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• Consuming SharePoint Web Services fails when behind Proxy server

  - by Jan Petersen

  Hi All, I've seen a number of post about consuming Web Services from behind a proxy server, but none that seams to address this problem. I'm building a desktop application, using Java, JAX-WS in NetBeans. I have a working prototype, that can query the server for authentication mode, successfully authenticate and retrieve a list of web site. However, if I run the same app from a network that is behind a proxy server (the proxy does not require authentication), then I'm running into trouble. The normal -dhttp.proxyHost ... settings does not seam to help any. But I have found that by creating a ProxySelector class and setting it as default, I can regain access to the authentication web service, but I still can't retrieve the list of web sites from the SharePoint server. Anyone have any experience on how to make this work? I have put the source text java class files of a demo app up, showing the issue at the following urls (it's a bit to long even in the short demo form to post here). link text When running the code from a network behind a proxy server, I successfully retrieve the Authentication mode from the server, but the request for the Web Site list generates an exception originating at: com.sun.xml.internal.ws.transport.http.client .HttpClientTransport.readResponseCodeAndMessage(HttpClientTransport.java:201) The output from the source when no proxy is on the network is listed below: Successfully retrieved the SharePoint WebService response for Authentication SharePoint authentication method is: WINDOWS Calling Web Service to retrieve list of web site. Web Service call response: -------------- XML START -------------- <Webs xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/sharepoint/soap/"> <Web Title="Collaboration Lab" Url="http://host.domain.com/collaboration"/> <Web Title="Global Data Lists" Url="http://host.domain.com/global_data_lists"/> <Web Title="Landing" Url="http://host.domain.com/Landing"/> <Web Title="SharePoint HelpDesk" Url="http://host.domain.com/helpdesk"/> <Web Title="Program Management" Url="http://host.domain.com/programmanagement"/> <Web Title="Project Site" Url="http://host.domain.com/Project Site"/> <Web Title="SharePoint Administration Tools" Url="http://host.domain.com/admin"/> <Web Title="Space Management Project" Url="http://host.domain.com/spacemgmt"/> </Webs> -------------- XML END -------------- Br Jan

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• A Python Wrapper for Shutterfly. Uploading an Image

  - by iJames

  I'm working on a Django app in which I want to order prints through Shutterfly's Open API: http://www.shutterfly.com/documentation/start.sfly So far I've been able to build the appropriate POSTs and GETs using the modules and suggested code snippets including httplib, httplib2, urllib, urllib2, mimetype, etc. But I'm stuck on the image uploading when placing an order (the ordering process is not the same process as uploading images to albums which I haven't tried.) From what I can tell, I'm supposed to basically create the multipart form data by concatenating the HTTP request body together with the binary data of the image. I take the strings: --myuniqueboundary1273149960.175.1 Content-Disposition: form-data; name="AuthenticationID" auniqueauthenticationid --myuniqueboundary1273149960.175.1 Content-Disposition: file; name="Image.Data"; filename="1_41_orig.jpg" Content-Type: image/jpeg and I put this data into it and end with the final boundary: ...\xb5|\xf88\x1dj\t@\xd9\'\x1f\xc6j\x88{\x8a\xc0\x18\x8eGaJG\x03\xe9J-\xd8\x96[\x91T\xc3\x0eTu\xf4\xaa\xa5Ty\x80\x01\x8c\x9f\xe9Z\xad\x8cg\xba# g\x18\xe2\xaa:\x829\x02\xb4["\x17Q\xe7\x801\xea?\xad7j\xfd\xa2\xdf\x81\xd2\x84D\xb6)\xa8\xcb\xc8O\\\x9a\xaf(\x1cqM\x98\x8d*\xb8\'h\xc8+\x8e:u\xaa\xf3*\x9b\x95\x05F8\xedN%\xcb\xe1B2\xa9~Tw\xedF\xc4\xfe\xe8\xfc\xa9\x983\xff\xd9... That ends up making it look like this (when I use print to debug): ... --myuniqueboundary1273149960.175.1 Content-Disposition: file; name="Image.Data"; filename="1_41_orig.jpg" Content-Type: image/jpeg ????q?ExifMM* ? ??(1?2?<??i?b?NIKON CORPORATIONNIKON D40HHQuickTime 7.62009:02:17 13:05:25Mac OS X 10.5.6%??????"?'??0220?????? ???? ? ?|_???,b???50??5 ... --myuniqueboundary1273149960.175.1-- My code for grabbing the binary data is pretty much this: filedata = open('myjpegfile.jpeg','rb').read() Which I then add to the rest of the body. I've see something like this code everywhere. I'm then using this to post the full request (with the headers too): response = urllib2.urlopen(request).read() This seems to me to be the standard way that form POSTS with files happens. Am I missing something here? At some point I might be able to make this into a library worth posting up on github, but this problem has stopped me cold in my tracks. Thanks for any insight!

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• How can I read/write data from a file?

  - by samy

  I'm writing a simple chrome extension. I need to create the ability to add sites URLs to a list, or read from the list. I use the list to open the sites in the new tabs. I'm looking for a way to have a data file I can write to, and read from. I was thinking on XML. I read there is a problem changing the content of files with Javascript. Is XML the right choice for this kinda thing? I should add that there is no web server, and the app will run locally, so maybe the problem websites are having are not same as this. Before I wrote this question, I tried one thing, and started to feel insecure because it didn't work. I made a XML file called Site.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <Sites> <site> <url> http://www.sulamacademy.com/AddMsgForum.asp?FType=273171&SBLang=0&WSUAccess=0&LocSBID=20375 </url> </site> <site> <url> http://www.wow.co.il </url> </site> <site> <url> http://www.Google.co.il </url> </site> I made this script to read the data from him, and put in on the html file. function LoadXML() { var ajaxObj = new XMLHttpRequest(); ajaxObj.open('GET', 'Sites.xml', false); ajaxObj.send(); var myXML = ajaxObj.responseXML; document.write('<table border="2">'); var prs = myXML.getElementsByTagName("site"); for (i = 0; i < prs.length; i++) { document.write("<tr><td>"); document.write(prs[i].getElementsByName("url")[0].childNode[0].nodeValue); document.write("</td></tr>"); } document.write("</table"); }

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• How to merge jquery autocomplete and fcbkListSelection functionality?

  - by Ben

  Initial caveat: I am a newbie to jquery and javascript. I started using the autocomplete jquery plugin recently from bassistance.de. Yesterday, I found the fcbkListSelection plugin (http://www.emposha.com/javascript/fcbklistselection-like-facebook-friends-selector.html) and am using it to include a selector in my application. What I now want to do is to merge the 2 pieces of functionality since there are lots of items in my selector list. To be more specific, I want to put a "Filter by Name" text box above the facebook list selection object in my html. When the user types a few characters into the "Filter by Name" text box, I want the items in the Facebook list selector to only show the items that contain the typed characters -- kind of like what autocomplete does already, but rather than the results showing below the text input box, I want them to dynamically update the facebook list object. Is this possible and relatively straightforward? If so, can somebody please describe how to do it? If not, is there an easier way to approach this? Thanks! OK, to Spencer Ruport's comment, I guess I may have a more specific question already. Below is the current Javascript in my HTML file (angle brackets represent Django tags). #suggest1 and #fcbklist both do their separate pieces, but how do I get them to talk to each other? Do I need to further write javascript in my HTML file, or do I need to customize the guts of the plugins' .js? Does this help elaborate? $(document).ready(function() { var names = []; var count = 0; {% for a, b, c in friends_for_picker %} names[count] = "{{ b }}"; count = count+1; {% endfor %} function findValueCallback(event, data, formatted) { $("<li>").html( !data ? "No match!" : "Selected: " + formatted).appendTo("#result"); } function formatItem(row) { return row[0] + " (<strong>id: " + row[1] + "</strong>)"; } function formatResult(row) { return row[0].replace(/(<.+?>)/gi, ''); } $("#suggest1").autocomplete(names, { multiple: true, mustMatch: false, autoFill: true, matchContains: true, }); //id(ul id),width,height(element height),row(elements in row) $.fcbkListSelection("#fcbklist","575","50","4"); });

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• Android: dynamically setting links to text in strings.xml

  - by Martyn

  I'm trying to make an app with localisation built in, but I want a way that I can create a web link within the text, the URL being defined elsewhere (for ease of maintenance). So, I have my links in res/values/strings.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <resources> ... <string name="link1">http://some.link.com</string> <string name="link2">http://some.link2.com</string> </resources> and my localised text in res/values-en-rGB/strings.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <resources> ... <string name="sampleText">Sample text\nMore text and link1\nMore text and link2.</string> </resources> I've not tested this bit, but from the localization section of developer.android.com it says that this approach to reducing content duplication should work, although I'm not sure what folder I should put Italian, for example. Would it be in 'res/values-it-rIT/strings.xml'? Lets assume that I have various other languages too. I'm looking for a way of taking the base localised 'sampleText' and inserting my html links in, and getting them to work when clicked on. I've tried two approaches so far: 1, Putting some formatting in the 'sampleText' (%s): <string name="sampleText">Sample text\nMore text and <a href="%s">link1</a>\nMore text and <a href="%s">link2</a>.</string> and then processing the text like this: TextView tv = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.textHolder); tv.setText(getResources().getString(R.string.sampleText, getResources().getString(R.string.link1), getResources().getString(R.string.link2))); But this didn't work when I click on the link, even though the link text is being put in to the correct places. 2, I tried to use Linkify but the regular expression route may be difficult as I'm looking at supporting non-Latin based languages. I tried to put a custom xml tag around the link text and then do something like this: Pattern wordMatcher = Pattern.compile("<span1>.*</span1>"); String viewURL = "content://" + getResources().getString(R.string.someLink); Linkify.addLinks(tv, wordMatcher , viewURL ); But this didn't work either. So, I'd like to know if there's a way of dynamically adding multiple URLs to different sections of the same text which will link to web content? Thank you, Martyn

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• SharedObject (Flex 3.2) behaving unexpectedly when query string present in URL

  - by rhtx

  Summary: The behavior detailed below seems to indicate that if your app at www.someplace.com sets/retrieves data via a SharedObject, there is some sort of .sol collision if the user hits your app at someplace.com, and then later at someplace.com?name=value. Can anyone confirm or refute this? I'm working on a Flex web app that presents the user with a login page. When the user has logged in, he/she is presented with a 'room' which is associated with a 'group'. We store the last-visited room/group combination in a SharedObject - so when a given user logs in, they are taken into the most recent room in which they were active. That works fine, but we also have an auto-login system which involves the user clicking on a link to the app url with a query string attached. There are two types of these links. 1) the query string includes username, groupId, and roomId 2) the query string includes only the username Because we are working fast and have only a few developers, the auto-login system is built on the last-vist system. During the auto-login process, the url is inspected and if groupId and roomId values are found in the query string, the SharedObject is opened and the last-visit group/room id values are overwritten by the param values. That works fine, also, when the app is hit with a query string of the second type (no groupId and roomId params), the app goes to the SharedObject to get the stored room and group id values, as it normally would. And here's the problem: The values it comes back with are whatever the last room/group param values were, not whatever the last last-visit room/group values are. And if the given user has never hit the app with query string that included group and room id values, the app gets null values from the SharedObject. It took some digging around, but what it looks like is happening is that a second set of data is being stored/expected in the SharedObject if a query string is present in the URL. Looking at the .sol file in a text editor I see more untranslated code, and additional group and room values, once I've hit the app with URLs that contain query strings. I'm not finding anything on the web about this, but that may just be due to a lack of necessary search skills. Has anyone else run into anything similar? Or do you know how to address this? I've tried setting Security.exactSettings to false, already - was really hoping that was going to work.

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• What happens when several Java servlet apps running on the same port ?

  - by Frank

  Something strange happened to my servlets and I think I've figured out why, yet I'm more confused. I used Netbean6.7 to develop a Paypal IPN (Instant Payment Notification) message servlet, it listens on port 8080 by default for Paypal IPN messages. I used some sample Java code from it's web site, but when it ran, only about 1 in 10 messages came through, and they looked correct, but why 1 in 10 ? Not 100% or none ? So I asked some questions here and got some advices, one in particular points me to Google's App Engine, so I downloaded it and ran the demo guestbook while my IPN servlet is still running on Netbeans, the strange thing happened, after I entered "appengine-java-sdk-1.3.2\bin\dev_appserver.cmd appengine-java-sdk-1.3.2\demos\guestbook\war" from the command prompt, I went to the following url on my browser "http://localhost:8080/", I thought I would see the Google demo guestbook page, NO, what I saw was another servlet I developed 2 years ago : "Web Academy", online course registration app. How can that happen ? I never started it, and I haven't touch that project for years. I guess because it's also listening on port 8080, so now I understand why the IPN messages only came through 1 in 10 times, because another servlet was also listening on that port and could have got the messages intended for IPN, or some how those two servlets' processes mixed up and therefore couldn't respond to Paypal properly, and failed. In order to verify some of my guesses, I turn off Netbeans, and ran the Google guestbook again at the prompt, this time on my browser http://localhost:8080/ points to the demo guestbook page. My Urls look like this : [A] Paypal IPN : http://localhost:8080/PayPal_App/PayPal_Servlet [B] Web Academy : http://localhost:8080/ So now, my questions are : <1> Why the "Web Academy" servlet was auto started when I ran the Paypal servlet ? <2> If I change the IPN listening port to 8083, would that mean I can run both of them on my PC at the same time without affecting each other ? <3> But I still don't understand, [A] and [B] look different, if a page for [A] is refreshed, it should show the Paypal content, and another page looking at [B] should show the Web Academy content, and that's exactly what happens when I started Netbeans to run the Paypal servlet, both pages show their respective content correctly side by side without interfering with each other, how come the IPN messages couldn't get through 100% of the time ? <4> In Netbeans how to assign 8080 to servlet [A] and assign port 8083 to servlet [B] ? <5> How to turn off auto start of Web Academy by Netbeans ?

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• Accessing different connection strings at runtime in ASP.NET MVC 1

  - by Neil T.

  I'm trying to implement integration testing in my ASP.NET MVC 1.0 solution. The technologies in use are LINQ-to-SQL, NUnit and WatiN. I recently discovered a pattern that will allow me to create a testing version of the database on the fly without modifying the development version of the database. I needed this behavior in order to run my user interface tests in WatiN that may modify the database. The plan is to modify the connection string in the Web.config file, and pass that new connection string to the DataContext constructor. This way, I don't have to add routes or modify my URLs in order to perform the integration testing. I've set up the project so that the test setup can modify the connection string to point to the test database when the tests are running. The connection string is stored in web.config. The problem I'm having is that when I try to run the tests, I get a NullReferenceException when trying to access the HTTPContext. From everything that I have read so far, the HTTPContext is only available within the context of a controller. Here is the code for the property that is supposed to give me the reference to the Web.config file: private System.Configuration.Configuration WebConfig { get { ExeConfigurationFileMap fileMap = new ExeConfigurationFileMap(); // NullReferenceException occurs on this line. fileMap.ExeConfigFilename = HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath("~\\web.config"); System.Configuration.Configuration config = ConfigurationManager.OpenMappedExeConfiguration(fileMap, ConfigurationUserLevel.None); return config; } } Is there something that I am missing in order to make this work? Is there a better way to accomplish what I'm trying to achieve? UPDATE: I decided to abandon the modification of Web.config in lieu of a "request-scoped DataContext" pattern that I found here. From the looks of it, I believe it should give me the results I'm looking for. However, during the TextFixtureSetUp, I try to create a new copy of the database for testing purposes, and it fails silently. When I get to the tests, the repository still uses the production database connection string to load data.

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• DriverManager always returns my custom driver regardless of the connection URL

  - by JGB146

  I am writing a driver to act as a wrapper around two separate MySQL connections (to distributed databases). Basically, the goal is to enable interaction with my driver for all applications instead of requiring the application to sort out which database holds the desired data. Most of the code for this is in place, but I'm having a problem in that when I attempt to create connections via the MySQL Driver, the DriverManager is returning an instance of my driver instead of the MySQL Driver. I'd appreciate any tips on what could be causing this and what could be done to fix it! Below is a few relevant snippets of code. I can provide more, but there's a lot, so I'd need to know what else you want to see. First, from MyDriver.java: public MyDriver() throws SQLException { DriverManager.registerDriver(this); } public Connection connect(String url, Properties info) throws SQLException { try { return new MyConnection(info); } catch (Exception e) { return null; } } public boolean acceptsURL(String url) throws SQLException { if (url.contains("jdbc:jgb://")) { return true; } return false; } It is my understanding that this acceptsURL function will dictate whether or not the DriverManager deems my driver a suitable fit for a given URL. Hence it should only be passing connections from my driver if the URL contains "jdbc:jgb://" right? Here's code from MyConnection.java: Connection c1 = null; Connection c2 = null; /** *Constructors */ public DDBSConnection (Properties info) throws SQLException, Exception { info.list(System.out); //included for testing Class.forName("com.mysql.jdbc.Driver").newInstance(); String url1 = "jdbc:mysql://server1.com/jgb"; String url2 = "jdbc:mysql://server2.com/jgb"; this.c1 = DriverManager.getConnection( url1, info.getProperty("username"), info.getProperty("password")); this.c2 = DriverManager.getConnection( url2, info.getProperty("username"), info.getProperty("password")); } And this tells me two things. First, the info.list() call confirms that the correct user and password are being sent. Second, because we enter an infinite loop, we see that the DriverManager is providing new instances of my connection as matches for the mysql URLs instead of the desired mysql driver/connection. FWIW, I have separately tested implementations that go straight to the mysql driver using this exact syntax (al beit only one at a time), and was able to successfully interact with each database individually from a test application outside of my driver.

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• MultiActionController no longer receiving requests?

  - by Stefan Kendall

  I was attempting to make changes to my controller, and all of a sudden, I no longer seem to receive any requests (404 when attempting to hit the servlet mapped URLs). I'm sure I've broken my web.xml or app-servlet.xml, but I just don't see where. I can access index.jsp from tomcat (http://IP/app/index.jsp), but I can't get my servlet mapping to work correctly. Help? web.xml: <!DOCTYPE web-app PUBLIC "-//Sun Microsystems, Inc.//DTD Web Application 2.3//EN" "http://java.sun.com/dtd/web-app_2_3.dtd"> <web-app version = "2.4" xmlns="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/j2ee" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/j2ee http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/j2ee/web-app_2_4.xsd"> <listener> <listener-class> org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoaderListener </listener-class> </listener> <servlet> <servlet-name>app</servlet-name> <servlet-class>org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet</servlet-class> </servlet> <servet-mapping> <servlet-name>app</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/myRequest</url-pattern> </servet-mapping> app-servlet.xml: <!DOCTYPE web-app PUBLIC "-//Sun Microsystems, Inc.//DTD Web Application 2.3//EN" "http://java.sun.com/dtd/web-app_2_3.dtd"> <web-app version = "2.4" xmlns="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/j2ee" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/j2ee http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/j2ee/web-app_2_4.xsd"> <listener> <listener-class> org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoaderListener </listener-class> </listener> <servlet> <servlet-name>app</servlet-name> <servlet-class>org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet</servlet-class> </servlet> <servet-mapping> <servlet-name>app</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/myRequest</url-pattern> </servet-mapping> </web-app>

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• Do Websites need Local Databases Anymore?

  - by viatropos

  If there's a better place to ask this, please let me know. Every time I build a new website/blog/shopping-cart/etc., I keep trying to do the following: Extract out common functionality into reusable code (Rubygems and jQuery plugins mostly) If possible, convert that gem into a small service so I never have to deal with a database for the objects involved (by service, I mean something lean and mean, usually built with the Sinatra Web Framework with a few core models). My assumption is, if I can remove dependencies on local databases, that will make it easier and more scalable in the long run (scalable in terms of reusability and manageability, not necessarily database/performance). I'm not sure if that's a good or bad assumption yet. What do you think? I've made this assumption because of the following reason: Most serious database/model functionality has been built on the internet somewhere. Just to name a few: Social Network API: Facebook Messaging API: Twitter Mailing API: Google Event API: Eventbrite Shopping API: Shopify Comment API: Disqus Form API: Wufoo Image API: Picasa Video API: Youtube ... Each of those things are fairly complicated to build from scratch and to make as optimized, simple, and easy to use as those companies have made them. So if I build an app that shows pictures (picasa) on an Event page (eventbrite), and you can see who joined the event (facebook events), and send them emails (google apps api), and have them fill out monthly surveys (wufoo), and watch a video when they're done (youtube), all integrated into a custom, easy to use website, and I can do that without ever creating a local database, is that a good thing? I ask because there's two things missing from the puzzle that keep forcing me to create that local database: Post API RESTful/Pretty Url API While there's plenty of Blogging systems and APIs for them, there is no one place where you can just write content and have it part of some massive thing. For every app, I have to use code for creating pretty/restful urls, and that saves posts. But it seems like that should be a service! Question is, is that what the website is? ...That place to integrate the worlds services for my specific cause... and, sigh, to store posts that only my site has access to. Will everyone always need "their own blog"? Why not just have a profile and write lots of content on an established platform like StackOverflow or Facebook? ... That way I can write apps entirely without a database and know that I'm doing it right. Note: Of course at some point you'd need a database, if you were doing something unique or new. But for the case where you're just rewiring information or creating things like videos, events, and products, is it really necessary anymore??

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• SQL efficiency argument, add a column or solvable by query?

  - by theTurk

  I am a recent college graduate and a new hire for software development. Things have been a little slow lately so I was given a db task. My db skills are limited to pet projects with Rails and Django. So, I was a little surprised with my latest task. I have been asked by my manager to subclass Person with a 'Parent' table and add a reference to their custodian in the Person table. This is to facilitate going from Parent to Form when the custodian, not the Parent, is the FormContact. Here is a simplified, mock structure of a sql-db I am working with. I would have drawn the relationship tables if I had access to Visio. We have a table 'Person' and we have a table 'Form'. There is a table, 'FormContact', that relates a Person to a Form, not all Persons are related to a Form. There is a relationship table for Person to Person relationships (Employer, Parent, etc.) I've asked, "Why this couldn't be handled by a query?" Response, Inefficient. (Really!?!) So, I ask, "Why not have a reference to the Form? That would be more efficient since you wouldn't be querying the FormContacts table with the reference from child/custodian." Response, this would essentially make the Parent is a FormContact. (Fair enough.) I went ahead an wrote a query to get from non-FormContact Parent to Form, and tested on the production server. The response time was instantaneous. *SOME_VALUE* is the Parent's fk ID. SELECT FormID FROM FormContact WHERE FormContact.ContactID IN (SELECT SourceContactID FROM ContactRelationship WHERE (ContactRelationship.RelatedContactID = *SOME_VALUE*) AND (ContactRelationship.Relationship = 'Parent')); If I am right, "This is an unnecessary change." What should I do, defend my position or should I concede to the managers request? If I am wrong. What is my error? Is there a better solution than the manager's?

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• Would a Centralized Blogging Service Work?

  - by viatropos

  If there's a better place to ask this, please let me know. Every time I build a new website/blog/shopping-cart/etc., I keep trying to do the following: Extract out common functionality into reusable code (Rubygems and jQuery plugins mostly) If possible, convert that gem into a small service so I never have to deal with a database for the objects involved (by service, I mean something lean and mean, usually built with the Sinatra Web Framework with a few core models. My assumption is, if I can remove dependencies on local databases, that will make it easier and more scalable in the long run (scalable in terms of reusability and manageability, not necessarily database/performance). I'm not sure if that's a good or bad assumption yet. What do you think? I've made this assumption because of the following reason: Most serious database/model functionality has been built on the internet somewhere. Just to name a few: Social Network API: Facebook Messaging API: Twitter Mailing API: Google Event API: Eventbrite Shopping API: Shopify Comment API: Disqus Form API: Wufoo Image API: Picasa Video API: Youtube ... Each of those things are fairly complicated to build from scratch and to make as optimized, simple, and easy to use as those companies have. So if I build an app that shows pictures (picasa) on an Event page (eventbrite), and you can see who joined the event (facebook events), and send them emails (google apps api), and have them fill out monthly surveys (wufoo), and watch a video when they're done (youtube), all integrated into a custom, easy to use website, and I can do that without ever creating a local database, is that a good thing? I ask because there's two things missing from the puzzle that keep forcing me to create that local database: Post API RESTful/Pretty Url API While there's plenty of Blogging systems and APIs for them, there is no one place where you can just write content and have it part of some massive thing. For every app, I have to use code for creating pretty/restful urls, and that saves posts. But it seems like that should be a service! Question is, is that the main point of a website? Will everyone always need "their own blog"? Why not just have a profile and write lots of content on an established platform like StackOverflow or Facebook?

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• Accessing a web service and a HTTP interface using certificate authentication

  - by ADC

  It is the first time I have to use certificate authentication. A commercial partner expose two services, a XML Web Service and a HTTP service. I have to access both of them with .NET clients. What I have tried 0. Setting up the environment I have installed the SSLCACertificates (on root and two intermediate) and the client certificate in my local machine (win 7 professional) using certmgr.exe. 1. For the web service I have the client certificate (der). The service will be consumed via a .NET proxy. Here's the code: OrderWSService proxy = new OrderWSService(); string CertFile = "ClientCert_DER.cer"; proxy.ClientCertificates.Add(new System.Security.Cryptography.X509Certificates.X509Certificate(CertFile)); orderTrackingTO ot = new orderTrackingTO() { order_id = "80", tracking_id = "82", status = stateOrderType.IN_PREPARATION }; resultResponseTO res = proxy.insertOrderTracking(ot); Exception reported at last statement: The request failed with an empty response. 2. For the HTTP interface it is a HTTPS interface I have to call through POST method. The HTTPS request will be send from a .NET client using HTTPWebRequest. Here's the code: string PostData = "MyPostData"; //setting the request HttpWebRequest req; req = (HttpWebRequest)HttpWebRequest.Create(url); req.UserAgent = "MyUserAgent"; req.Method = "POST"; req.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"; req.ClientCertificates.Add(new System.Security.Cryptography.X509Certificates.X509Certificate(CertFile, "MyPassword")); //setting the request content byte[] byteArray = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(PostData); Stream dataStream = req.GetRequestStream(); dataStream.Write(byteArray, 0, byteArray.Length); dataStream.Close(); //obtaining the response WebResponse res = req.GetResponse(); r = new StreamReader(res.GetResponseStream()); Exception reported at last statement: The request was aborted: Could not create SSL/TLS secure channel. 3. Last try: using the browser In Chrome, after installing the certificates, if I try to access both urls I get a 107 error: Error 107 (net::ERR_SSL_PROTOCOL_ERROR) I am stuck.

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• ASP.Net 4.0 - Response required in SiteMap building?

  - by Nick Craver

  I'm running into an issue upgrading a project to .Net 4.0...and having trouble finding any reason for the issue (or at least, the change causing it). Given the freshness of 4.0, not a lot of blogs out there for issues yet, so I'm hoping someone here has an idea. Preface: this is a Web Forms application, coming from 3.5 SP1 to 4.0. In the Application_Start event we're iterating through the SiteMap and constructing routes based off data there (prettifying URLs mostly with some utility added), that part isn't failing though...or at least isn't not getting that far. It seems that calling the SiteMap.RootNode (inside application_start) causes 4.0 to eat it, since the XmlSiteMapProvider.GetNodeFromXmlNode method has been changed, looking in reflector you can see it's hitting HttpResponse.ApplyAppPathModifier here: str2 = HttpContext.Current.Response.ApplyAppPathModifier(str2); HttpResponse wasn't used at all in this method in the 2.0 CLR, so what we had worked fine, in 4.0 though, that method is called as a result of this stack: [HttpException (0x80004005): Response is not available in this context.] System.Web.XmlSiteMapProvider.GetNodeFromXmlNode(XmlNode xmlNode, Queue queue) System.Web.XmlSiteMapProvider.ConvertFromXmlNode(Queue queue) System.Web.XmlSiteMapProvider.BuildSiteMap() System.Web.XmlSiteMapProvider.get_RootNode() System.Web.SiteMap.get_RootNode() Since Response isn't available here in 4.0, we get an error. To reproduce this, you can narrow the test case down to this in global: protected void Application_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { var s = SiteMap.RootNode; //Kaboom! //or just var r = Context.Response; //or var r = HttpContext.Current.Response; //all result in the same "not available" error } Question: Am I missing something obvious here? Or, is there another event added in 4.0 that's recommended for anything related to SiteMap on startup? For anyone curious/willing to help, I've created a very minimal project (a default VS 2010 ASP.Net 4.0 site, all the bells & whistles removed and only a blank sitemap and the Application_Start code added). It's a small 10kb zip available here: http://www.ncraver.com/Test/SiteMapTest.zip Update: Not a great solution, but the current work-around is to do the work in Application_BeginRequest, like this: private static bool routesRegistered = false; protected void Application_BeginRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!routesRegistered) { Application.Lock(); if (!routesRegistered) RouteManager.RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); routesRegistered = true; Application.UnLock(); } } I don't like this particularly, feels like an abuse of the event to bypass the issue. Does anyone have at least a better work-around, since the .Net 4 behavior with SiteMap is not likely to change?

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• Eclipse RCP and JFace: Problems with Images in Context menu and TreeViewer

  - by Juri

  I'm working on an Eclipse RCP application. Today I experienced some troubles when displaying images in the context menu. What I wanted to do is to add a column to my table containing images of stars for representing a user rating. On Windows, this causes some problems, since the star images are squeezed up on the left corner of the table cell instead of expanding on the whole cell, but I'll solve that somehow. In addition I have a context menu on the table, with an entry called "rate" where again the different stars from 1 to 5 (representing the rating level) are shown, such that the user can click on it for choosing different ratings. That works fine on Windows. Now I switched to Linux (Ubuntu) to see how it works out there, and strangely, the stars in the table cell are layed out perfectly, while the stars on the context menu don't even show up. On the context menu I'm using an action class where I'm setting the image descriptor for the star images: public class RateAction extends Action { private final int fRating; private IStructuredSelection fSelection; public RateAction(int rating, IStructuredSelection selection) { super("", AS_CHECK_BOX); fRating = rating; fSelection = selection; setImageDescriptor(createImageDescriptor()); } /** * Creates the correct ImageDescriptor depending on the given rating * @return */ private ImageDescriptor createImageDescriptor() { ImageDescriptor imgDescriptor = null; switch (fRating) { case 0: return OwlUI.NEWS_STARON_0; case 1: return OwlUI.NEWS_STARON_1; case 2: return OwlUI.NEWS_STARON_2; case 3: return OwlUI.NEWS_STARON_3; case 4: return OwlUI.NEWS_STARON_4; case 5: return OwlUI.NEWS_STARON_5; default: break; } return imgDescriptor; } /* * @see org.eclipse.jface.action.Action#getText() */ @Override public String getText() { //return no text, since the images of the stars will be displayed return ""; } ... } Does somebody know why this strange behaviour appears? Thanks a lot. (For some strange reason, the images don't appear. Here are the direct URLs: http://img187.imageshack.us/img187/4427/starsratingho4.png http://img514.imageshack.us/img514/8673/contextmenuproblemgt1.png) //Edit: I did some tries and it seems as if the images just don't appear when using a Checkbox style for the context menu (see constructor of the RateAction). When I switched to a PushButton style, the images appeared, although not correctly scaled, but at least they were shown.

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• asp.net Multiple Page_Load events for a user control when using URL Routing

  - by Paul Hutson

  Hello, I've recently set up an ASP.net site (not using MVC.net) to use URL Routing (more on the code below) - when using user controls on the site (i.e I've created a "menu" user control to hold menu information) the page_load event for that control will fire twice when URLs have more than one variable passed over. i.e. pageName/VAR1 : will only fire the page_load event once. while pageName/VAR1/VAR2 : will fire the page_load event twice. *Multiple extra VARs added on the end will still only fire the page_load event twice*. Below are the code snippits from the files, the first is the MapPageRoute, located in the Global.asax : // Register a route for the Example page, with the NodeID and also the Test123 variables allowed. // This demonstrates how to have several items linked with the page routes. routes.MapPageRoute( "Multiple Data Example", // Route name "Example/{NodeID}/{test123}/{variable}", // Route URL - note the NodeID bit "~/Example.aspx", // Web page to handle route true, // Check for physical access new System.Web.Routing.RouteValueDictionary { { "NodeID", "1" }, // Default Node ID { "test123", "1" }, // Default addtional variable value { "variable", "hello"} // Default test variable value } ); Next is the way I've directed to the page in the menu item, this is a list item within a UL tag : <li class="TopMenu_ListItem"><a href="<%= Page.GetRouteUrl("Multiple Data Example", new System.Web.Routing.RouteValueDictionary { { "NodeID", "4855" }, { "test123", "2" } }) %>">Example 2</a></li> And finally the control that gets hit multiple times on a page load : // For use when the page loads. protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Handle the routing variables. // this handles the route data value for NodeID - if the page was reached using URL Routing. if (Page.RouteData.Values["NodeID"] != null) { nodeID = Page.RouteData.Values["NodeID"] as string; }; // this handles the route data value for Test123 - if the page was reached using URL Routing. if (Page.RouteData.Values["Test123"] != null) { ExampleOutput2.Text = "I am the output of the third variable : " + Page.RouteData.Values["Test123"] as string; }; // this handles the route data value for variable - if the page was reached using URL Routing. if (Page.RouteData.Values["variable"] != null) { ExampleOutput3.Text = "I say " + Page.RouteData.Values["variable"] as string; }; } Note, that when I'm just hitting the page and it uses the default values for items, the reloads do not happen. Any help or guidance that anyone can offer would be very much appreciated! EDIT : The User Control is only added to the page once. I've tested the load sequence by putting a breakpoint in the page_load event - it only hits twice when the extra routes are added. Thanks in Advance, Paul Hutson

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• Internet Explorer buggy when accessing a custom weblogic provider

  - by James

  I've created a custom Weblogic Security Authentication Provider on version 10.3 that includes a custom login module to validate users. As part of the provider, I've implemented the ServletAuthenticationFilter and added one filter. The filter acts as a common log on page for all the applications within the domain. When we access any secured URLs by entering them in the address bar, this works fine in IE and Firefox. But when we bookmark the link in IE an odd thing happens. If I click the bookmark, you will see our log on page, then after you've successfully logged into the system the basic auth page will display, even though the user is already authenticated. This never happens in Firefox, only IE. It's also intermittent. 1 time out of 5 IE will correctly redirect and not show the basic auth window. Firefox and Opera will correctly redirect everytime. We've captured the response headers and compared the success and failures, they are identical. final boolean isAuthenticated = authenticateUser(userName, password, req); // Send user on to the original URL if (isAuthenticated) { res.sendRedirect(targetURL); return; } As you can see, once the user is authenticated I do a redirect to the original URL. Is there a step I'm missing? The authenticateUser() method is taken verbatim from an example in Oracle's documents. private boolean authenticateUser(final String userName, final String password, HttpServletRequest request) { boolean results; try { ServletAuthentication.login(new CallbackHandler() { @Override public void handle(Callback[] callbacks) throws IOException, UnsupportedCallbackException { for (Callback callback : callbacks) { if (callback instanceof NameCallback) { NameCallback nameCallback = (NameCallback) callback; nameCallback.setName(userName); } if (callback instanceof PasswordCallback) { PasswordCallback passwordCallback = (PasswordCallback) callback; passwordCallback.setPassword(password.toCharArray()); } } } }, request); results = true; } catch (LoginException e) { results = false; } return results; I am asking the question here because I don't know if the issue is with the Weblogic config or the code. If this question is more suited to ServerFault please let me know and I will post there. It is odd that it works everytime in Firefox and Opera but not in Internet Explorer. I wish that not using Internet Explorer was an option but it is currently the company standard. Any help or direction would be appreciated. I have tested against IE 6 & 8 and deployed the custom provider on 3 different environments and I can still reproduce the bug.

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• HttpWebResponse get mixed up when used inside multiple threads

  - by Holli

  In my Application I have a few threads who will get data from a web service. Basically I just open an URL and get an XML output. I have a few threads who do this continuously but with different URLs. Sometimes the results are mixed up. The XML output doesn't belong to the URL of a thread but to the URL of another thread. In each thread I create an instance of the class GetWebPage and call the method Get from this instance. The method is very simple and based mostly on code from the MSDN documentation. (See below. I removed my error handling here!) public string Get(string userAgent, string url, string user, string pass, int timeout, int readwriteTimeout, WebHeaderCollection whc) { string buffer = string.Empty; HttpWebRequest myWebRequest = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(url); if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(userAgent)) myWebRequest.UserAgent = userAgent; myWebRequest.Timeout = timeout; myWebRequest.ReadWriteTimeout = readwriteTimeout; myWebRequest.Credentials = new NetworkCredential(user, pass); string[] headers = whc.AllKeys; foreach (string s in headers) { myWebRequest.Headers.Add(s, whc.Get(s)); } using (HttpWebResponse myWebResponse = (HttpWebResponse)myWebRequest.GetResponse()) { using (Stream ReceiveStream = myWebResponse.GetResponseStream()) { Encoding encode = Encoding.GetEncoding("utf-8"); StreamReader readStream = new StreamReader(ReceiveStream, encode); // Read 1024 characters at a time. Char[] read = new Char[1024]; int count = readStream.Read(read, 0, 1024); int break_counter = 0; while (count > 0 && break_counter < 10000) { String str = new String(read, 0, count); buffer += str; count = readStream.Read(read, 0, 1024); break_counter++; } } } return buffer; As you can see I have no public properties or any other shared resources. At least I don't see any. The url is the service I call in the internet and buffer is the XML Output from the server. Like I said I have multiple instances of this class/method in a few threads (10 to 12) and sometimes buffer does not belong the the url of the same thread but another thread.

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• Cannot Call WordPress Plugin Files Under wp-content

  - by Volomike

  I have a client who has many blog customers. Each of these WordPress blogs calls a plugin that provides a product link. The way that link is composed looks like this: {website}/wp-content/plugins/prodx/product?id=432320 This works fine on all blogs except two. On those two, when you try to call the URL, you get a 404. So, I disabled all plugins except prodx and reverted the theme to default (Kubrick), thinking perhaps a plugin intercept with add_action() API was doing this, such as intercepting URLs and redirecting them. However, this did not help. So, I upgraded the WordPress to the latest version. Again, didn't fix. So, I checked permissions, comparing with a blog that worked just fine. Again, didn't fix. So I replaced the .htaccess, using one from a working blog. Again, didn't fix. So I replaced all the files using some from a working blog that was identical to this one, and then restored the wp-config.php file back so that it talked to the right blog database. Again, didn't fix. Again I checked permissions meticulously, comparing to a perfectly working blog. Again, didn't fix. So, I created a test.php that looks like so: <?php print_r($_GET); echo "hello world"; I then copied it into another plugin folder and used my browser to get to it -- again, 404. So I copied it into the root of wp-content/plugins and tried to call it there -- again, 404. So I copied it into wp-content -- again, 404. Last, I copied it into the root of the WordPress blog website, and this time, it worked! Doesn't make sense. I started to think that perhaps something was going on with /etc/httpd/conf/httpd.conf for this customer, but the only thing I saw different in their for this customer was the IP address was different than the customer's blog that worked. Each customer gets their own IP in this environment my client has built. My client sysop is baffled too. What do you think is going on? Is there something wrong in the WP database for this customer? Is there something wrong in httpd.conf?

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• ASP.NET Application Level vs. Session Level and Global.asax...confused

  - by contactmatt

  The following text is from the book I'm reading, 'MCTS Self-Paced Training Kit (Exam 70-515) Web Applications Development with ASP.NET 4". It gives the rundown of the Application Life Cycle. A user first makes a request for a page in your site. The request is routed to the processing pipeline, which forwards it to the ASP.NET runtime. The ASP.NET runtime creates an instance of the ApplicationManager class; this class instance represents the .NET framework domain that will be used to execute requests for your application. An application domain isolates global variables from other applications and allows each application to load and unload separately, as required. After the application domain has been created, an instance of the HostingEnvironment class is created. This class provides access to items inside the hosting environment, such as directory folders. ASP.NET creates instances of the core objects that will be used to process the request. This includes HttpContext, HttpRequest, and HttpResponse objects. ASP.NET creates an instance of the HttpApplication class (or an instance is reused). This class is also the base class for a site’s Global.asax file. You can use this class to trap events that happen when your application starts or stops. When ASP.NET creates an instance of HttpApplication, it also creates the modules configured for the application, such as the SessionStateModule. Finally, ASP.NET processes request through the HttpApplication pipleline. This pipeline also includes a set of events for validating requests, mapping URLs, accessing the cache, and more. The book then demonstrated an example of using the Global.asax file: <script runat="server"> void Application_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { Application["UsersOnline"] = 0; } void Session_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { Application.Lock(); Application["UsersOnline"] = (int)Application["UsersOnline"] + 1; Application.UnLock(); } void Session_End(object sender, EventArgs e) { Application.Lock(); Application["UsersOnline"] = (int)Application["UsersOnline"] - 1; Application.UnLock(); } </script> When does an application start? Whats the difference between session and application level? I'm rather confused on how this is managed. I thought that Application level classes "sat on top of" an AppDomain object, and the AppDomain contained information specific to that Session for that user. Could someone please explain how IIS manages Applicaiton level classes, and how an HttpApplication class sits under an AppDomain? Anything is appreciated.

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• Passing password value through URL

  - by Steven Wright

  OK I see a lot of people asking about passing other values, URLS, random stuff through a URL, but don't find anything about sending a password to a password field. Here is my situation: I have a ton of sites I use on a daily basis with my work and oh about 90% require logins. Obviously remembering 80 bajillion logins for each site is dumb, especially when there are more than one user name I use for each site. So to make life easier, I drew up a nifty JSP app that stores all of my logins in a DB table and creates a user interface for the specific page I want to visit. Each page has a button that sends a username, password into the id parameters of the html inputs. Problem: I can get the usernames and other info to show up just dandy, but when I try and send a password to a password field, it seems that nothing gets received by the page I'm trying to hit. Is there some ninja stuff I need to be doing here or is it just not easily possible? Basically this is what I do now: http://addresshere/support?loginname=steveoooo&loginpass=passwordhere and some of my html looks like this: <form name="userform" method="post" action="index.jsp" > <input type="hidden" name="submit_login" value="y"> <table width="100%"> <tr class="main"> <td width="100" nowrap>Username:</td> <td><input type="text" name="loginname" value="" size="30" maxlength="64"></td> </tr> <tr class="main"> <td>Password: </font></td> <td><input type="password" name="loginpass" value="" size="30" maxlength="64"></td> </tr> <tr class="main"> <td><center><input type="submit" name="submit" value="Login"></center></td> </tr> </table> </form> Any suggestions?

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• How to make html image clickable inside a TextView

  - by Gonan

  I have the following text in a string in the resources file: <a href="mailto:[email protected]">&lt;img src="mail_big" /&gt;</a> It shows the image fine (I implemented ImageGetter) but it is not clickable. I have tried adding the Linkify thingy but I don't think it's meant for this case, and so it doesn't work. The setMovementMethod doesn't work either. I have tried different combinations of the above: <a href="mailto:[email protected]">&lt;img src="mail_big" /&gt;hello</a> Here, even the "hello" part is not clickable (neither blue nor underlined). <a href="mailto:[email protected]"><img src="mail_big" /></a> This doesn't even show the image. &lt;a href="mailto:[email protected]"&gt;&lt;img src="mail_big" /&gt;&lt;/a&gt; If I just write the email, without the <a> tag it works perfectly, but I would like to use the image of an envelope that the user can click on. It's not possible to use an imagebutton because this text is in the middle of a string and so I can't split it. Any ideas? Thanks! EDIT: I found a solution or rather found how to do it correctly. All I had to do was adding the setMovementMethod call before the call to setText in the TextView and ALSO, and COMPLETELY NECESSARY, remove the attribute "android:autoLink="all" from the layout. Apparently, parsing mails and urls in a string is mutually exclusive to interpreting the link tags in a string. So one or the other but not both. Finally my layout is just a TextView with nothing special, just width and height. The activity is like this: TextView tv = (TextView)findViewById(R.id.about_text); tv.setMovementMethod(LinkMovementMethod.getInstance()); tv.setText(Html.fromHtml(getString(R.string.about_content), new ImageGetter(), null)); And the string is like this: <string name="about_content"><a href="mailto:[email protected]"><img src="mail" /></a></string>

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• Python and displaying HTML

  - by Tyler Seymour

  I've gotten pretty comfortable with Python and now I'm looking to make a rudimentary web application. I was somewhat scared of Django and the other Python frameworks so I went caveman on it and decided to generate the HTML myself using another Python script. Maybe this is how you do it anyways - but I'm just figuring this stuff out. I'm really looking for a tip-off on, well, what to do next. My Python script PRINTS the HTML (is this even correct? I need it to be on a webpage!), but now what? Thanks for your continued support during my learning process. One day I will post answers! -Tyler Here's my code: from SearchPhone import SearchPhone phones = ["Iphone 3", "Iphone 4", "Iphone 5","Galaxy s3", "Galaxy s2", "LG Lucid", "LG Esteem", "HTC One S", "Droid 4", "Droid RAZR MAXX", "HTC EVO", "Galaxy Nexus", "LG Optimus 2", "LG Ignite", "Galaxy Note", "HTC Amaze", "HTC Rezound", "HTC Vivid", "HTC Rhyme", "Motorola Photon", "Motorola Milestone", "myTouch slide", "HTC Status", "Droid 3", "HTC Evo 3d", "HTC Wildfire", "LG Optimus 3d", "HTC ThunderBolt", "Incredible 2", "Kyocera Echo", "Galaxy S 4g", "HTC Inspire", "LG Optimus 2x", "Samsung Gem", "HTC Evo Shift", "Nexus S", "LG Axis", "Droid 2", "G2", "Droid x", "Droid Incredible" ] print """<!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>table of phones</title> </head> <body> </body> </html> """ #table print '<table width="100%" border="1">' for x in phones: y = SearchPhone(x) print "\t<tr>" print "\t\t<td>" + str(y[0]) + "</td>" print "\t\t<td>" + str(y[1]) + "</td>" print "\t\t<td>" + str(y[2]) + "</td>" print "\t\t<td>" + str(y[3]) + "</td>" print "\t\t<td>" + str(y[4]) + "</td>" print "\t</tr>" print "</table>

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• Web Url contains Spanish Characters which my NSXMLParser is not parsing

  - by mAc

  I am Parsing Web urls from server and storing them in Strings and then displaying it on Webview. But now when i am parsing Spanish words like http://litofinter.es.milfoil.arvixe.com/litofinter/PDF/Presentación_LITOFINTER_(ES).pdf it is accepting it PDF File Name ++++++ http://litofinter.es.milfoil.arvixe.com/litofinter/PDF/Presentaci PDF File Name ++++++ ón_LITOFINTER_(ES).pdf i.e two different strings... i know i have to make small change that is append the string but i am not able to do it now, can anyone help me out. Here is my code :- - (void)parser:(NSXMLParser *)parser didStartElement:(NSString *)elementName namespaceURI:(NSString *)namespaceURI qualifiedName:(NSString *)qName attributes:(NSDictionary *)attributeDict { currentElement = elementName; if([currentElement isEqualToString:@"category"]) { NSLog(@"Current element in Category:- %@",currentElement); obj = [[Litofinter alloc]init]; obj.productsArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc]init]; } if([currentElement isEqualToString:@"Product"]) { obj.oneObj = [[Products alloc]init]; } } - (void)parser:(NSXMLParser *)parser foundCharacters:(NSString *)string { if([currentElement isEqualToString:@"Logo"]) { obj.cLogo=[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@",string]; NSLog(@"Logo to be saved in Array :- %@",obj.cLogo); } if([currentElement isEqualToString:@"Name"]) { obj.cName=[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@",string]; NSLog(@"Name to be saved in Array :- %@",string); } if([currentElement isEqualToString:@"cid"]) { obj.cId=(int)[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@",string]; NSLog(@"CID to be saved in Array :- %@",string); } if([currentElement isEqualToString:@"pid"]) { //obj.oneObj.id = (int)[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@",oneBook.id]; obj.oneObj.id = (int)[oneBook.id intValue]; } if([currentElement isEqualToString:@"Title"]) { obj.oneObj.title = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@",string]; } if([currentElement isEqualToString:@"Thumbnail"]) { obj.oneObj.thumbnail= [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@",string]; } // problem occuriing while parsing Spanish characters... if([currentElement isEqualToString:@"pdf"]) { obj.oneObj.pdf = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@",string]; NSLog(@"PDF File Name ++++++ %@",string); } } - (void)parser:(NSXMLParser *)parser didEndElement:(NSString *)elementName namespaceURI:(NSString *)namespaceURI qualifiedName:(NSString *)qName { if([elementName isEqualToString:@"category"]) { NSLog(@"Current element in End Element Category:- %@",currentElement); [TableMutableArray addObject:obj]; } if([elementName isEqualToString:@"Product"]) { [obj.productsArray addObject:obj.oneObj]; } currentElement = @""; } I will be thankful to you.

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