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• c++ specialized overload?

  - by acidzombie24

  -edit- i am trying to close the question. i solved the problem with boost::is_base_and_derived In my class i want to do two things. 1) Copy int, floats and other normal values 2) Copy structs that supply a special copy function (template T copyAs(); } the struct MUST NOT return int's unless i explicitly say ints. I do not want the programmer mistaking the mistake by doing int a = thatClass; -edit- someone mention classes dont return anything, i mean using the operator Type() overload. How do i create my copy operator in such a way i can copy both 1) ints, floats etc and the the struct restricted in the way i mention in 2). i tried doing template <class T2> T operator = (const T2& v); which would cover my ints, floats etc. But how would it differentiate from structs? so i wrote T operator = (const SomeGenericBase& v); The idea was the GenericBase would be unsed instead then i can do v.Whatever. But that backfires bc the functions i want wouldnt exist, unless i use virtual, but virtual templates dont exist. Also i would hate to use virtual I think the solution is to get rid of ints and have it convert to something that can do .as(). So i wrote something up but now i have the same problem, how does that differentiate ints and structs that have the .as() function template?

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• Asp.Net MVC3 - How create Dynamic DropDownList

  - by Bibo

  I found many articles on this but still I don´t know how exactly to do this. I am trying to create my own blog engine, I have View for create article (I am using EF and Code first) and now I must fill number of category in which article should be add but I want to change it to dropdownlist with names of categories. My model looks this: public class Article { public int ArticleID { get; set; } [Required] public string Title { get; set; } [Required] public int CategoryID { get; set; } public DateTime Date { get; set; } [Required()] [DataType(DataType.MultilineText)] [AllowHtml] public string Text { get; set; } public virtual Category Category { get; set; } public IEnumerable<SelectListItem> Categories { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<Comment> Comments { get; set; } } public class Category { public int CategoryID { get; set; } [Required] public string Name { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<Article> Articles { get; set; } } I know I must use Enum (or I think) but I am not exactly sure how. I don´t know which tutorial from that I found is best for me.

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• In Java, is there a performance gain in using interfaces for complex models?

  - by Gnoupi

  The title is hardly understandable, but I'm not sure how to summarize that another way. Any edit to clarify is welcome. I have been told, and recommended to use interfaces to improve performances, even in a case which doesn't especially call for the regular "interface" role. In this case, the objects are big models (in a MVC meaning), with many methods and fields. The "good use" that has been recommended to me is to create an interface, with its unique implementation. There won't be any other class implementing this interface, for sure. I have been told that this is better to do so, because it "exposes less" (or something close) to the other classes which will use methods from this class, as these objects are referring to the object from its interface (all public methods from the implementation being reproduced in the interface). This seems quite strange to me, as it seems like a C++ use to me (with header files). There I see the point, but in Java? Is there really a point in making an interface for such unique implementation? I would really appreciate some clarifications on the topic, so I could justify not following such kind of behavior, and the hassle it creates from duplicating all declarations. Edit: Plenty of valid points in most answers, I'm wondering if I won't switch this question for a community wiki, so we can regroup these points in more structured answers.

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• Whether to put method code in a VB.Net data storage class, or put it in a separate class?

  - by Alan K

  TLDR summary: (a) Should I include (lengthy) method code in classes which may spawn multiple objects at runtime, (b) does doing so cause memory usage bloat, (c) if so should I "outsource" the code to a class that is loaded only once and have the class methods call that, or alternatively (d) does the code get loaded only once with the object definition anyway and I'm worrying about nothing? ........ I don't know whether there's a good answer to this but if there is I haven't found it yet by searching in the usual places. In my VB.Net (2010 if it matters) WinForms project I have about a dozen or so class objects in an object model. Some of these are pretty simple and do little more than act as data storage repositories. The ones further up the object model, however, have an increasing number of methods. There can be a significant number of higher level objects in use though the exact number will be runtime dependent so I can't be more precise than that. As I was writing the method code for one of the top level ones I noticed that it was starting to get quite lengthy. Memory optimisation is something of a lost art given how much memory the average PC has these days but I don't want to make my application a resource hog. So my questions for anyone who knows .Net way better than I do (of which there will be many) are: Is the code loaded into memory with each instance of the class that's created? Alternatively is it loaded only once with the definition of the class, and all derived objects just refer to that definition? (I'm not really sure how that could be possible given that, for example, event handlers can be assigned dynamically, but no harm asking.) If the answer to the first one is yes, would it be more efficient to write the code in a "utility" object which is loaded only once and called from the real class' methods? Any thoughts appreciated.

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• Hibernate Session flush behaviour [ and Spring @Transactional ]

  - by EugeneP

  I use Spring and Hibernate in a web-app, SessionFactory is injected into a DAO bean, and then this DAO is used in a Servlet through webservicecontext. DAO methods are transactional, inside one of the methods I use ... getCurrentSession().save(myObject); One servlet calls this method with an object passed. The update seems to not be flushed at once, it takes about 5 seconds to see the changes in the database. The servlet's method in which that DAO's update method is called, takes a fraction of second to complete. After the @Transactional method of DAO is completed, flushing may NOT happen ? It does not seem to be a rule [ I already see it ]. Then the question is this: what to do to force the session to flush after every DAO method? It may not be a good thing to do, but talking about a Service layer, some methods must end with immediate flush, and Hibernate Session behavior is not predictable. So what to do to guarantee that my @Transactional method persists all the changes after the last line of that method code? getCurrentSession().flush() is the only solution? p.s. I read somewhere that @Transactional IS ASSOCIATED with a DB Transaction. Method returns, transaction must be committed. I do not see this happens.

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• C#: at design time, how can I reliably determine the type of a variable that is declared using var?

  - by Cheeso

  I'm working on a completion (intellisense) facility for C# in emacs. The idea is, if a user types a fragment, then asks for completion via a particular keystroke combination, the completion facility will use .NET reflection to determine the possible completions. Doing this requires that the type of the thing being completed, be known. If it's a string, it has a set of known methods; if it's an Int32, it has a separate set of methods, and so on. Using semantic, a code lexer/parser package available in emacs, I can locate the variable declarations, and their types. Given that, it's straightforward to use reflection to get the methods and properties on the type, and then present the list of options to the user. The problem arrives when the code uses var in the declaration. How can I reliably determine the actual type used, when the variable is declared with the var keyword? Just to be clear, I don't need to determine it at runtime. I want to determine it at "Design time". So far the best idea I have is: extract the declaration statement, eg var foo = "a string value"; concatenate a statement foo.GetType(); dynamically compile the resulting C# fragment it into a new assembly load the assembly into a new AppDomain, run the framgment and get the return type. unload and discard the assembly This sounds awfully heavyweight, for each completion request in the editor. Any better ideas out there?

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• Java Inheritance doubt in parameterised collection

  - by Gala101

  It's obvious that a parent class's object can hold a reference to a child, but does this not hold true in case of parameterised collection ?? eg: Car class is parent of Sedan So public void doSomething(Car c){ ... } public void caller(){ Sedan s = new Sedan(); doSomething(s); } is obviously valid But public void doSomething(Collection<Car> c){ ... } public void caller(){ Collection<Sedan> s = new ArrayList<Sedan>(); doSomething(s); } Fails to compile Can someone please point out why? and also, how to implement such a scenario where a function needs to iterate through a Collection of parent objects, modifying only the fields present in parent class, using parent class methods, but the calling methods (say 3 different methods) pass the collection of three different subtypes.. Ofcourse it compiles fine if I do as below: public void doSomething(Collection<Car> c){ ... } public void caller(){ Collection s = new ArrayList<Sedan>(); doSomething(s); }

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• Python class structure ... prep() method?

  - by Adam Nelson

  We have a metaclass, a class, and a child class for an alert system: class AlertMeta(type): """ Metaclass for all alerts Reads attrs and organizes AlertMessageType data """ def __new__(cls, base, name, attrs): new_class = super(AlertMeta, cls).__new__(cls, base, name, attrs) # do stuff to new_class return new_class class BaseAlert(object): """ BaseAlert objects should be instantiated in order to create new AlertItems. Alert objects have classmethods for dequeue (to batch AlertItems) and register (for associated a user to an AlertType and AlertMessageType) If the __init__ function recieves 'dequeue=True' as a kwarg, then all other arguments will be ignored and the Alert will check for messages to send """ __metaclass__ = AlertMeta def __init__(self, **kwargs): dequeue = kwargs.pop('dequeue',None) if kwargs: raise ValueError('Unexpected keyword arguments: %s' % kwargs) if dequeue: self.dequeue() else: # Do Normal init stuff def dequeue(self): """ Pop batched AlertItems """ # Dequeue from a custom queue class CustomAlert(BaseAlert): def __init__(self,**kwargs): # prepare custom init data super(BaseAlert, self).__init__(**kwargs) We would like to be able to make child classes of BaseAlert (CustomAlert) that allow us to run dequeue and to be able to run their own __init__ code. We think there are three ways to do this: Add a prep() method that returns True in the BaseAlert and is called by __init__. Child classes could define their own prep() methods. Make dequeue() a class method - however, alot of what dequeue() does requires non-class methods - so we'd have to make those class methods as well. Create a new class for dealing with the queue. Would this class extend BaseAlert? Is there a standard way of handling this type of situation?

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• Can you explain this generics behavior and if I have a workaround?

  - by insta

  Sample program below: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; namespace GenericsTest { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { IRetrievable<int, User> repo = new FakeRepository(); Console.WriteLine(repo.Retrieve(35)); } } class User { public int Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } class FakeRepository : BaseRepository<User>, ICreatable<User>, IDeletable<User>, IRetrievable<int, User> { // why do I have to implement this here, instead of letting the // TKey generics implementation in the baseclass handle it? //public User Retrieve(int input) //{ // throw new NotImplementedException(); //} } class BaseRepository<TPoco> where TPoco : class,new() { public virtual TPoco Create() { return new TPoco(); } public virtual bool Delete(TPoco item) { return true; } public virtual TPoco Retrieve<TKey>(TKey input) { return null; } } interface ICreatable<TPoco> { TPoco Create(); } interface IDeletable<TPoco> { bool Delete(TPoco item); } interface IRetrievable<TKey, TPoco> { TPoco Retrieve(TKey input); } } This sample program represents the interfaces my actual program uses, and demonstrates the problem I'm having (commented out in FakeRepository). I would like for this method call to be generically handled by the base class (which in my real example is able to handle 95% of the cases given to it), allowing for overrides in the child classes by specifying the type of TKey explicitly. It doesn't seem to matter what parameter constraints I use for the IRetrievable, I can never get the method call to fall through to the base class. Also, if anyone can see an alternate way to implement this kind of behavior and get the result I'm ultimately looking for, I would be very interested to see it. Thoughts?

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• Should I put actors in the Domain-Model/Class-Diagram?

  - by devoured elysium

  When designing both the domain-model and class-diagrams I am having some trouble understanding what to put in them. I'll give an example of what I mean: I am doing a vacations scheduler program, that has an Administrator and End-Users. The Administrator does a couple of things like registering End-Users in the program, changing their previleges, etc. The End-User can choose his vacations days, etc. I initially defined an Administrator and End-User as concepts in the domain-model, and later as classes in the class-diagram. In the class-diagram, both classes ended up having a couple of methods like Administrator.RegisterNewUser(); Administrator.UnregisterUser(int id); etc. Only after some time I realised that actually both Administrator and End-User are actors, and maybe I got this design totally wrong. Instead of filling Administrator and End-User classes with methods to do what my Use-Cases request, I could define other classes from the domain to do them, and have controllers handle the Use-Cases(actually, I decided to do one for each Use-Case). I could have a UserDatabase.RegisterNewUser() and UserDatabase.UnregisterUser(int id);, for example, instead of having those methods on the Administrator class. The idea would be to try to think of the whole vacation-scheduler as a "closed-program" that has a set of features and doesn't bother with things such as authentication, that should be internal/protected, being that the only public things I'd let the outside world see would be its controllers. Is this the right approach? Or am I getting this totally wrong? Is it generally bad idea to put Actors in the domain-model/class-diagrams? What are good rules of thumb for this? My lecturer is following Applying UML and Patterns, which I find awful, so I'd like to know where I could look up more info on this described actor-models situation. I'm still a bit confused about all of this, as this new approach is radically different from anything I've done before.

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• How to find unmapped properties in a NHibernate mapped class?

  - by haarrrgh

  I just had a NHibernate related problem where I forgot to map one property of a class. A very simplified example: public class MyClass { public virtual int ID { get; set; } public virtual string SomeText { get; set; } public virtual int SomeNumber { get; set; } } ...and the mapping file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" assembly="MyAssembly" namespace="MyAssembly.MyNamespace"> <class name="MyClass" table="SomeTable"> <property name="ID" /> <property name="SomeText" /> </class> </hibernate-mapping> In this simple example, you can see the problem at once: there is a property named "SomeNumber" in the class, but not in the mapping file. So NHibernate will not map it and it will always be zero. The real class had a lot more properties, so the problem was not as easy to see and it took me quite some time to figure out why SomeNumber always returned zero even though I was 100% sure that the value in the database was != zero. So, here is my question: Is there some simple way to find this out via NHibernate? Like a compiler warning when a class is mapped, but some of its properties are not. Or some query that I can run that shows me unmapped properties in mapped classes...you get the idea. (Plus, it would be nice if I could exclude some legacy columns that I really don't want mapped.)

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• EF Code First, how can I achieve two foreign keys from one table to other table?

  - by Yoo Matsuo

  I've recently downloaded Entity Framework Code First CTP5, and have a trouble with this scenario. I have two tables as follows: Members table ID Name Comments table ID Comment CommentedMemberID CommentMemberID And, the data should be like the following: Members ID Name 1 Mike 2 John 3 Tom Comments ID Comment CommentedMemberID CommentMemberID 1 Good 1 2 2 Good 1 3 3 Bad 2 1 Then, I coded as shown below: public class Member { public int ID {get; set; } public string Name { get; set;} public virtual ICollection Comments { get; set;} } public class Comment { public int ID { get; set; } public string Comment { get; set; } public int CommentedMemberID { get; set; } public int CommentMemberID{ get; set; } public virtual Member CommentedMember { get; set; } public virtual Member CommentMember { get; set; } } public class TestContext : DbContext { public DbSet Members { get; set; } public DbSet Comments { get; set; } } But when I run these models on my cshtml, it gives me errors saying "Cannot create CommentMember instance" or something like that (Sorry, I already changed my models to proceed the EF Code First evaluation, so can't reproduce the same error). I've also tried to use OnModelCreating on the TestContext, but can't find any good instructions and don't know what to do. I saw a blog post of the EF Code First CTP3, and it seems there was a RelatedTo attribute in that version, but now it has gone. Could anyone know how to get it work properly? Or is this a totally wrong way to go with this scenario? Thanks, Yoo

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• Context path routing in Tomcat ( service swapping )

  - by jojovilco

  Here is what I would like to achieve: I have a web service A which I want to be able to deploy side by side with other web services of type A - different version(s). For now I assume 2 instances side by side. I need it because the service has a warm up stage, which takes some time to build up stuff from DB and only after it is ready it can start serving requests ... I was thinking to deploy to Tomcat context paths like: "/ServiceA-1.0", "/ServiceA-2.0" and then have a "virtual" context like "/ServiceA" which will point to the desired physical service e.g. "/ServiceA-1.0". So external world will know about ServiceA, but internally, my ServiceA related stack would know about versioned ServiceA url ( there are more components involved but only ServiceA is serving outer world ). When new service is ready, I would just reconfigure the "virtual" context to point to a new service. So far, I was not able to find out how to do this with Tomcat and starting to tkink it is not possible. I found suggestions to place Apache Server in front of Tomcat and do the routing there, but I do not want to enroll another piece of software unless necessary. My questions are: - is this kind of a "virtual" context and routing possible to do with Tomcat? - any other options, wisdom and lessons learned how to achieve this kind of service swapping scenario? Best, Jozef

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• possible to make codeigniter work with another framework?

  - by ajsie

  the situation is this. my client (who also is a programmer) asks me to develop an address book (with mysql database) with a lot of functions. then he can interact with some class methods i provide for him. kinda like an API. the situation is that the address book application is getting bigger and bigger, and i feel like its way better to use CodeIgniter to code it with MVC. i wonder if i can use codeigniter, then in some way give him the access to controller methods. eg. in a controller there are some functions u can call with the web browser. public function create_contact($information) {..} public function delete_contact($id) {..} public function get_contact($id) {..} however, these are just callable from web browser. how can i let my client have access to these functions like an API? then in his own application he can use: $result = $address_book-create_contact($information); if($result) { echo "Success"; } $contact = $address_book-get_contact($id); is this possible? cause i just know how to access the controller methods with the webbrowser. and i guess its not an option for him to use header(location) to access them. all suggestions to make this possible are welcomed! thanks

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• Is it an good idea to make a wrapper specifically for a DateTime that respresents Now?

  - by Dirk Boer

  I have been noticing lately that is really nice to use a DateTime representing 'now' as an input parameter for your methods, for mocking and testing purposes. Instead of every method calling DateTime.UtcNow themselves, I do it once in the upper methods and forward it on the lower ones. So a lot of methods that need a 'now', have an input parameter DateTime now. (I'm using MVC, and try to detect a parameter called now and modelbind DateTime.UtcNow to it) So instead of: public bool IsStarted { get { return StartTime >= DateTime.UtcNow; } } I usually have: public bool IsStarted(DateTime now) { return StartTime >= now; } So my convention is at the moment, if a method has a DateTime parameter called now, you have to feed it with the current time. Of course this comes down to convention, and someone else can easily just throw some other DateTime in there as a parameter. To make it more solid and static-typed I am thinking about wrapping DateTime in a new object, i.e. DateTimeNow. So in one of the most upper layers I will convert the DateTime to a DateTimeNow and we will get compile errors when, someone tries to fiddle in a normal DateTime. Of course you can still workaround this, but at least if feels more that you are doing something wrong at point. Did anyone else ever went into this path? Are there any good or bad results on the long term that I am not thinking about?

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• Exposing a C++ API to C#

  - by Siyfion

  So what I have is a C++ API contained within a *.dll and I want to use a C# application to call methods within the API. So far I have created a C++ / CLR project that includes the native C++ API and managed to create a "bridge" class that looks a bit like the following: ManagedBridge.h namespace ManagedAPIWrapper { public ref class Bridge { public: int bridge_test(void); int bridge_test2(api_struct* temp); } } ManagedBridge.cpp int Bridge::bridge_test(void) { return test(); } int Bridge::bridge_test2(api_struct* temp) { return test2(temp); } I also have a C# application that has a reference to the C++/CLR "Bridge.dll" and then uses the methods contained within. I have a number of problems with this: I can't figure out how to call bridge_test2 within the C# program, as it has no knowledge of what a api_struct actually is. I know that I need to marshal the object somewhere, but do I do it in the C# program or the C++/CLR bridge? This seems like a very long-winded way of exposing all of the methods in the API, is there not an easier way that I'm missing out? (That doesn't use P/Invoke!)

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• C# properties: How are they instantiated?

  - by Pedery

  Hi! This might be a pretty straightforward question, but I'm trying to understand some of the internal workings of the compilation. Very simply put, imagine an arbitrary object being instantiated. This object is then allocated on the heap. The object has a property of type PointF (which is value type), with a get and a set method. Imagine the get and the set method containing a few calculations for doing their work. How and where (stack/heap) and when is this code instantiated? This is the background for this question: I'm writing get and set methods for an object and these methods need to be accessed very frequently. The get and set code in itself is rather massive so I feared that in a worst case scenario the methods would be instantiated as an object or a value type with all internal code for every access of the property. On the other hand the code is probably instantiated when the main object is created and the CPU is simply told to jmp to the property code start. Anyway, this is what I want to have clarified.

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• Base class Undefined WEIRD problem . Need help

  - by nXqd

  My CGameStateLogo which inherit from CGameState: CGameStateLogo.h #pragma once #include "GameState.h" class CGameMain; class CGameState; class CGameStateLogo: public CGameState { public: void MessageEnter (); void MessageUpdate( int iKey ); void MessagePaint( HDC* pDC ); public: CGameStateLogo(CGameMain* pGameMain); CGameStateLogo(void); ~CGameStateLogo(void); }; CGameState.h #pragma once #include "GameMain.h" #include "MyBitmap.h" class CGameMain; class CMyBitmap; class CGameState { public: CMyBitmap* pbmCurrent; CGameMain* pGM; int GameStateID; virtual void MessageEnter () = 0; virtual void MessageUpdate( int iKey ) = 0; virtual void MessagePaint( HDC* pDC ) = 0; void StateHandler ( int msg, HDC* pDC, int key ); public: CGameState(void); ~CGameState(void); }; Thanks for reading this :)

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• Action on each method's return value

  - by RobGlynn

  What I'd like to do is take some action using the value returned by every method in a class. So for instance, if I have a class Order which has a method public Customer GetCustomer() { Customer CustomerInstance = // get customer return CustomerInstance; } Let's say I want to log the creation of these - Log(CustomerInstance); My options (AFAIK) are: Call Log() in each of these methods before returning the object. I'm not a fan of this because it gets unwieldy if used on a lot of classes with a lot of methods. It also is not an intrinsic part of the method's purpose. Use composition or inheritance to layer the log callon the Order class similar to: public Customer GetCustomer() { Customer CustomerInstance = this.originalCustomer.GetCustomer(); Log(CustomerInstance); return CustomerInstance; } I don't think this buys me anything over #1. Create extension methods on each of the returned types: Customer CustomerInstance = Order.GetCustomer().Log(); which has just as many downsides. I'm looking to do this for every (or almost every) object returned, automatically if possible, without having to write double the amount of code. I feel like I'm either trying to bend the language into doing something it's not supposed to, or failing to recognize some language feature that would enable this. Possible solutions would be greatly appreciated.

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• Minimal framework in Scala for collections with inheriting return type

  - by Rex Kerr

  Suppose one wants to build a novel generic class, Novel[A]. This class will contain lots of useful methods--perhaps it is a type of collection--and therefore you want to subclass it. But you want the methods to return the type of the subclass, not the original type. In Scala 2.8, what is the minimal amount of work one has to do so that methods of that class will return the relevant subclass, not the original? For example, class Novel[A] /* What goes here? */ { /* Must you have stuff here? */ def reverse/* What goes here instead of :Novel[A]? */ = //... def revrev/*?*/ = reverse.reverse } class ShortStory[A] extends Novel[A] /* What goes here? */ { override def reverse: /*?*/ = //... } val ss = new ShortStory[String] val ss2 = ss.revrev // Type had better be ShortStory[String], not Novel[String] Does this minimal amount change if you want Novel to be covariant? (The 2.8 collections do this among other things, but they also play with return types in more fancy (and useful) ways--the question is how little framework one can get away with if one only wants this subtypes-always-return-subtypes feature.)

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• convert a repeating code to method

  - by Mr_Green

  In my project, I am adding ComboBox, Text, Link label to my DataGridView dgvMain.I have created different methods for different cell templates as shown below: (The code below is working) gridLnklbl(string headerName) DataGridViewLinkColumn col = new DataGridViewLinkColumn(); col.HeaderText = headerName; // col.Name = "col" + headerName; // same code repeating to all the methods dgvMain.Columns.Add(col); // gridCmb(string headerName) DataGridViewComboBoxColumn col = new DataGridViewComboBoxColumn(); col.HeaderText = headerName; col.Name = "col" + headerName; dgvMain.Columns.Add(col); gridText(string headerName) DataGridViewTextBoxColumn col = new DataGridViewTextBoxColumn(); col.HeaderText = headerName; col.Name = "col" + headerName; dgvMain.Columns.Add(col); As you can see, except the declaration of objects, the code for every method is repeating. Just curious to know, can the repeating code be converted to single method? I dont know how to do that.. Its not about 3 codes of line, I have written many more lines which can be make common to those methods.

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• Should Service Depend on Many Repositories, or Break Them Up?

  - by Josh Pollard

  I'm using a repository pattern for my data access. So I basically have a repository per table/class. My UI currently uses service classes to actually get things done, and these service classes wrap, and therefore depend on repositories. In many cases my services are only dependent upon one or two repositories, so things aren't too crazy. Unfortunately, one of my forms in the UI expects the user to enter data that will span five different tables. For this form I made a single service class that depends upon five repositories. Then the methods within the service for saving and loading the data call the appropriate methods on all of the corresponding repositories. As you can imagine, the save and load methods in this service are really big. Also, unit testing this service is getting really difficult because I have to setup so many fake repositories. Would it have been a better choice to break this single service apart into a few smaller services? It would put more code at the UI layer, but would make the services smaller and more testable.

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• WMI Rights required to read root\MicrosoftIISv2 in IIS7 with IIS6 compatibility mode

  - by JoeBilly

  I need to manage my IIS7 (Windows Server 2008) remotely with a WMI IIS6 API. So I added the IIS6 WMI Compatibility and IIS6 Metabase Compatibility roles to access the root\MicrosoftIIsv2 namespace. I have a domain account which is not administrator on the remote machine ; with this right, everything is ok. I configured these rights for my domain account to access the root\MicrosoftIIsv2 WMI namespace remotely ; note that these rights work perfectly on a IIS6 and Windows Server 2003 : DCOM : Account in Distributed COM Users Remote & local access to DCOM WMI : Root\CIMV2 (I need access here too) Execute methods, Enable Account, Remote Enable Root\Default (I need access here too) Execute methods, Enable Account, Remote Enable Root\MicrosoftIISv2 Execute methods, Enable Account, Provider Write, Remote Enable IIS Metabase (Metabase Explorer) : LM Full Control (W3SVC inherits these permissions) I tried to give some access on C:\Windows\System32\inetsrv too ; don't know if needed. My issue is : I can't list the IIS WebSites (\root\MicrosoftIISv2:IIsWebServerSetting.Name="W3SVC/*"). I don't get an 'access denied' but nothing is returned. My API and powershell tests can connect and execute queries in the root\MicrosoftIISv2 namespace I can read the IIsComputer class ex: Get-WmiObject IIsComputer -namespace "ROOT\MicrosoftIISv2" -authentication PacketPrivacy | SELECT * I can't read the IIsWebServerSetting, IIsWebServer ... to list the WebSites : the query returns an empty collection ex: Get-WmiObject IIsWebServerSetting -namespace "ROOT\MicrosoftIISv2" -authentication PacketPrivacy | SELECT ServerComment All queries work perfectly if the account is administrator as already said I am using PacketPrivacy authentication FI: I got a Warning Event 5605 with the Administrator right or not, that does not seem to have an impact : The root\MicrosoftIISv2 namespace is marked with the RequiresEncryption flag. Access to this namespace might be denied if the script or application does not have the appropriate authentication level. Change the authentication level to Pkt_Privacy and run the script or application again Ok, I have some more informations, when I use IIS 6 Metabase Explorer with my administrator account I can see the rights are correctly inherited for my non-administrator account. But when I try to connect using my non-administrator account, I can list the LM node, but get an "access denied, failed to get a key's data" when I try to browse the child nodes. I'll check further. I tried to Trace the WMI Activity, and everything seems OK ; this tends to confirm that the problem lies in IIS Rights.

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• Programmatically add an ISAPI extension dll in IIS 7 using ADSI?

  - by fretje

  I apologize beforehand, this is a cross post of this SO question. I thought I'd ask it there first, but apparently it doesn't harvest any answers there. I hope it will get more attention here. When I have an answer somewhere, I'll delete the other one. I'm trying to programmatically add an ISAPI extension dll in IIS using ADSI. This has been working for ages on previous versions of IIS, but it seems to fail on IIS 7. I am using similar code like shown in this question: var web = GetObject("IIS://localhost/W3SVC/1/ROOT/specificVirtualDirectory"); var maps = web.ScriptMaps.toArray(); map[maps.length] = ".aaa,c:\\path\\to\\isapi\\extension.dll,1,GET,POST"; web.ScriptMaps = maps.asDictionary(); web.SetInfo(); After executing that code, I do see an "AboMapperCustom-12345678" entry for that specific dll in the "Handler mappings" of the specific virtual directory in which I added the script map. But when I try to use that extension in a browser, I always get HTTP Error 404.2 Not Found The page you are requesting cannot be served because of the ISAPI and CGI Restriction list settings on the Web server. Even after adding an entry to allow that specific dll in the "ISAPI and CGI restrictions", I keep getting that error. To make it actually work, I first have to undo these steps (encountering the same issue like the OP of the question mentioned above: after deleting the script map entry from the IIS manager GUI, I also have to programmatically delete it using ADSI before it's actually gone from the metabase). And then manually add an entry like this: inetmgr - webserver - website - virtual directory - handler mappings - add script map... path = *.dll, executable = <path to dll>, name = <doesn't matter, but it's mandatory> click "yes" on the question "do you want to allow this ISAPI extension?" When I compare the 2 entries, they are exactly the same, except for the "Entry Type" which seems to be "Inherited" for the programmatically added one and "Local" for the one added manually. The strange thing is, even though it says "Inherited", I don't see it anywhere in IIS on a higher level. Where is it inheriting from? In my code, I do add the script map to the specific virtual directory so it should be "Local" as well. Maybe there is the problem, but I don't know how to add a "Local" Script Map using ADSI. I really would like to keep using the ADSI method, as otherwise I will have to use different methods in our setup when working with IIS 7 or previous versions, and I would like to avoid that. To recap: How can I programmatically add a script map entry and its companion CGI and ISAPI restrictions entry to IIS 7 using ADSI? Anybody who can shed some light on this? Any help appreciated.

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• Dual Exchange 2010 on different VM + single public IP + multiple domains

  - by Shivan Raptor

  Here is the scenario: I have 2 Exchange Server 2010 on 2 different Virtual Machines, created by and based on Hyper-V. They have IP and domain: 192.168.5.11, domainA.com ; and 192.168.5.12, domainB.com respectively. The problem is, I only have 1 public IP, say 123.123.1.1 . How do I configure the settings so that I can successfully receive emails using both Exchange servers? Given that I cannot use single Exchange server for multiple domains. -- UPDATE -- To clarify, the domainA.com and domainB.com mentioned above are website domains, instead of multiple Active Directory forests. Users of the two Exchange Server shares the same Active Directory. I know that ONE Exchange Server can handle multiple domains, but I would like to separate them into different Virtual Machines, for load balancing and data separation.

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