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  • When using a repository is it possible for a type to return a Func that the repository uses to test for existing entities?

    - by Scott Rickman
    For example given a Factory with a method public static T Save<T>(T item) where T : Base, new() { /* item.Id == Guid.Empty therefore item is new */ if (item.Id == Guid.Empty && repository.GetAll<T>(t => t.Name == item.Name)) { throw new Exception("Name is not unique"); } } how do I create a property of Base (say MustNotAlreadyExist) so that I can change the method above to public static T Save<T>(T item) where T : Base, new() { /* item.Id == Guid.Empty therefore item is new */ if (item.Id == Guid.Empty && repository.GetAll<T>(t.MustNotAlreadyExist)) { throw new Exception("Name is not unique"); } } public class Base { ... public virtual Expression<Func<T, bool>> MustNotAlreadyExist() { return (b => b.Name == name); /* <- this clearly doesn't work */ } } and then how can I override MustNotAlreadyExist in Account : Base public class Account : Base { ... public override Expression<Func<T, bool>> MustNotAlreadyExist() { return (b => b.Name == name && b.AccountCode == accountCode); /* <- this doesn't work */ } ... }

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  • symfony + doctrine + inheritance, how to make them work?

    - by imac
    I am beginning to work with Symfony, I've found some documentation about inheritance. But also found this discouraging article, which make me doubt if Doctrine handles inheritance any good at all... Has anyone find a smart solution for inheritance in Symfony+Doctrine? As an example, I have already structured the database something like this: CREATE TABLE `poster` ( `poster_id` int(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `user_name` varchar(50) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`poster_id`), UNIQUE KEY `id` (`poster_id`), ) ENGINE=InnoDB AUTO_INCREMENT=3 DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1; CREATE TABLE `user` ( `user_id` int(11) NOT NULL, `real_name` varchar(50) DEFAULT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`user_id`), UNIQUE KEY `user_id` (`user_id`), CONSTRAINT `user_fk` FOREIGN KEY (`user_id`) REFERENCES `poster` (`poster_id`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1; From that, Doctrine generated this "schema.yml": Poster: connection: doctrine tableName: poster columns: poster_id: type: integer(4) fixed: false unsigned: false primary: true autoincrement: true user_name: type: string(50) fixed: false unsigned: false primary: false notnull: true autoincrement: false relations: Post: local: poster_id foreign: poster_id type: many User: local: poster_id foreign: user_id type: many Version: local: poster_id foreign: poster_id type: many User: connection: doctrine tableName: user columns: user_id: type: integer(4) fixed: false unsigned: false primary: true autoincrement: false real_name: type: string(50) fixed: false unsigned: false primary: false notnull: false autoincrement: false relations: Poster: local: user_id foreign: poster_id type: one User creation for this structure with Doctrine auto-generated forms does not work. Any clue will be appreciated.

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  • Optimizing a "set in a string list" to a "set as a matrix" operation

    - by Eric Fournier
    I have a set of strings which contain space-separated elements. I want to build a matrix which will tell me which elements were part of which strings. For example: "" "A B C" "D" "B D" Should give something like: A B C D 1 2 1 1 1 3 1 4 1 1 Now I've got a solution, but it runs slow as molasse, and I've run out of ideas on how to make it faster: reverseIn <- function(vector, value) { return(value %in% vector) } buildCategoryMatrix <- function(valueVector) { allClasses <- c() for(classVec in unique(valueVector)) { allClasses <- unique(c(allClasses, strsplit(classVec, " ", fixed=TRUE)[[1]])) } resMatrix <- matrix(ncol=0, nrow=length(valueVector)) splitValues <- strsplit(valueVector, " ", fixed=TRUE) for(cat in allClasses) { if(cat=="") { catIsPart <- (valueVector == "") } else { catIsPart <- sapply(splitValues, reverseIn, cat) } resMatrix <- cbind(resMatrix, catIsPart) } colnames(resMatrix) <- allClasses return(resMatrix) } Profiling the function gives me this: $by.self self.time self.pct total.time total.pct "match" 31.20 34.74 31.24 34.79 "FUN" 30.26 33.70 74.30 82.74 "lapply" 13.56 15.10 87.86 97.84 "%in%" 12.92 14.39 44.10 49.11 So my actual questions would be: - Where are the 33% spent in "FUN" coming from? - Would there be any way to speed up the %in% call? I tried turning the strings into factors prior to going into the loop so that I'd be matching numbers instead of strings, but that actually makes R crash. I've also tried going for partial matrix assignment (IE, resMatrix[i,x] <- 1) where i is the number of the string and x is the vector of factors. No dice there either, as it seems to keep on running infinitely.

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  • Parsing HTML using HTTP Agility Pack

    - by Pajci
    Here is one table out of 5: <h3>marec - maj 2009</h3> <div class="graf_table"> <table summary="layout table"> <tr> <th>DATUM</th> <td class="datum">10.03.2009</td> <td class="datum">24.03.2009</td> <td class="datum">07.04.2009</td> <td class="datum">21.04.2009</td> <td class="datum">05.05.2009</td> <td class="datum">06.05.2009</td> </tr> <tr> <th>Maloprodajna cena [EUR/L]</th> <td>0,96000</td> <td>0,97000</td> <td>0,99600</td> <td>1,00800</td> <td>1,00800</td> <td>1,01000</td> </tr> <tr> <th>Maloprodajna cena [SIT/L]</th> <td>230,054</td> <td>232,451</td> <td>238,681</td> <td>241,557</td> <td>241,557</td> <td>242,036</td> </tr> <tr> <th>Prodajna cena brez dajatev</th> <td>0,33795</td> <td>0,34628</td> <td>0,36795</td> <td>0,37795</td> <td>0,37795</td> <td>0,37962</td> </tr> <tr> <th>Trošarina</th> <td>0,46205</td> <td>0,46205</td> <td>0,46205</td> <td>0,46205</td> <td>0,46205</td> <td>0,46205</td> </tr> <tr> <th>DDV</th> <td>0,16000</td> <td>0,16167</td> <td>0,16600</td> <td>0,16800</td> <td>0,16800</td> <td>0,16833</td> </tr> </table> </div> I have to extract out values, where table header is DATUM and Maloprodajna cena [EUR/L]. I am using Agility HTML pack. this.htmlDoc = new HtmlAgilityPack.HtmlDocument(); this.htmlDoc.OptionCheckSyntax = true; this.htmlDoc.OptionFixNestedTags = true; this.htmlDoc.OptionAutoCloseOnEnd = true; this.htmlDoc.OptionOutputAsXml = true; // is this necessary ?? this.htmlDoc.OptionDefaultStreamEncoding = System.Text.Encoding.Default; I had a lot of trouble with getting those values out. I started with: var query = from html in doc.DocumentNode.SelectNodes("//div[@class='graf_table']").Cast<HtmlNode>() from table in html.SelectNodes("//table").Cast<HtmlNode>() from row in table.SelectNodes("tr").Cast<HtmlNode>() from cell in row.SelectNodes("th|td").Cast<HtmlNode>() select new { Table = table.Id, CellText = cell.InnerHtml }; but could not figure out a way to select only values where table header is DATUM and Maloprodajna cena[EUR/L]. Is it possible to do that with where clause? Then I ended with those two queries: var date = (from d in htmlDoc.DocumentNode.SelectNodes("//div[@class='graf_table']//table//tr[1]/td") select DateTime.Parse(d.InnerText)).ToArray(); var price = (from p in htmlDoc.DocumentNode.SelectNodes("//div[@class='graf_table']//table//tr[2]/td") select double.Parse(p.InnerText)).ToArray(); Is it possible to combine those two queries? And how would I convert that to lambda expression? I just started to learn those things and I would like to know how it is done so that in the future I would not have those question. O, one more question ... does anybody know any graph control, cause I have to show those values in graph. I started with Microsoft Chart Controls, but I am having trouble with setting it. So if anyone has any experience with it I would like to know how to set it, so that x axle will show all values not every second ... example: if I have: 10.03.2009, 24.03.2009, 07.04.2009, 21.04.2009, 05.05.2009, 06.05.2009 it show only: 10.03.2009, 07.04.2009, 05.05.2009, ect. I bind data to graph like that: chart1.Series["Series1"].Points.DataBindXY(date, price); I lot of questions for my fist post ... hehe, hope that I was not indistinct or something. Thank's for any reply!

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  • In Java, is there a performance gain in using interfaces for complex models?

    - by Gnoupi
    The title is hardly understandable, but I'm not sure how to summarize that another way. Any edit to clarify is welcome. I have been told, and recommended to use interfaces to improve performances, even in a case which doesn't especially call for the regular "interface" role. In this case, the objects are big models (in a MVC meaning), with many methods and fields. The "good use" that has been recommended to me is to create an interface, with its unique implementation. There won't be any other class implementing this interface, for sure. I have been told that this is better to do so, because it "exposes less" (or something close) to the other classes which will use methods from this class, as these objects are referring to the object from its interface (all public methods from the implementation being reproduced in the interface). This seems quite strange to me, as it seems like a C++ use to me (with header files). There I see the point, but in Java? Is there really a point in making an interface for such unique implementation? I would really appreciate some clarifications on the topic, so I could justify not following such kind of behavior, and the hassle it creates from duplicating all declarations. Edit: Plenty of valid points in most answers, I'm wondering if I won't switch this question for a community wiki, so we can regroup these points in more structured answers.

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  • Play! 1.2.5 with mongodb | Model Validation not happening

    - by TGV
    I have a simple User model whose fields are annotated with play validation annotations and morphia annotations like below. import play.data.validation.*; import play.modules.morphia.Model; import com.google.code.morphia.annotations.*; @Entity public class User extends Model{ @Id @Indexed(name="USERID", unique=true) public ObjectId userId; @Required public String userName; @Email @Indexed(name="USEREMAIL", unique=true) @Required public String userEmail; } Now I have a service which has a CreateNewUser method responsible for persisting the data. I have used Morphia plugin for the dao support. But the problem is that User Document gets persisted in mongo-db even if userName or userEmail is NULL. Also @Email validation does not happen // Below code is in app/controllers/Application.java User a = new User(); a.userName = "user1"; // calling bean to create user, userService is in app/service/UserService userService.createNewUser(a); It does not work even after adding @valid and validation.hasErrors() check.Below code is in app/service/UserService public void createNewUser(@Valid User user) { if (Validation.hasErrors()) { System.out.println("has errors"); } else { // TODO Auto-generated method stub userDao.save(user); } }

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  • Which options do I have for Java process communication?

    - by Dmitriy Matveev
    We have a place in a code of such form: void processParam(Object param) { wrapperForComplexNativeObject result = jniCallWhichMayCrash(param); processResult(result); } processParam - method which is called with many different arguments. jniCallWhichMayCrash - a native method which is intended to do some complex processing of it's parameter and to create some complex object. It can crash in some cases. wrapperForComplexNativeObject - wrapper type generated by SWIG processResult - a method written in pure Java which processes it's parameter by creation of several kinds (by the kinds I'm not meaning classes, maybe some like hierarchies) of objects: 1 - Some non-unique objects which are referencing each other (from the same hierarchy), these objects can have duplicates created from the invocations of processParam() method with different parameter values. Since it's costly to keep all the duplicates it's necessary to cache them. 2 - Some unique objects which are referencing each other (from the same hierarchy) and some of the objects of 1st kind. After processParam is executed for each of the arguments from some set the data created in processResult will be processed together. The problem is in fact that jniCallWhichMayCrash method may crash the entire JVM and this will be very bad. The reason of crash may be such that it can happen for one argument value and not for the other. We've decided that it's better to ignore crashes inside of JVM and just skip some chunks of data when such crashes occur. In order to do this we should run processParam function inside of separate process and pass the result somehow (HOW? HOW?! This is a question) to the main process and in case of any crashes we will only lose some part of data (It's ok) without lose of everything else. So for now the main problem is implementation of transport between different processes. Which options do I have? I can think about serialization and transmitting of binary data by the streams, but serialization may be not very fast due to object complexity. Maybe I have some other options of implementing this?

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  • Algorithm to determine indices i..j of array A containing all the elements of another array B

    - by Skylark
    I came across this question on an interview questions thread. Here is the question: Given two integer arrays A [1..n] and B[1..m], find the smallest window in A that contains all elements of B. In other words, find a pair < i , j such that A[i..j] contains B[1..m]. If A doesn't contain all the elements of B, then i,j can be returned as -1. The integers in A need not be in the same order as they are in B. If there are more than one smallest window (different, but have the same size), then its enough to return one of them. Example: A[1,2,5,11,2,6,8,24,101,17,8] and B[5,2,11,8,17]. The algorithm should return i = 2 (index of 5 in A) and j = 9 (index of 17 in A). Now I can think of two variations. Let's suppose that B has duplicates. This variation doesn't consider the number of times each element occurs in B. It just checks for all the unique elements that occur in B and finds the smallest corresponding window in A that satisfies the above problem. For example, if A[1,2,4,5,7] and B[2,2,5], this variation doesn't bother about there being two 2's in B and just checks A for the unique integers in B namely 2 and 5 and hence returns i=1, j=3. This variation accounts for duplicates in B. If there are two 2's in B, then it expects to see at least two 2's in A as well. If not, it returns -1,-1. When you answer, please do let me know which variation you are answering. Pseudocode should do. Please mention space and time complexity if it is tricky to calculate it. Mention if your solution assumes array indices to start at 1 or 0 too. Thanks in advance.

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  • XmlSerializer construction with same named extra types

    - by NoizWaves
    Hey, I am hitting trouble constructing an XmlSerializer where the extra types contains types with the same Name (but unique Fullname). Below is an example that illustrated my scenario. Type definitions in external assembly I cannot manipulate: public static class Wheel { public enum Status { Stopped, Spinning } } public static class Engine { public enum Status { Idle, Full } } Class I have written and have control over: public class Car { public Wheel.Status WheelStatus; public Engine.Status EngineStatus; public static string Serialize(Car car) { var xs = new XmlSerializer(typeof(Car), new[] {typeof(Wheel.Status),typeof(Engine.Status)}); var output = new StringBuilder(); using (var sw = new StringWriter(output)) xs.Serialize(sw, car); return output.ToString(); } } The XmlSerializer constructor throws a System.InvalidOperationException with Message "There was an error reflecting type 'Engine.Status'" This exception has an InnerException of type System.InvalidOperationException and with Message "Types 'Wheel.Status' and 'Engine.Status' both use the XML type name, 'Status', from namespace ''. Use XML attributes to specify a unique XML name and/or namespace for the type." Given that I am unable to alter the enum types, how can I construct an XmlSerializer that will serialize Car successfully?

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  • Hashing Function for Map C++

    - by Josh
    I am trying to determine a hash function which takes an input (i, k) and determines a unique solution. The possible inputs for (i, k) range from 0 to 100. Consider each (i, k) as a position of a node in a trinomial tree. Ex: (0, 0) can diverge to (1, 1) (1, 0) (1, -1). (1, 1) can diverge to (2, 2) (2, 1) (2, 0). Sample given here: http://www.google.com/imgres?imgurl=http://sfb649.wiwi.hu-berlin.de/fedc_homepage/xplore/tutorials/stfhtmlimg1156.gif&imgrefurl=http://sfb649.wiwi.hu-berlin.de/fedc_homepage/xplore/tutorials/stfhtmlnode41.html&h=413&w=416&sz=4&tbnid=OegDZu-yeVitZM:&tbnh=90&tbnw=91&zoom=1&usg=__9uQWDNYNLV14YioWWbrqPgfa3DQ=&docid=2hhitNyRWjI_DM&hl=en&sa=X&ei=xAfFUIbyG8nzyAHv2YDICg&ved=0CDsQ9QEwAQ I am using a map map <double, double> hash_table I need a key value to be determined from pairs (i, k) to hash to to value for that (i, k) So far I was only able to come up with linear functions such as: double Hash_function(int i, int k) { //double val = pow(i, k) + i; //return (val % 4294967296); return (i*3.1415 + k*i*9.12341); } However, I cannot determine a unique key with a certain (i, k). What kind of functions can I use to help me do so?

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  • 2-column table with two foreign keys. Performance/design question.

    - by Emanuel
    Hello everyone! I recently ran into a quite complex problem and after looking around a lot I couldn't find a solution to it. I've found answers to my questions many times before on stackoverflow.com, so I decided to post here. So I'm making a user/group managment system for a web-based project, and I'm storing all related data into a postgreSQL database. This system relies on three tables: USERS GROUPS GROUP_USERS The two first tables simply define all the users and all the groups on the site, and the last table, GROUP_USERS, stores the groups every user is part of. It only has two columns: USER_ID GROUP_ID Since every user can be a member of several groups, I decided to make a separate table for this purpose, rather than storing a comma separated column in the USERS-table. Now, both columns are foreign keys, and I want to make them both primary keys as well, this since each combination of USER_ID and GROUP_ID has to be unique, and if I give them the constraint UNIQUE pgAdmin tells me that each table should have at least one Primary key. But now I am stuck with what seems to be a lot of indexes and relations to a very small table only containing numbers. In the end, I want this table to be as fast as possible, even if containing tens of thousands of rows. Size on disk shouldn't be a problem since its just all numbers anyway, but it feels quite stupid to have a full-sized index refering to a smaller table. Should I stick with my current solution, store comma-separated values in a column in the USERS-table or is there any other solution I should be aware of. PS. I don't want to use an array-column, even if they are supported by postgreSQL. I want to be as generic as possible so I can switch database later on, if necessary. EDIT: I other words, will using a compound primary key and two foreign keys in one table with only two columns have a negative impact on performance rather than the opposite due to the size of the generated index? Thank you!

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  • Forms blank when rendering a partial when using a collection of objects. Help!

    - by dustmoo
    Alright, I know my title is a little obscure but it best describes the problem I am having. Essentially, I have a list of users, and want to be able to edit their information in-line using AJAX. Since the users are showing up in rows, I am using a partial to render the data and the forms (which will be hidden initially by the ajax), however, when the rows are rendered currently only the last item has it's form's fields populated. I suspect this has something to do with the fact that all the form fields have the same id's and it is confusing the DOM. But I don't know how to make sure the id's are unique. Here is a small example: In my view: <%= render :partial => 'shared/user', :collection => @users %> My partial (broke down to just the form) note that I am using the local variable "user" <% form_for user, :html => {:multipart => true} do |f| -%> <%= f.label :name, "Name*" %> <%= f.text_field :title, :class => "input" %> <%= f.label :Address, "Address" %> <%= f.text_field :address, :class => "input" %> <%= f.label :description, "Description*" %> <%= f.text_area :description, :class => "input" %> <% end -%> When the html is rendered each form has a unique id (for the id of the user) but the elements themselves all have the same id, and only the last user form is actually getting populated with values. Does anyone have any ideas?? :) Thanks in advance!

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  • how to make it easy for users to register at my site?

    - by rob
    I want to make it dirt simple for users coming to my site to register so they can post comments, vote on things, etc. I would like for them to be able to use their facebook id, twitter id, yahoo mail id, gmail id, AIM id, msn id, or whatever else people are likely to have (not necessarily all of those, but the more the better). I want my mom to be able to do it in 30 seconds or less. (that is, no "enter your open id url here" type thing that would confuse her). I prefer they not have to pick a unique name, as that gets annoying as the site gets more users and it gets hard to find one that is unique. What is the best option here? I'm not quite sure about OpenId vs. OAuth, and whether there are other options. And I'd like it to be as simple for me, the developer, as possible (of course!). I don't want to spend forever learning some protocol, nor have to structure my whole app around this. It would be great if there was a site with sample code that is pretty easy to drop in. BTW, StackOverflow is a good example of a site that was easy for me to register for.

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  • Using an unencoded key vs a real Key, benefits?

    - by user246114
    Hi, I am reading the docs for Key generation in app engine. I'm not sure what effect using a simple String key has over a real Key. For example, when my users sign up, they must supply a unique username: class User { /** Key type = unencoded string. */ @PrimaryKey private String name; } now if I understand the docs correctly, I should still be able to generate named keys and entity groups using this, right?: // Find an instance of this entity: User user = pm.findObjectById(User.class, "myusername"); // Create a new obj and put it in same entity group: Key key = new KeyFactory.Builder( User.class.getSimpleName(), "myusername") .addChild(Goat.class.getSimpleName(), "baa").getKey(); Goat goat = new Goat(); goat.setKey(key); pm.makePersistent(goat); the Goat instance should now be in the same entity group as that User, right? I mean there's no problem with leaving the User's primary key as just the raw String? Is there a performance benefit to using a Key though? Should I update to: class User { /** Key type = unencoded string. */ @PrimaryKey private Key key; } // Generate like: Key key = KeyFactory.createKey( User.class.getSimpleName(), "myusername"); user.setKey(key); it's almost the same thing, I'd still just be generating the Key using the unique username anyway, Thanks

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  • Hibernate CreateSQL Query Problem

    - by Shaded
    Hello All I'm trying to use hibernates built in createsql function but it seems that it doesn't like the following query. List =hibernateSession.createSQLQuery("SELECT number, location FROM table WHERE other_number IN (SELECT f.number FROM table2 AS f JOIN table3 AS g on f.number = g.number WHERE g.other_number = " + var + ") ORDER BY number").addEntity(Table.class).list(); I have a feeling it's from the nested select statement, but I'm not sure. The inner select is used elsewhere in the code and it returns results fine. This is my mapping for the first table: <hibernate-mapping> <class name="org.efs.openreports.objects.Table" table="table"> <id name="id" column="other_number" type="java.lang.Integer"> <generator class="native"/> </id> <property name="number" column="number" not-null="true" unique="true"/> <property name="location" column="location" not-null="true" unique="true"/> </class> </hibernate-mapping> And the .java public class Table implements Serializable { private Integer id;//panel_facility private Integer number; private String location; public Table() { } public void setId(Integer id) { this.id = id; } public Integer getId() { return id; } public void setNumber(Integer number) { this.number = number; } public Integer number() { return number; } public String location() { return location; } public void setLocation(String location) { this.location = location; } } Any suggestions? Edit (Added mapping)

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  • Android 2.1 gallery not backward compatible with Cupcake version, now what?

    - by Schermvlieger
    I don't know why, but in Eclair, the default (non-fancy) gallery app changed its begaviour from the Cupcake version, and it broke one of my commercial applications :-( Firstly, when long-pressing a gallery and choosing "Diashow", it does not publish an Intent to be picked up by any application that implements the Intent filter anymore. Instead, it will directly call "com.android.gallery/com.android.camera.ViewImage" with extras. Question: is it still possible to intercept this intent and allow the user to choose my application to do the Diashow? Secondly, the intent extras for the VIEW intent are messed up (in my build of 2.1 anyway): Instead of providing the BucketId of the picture in the Intent's queryparameter. But in 2.1, the BucketId is moved to the Intent's extras. Except; it is not passing the BUCKET_ID, but the unlocalized BUCKET_DISPLAY_NAME instead :-/ Question: how can I still get the unique BUCKET_ID from the intent, so that I do not have to work with a potentially non-unique BUCKET_DISPLAY_NAME? Is there anybody out there who has come up with a working solution for these problems? I thought the whole idea of Android Intents was to be able to integrate your applications with the base Android environment, but my build of 2.1 proves that this idea still lives in the land of Theory :-(

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  • Input html tag not parsing properly in php

    - by Akaash
    I have a database with names that I would like displayed in the form of a table with checkboxes. Everything works until I try to place the html tag into my php code. When I put the input tag in it gives me the error: Parse error: syntax error, unexpected T_STRING, expecting ',' or ';' I can't see where I would put a comma or semi colon. <form> <?php $name = $_POST['name']; $host = "mysql16.000webhost.com"; $user_name = "a1611480_akaash"; $pwd = "****"; $database_name = "a1611480_akaash"; $db = mysql_connect($host, $user_name, $pwd); mysql_select_db($database_name); $result = mysql_query("SELECT name FROM Sort"); $var = array(); while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { $var[] = $row['name']; } $unique = array_unique($var); foreach ($unique as $value) { echo "<p class = Body_text><label>$value</label> <input type="checkbox" name="name" value="$value" /> </p>\n"; } ?> </form>

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  • GridView edit problem If primary key is editable (design problem)

    - by Nassign
    I would like to ask about the design of table based on it's editability in a Grid View. Let me explain. For example, I have a table named ProductCustomerRel. Method 1 CustomerCode varchar PK ProductCode varchar PK StoreCode varchar PK Quantity int Note text So the combination of the CustomerCode, StoreCode and ProductCode must be unique. The record is displayed on a gridview. The requirement is that you can edit the customer, product and storecode but when the data is saved, the PK constraint must still persist. The problem here is it would be natural for a grid to be able to edit the 3 primary key, you can only achieve the update operation of the grid view by first deleting the row and then inserting the row with the updated data. An alternative to this is to just update the table and add a SeqNo, and just enforce the unique constraint of the 3 columns when inserting and updating in the grid view. Method 2 SeqNo int PK CustomerCode varchar ProductCode varchar StoreCode varchar Quantity int Note text My question is which of the two method is better? or is there another way to do this?

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  • Querying using table-valued parameter

    - by antmx
    I need help please with writing a sproc, it takes a table-valued parameter @Locations, whose Type is defined as follows: CREATE TYPE [dbo].[tvpLocation] AS TABLE( [CountryId] [int] NULL, [ResortName] [nvarchar](100) NULL, [Ordinal] [int] NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [Ordinal] ASC )WITH (IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF) ) @Locations will contain at least 1 row. Each row WILL have a non-null CountryId, and MAY have a non-null ResortName. Each row will have a unique Ordinal, the first being 0. The combinations of CountryId and ResortName in @Locations will be unique. The sproc needs to search against the following table structure. The image can be seen better by right-clicking it and View Image, or similar depending on your browser. Now this is where I'm stuck, the sproc should be able to find Tours where: The Tour's 1st TourHotel (Ordinal 0) has the same CountryId (and ResortName if specified) of the 1st row of @Locations (Ordinal 0). And also if @Locations has 1 row, the Tour must have additional TourHotels, ALL of which must be in the remaining CountryIds (and ResortNames if specified) of these remaining @Locations rows. Edit This is the code I finally used, based on Anthony Faull's suggestion. Thank you so much Anthony: select distinct T.Id from tblTour T join tblTourHotel TH on TH.TourId = T.Id join tblHotel H ON H.Id = TH.HotelId JOIN @Locations L ON ( ( L.Ordinal = 0 AND TH.Ordinal = 0 ) OR ( L.Ordinal > 0 AND TH.Ordinal > 0 ) ) AND L.CountryId = H.CountryId AND ( L.ResortName = H.ResortName OR L.ResortName IS NULL ) cross apply( select COUNT(TH2.Id) AS [Count] FROM tblTourHotel TH2 where TH2.TourId = TH.TourId ) TourHotelCount where TourHotelCount.[Count] = @LocationCount group by T.Id, T.TourRef, T.Description, T.DepartureDate, T.NumNights, T.DepartureAirportId, T.DestinationAirportId, T.AirlineId, T.FEPrice having COUNT(distinct TH.Id) = @LocationCount

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  • Random Alpha numeric generator

    - by AAA
    Hi, I want to give our users in the database a unique alpha-numeric id. I am using the code below, will this always generate a unique id? Below is the old and updated version of the code: New php: // Generate Guid function NewGuid() { $s = strtoupper(md5(uniqid("something",true))); $guidText = substr($s,0,8) . '-' . substr($s,8,4) . '-' . substr($s,12,4). '-' . substr($s,16,4). '-' . substr($s,20); return $guidText; } // End Generate Guid $Guid = NewGuid(); echo $Guid; echo "<br><br><br>"; Old PHP: // Generate Guid function NewGuid() { $s = strtoupper(md5(uniqid("something",true))); $guidText = substr($s,0,8) . '-' . substr($s,8,4) . '-' . substr($s,12,4). '-' . substr($s,16,4). '-' . substr($s,20); return $guidText; } // End Generate Guid $Guid = NewGuid(); echo $Guid; echo "<br><br><br>"; Will this first code guarantee uniqueness?

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  • jQuery: Problems cookies internet explorer

    - by user1140479
    I have made a login page. When the user logs in a request to an API is send. This API is PHP and checks the username and password. When both are correct an unique key is send back (this is placed in the database for further use: userid and other stuff needed in the website). After that key is sent back it is placed in a cookie: $.cookie("session", JSON.stringify(result)); After the cookie is set I send the user to a new page: location.href = 'dashboard.htm'; In this page jQuery checks if the cookie "session" is present. If not, the user is send back to the login page. sessionId = ($.cookie("session") ? JSON.parse($.cookie("session")).SessionId : 0); return sessionId; This works fine in Chrome, but IE (8/9) has some problems with this. I figured out that when you get to dashboard.htm the session is present. As soon as I hit F5 the session is gone. And sometimes the cookie isn't set at all! I can't seem to figure out why this is happening in IE. Has someone any idea? Other options/ideas to save that unique key are also welcome. Thanks in advance.

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  • HABTM selection seemingly ignores joinTable

    - by TheCapn
    I'm attempting to do a HABTM relationship between a Users table and Groups table. The problem is, that I when I issue this call: $this->User->Group->find('list'); The query that is issued is: SELECT [Group].[id] AS [Group__id], [Group].[name] AS [Group__name] FROM [groups] AS [Group] WHERE 1 = 1 I can only assume at this point that I have defined my relationship wrong as I would expect behavior to use the groups_users table that is defined on the database as per convention. My relationships: class User extends AppModel { var $name = 'User'; //...snip... var $hasAndBelongsToMany = array( 'Group' => array( 'className' => 'Group', 'foreignKey' => 'user_id', 'associationForeignKey' => 'group_id', 'joinTable' => 'groups_users', 'unique' => true, ) ); //...snip... } class Group extends AppModel { var $name = 'Group'; var $hasAndBelongsToMany = array ( 'User' => array( 'className' => 'User', 'foreignKey' => 'group_id', 'associationForeignKey' => 'user_id', 'joinTable' => 'groups_users', 'unique' => true, )); } Is my understanding of HABTM wrong? How would I implement this Many to Many relationship where I can use CakePHP to query the groups_users table such that a list of groups the currently authenticated user is associated with is returned?

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  • Mapping many-to-many association table with extra column(s)

    - by user635524
    My database contains 3 tables: User and Service entities have many-to-many relationship and are joined with the SERVICE_USER table as follows: USERS - SERVICE_USER - SERVICES SERVICE_USER table contains additional BLOCKED column. What is the best way to perform such a mapping? These are my Entity classes @Entity @Table(name = "USERS") public class User implements java.io.Serializable { private String userid; private String email; @Id @Column(name = "USERID", unique = true, nullable = false,) public String getUserid() { return this.userid; } .... some get/set methods } @Entity @Table(name = "SERVICES") public class CmsService implements java.io.Serializable { private String serviceCode; @Id @Column(name = "SERVICE_CODE", unique = true, nullable = false, length = 100) public String getServiceCode() { return this.serviceCode; } .... some additional fields and get/set methods } I followed this example http://giannigar.wordpress.com/2009/09/04/m ... using-jpa/ Here is some test code: User user = new User(); user.setEmail("e2"); user.setUserid("ui2"); user.setPassword("p2"); CmsService service= new CmsService("cd2","name2"); List<UserService> userServiceList = new ArrayList<UserService>(); UserService userService = new UserService(); userService.setService(service); userService.setUser(user); userService.setBlocked(true); service.getUserServices().add(userService); userDAO.save(user); The problem is that hibernate persists User object and UserService one. No success with the CmsService object I tried to use EAGER fetch - no progress Is it possible to achieve the behaviour I'm expecting with the mapping provided above? Maybe there is some more elegant way of mapping many to many join table with additional column?

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  • IIS redirect url for virtual directory

    - by Jouni
    Hello, How i can set redirect url for virtual directory in iis 7.0.I have installed lates url rewrite module 2. ? I could explain my problem with exsample. I have website on my iis 7.0 server: www.mysite.com I desided to create virtual directory sales under my site which is pointing to website root directory.Now I need create redirect url for the vdir. The vdir is pointing same virtual root directory as my site root is The big idea is that i can write on browser www.mysite/sales and i will automaticly redirect to url www.mysite.com?productid=200. I tried to make redirect with rewite url for vdir(not website), but I always get this error message : cannot add duplicate colletion entry of type 'rule' with unique key key attribute 'name' set to "test".This happens when i am pointing for virtual vdir and try to add rule. I can add rules to website level,but rules doesn work. I mean url www.mysite/sales gives me follwing error. I know that key is unique I checked it from web.config. This kind of feature was really easy use in IIS 6.0, just point vdir with your mouse and set properties--a redirect to url. Please some one explain what is right way to do it in IIS 7.0

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  • jQuery .val() Selector Confusion

    - by Matt Dawdy
    I've kind of written myself into a corner, and was hoping there was an "easy" way out. I'm trying to loop through a series of things on my page, and build a key:value pair. Here is my structure: <div class="divMapTab" id="divMapTab34"> <div class="divFieldMap"> <select class="selSrc" id="selTargetnamex"><options....></select> </div> </div> <div class="divMapTab" id="divMapTab87"> <div class="divFieldMap"> <select class="selSrc" id="selTargetnamex"><options....></select> </div> </div> It's way more complicated than that, and there are many select elements inside of each divFieldMap div. Here is my JS function that is building my string: function Save() { var sSaveString = ''; $('.divMapTab').each(function() { var thisId = this.id; $('.selSrc', "#" + thisId).each(function() { var thisSubId = this.id; //alert(thisSubId); <-- HERE IS THE PROBLEM var sTargetCol = thisSubId.replace('selTarget', ''); var sValue = this.val(); sSaveString += sTargetCol + '¸' + sValue + '·'; }); }); } On the line that has the alert box and the text "HERE IS THE PROBLEM" is that I'm trying to get the selected value of the "current" select input element, but the id of that element isn't unique (I thought it would be, but I screwed up). Is there a good way, inside of an "each" type of jQuery statement, to use "this" to get the exact select element that I really am looking for, even if it doesn't have a unique id?

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