char *arg3.... ) { } How to inject these parameters into test() (and so to f2) to avoid changing the source code of the f2 methods (that is not trivial), redesign of the library and without dirty hacks :-) ? The most simple step is to override f2 static double f2 (double ( * p_test ) ( const TData &arg ), const TData &arg2, char *arg3.... ) But what to do later? Consider, that methods are static, so there will be problems with objects. Thanks for your help.

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