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  • silverlight and windows workflow foundation

    - by wissem
    private void btnUpdate_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { xxxxxxx.Workflow1_WebServiceSoapClient zer = new xxxxx.Workflow1_WebServiceSoapClient(); zer.demanderSubmitReportCompleted += new EventHandler<xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx.demanderSubmitReportCompletedEventArgs>(service2); zer.demanderSubmitReportAsync("zzz", 20000); } public void service2(object sender, xxxxx.demanderSubmitReportCompletedEventArgs e) { string a = e.Result; } I'm trying to call a windows workflow foundation published as a web service from a Silverlight project. When I call it from a console application it works fine because I can add a web reference then I just make an instance of that webservice then I invoke the method I want. The problem is in the silverlight project cause i can just add a service reference so I find myself working with soap stuff that doesn't work at all, and here is the code error: here is the code:i change it a litle bit in english Error in exécution Microsoft JScript: Unhandled Error in Silverlight Application exception happened in the operation, résult not valide. Consult InnerException for more information. in System.ComponentModel.AsyncCompletedEventArgs.RaiseExceptionIfNecessary() in AEDSilverlightIntegrated.ServiceReference2.demanderSubmitReportCompletedEventArgs.get_Result() in AEDSilverlightIntegrated.SilverEntryAedHeaderNew.mmm_demanderSubmitReportCompleted(Object sender, demanderSubmitReportCompletedEventArgs e) in AEDSilverlightIntegrated.ServiceReference2.Workflow1_WebServiceSoapClient.OndemanderSubmitReportCompleted(Object state)

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  • Getting counts of 0 from a query with a double group by

    - by Maltiriel
    I'm trying to write a query that gets the counts for a table (call it item) categorized by two different things, call them type and code. What I'm hoping for as output is the following: Type Code Count 1 A 3 1 B 0 1 C 10 2 A 0 2 B 13 2 C 2 And so forth. Both type and code are found in lookup tables, and each item can have just one type but more than one code, so there's also a pivot (aka junction or join) table for the codes. I have a query that can get this result: Type Code Count 1 A 3 1 C 10 2 B 13 2 C 2 and it looks like (with join conditions omitted): SELECT typelookup.name, codelookup.name, COUNT(item.id) FROM typelookup LEFT OUTER JOIN item JOIN itemcodepivot RIGHT OUTER JOIN codelookup GROUP BY typelookup.name, codelookup.name Is there any way to alter this query to get the results I'm looking for? This is in MySQL, if that matters. I'm not actually sure this is possible all in one query, but if it is I'd really like to know how. Thanks for any ideas.

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  • How do i translate this to "simpler" JavaScript?

    - by Julian Weimer
    Since i'm working with Titanium i realzed that its current JavaScript Interpreter doesn't accept specific coding-styles. So for for-loops and if-statements i have to have braces, even though i only want to span one line. Furthermore there is more i have to change if i want to use a Javascript Library like underscore.js. This is what Titanium doesn't want to see: if (!(result = result && iterator.call(context, value, index, list))) {_.breakLoop();} if (nativeSome && obj.some === nativeSome) {return obj.some(iterator, context);} var computed = iterator ? iterator.call(context, value, index, list) : value; computed >= result.computed && (result = {value : value, computed : computed}); Can i use a simpler syntax to describe the logic behind those lines of code?

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  • Jetty servlet respons to Ajax always empty

    - by chris
    Hi I try to run a java server on Jetty which should respond to an ajax call. Unfortunately the response seems to be empty when I call it with ajax. When I call http://localhost:8081/?id=something I get an answer. The Java Server: public class Answer extends AbstractHandler { public void handle(String target, Request baseRequest, HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws IOException, ServletException { String id = request.getParameter("id"); response.setContentType("text/xml"); response.setHeader("Cache-Control", "no-cache"); response.setContentLength(19+id.length()); response.setStatus(HttpServletResponse.SC_OK); response.getWriter().write("<message>"+id+"</message>"); //response.setContentType("text/html;charset=utf-8"); response.flushBuffer(); baseRequest.setHandled(true); } public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { Server server = new Server(8081); server.setHandler(new Answer()); server.start(); server.join(); } } The js and html: <html> <head> <script> var req; function validate() { var idField = document.getElementById("userid"); var url = "validate?id=" + encodeURIComponent(idField.value); if (typeof XMLHttpRequest != "undefined") { req = new XMLHttpRequest(); } else if (window.ActiveXObject) { req = new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } req.open("GET", "http://localhost:8081?id=fd", true); req.onreadystatechange = callback; req.send(null); } function callback() { if (req.readyState == 4) { if (req.status == 200) { var message = req.responseXML.getElementsByTagName("message")[0]; document.getElementById("userid").innerHTML = "message.childNodes[0].nodeValue"; } } } </script> </head> <body onload="validate('foobar')"> <div id="userid">hannak</div> </body> </html> I'm actually don't know what I'm doing wrong here. Maybe someone has a good idea. greetings chris

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  • R matrix handling expressions aren't evaluated in a function or a "for" loop - Column extract doesn't seem to work

    - by Sal Leggio
    I have an R matrix named ddd. When I enter this, everything works fine: i <- 1 shapiro.test(ddd[,y]) ad.test(ddd[,y]) stem(ddd[,y]) print(y) The calls to Shapiro Wilk, Anderson Darling, and stem all work, and extract the same column. If I put this code in a "for" loop, the calls to Shapiro Wilk, and Anderson Darling stop working, while the the stem & leaf call and the print call continue to work. for (y in 7:10) { shapiro.test(ddd[,y]) ad.test(ddd[,y]) stem(ddd[,y]) print(y) } The decimal point is 1 digit(s) to the right of the | 0 | 0 0 | 899999 1 | 0 [1] 7 The same thing happens if I try and write a function. SW & AD do not work. The other calls do. D <- function (y) { + shapiro.test(ddd[,y]) + ad.test(ddd[,y]) + stem(ddd[,y]) + print(y) } D(9) The decimal point is at the | 9 | 000 9 | 10 | 00000 [1] 9 Why don't all the calls behave the same way?

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  • Cache an FTP connection via session variables for use via AJAX?

    - by Chad Johnson
    I'm working on a Ruby web Application that uses the Net::FTP library. One part of it allows users to interact with an FTP site via AJAX. When the user does something, and AJAX call is made, and then Ruby reconnects to the FTP server, performs an action, and outputs information. Every time the AJAX call is made, Ruby has to reconnect to the FTP server, and that's slow. Is there a way I could cache this FTP connection? I've tried caching in the session hash, but "We're sorry, but something went wrong" is displayed, and a TCP dump is outputted in my logs whenever I attempt to store it in the session hash. I haven't tried memcache yet. Any suggestions?

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  • Zend Framework: My custom form filter is not filtering!

    - by Andrew
    So I have a form that is using a custom filter (which is really just a copy of Zend_Filter_Null). When I call it directly, it works: $makeZeroNull = new My_Filter_MakeZeroNull(); $null = $makeZeroNull->filter('0'); //$null === null However, when I try to add it to an element in my form, it doesn't filter the value when I call getValue(). class My_Form extends Zend_Form { public function init() { $makeZeroNull = new My_Filter_MakeZeroNull(); $this->addElement('text', 'State_ID', array('filters' => array($makeZeroNull))); } } //in controller if ($form->isValid($_POST)) { $zero = $form->State_ID->getValue(); //getValue() should return null, but it is returning 0 } What is going on? What am I doing wrong?

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  • What is faster: multiple `send`s or using buffering?

    - by dauerbaustelle
    I'm playing around with sockets in C/Python and I wonder what is the most efficient way to send headers from a Python dictionary to the client socket. My ideas: use a send call for every header. Pros: No memory allocation needed. Cons: many send calls -- probably error prone; error management should be rather complicated use a buffer. Pros: one send call, error checking a lot easier. Cons: Need a buffer :-) malloc/realloc should be rather slow and using a (too) big buffer to avoid realloc calls wastes memory. Any tips for me? Thanks :-)

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  • iPhone memory management (with specific examples/questions)

    - by donkim
    Hey all. I know this question's been asked but I still don't have a clear picture of memory management in Objective-C. I feel like I have a pretty good grasp of it, but I'd still like some correct answers for the following code. I have a series of examples that I'd love for someone(s) to clarify. Setting a value for an instance variable. Say I have an NSMutableArray variable. In my class, when I initialize it, do I need to call a retain on it? Do I do fooArray = [[[NSMutableArray alloc] init] retain]; or fooArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; Does doing [[NSMutableArray alloc] init] already set the retain count to 1, so I wouldn't need to call retain on it? On the other hand, if I called a method that I know returns an autoreleased object, I would for sure have to call retain on it, right? Like so: fooString = [[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d items", someInt] retain]; Properties. I ask about the retain because I'm a bit confused about how @property's automatic setter works. If I had set fooArray to be a @property with retain set, Objective-C will automatically create the following setter, right? - (void)setFooArray:(NSMutableArray *)anArray { [fooArray release]; fooArray = [anArray retain]; } So, if I had code like this: self.fooArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; (which I believe is valid code), Objective-C creates a setter method that calls retain on the value assigned to fooArray. In this case, will the retain count actually be 2? Correct way of setting a value of a property. I know there are questions on this and (possibly) debates, but which is the right way to set a @property? This? self.fooArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; Or this? NSMutableArray *anArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; self.fooArray = anArray; [anArray release]; I'd love to get some clarification on these examples. Thanks!

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  • Ant Exec environment var

    - by Mike
    I have a problem where I don't want to have to call a setEnv.sh file before i call my ant target that calls an exec task. Right now I have a way to save the environment variables in setenv.properties file in the key=value notation. The exec task for some reason does not see the variables that are set in the .properties file.... (I know i could use the tag but the setenv.properties is dynamically generated) setenv.properties: HELLO=XYZ part of my build.xml : <property file="setenv.properties"/> <target name="test" depends="setEnv"> <exec executable="/bin/ksh" newenvironment="false"> test.sh : echo ${HELLO} Any thoughts?

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  • How to use the Visual Studio 2012 command line tool from system()

    - by Janice Regan
    I am attempting to compile and run one visual C++ program (project1) from another visual C++ program (project2) using msbuild and other commands available in the Visual studio command line tool but not in the windows command line tool. Everything works fine if I run it in the visual studio command line tool. For example I can build using msbuild and it works just as I want it to. When I try to run the same command in my C++ program using system(), the system call appears to use the Windows command line and therefore cannot find any of the commands (msbuild in this example). I am new to working with system() on windows (although I have extensive experience with it using Linux). Is there some way to make my C++ program use the Visual Studio command line environment when I call system (rather than Windows command line environment)? Using the command window manually is not an option. I need to compile and test a series of 200-300 different versions of the program in the project1. This is why I am writing program2

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  • Is it possible to specify a return type of "Derivative(of T)" for a MustOverride sub in VB.NET?

    - by Casey
    VB.NET 2008 .NET 3.5 I have two base classes that are MustInherit (partial). Let's call one class OrderBase and the other OrderItemBase. A specific type of order and order item would inherit from these classes. Let's call these WebOrder (inherits from OrderBase) and WebOrderItem (inherits from OrderItemBase). Now, in the grand scheme of things WebOrder is a composite class containing a WebOrderItem, like so: Public Class WebOrder Inherits OrderBase Public Property OrderItem() as WebOrderItem End Property End Class Public Class WebOrderItem Inherits OrderItemBase End Class In order to make sure any class that derives from OrderBase has the OrderItem property, I would like to do something like this in the OrderBase class: Public MustInherit Class OrderBase Public MustOverride Property OrderItem() as Derivative(Of OrderItemBase) End Class In other words, I want the derived class to be forced to contain a property that returns a derivative of OrderItemBase. Is this possible, or should I be using an entirely different approach?

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  • UIWebView goBack method acts differently on different devices

    - by maxpower
    First Device: 8gb 2nd gen Version: 3.1.3 (7E18) Model: MB528LL Second Device: 32gb 3rd gen Version: 3.1.3 (7E18) Model: MC008LL When I call goBack on the 8gb device, shouldStartLoadWithRequest:navigationType: is called When I call goBack on the 32gb device, shouldStartLoadWithRequest:navigationType: is not called I am not doing any caching (not like it works anyway). To make sure it wasn't caching I removed any possible caching via the request object's cache policy and removing all cache whenever webViewDidFinishLoading is called. Same app, same url, everything is the same but the device itself. Why? FYI: shouldStartLoadWithRequest:navigationType: is called on the simulator when goBack is called

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  • Where are the function literals c++?

    - by academicRobot
    First of all, maybe literals is not the right term for this concept, but its the closest I could think of (not literals in the sense of functions as first class citizens). The idea is that when you make a conventional function call, it compiles to something like this: callq <immediate address> But if you make a function call using a function pointer, it compiles to something like this: mov <memory location>,%rax callq *%rax Which is all well and good. However, what if I'm writing a template library that requires a callback of some sort with a specified argument list and the user of the library is expected to know what function they want to call at compile time? Then I would like to write my template to accept a function literal as a template parameter. So, similar to template <int int_literal> struct my_template {...};` I'd like to write template <func_literal_t func_literal> struct my_template {...}; and have calls to func_literal within my_template compile to callq <immediate address>. Is there a facility in C++ for this, or a work around to achieve the same effect? If not, why not (e.g. some cataclysmic side effects)? How about C++0x or another language? Solutions that are not portable are fine. Solutions that include the use of member function pointers would be ideal. I'm not particularly interested in being told "You are a <socially unacceptable term for a person of low IQ>, just use function pointers/functors." This is a curiosity based question, and it seems that it might be useful in some (albeit limited) applications. It seems like this should be possible since function names are just placeholders for a (relative) memory address, so why not allow more liberal use (e.g. aliasing) of this placeholder. p.s. I use function pointers and functions objects all the the time and they are great. But this post got me thinking about the don't pay for what you don't use principle in relation to function calls, and it seems like forcing the use of function pointers or similar facility when the function is known at compile time is a violation of this principle, though a small one.

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  • class method as hash value

    - by demas
    I have this working code: class Server def handle(&block) @block = block end def do @block.call end end class Client def initialize @server = Server.new @server.handle { action } end def action puts "some" end def call_server @server.do end end client = Client.new client.call_server My Server will handle more then one action so I want to change code such way: class Server def handle(options) @block = options[:on_filter] end def do @block.call end end class Client def initialize @server = Server.new my_hash = { :on_filter => action } @server.handle(my_hash) end def action puts "some" end def call_server @server.do end end client = Client.new client.call_server It is incorrect code because action() method calls on create my_hash, but if I try to modify code to: my_hash = { :on_filter => { action } } i get error message. Is it possible to create hash with methods as hash values ?

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  • XML-RPC in CodeIgniter is for creating a API?

    - by ajsie
    I have read some tutorials about creating an API and i wonder if XML-RPC and XML-RPC server in CodeIgniter are for creating this? If yes, what are the benefits of using these classes rather than im just using regular class/methods/params to create my API interface. This is what it said in the documentation: Quite simply it is a way for two computers to communicate over the internet using XML. One computer, which we will call the client, sends an XML-RPC request to another computer, which we will call the server. Once the server receives and processes the request it will send back a response to the client.

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  • How to make Dajax callback into scoped object

    - by BozoJoe
    I cant seem to find a way to make django-dajaxice have its callback inside same scoped object from which made the initial call. MyViewport = Ext.extend(MyViewportUi, { initComponent: function() { MyViewport.superclass.initComponent.call(this); }, LoadRecordsCallback: function(data){ if(data!='DAJAXICE_EXCEPTION') { alert(data); } else { alert('DAJAXICE_EXCEPTION'); } }, LoadRecords: function(){ Dajaxice.Console.GetUserRecords(this.LoadRecordsCallback); } }); var blah = new MyViewport(); blah.LoadRecords(); I'm on django, and like the calling syntax to django-dajaxice. I'm using Extjs 3.2 and tried passing a Ext.createCallback but Dajax's returning eval seems to only want a string for the callback.

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  • catching the value of a time_select in rails.

    - by ZeroSoul13
    Hello, I have a form that has two field (time_selects), the idea is that the user can select the beginning of a call and end time of the call. I've setup a observe field and works fine: <%= observe_field "llamada_inicio_4i", :update => "total", :with => "llamada_inicio_4i", :url => { :controller => "llamadas", :action => "time_tracker"}%> Sends the value out: Processing LlamadasController#time_tracker (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-04-22 17:48:41) [POST] Parameters:"llamada_inicio_4i"="23",authenticity_token"="+D+yPSVue6yQNfPMuVLkrJn7B9tP6z5S1icKpPFTiso="} Rendering template within layouts/llamadas Rendering llamadas/time_tracker Completed in 5ms (View: 3, DB: 0) | 200 OK [http://0.0.0.0/llamadas /time_tracker] How can i catch this value Parameters:"llamada_inicio_4i"="23"

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  • Can I access an iframe of the same domain in a separate window?

    - by jozecuervo
    How can I detect the presence of and then call a function on a frame that is already loaded in one tab (my iframed facebook app) from a page being loaded in a new tab (from an ad-served link). It seems most examples focus on parent/child iframe communication. In this case, a link will be served from Google Ad Manager, which only allows _top or _blank to be targeted. I want to pass an id through the ad click into the new page/tab on my domain and then JS call over to the frame my app is in to switch state. Both frames are on my domain but not in the same document or window. Is this possible?

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  • Moving Function With Arguments To RequireJS

    - by Jazimov
    I'm not only relatively new to JavaScript but also to RequireJS (coming from string C# background). Currently on my web page I have a number of JavaScript functions. Each one takes two arguments. Imagine that they look like this: functionA(x1, y1) { ... } functionB(x2, y2) { ... } functionC(x3, y3) { ... } Currently, these functions exist in a tag on my HTML page and I simply call each as needed. My functions have dependencies on KnockoutJS, jQuery, and some other JS libraries. I currently have Script tags that synchronously load those external .js dependencies. But I want to use RequireJS so that they're loaded asynchronously, as needed. To do this, I plan to move all three functions above into an external .js file (a type of AMD "module") called MyFunctions.js. That file will have a define() call (to RequireJS's define function) that will look something like this: define(["knockout", "jquery", ...], function("ko","jquery", ...) {???} ); My question is how to "wrap" my functionA, functionB, and functionC functions where the ??? is above so that I can use those functions on my page as needed. For example, in the onclick event handler for a button on my HTML page, I would want to call functionA and pass two it two arguments; same for functionB and functionC. I don't fully understand how to expose those functions when they're wrapped in a define that itself is located in an external .js file. I know that define assures that my listed libraries are loaded asynchronously before the callback function is called, but after that's done I don't understand how the web page's script tags would use my functions. Would I need to use require to ensure they're available, such as: require(["myfunctions"],function({not sure what to put here})] I think I understand the basics of RequireJS but I don't understand how to wrap my functions so that they're in external .js files, don't pollute the global namespace, and yet can still be called from the main page so that arguments can be passed to them. I imagine they're are many ways to do this but in reviewing the RequireJS docs and some videos out there, I can't say I understand how... Thank you for any help.

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  • Calling HttpRequest::getRawRequestMessage() without send()

    - by danielgrad
    I am trying to call getRawRequestMessage() to get the raw HTTP content of the request described by a HttpRequest object, but I notice it always returns an empty string if I don't call send() first. Which kind of defeats my purpose (I want to send the data through other means than the HttpRequest's own send() method). Is there any other way to convert a HttpRequest object to it's raw string equivalent? To give more context: I'm working with a complex class that builds a HttpRequest object and sends requests through it and I want to add a new mode to the class that will work through raw sockets instead. The request is already built in the HttpRequest object and I would like to not have to parse the object manually to generate the HTTP message.

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  • Failed to execute stored procedure from the JDBC code using mysql connection

    - by Purushotham
    Hi, I have one database. I executed a stored procedure on it. I wrote some JDBC code to connect to this database. When I am calling this stored procedure from my JDBC code it is throwing SQLException. One interesting thing I found is that I have one user other than root user. This user has all the privileges to this database where the stored procedure is present. When I use the root user I am able to call the stored procedure successfully. But with the other user I am getting SQLexception. I am not able to find why it happens like this. For sure I want this user(other than root) has to call this stored procedure successfully. Thanks in advance.

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  • Where to include business logic in a domain driven architecture

    - by Mike C.
    I'm trying to learn effective DDD practices as I go, but had a fundamental question I wanted to get some clarity on. I am using ASP.NET WebForms and I am creating a situation where a user places an order. Upon order submission, the code-behind retrieves the user, builds the order from the inputs on the form, calls the User.PlaceOrder() method to perform add the order object to the user's order collection, and calls the repository to save the record to the database. That is fairly simply and straightforward. Now I need to add logic to send an order confirmation email, and I'm not really sure the proper place to put this code or where to call it. In the olden days I would simply put that code in the code-behind and call it at the same time I was building the order, but I want to get a step closer to solid proper architecture so I wanted to get some information. Thanks for your help!

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  • iphone singleton object synchronization

    - by user127091
    I'm working on an iphone app but this is probably a general question. I have a singleton Model class and there would be scenarios where multiple NSOperations (threads) would exist and work with the singleton object. If they all call the same method in this object, do i need to have some locking mechanism? Or can this method be executed only one at a time? I do not have a computer science background but my guess is that all threads would have their CALL to the same address (this method). Also can you please suggest a good beginner programming book that discusses general programming concepts. I don't have the brains for Knuth kinda books.

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