Search Results

Search found 7217 results on 289 pages for 'nice'.

Page 243/289 | < Previous Page | 239 240 241 242 243 244 245 246 247 248 249 250  | Next Page >

• Anything like Heroku for PHP or .NET?

  - by Wayne M

  In my area PHP is very widespread, so is .NET. Ruby not so much; most places have never heard of it. For some personal things I am "forced" to choose Rails because I want to take advantage of Heroku - the ability to deploy and scale on the cloud very easily is the main reason. Also, they offer a small FREE plan that I can use for demo sites or, in this case, for my business' static page; as a totally bootstrapped startup I have maybe $50 or so in initial capital and cannot afford to pay monthly fees while I'm getting started. Are there any similar offerings for other languages? Specifically, I really like the small, 5MB site for free that Heroku offers - is there anything like that for PHP and/or .NET? I'm not even that concerned about the "cloud" part, but that would be a nice bonus. If there is, I might be able to kill two birds with one stone and pick up a useful skill as I'm doing my own thing instead of using something that nobody else knows or cares about. I should add I'm specifically interested in something that offers a free plan. As I said, Heroku has a 5mb plan that you can have as many as you want for free; I have yet to find anything similar for any other platform, and to be honest I'm not too thrilled about using Ruby on Rails for everything simply to take advantage of this.

  Read the article

• C#: How to implement a smart cache

  - by Svish

  I have some places where implementing some sort of cache might be useful. For example in cases of doing resource lookups based on custom strings, finding names of properties using reflection, or to have only one PropertyChangedEventArgs per property name. A simple example of the last one: public static class Cache { private static Dictionary<string, PropertyChangedEventArgs> cache; static Cache() { cache = new Dictionary<string, PropertyChangedEventArgs>(); } public static PropertyChangedEventArgs GetPropertyChangedEventArgsa(string propertyName) { if (cache.ContainsKey(propertyName)) return cache[propertyName]; return cache[propertyName] = new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName); } } But, will this work well? For example if we had a whole load of different propertyNames, that would mean we would end up with a huge cache sitting there never being garbage collected or anything. I'm imagining if what is cached are larger values and if the application is a long-running one, this might end up as kind of a problem... or what do you think? How should a good cache be implemented? Is this one good enough for most purposes? Any examples of some nice cache implementations that are not too hard to understand or way too complex to implement?

  Read the article

• When calling a static method on parent class, can the parent class deduce the type on the child (C#)

  - by Matt

  Suppose we have 2 classes, Child, and the class from which it inherits, Parent. class Parent { public static void MyFunction(){} } class Child : Parent { } Is it possible to determine in the parent class how the method was called? Because we can call it two ways: Parent.MyFunction(); Child.MyFunction(); My current approach was trying to use: MethodInfo.GetCurrentMethod().ReflectedType; // and MethodInfo.GetCurrentMethod().DeclaringType; But both appear to return the Parent type. If you are wondering what, exactly I am trying to accomplish (and why I am violating the basic OOP rule that the parent shouldn't have to know anything about the child), the short of it is this (let me know if you want the long version): I have a Model structure representing some of our data that persists to the database. All of these models inherit from an abstract Parent. This parent implements a couple of events, such as SaveEvent, DeleteEvent, etc. We want to be able to subscribe to events specific to the type. So, even though the event is in the parent, I want to be able to do: Child.SaveEvent += new EventHandler((sender, args) => {}); I have everything in place, where the event is actually backed by a dictionary of event handlers, hashed by type. The last thing I need to get working is correctly detecting the Child type, when doing Child.SaveEvent. I know I can implement the event in each child class (even forcing it through use of abstract), but it would be nice to keep it all in the parent, which is the class actually firing the events (since it implements the common save/delete/change functionality).

  Read the article

• Using enum values to represent binary operators (or functions)

  - by Bears will eat you

  I'm looking for an elegant way to use values in a Java enum to represent operations or functions. My guess is, since this is Java, there just isn't going to be a nice way to do it, but here goes anyway. My enum looks something like this: public enum Operator { LT, LTEQ, EQEQ, GT, GTEQ, NEQ; ... } where LT means < (less than), LTEQ means <= (less than or equal to), etc - you get the idea. Now I want to actually use these enum values to apply an operator. I know I could do this just using a whole bunch of if-statements, but that's the ugly, OO way, e.g.: int a = ..., b = ...; Operator foo = ...; // one of the enum values if (foo == Operator.LT) { return a < b; } else if (foo == Operator.LTEQ) { return a <= b; } else if ... // etc What I'd like to be able to do is cut out this structure and use some sort of first-class function or even polymorphism, but I'm not really sure how. Something like: int a = ..., b = ...; Operator foo = ...; return foo.apply(a, b); or even int a = ..., b = ...; Operator foo = ...; return a foo.convertToOperator() b; But as far as I've seen, I don't think it's possible to return an operator or function (at least, not without using some 3rd-party library). Any suggestions?

  Read the article

• Application HANGS UP if 3G connection is used (WiFi is OK)

  - by SkyEagle888

  Hi, My application uses the following codes to connect to web site and download a web page for processing. HttpURLConnection c = (HttpURLConnection) url.openConnection(); c.setRequestMethod("GET"); c.setRequestProperty("User-Agent", "Mozilla/3.0 (compatible; MSIE 4.0; Windows NT)"); c.setRequestProperty("Accept-Language", "zh-hk"); c.setRequestProperty("Connection", "Keep-Alive"); c.setConnectTimeout(6000); // mTimeout is in seconds intTries = 3; do { c.connect(); if (c.getResponseCode() == 200) { break; } else { intTries --; } } while (intTries > 0); The codes are run in main thread only. If WiFi is being used, it is nice and clean. If 3G connection is being used, sometimes, it cannot get connected OR application HANGS. Is there any significant difference between handling WiFi and 3G ? Thanks.

  Read the article

• (Java) Get value of string loaded into dynamic-type object?

  - by Michael

  I'm very new to Java (~10 days), so my code is probably pretty bad, but here's what I've got: ArgsDataHolder argsData = new ArgsDataHolder(); // a class that holds two // ArrayList's where each element // representing key/value args Class thisArgClass; String thisArgString; Object thisArg; for(int i=2; i< argsString.length; i++) { thisToken = argsString[i]; thisArgClassString = getClassStringFromToken(thisToken).toLowerCase(); System.out.println("thisArgClassString: " + thisArgClassString); thisArgClass = getClassFromClassString(thisArgClassString); // find closing tag; concatenate middle Integer j = new Integer(i+1); thisArgString = getArgValue(argsString, j, "</" + thisArgClassString + ">"); thisArg = thisArgClass.newInstance(); thisArg = thisArgClass.valueOf(thisArgString); argsData.append(thisArg, thisArgClass); } The user basically has to input a set of key/value arguments into the command prompt in this format: <class>value</class>, e.g. <int>62</int>. Using this example, thisArgClass would be equal to Integer.class, thisArgString would be a string that read "62", and thisArg would be an instance of Integer that is equal to 62. I tried thisArg.valueOf(thisArgString), but I guess valueOf(<String>) is only a method of certain subclasses of Object. For whatever reason, I can't seem to be able to cast thisArg to thisArgClass (like so: thisArg = (thisArgClass)thisArgClass.newInstance();, at which point valueOf(<String>) should become accessible. There's got to be a nice, clean way of doing this, but it is beyond my abilities at this point. How can I get the value of the string loaded into a dynamically-typed object (Integer, Long, Float, Double, String, Character, Boolean, etc.)? Or am I just overthinking this, and Java will do the conversion for me? :confused:

  Read the article

• what's a good technique for building and running many similar unit tests?

  - by jcollum

  I have a test setup where I have many very similar unit tests that I need to run. For example, there are about 40 stored procedures that need to be checked for existence in the target environment. However I'd like all the tests to be grouped by their business unit. So there'd be 40 instances of a very similar TestMethod in 40 separate classes. Kinda lame. One other thing: each group of tests need to be in their own solution. So Business Unit A will have a solution called Tests.BusinessUnitA. I'm thinking that I can set this all up by passing a configuration object (with the name of the stored proc to check, among other things) to a TestRunner class. The problem is that I'm losing the atomicity of my unit tests. I wouldn't be able to run just one of the tests, I'd have to run all the tests in the TestRunner class. This is what the code looks like at this time. Sure, it's nice and compact, but if Test 8 fails, I have no way of running just Test 8. TestRunner runner = new TestRunner(config, this.TestContext); var runnerType = typeof(TestRunner); var methods = runnerType.GetMethods() .Where(x => x.GetCustomAttributes(typeof(TestMethodAttribute), false) .Count() > 0).ToArray(); foreach (var method in methods) { method.Invoke(runner, null); } So I'm looking for suggestions for making a group of unit tests that take in a configuration object but won't require me to generate many many TestMethods. This looks like it might require code-generation, but I'd like to solve it without that.

  Read the article

• How do browser cookie domains work?

  - by Vilx-

  Due to weird domain/subdomain cookie issues that I'm getting, I'd like to know how browsers handle cookies. If they do it in different ways, it would also be nice to know the differences. In other words - when a browser receives a cookie, that cookie MAY have a domain and a path attached to it. Or not, in which case the browser probably substitutes some defaults for them. Question 1: what are they? Later, when the browser is about to make a request, it checks its cookies and filters out the ones it should send for that request. It does so by matching them against the requests path and domain. Question 2: what are the matching rules? Added: The reason I'm asking this is because I'm interested in some edge cases. Like: Will a cookie for .example.com be available for www.example.com? Will a cookie for .example.com be available for example.com? Will a cookie for example.com be available for www.example.com? Will a cookie for example.com be available for anotherexample.com? Will www.example.com be able to set cookie for example.com? Will www.example.com be able to set cookie for www2.example.com? Will www.example.com be able to set cookie for .com? Etc. Added 2: Also, could someone suggest how I should set a cookie so that: It can be set by either www.example.com or example.com; It is accessible by both www.example.com and example.com.

  Read the article

• how to pass vector of string to foo(char const *const *const)?

  - by user347208

  Hi, This is my first post so please be nice. I searched in this forum and googled but I still can not find the answer. This problem has bothered me for more than a day, so please give me some help. Thank you. I need to pass a vector of string to a library function foo(char const *const *const). I can not pass the &Vec[0] since it's a pointer to a string. Therefore, I have an array and pass the c_str() to that array. The following is my code (aNames is the vector of string): const char* aR[aNames.size()]; std::transform(aNames.begin(), aNames.end(), aR, boost::bind(&std::string::c_str, _1)); foo(aR); However, it seems it causes some undefined behavior: If I run the above code, then the function foo throw some warnings about illegal characters ('èI' blablabla) in aR. If I print aR before function foo like this: std::copy(aR, aR+rowNames.size(), std::ostream_iterator<const char*>(std::cout, "\n")); foo(aR); Then, everything is fine. My questions are: Does the conversion causes undefined behavior? If so, why? What is the correct way to pass vector of string to foo(char const *const *const)? Thank you very much for your help!

  Read the article

• Why Is Java Missing Access Specifiers?

  - by Tom Tresansky

  Does anyone understand why Java is missing: An access specifier which allows access by the class and all subclasses, but NOT by other classes in the same package? (Protected-minus) An access specifier which allows access by the class, all classes in the same package, AND all classes in any sub-package? (Default-plus) An access specifier which adds classes in sub-packages to the entities currently allowed access by protected? (Protected-plus) I wish I had more choices than protected and default. In particular, I'm interested in the Protected-plus option. Say I want to use a Builder/Factory patterned class to produce an object with many links to other objects. The constructors on the objects are all default, because I want to force you to use the factory class to produce instances, in order to make sure the linking is done correctly. I want to group the factories in a sub-package to keep them all together and distinct from the objects they are instantiating---this just seems like a cleaner package structure to me. No can do, currently. I have to put the builders in the same package as the objects they are constructing, in order to gain the access to defaults. But separating project.area.objects from project.area.objects.builders would be so nice. So why is Java lacking these options? And, is there anyway to fake it?

  Read the article

• Translate an IQueryable instance to LINQ syntax in a string

  - by James Dunne

  I would like to find out if anyone has existing work surrounding formatting an IQueryable instance back into a LINQ C# syntax inside a string. It'd be a nice-to-have feature for an internal LINQ-to-SQL auditing framework I'm building. Once my framework gets the IQueryable instance from a data repository method, I'd like to output something like: This LINQ query: from ce in db.EiClassEnrollment join c in db.EiCourse on ce.CourseID equals c.CourseID join cl in db.EiClass on ce.ClassID equals cl.ClassID join t in db.EiTerm on ce.TermID equals t.TermID join st in db.EiStaff on cl.Instructor equals st.StaffID where (ce.StudentID == studentID) && (ce.TermID == termID) && (cl.Campus == campusID) select new { ce, cl, t, c, st }; Generates the following LINQ-to-SQL query: DECLARE @p0 int; DECLARE @p1 int; DECLARE @p2 int; SET @p0 = 777; SET @p1 = 778; SET @p2 = 779; SELECT [t0].[ClassEnrollmentID], ..., [t4].[Name] FROM [dbo].[ei_ClassEnrollment] AS [t0] INNER JOIN [dbo].[ei_Course] AS [t1] ON [t0].[CourseID] = [t1].[CourseID] INNER JOIN [dbo].[ei_Class] AS [t2] ON [t0].[ClassID] = [t2].[ClassID] INNER JOIN [dbo].[ei_Term] AS [t3] ON [t0].[TermID] = [t3].[TermID] INNER JOIN [dbo].[ei_Staff] AS [t4] ON [t2].[Instructor] = [t4].[StaffID] WHERE ([t0].[StudentID] = @p0) AND ([t0].[TermID] = @p1) AND ([t2].[Campus] = @p2) I already have the SQL output working as you can see. I just need to find a way to get the IQueryable to translate into a string representing its original LINQ syntax (with an acceptable translation loss). I'm not afraid of writing it myself, but I'd like to see if anyone else has done this first.

  Read the article

• Value is zero after filter SQL in C#

  - by Chuki2

  I`m new in C#.. I have write function to filter department. And this function will return idDepartment. New problem is, department keep value "System.Windows.Forms.Label, Text : ADMIN ", that`s why i got zero. So how can i take "ADMIN" only and keep to department? Update : public partial class frmEditStaff : Form { private string connString; private string userId, department; //Department parameter coming from here private string conString = "Datasource"; public frmEditStaff(string strUserID, string strPosition) { InitializeComponent(); //Pass value from frmListStaff to userID text box tbStaffId.Text = strUserID.ToString(); userId = strUserID.ToString(); department = strPosition.ToString(); } This code below is working, don`t have any problem. public int lookUpDepart() { int idDepart=0; using (SqlConnection openCon = new SqlConnection(conString)) { string lookUpDepartmenId = "SELECT idDepartment FROM tbl_department WHERE department = '" + department + "';"; openCon.Open(); using (SqlCommand querylookUpDepartmenId = new SqlCommand(lookUpDepartmenId, openCon)) { SqlDataReader read = querylookUpDepartmenId.ExecuteReader(); while (read.Read()) { idDepart = int.Parse(read[0].ToString()); break; } } openCon.Close(); return idDepart; } } Thanks for help. Happy nice day!

  Read the article

• An Array returned by a model association is not an Array?

  - by Warren

  We have a model association that looks something like this: class Example < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :others, :order => 'others.rank' end The rank column is an integer type. The details of these particular models are not really important though as we have found the same problem with other has_many associations between other models. We have also added to the Enumerable module: module Enumerable def method_missing(name) super unless name.to_s[0..7] == 'collect_' method = name.to_s[8..-1] collect{|element| element.send(method)} end end This adds a collect_id method that we can use to get an array of record ids from an array of ActiveRecord objects. So if we use a normal ActiveRecord find :all, we get a nice array which we can then use collect_id on but if we use Example.others.collect_id, we get NoMethodError: undefined method `collect_id' for #<Class:0x2aaaac0060a0> Example.others.class returns "Array" so is it lying or confused? Our solution thus far has been to use it this way: Example.others.to_a.collect_id This works but this seems a bit strange. Why would you have to do that? We are on Ruby 1.8.7 and Rails 2.3.4

  Read the article

• How do I conditionally compile C code snippets to my Perl module?

  - by mobrule

  I have a module that will target several different operating systems and configurations. Sometimes, some C code can make this module's task a little easier, so I have some C functions that I would like to bind the code. I don't have to bind the C functions -- I can't guarantee that the end-user even has a C compiler, for instance, and it's generally not a problem to failover gracefully to a pure Perl way of accomplishing the same thing -- but it would be nice if I could call the C functions from the Perl script. Still with me? Here's another tricky part. Just about all of the C code is system specific -- a function written for Windows won't compile on Linux and vice-versa, and the function that does a similar thing on Solaris will look totally different. #include <some/Windows/headerfile.h> int foo_for_Windows_c(int a,double b) { do_windows_stuff(); return 42; } #include <path/to/linux/headerfile.h> int foo_for_linux_c(int a,double b) { do_linux_stuff(7); return 42; } Furthermore, even for native code that targets the same system, it's possible that only some of them can be compiled on any particular configuration. #include <some/headerfile/that/might/not/even/exist.h> int bar_for_solaris_c(int a,double b) { call_solaris_library_that_might_be_installed_here(11); return 19; } But ideally we could still use the C functions that would compile with that configuration. So my questions are: how can I compile C functions conditionally (compile only the code that is appropriate for the current value of $^O)? how can I compile C functions individually (some functions might not compile, but we still want to use the ones that can)? can I do this at build-time (while the end-user is installing the module) or at run-time (with Inline::C, for example)? Which way is better? how would I tell which functions were successfully compiled and are available for use from Perl? All thoughts appreciated!

  Read the article

• Passing Javascript value to PHP Variable using ajax

  - by shels

  I am trying to use a Flash detection script to assess whether Flash Plugin is enabled in the user browser so that a different page loads. The Flash detection script is as follows, using jquery 1.8.2 and jquery.jqplugin 1.0.2 <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery-1.8.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.jqplugin.1.0.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#withflash").hide(); $("#noflash").hide(); if ($.browser.flash == true) $("#withflash").show (); else $("#noflash").show (); }); </script> <div id="withflash">Flash Supported</div> <div id="noflash">Flash Not Supported</div> I get the display that "Flash Supported" if Flash Plugin is present.. I need to capture the value whether flash plugin value is true in a php variable $hasFlashSupport as below: <?php echo " $hasFlashSupport"; exit; ?> I am aware that PHP is server based and Javascript is client based.. Hence Ajax would be a nice option to capture the javascript variable to my php variable. I am totally ignorant about Ajax syntax and how to achieve it. Request the experts here to help me out with the code on how this can be achieved... Thanking all of you in advance..

  Read the article

• Multiple collections tied to one base collection with filters and eventing

  - by damienc88

  I have a complex model served from my back end, which has a bunch of regular attributes, some nested models, and a couple of collections. My page has two tables, one for invalid items, and one for valid items. The items in question are from one of the nested collections. Let's call it baseModel.documentCollection, implementing DocumentsCollection. I don't want any filtration code in my Marionette.CompositeViews, so what I've done is the following (note, duplicated for the 'valid' case): var invalidDocsCollection = new DocumentsCollection( baseModel.documentCollection.filter(function(item) { return !item.isValidItem(); }) ); var invalidTableView = new BookIn.PendingBookInRequestItemsCollectionView({ collection: app.collections.invalidDocsCollection }); layout.invalidDocsRegion.show(invalidTableView); This is fine for actually populating two tables independently, from one base collection. But I'm not getting the whole event pipeline down to the base collection, obviously. This means when a document's validity is changed, there's no neat way of it shifting to the other collection, therefore the other view. What I'm after is a nice way of having a base collection that I can have filter collections sit on top of. Any suggestions?

  Read the article

• [Ruby On Rails] belongs_to with :class_name option fails.

  - by crackpot

  I have no idea what went wrong but I can't get belongs_to work with :class_name option. Could somebody enlighten me. Thanks a lot! Here is a snip from my code. class CreateUsers < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :users do |t| t.text :name end end def self.down drop_table :users end end ##################################################### class CreateBooks < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :books do |t| t.text :title t.integer :author_id, :null => false end end def self.down drop_table :books end end ##################################################### class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many: books end ##################################################### class Book < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :author, :class_name => 'User', :validate => true end ##################################################### class BooksController < ApplicationController def create user = User.new({:name => 'John Woo'}) user.save @failed_book = Book.new({:title => 'Failed!', :author => @user}) @failed_book.save # missing author_id @success_book = Book.new({:title => 'Nice day', :author_id => @user.id}) @success_book.save # no error! end end environment: ruby 1.9.1-p387 Rails 2.3.5

  Read the article

• Disable a form and all contained elements until an ajax query completes (or another solution to prev

  - by Max Williams

  I have a search form with inputs and selects, and when any input/select is changed i run some js and then make an ajax query with jquery. I want to stop the user from making further changes to the form while the request is in progress, as at the moment they can initiate several remote searches at once, effectively causing a race between the different searches. It seems like the best solution to this is to prevent the user from interacting with the form while waiting for the request to come back. At the moment i'm doing this in the dumbest way possible by hiding the form before making the ajax query and then showing it again on success/error. This solves the problem but looks horrible and isn't really acceptable. Is there another, better way to prevent interaction with the form? To make things more complicated, to allow nice-looking selects, the user actually interacts with spans which have js hooked up to them to tie them to the actual, hidden, selects. So, even though the spans aren't inputs, they are contained in the form and represent the actual interactive elements of the form. Grateful for any advice - max. Here's what i'm doing now: function submitQuestionSearchForm(){ //bunch of irrelevant stuff var questionSearchForm = jQuery("#searchForm"); questionSearchForm.addClass("searching"); jQuery.ajax({ async: true, data: jQuery.param(questionSearchForm.serializeArray()), dataType: 'script', type: 'get', url: "/questions", success: function(msg){ //more irrelevant stuff questionSearchForm.removeClass("searching"); }, error: function(msg){ questionSearchForm.removeClass("searching"); } }); return true; }

  Read the article

• Is it an good idea to make a wrapper specifically for a DateTime that respresents Now?

  - by Dirk Boer

  I have been noticing lately that is really nice to use a DateTime representing 'now' as an input parameter for your methods, for mocking and testing purposes. Instead of every method calling DateTime.UtcNow themselves, I do it once in the upper methods and forward it on the lower ones. So a lot of methods that need a 'now', have an input parameter DateTime now. (I'm using MVC, and try to detect a parameter called now and modelbind DateTime.UtcNow to it) So instead of: public bool IsStarted { get { return StartTime >= DateTime.UtcNow; } } I usually have: public bool IsStarted(DateTime now) { return StartTime >= now; } So my convention is at the moment, if a method has a DateTime parameter called now, you have to feed it with the current time. Of course this comes down to convention, and someone else can easily just throw some other DateTime in there as a parameter. To make it more solid and static-typed I am thinking about wrapping DateTime in a new object, i.e. DateTimeNow. So in one of the most upper layers I will convert the DateTime to a DateTimeNow and we will get compile errors when, someone tries to fiddle in a normal DateTime. Of course you can still workaround this, but at least if feels more that you are doing something wrong at point. Did anyone else ever went into this path? Are there any good or bad results on the long term that I am not thinking about?

  Read the article

• Displaying Query Results Horizontally

  - by AndyD273

  I am wondering if it is possible to take the results of a query and return them as a CSV string instead of as a column of cells. Basically, we have a table called Customers, and we have a table called CustomerTypeLines, and each Customer can have multiple CustomerTypeLines. When I run a query against it, I run into problems when I want to check multiple types, for instance: Select * from Customers a Inner Join CustomerTypeLines b on a.CustomerID = b.CustomerID where b.CustomerTypeID = 14 and b.CustomerTypeID = 66 ...returns nothing because a customer can't have both on the same line, obviously. In order to make it work, I had to add a field to Customers called CustomerTypes that looks like ,14,66,67, so I can do a Where a.CustomerTypes like '%,14,%' and a.CustomerTypes like '%,66,%' which returns 85 rows. Of course this is a pain because I have to make my program rebuild this field for that Customer each time the CustomerTypeLines table is changed. It would be nice if I could do a sub query in my where that would do the work for me, so instead of returning the results like: 14 66 67 it would return them like ,14,66,67, Is this possible?

  Read the article

• Manipulate method functionality call

  - by danrichardson

  Hello, is it possibly in c# to have some sort of base class functionality which is manipulated slightly based on the class. For instance say i have the following code (which will quite obviously not compile it's meant to only be for demonstrative purposes) class BaseFunctionality { public virtual bool adminCall public static string MethodName(int id, string parameter) { if (adminCall) return dbcall.Execute(); else return dbcall.ExecuteMe(); } } class Admin : BaseFunctionality { override bool adminCall = true; } class Front : BaseFunctionality { override bool adminCall = false; } Now what i would like to be able to do is; string AdminCall = Admin.MethodName(1, "foo"); string FrontCall = Front.MethodName(2, "bar"); Is their any way to do something like this? I'm trying to do everything with static methods so i do not have to instantiate classes all the time, and have nice clean code which is only being manipulated in one place. The idea behind this is so that there is minimal code repeating and makes things easier to expand on, so for instance another class could implement the BaseFunctionality later on. Thanks Dan

  Read the article

• Jquery image slider window resize scaling issue

  - by eb_Dev

  Hi, I have created image gallery slider, the images of which scale with the window size. My problem is I can't seem to create the right formula to ensure that the slider is at the right position when the window is scaled. If I am at the first image and the slider 'left' offset is 0 then the scaling works fine and my offset is correct, however when I am on image two and my slider is offset by say -1500 and then the window is resized, the slider is then at the wrong offset. Taking this into account I figured I could just add / subtract the new window size difference from the slider offset and therefore have everything in the right position. I was wrong. It works for the first two images but then If I am at the end of my slider on the last image I get a nice big gap between the end of the last image and the border of the page. Can someone please show my where I am going wrong please? I've spent days on this :( The relevant code is as follows: $(window).bind('resize', function(event, delta) { /* Resize work images - resizes all to document width */ resizeWorkImages('div.page.work div#work ul'); /* Position slider controls */ positionSliderControls(); /* Get the difference between the old window width and the new */ var windowDiff = (gLastWindowWidth - $(window).width()) * -1; /* Apply difference to slider left position */ var newSliderLeftPos = stripPx($('div.page.work div#work ul').css('left')) - windowDiff; /* Apply to slider */ $('div.page.work div#work ul').css('left',newSliderLeftPos+'px') /* Update gSlider settings */ gSlider.update(); /* Record new window width */ gLastWindowWidth = $(window).width(); }); Thanks, eb_dev

  Read the article

• All possibilities in 2d array

  - by valli-R

  I have this array: $array = array ( array('1', '2', '3'), array('!', '@'), array('a', 'b', 'c', 'd'), ); And I want to know all character combination of sub arrays.. for example : 1!a 1!b 1!c 1!d 1@a 1@b 1@c 1@d 2!a 2!b 2!c 2!d 2@a 2@b ... Currently I am having this code : for($i = 0; $i < count($array[0]); $i++) { for($j = 0; $j < count($array[1]); $j++) { for($k = 0; $k < count($array[2]); $k++) { echo $array[0][$i].$array[1][$j].$array[2][$k].'<br/>'; } } } It works, but I think it is ugly, and when I am adding more arrays, I have to add more for. I am pretty sure there is a way to do this recursively, but I don't know how to start/how to do it. A little help could be nice! Thanks you!

  Read the article

• Why is this one div container blocking the other from floating right?

  - by user2824289

  I know the answer is very simple, it's probably one little CSS property, but I've tried to find the solution without asking it here, no luck.. There are two div containers within a div container, and they aren't playing nice. The one is positioned to float right in the upper righthand corner of the parent div, and it won't let any other container float to the right of it. I tried display:inline and display:inline-block but no luck... Here's the code, though something tells me the answer is so easy you won't need it!: The parent div, the upper righthand corner div, and the poor div trying to float right: #um-home-section4 { width:100%; height:300px; background-color: green; } #um-title-right { float:right; width:500px; height:50px; margin-right:20px; margin-top:20px; background-color: fuchsia; } #take-me-there { float:right; margin-top:240px; margin-right:0px; height:50px; width:100px; background-color: gray; } <div id="um-home-section4"> <div id="um-title-right"></div> <div id="take-me-there"></div> </div>

  Read the article

• Retrieving an element by array index in jQuery vs the each() function.

  - by Alex Ciminian

  I was writing a "pluginable" function when I noticed the following behavior (tested in FF 3.5.9 with Firebug 1.5.3). $.fn.computerMove = function () { var board = $(this); var emptySquares = board.find('div.clickable'); var randPosition = Math.floor(Math.random() * emptySquares.length); emptySquares.each(function (index) { if (index === randPosition) { // logs a jQuery object console.log($(this)); } }); target = emptySquares[randPosition]; // logs a non-jQuery object console.log(target); // throws error: attr() not a function for target board.placeMark({'position' : target.attr('id')}); } I noticed the problem when the script threw an error at target.attr('id') (attr not a function). When I checked the log, I noticed that the output (in Firebug) for target was: <div style="width: 97px; height: 97px;" class="square clickable" id="8"></div> If I output $(target), or $(this) from the each() function, I get a nice jQuery object: [ div#8.square ] Now here comes my question: why does this happen, considering that find() seems to return an array of jQuery objects? Why do I have to do $() to target all over again? [div#0.square, div#1.square, div#2.square, div#3.square, div#4.square, div#5.square, div#6.square, div#7.square, div#8.square] Just a curiosity :).

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 239 240 241 242 243 244 245 246 247 248 249 250  | Next Page >