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  • Difficulty adding widgets to django form.

    - by codingJoe
    I have a django app that tracks activities that can benefit a classroom. Using the django examples, I was able to build a form to enter this data. But when I try to add widgets to that form, things get tricky. What I want is a calendar widget that lets the user enter the 'activity_date' field using a widget. If I use Admin interface. The AdminDateWidget works fine. however. This particular user isn't allowed access to the admin interface so I need a different way to present this widget. Also I couldn't figure out how to make the bring the admin widget over into non-admin pages. So I tried a custom widget. This is the first custom widget I've built, so I'm not quite sure what is supposed to be going on here. Any Expert Advice? How do I get my date widget to work? # The Model class Activity(models.Model): activity_date = models.DateField() activity_type = models.CharField(max_length=50, choices=ACTIVITY_TYPES) activity_description = models.CharField(max_length=200) activity_duration= models.DecimalField(decimal_places=2, max_digits=4) est_attendance = models.IntegerField("Estimated attendance") # The Form class ActivityForm(forms.ModelForm): # The following line causes lockup if enabled. # With the DateTimeWidget removed, the form functions correctly except that there is no widget. #activity_date = forms.DateField(label=_('Date'), widget=DateTimeWidget) ##!!! Point of Error !!! class Meta: model = Activity fields = ('activity_date', 'activity_type', 'activity_description', 'activity_duration', 'est_attendance') def __init__(self, *args, **kwargs): super(ActivityForm, self).__init__(*args, **kwargs) instance = getattr(self, 'instance', None) edit_aid = kwargs.get('edit_aid', False) # On a different approach, the following also didn't work. #self.fields['activity_date'].widget = widgets.AdminDateWidget() # The Widget # Example referenced: http://djangosnippets.org/snippets/391/ calbtn = u""" <button id="calendar-trigger">...</button> <img src="%s/site_media/images/icon_calendar.gif" alt="calendar" id="%s_btn" style="cursor: pointer; border: 1px solid #8888aa;" title="Select date and time" onmouseover="this.style.background='#444444';" onmouseout="this.style.background=''" /> <script type="text/javascript"> Calendar.setup({ trigger : "calendar-trigger", inputField : "%s" }); </script>""" class DateTimeWidget(forms.widgets.TextInput): dformat = '%Y-%m-%d %H:%M' def render(self, name, value, attrs=None): print "DTWgt render name=%s, value=%s" % name, value if value is None: value = '' final_attrs = self.build_attrs(attrs, type=self.input_type, name=name) if value != '': try: final_attrs['value'] = \ force_unicode(value.strftime(self.dformat)) except: final_attrs['value'] = \ force_unicode(value) if not final_attrs.has_key('id'): final_attrs['id'] = u'%s_id' % (name) id = final_attrs['id'] jsdformat = self.dformat #.replace('%', '%%') cal = calbtn % (settings.MEDIA_URL, id, id, jsdformat, id) a = u'<input%s />%s' % (forms.util.flatatt(final_attrs), cal) print "render return %s " % a return mark_safe(a) def value_from_datadict(self, data, files, name): print "DTWgt value_from_datadict" dtf = forms.fields.DEFAULT_DATETIME_INPUT_FORMATS empty_values = forms.fields.EMPTY_VALUES value = data.get(name, None) if value in empty_values: return None if isinstance(value, datetime.datetime): return value if isinstance(value, datetime.date): return datetime.datetime(value.year, value.month, value.day) for format in dtf: try: return datetime.datetime(*time.strptime(value, format)[:6]) except ValueError: continue return None

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  • How do I debug a difficult-to-reproduce crash with no useful call stack?

    - by David M
    I am encountering an odd crash in our software and I'm having a lot of trouble debugging it, and so I am seeking SO's advice on how to tackle it. The crash is an access violation reading a NULL pointer: First chance exception at $00CF0041. Exception class $C0000005 with message 'access violation at 0x00cf0041: read of address 0x00000000'. It only happens 'sometimes' - I haven't managed to figure out any rhyme or reason, yet, for when - and only in the main thread. When it occurs, the call stack contains one incorrect entry: For the main thread, which this is, it should show a large stack full of other items. At this point, all other threads are inactive (mostly sitting in WaitForSingleObject or a similar function.) I have only seen this crash occur in the main thread. It always has the same call stack of one entry, in the same method at the same address. This method may or may not be related - we do use the VCL in our application. My bet, though, is that something (possibly quite a while ago) is corrupting the stack, and the address where it's crashing is effectively random. Note it has been the same address across several builds, though - it's probably not truly random. Here is what I've tried: Trying to reproduce it reliably at a certain point. I have found nothing that reproduces it every time, and a couple of things that occasionally do, or do not, for no apparent reason. These are not 'narrow' enough actions to narrow it down to a particular section of code. It may be timing related, but at the point the IDE breaks in, other threads are usually doing nothing. I can't rule out a threading problem, but think it's unlikely. Building with extra debugging statements (extra debug info, extra asserts, etc.) After doing so, the crash never occurs. Building with Codeguard enabled. After doing so, the crash never occurs and Codeguard shows no errors. My questions: 1. How do I find what code caused the crash? How do I do the equivalent of walking back up the stack? 2. What general advice do you have for how to trace the cause of this crash? I am using Embarcadero RAD Studio 2010 (the project mostly contains C++ Builder code and small amounts of Delphi.)

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  • Move options between multiple dropdown lists

    - by Martha
    We currently have a form with the standard multi-select functionality of "here are the available options, here are the selected options, here are some buttons to move stuff back and forth." However, the client now wants the ability to not just select certain items, but to also categorize them. For example, given a list of books, they want to not just select the ones they own, but also the ones they've read, the ones they would like to read, and the ones they've heard about. (All examples fictional.) Thankfully, a selected item can only be in one category at a time. I can find many examples of moving items between listboxes, but not a single one for moving items between multiple listboxes. To add to the complication, the form needs to have two sets of list+categories, e.g. a list of movies that need to be categorized in addition to the aforementioned books. An additional problem is that sorting between lists is all well and good in the javascript-enabled world, but I can't really think of a good fallback interface for, say, mobile browsers. Maybe a pseudo-listbox with radio buttons next to each item? The master list of items will in general be very long - over 100 items, certainly, possibly many more. Any given category will most likely contain one or two selected items, but the possibility exists for a category to have dozens of selected items, or zero selected items. As far as OS and stuff, the site is in classic asp (quit snickering!), the server-side code is VBScript, and so far we've avoided the various Javascript libraries by the simple expedient of almost never using client-side scripting. This one form for this one client is currently the big exception. Give 'em an inch and they want a mile... Oh, and I have to add: I suck at Javascript, or really at any C-descendant language. Curly braces give me hives. I'd really, really like something I can just copy & paste into my page, maybe tweak some variable names, and never look at it again. A girl can dream, can't she? :)

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  • JQuery validation not working for checkbox group

    - by Chris Halcrow
    I'm having trouble getting JQuery validation to work with a set of checkboxes. I'm generating the checkboxes using an ASP.NET checkboxlist, and I've used JQuery to set the 'name' attribute to the same thing for each checkbox in the list. Here's the code that gets written to the browser. I'm setting the 'validate' attribute on the 1st checkbox to set the rule that at least one checkbox must be selected. The JQuery validation works for all other elements on the form, but not for the checkbox list. I'm also using a JQuery form wizard on the page which triggers validation for each 'page' of the form, so I don't have control over how the validation is called. <input id="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_0" class="ui-wizard-content ui-helper-reset ui-state-default" type="checkbox" value="Famine" name="hello[]" validate="required:true, minlength:1"> <label for="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_0">Famine</label> <br> <input id="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_1" class="ui-wizard-content ui-helper-reset ui-state-default" type="checkbox" value="Events Volunteer" name="hello[]"> <label for="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_1">Events Volunteer</label> Any ideas on what's going wrong? There are lots of examples of JQuery scripts that will do the validation, however I'm trying to avoid this as I'm generating the checkboxlist server side by a custom control so that it can be re-used across different pages that may or may not have JQuery enabled. I'm trying to enable the JQuery validation whilst being as unobtrusive as possible, so that pages will still work even if JQuery is disabled. Here are the relevant JQuery inclusions and JQuery initialisation script for the form wizard. I'm not using any initialisation code for JQuery validation: <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/bbq.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/jquery.form.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/jquery.form.wizard.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/jquery.validate.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $("#form1").formwizard({ validationEnabled: true, focusFirstInput: true }); }); </script>

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  • Retrieving/Updating Entity Framework POCO objects that already exist in the ObjectContext

    - by jslatts
    I have a project using Entity Framework 4.0 with POCOs (data is stored in SQL DB, lazyloading is enabled) as follows: public class ParentObject { public int ID {get; set;} public virtual List<ChildObject> children {get; set;} } public class ChildObject { public int ID {get; set;} public int ChildRoleID {get; set;} public int ParentID {get; set;} public virtual ParentObject Parent {get; set;} public virtual ChildRoleObject ChildRole {get; set;} } public class ChildRoleObject { public int ID {get; set;} public string Name {get; set;} public virtual List<ChildObject> children {get; set;} } I want to create a new ChildObject, assign it a role, then add it to an existing ParentObject. Afterwards, I want to send the new ChildObject to the caller. The code below works fine until it tries to get the object back from the database. The newChildObjectInstance only has the ChildRoleID set and does not contain a reference to the actual ChildRole object. I try and pull the new instance back out of the database in order to populate the ChildRole property. Unfortunately, in this case, instead of creating a new instance of ChildObject and assigning it to retreivedChildObject, EF finds the existing ChildObject in the context and returns the in-memory instance, with a null ChildRole property. public ChildObject CreateNewChild(int id, int roleID) { SomeObjectContext myRepository = new SomeObjectContext(); ParentObject parentObjectInstance = myRepository.GetParentObject(id); ChildObject newChildObjectInstance = new ChildObject() { ParentObject = parentObjectInstance, ParentID = parentObjectInstance.ID, ChildRoleID = roleID }; parentObjectInstance.children.Add(newChildObjectInstance); myRepository.Save(); ChildObject retreivedChildObject = myRepository.GetChildObject(newChildObjectInstance.ID); string assignedRoleName = retreivedChildObject.ChildRole.Name; //Throws exception, ChildRole is null return retreivedChildObject; } I have tried setting MergeOptions to Overwrite, calling ObjectContext.Refresh() and ObjectContext.DetectChanges() to no avail... I suspect this is related to the proxy objects that EF injects when working with POCOs. Has anyone run into this issue before? If so, what was the solution?

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  • What benefits are there to storing Javascript in external files vs in the <head>?

    - by RenderIn
    I have an Ajax-enabled CRUD application. If I display a record from my database it shows that record's values for each column, including its primary key. For the Ajax actions tied to buttons on the page I am able to set up their calls by printing the ID directly into their onclick functions when rendering the HTML server-side. For example, to save changes to the record I may have a button as follows, with '123' being the primary key of the record. <button type="button" onclick="saveRecord('123')">Save</button> Sometimes I have pages with Javascript generating HTML and Javascript. In some of these cases the primary key is not naturally available at that place in the code. In these cases I took a shortcut and generate buttons like so, taking the primary key from a place it happens to be displayed on screen for visual consumption: ... <td>Primary Key: </td> <td><span id="PRIM_KEY">123</span></td> ... <button type="button" onclick="saveRecord(jQuery('#PRIM_KEY').text())">DoSomething</button> This definitely works, but it seems wrong to drive database queries based on the value of text whose purpose was user consumption rather than method consumption. I could solve this by adding a series of additional parameters to various methods to usher the primary key along until it is eventually needed, but that also seems clunky. The most natural way for me to solve this problem would be to simply situate all the Javascript which currently lives in external files, in the <head> of the page. In that way I could generate custom Javascript methods without having to pass around as many parameters. Other than readability, I'm struggling to see what benefit there is to storing Javascript externally. It seems like it makes the already weak marriage between HTML/DOM and Javascript all the more distant. I've seen some people suggest that I leave the Javascript external, but do set various "custom" variables on the page itself, for example, in PHP: <script type="text/javascript"> var primaryKey = <?php print $primaryKey; ?>; </script> <script type="text/javascript" src="my-external-js-file-depending-on-primaryKey-being-set.js"></script> How is this any better than just putting all the Javascript on the page in the first place? There HTML and Javascript are still strongly dependent on each other.

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  • NSMutableURLRequest and a Password with special Characters won't work

    - by twickl
    I'm writing a small program (using Cocoa Touch), which communicates with a webservice. The code for calling the webservice, is the following: - (IBAction)send:(id)sender { if ([number.text length] > 0) { [[UIApplication sharedApplication] beginIgnoringInteractionEvents]; [activityIndicator startAnimating]; NSString *modded; modded = [self computeNumber]; NSMutableURLRequest *theRequest = [NSMutableURLRequest requestWithURL: [NSURL URLWithString:@"https://tester:%=&[email protected]/RPC2"]]; [theRequest setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; [theRequest addValue:@"text/xml" forHTTPHeaderField:@"content-type"]; [theRequest setCachePolicy:NSURLCacheStorageNotAllowed]; [theRequest setTimeoutInterval:5.0]; NSString* pStr = [[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:@"<?xml version=\"1.0\" encoding=\"UTF-8\"?><methodCall><methodName>samurai.SessionInitiate</methodName><params><param><value><struct><member><name>LocalUri</name><value><string></string></value></member><member><name>RemoteUri</name><value><string>sip:%@@sipgate.net</string></value></member><member><name>TOS</name><value><string>text</string></value></member><member><name>Content</name><value><string>%@</string></value></member><member><name>Schedule</name><value><string></string></value></member></struct></value></param></params></methodCall>", modded, TextView.text]; NSData* pBody = [pStr dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]; [theRequest setHTTPBody:pBody]; NSURLConnection *theConnection = [[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:theRequest delegate:self]; if (!theConnection) { UIAlertView *alert = [[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Error" message:@"A Connection could not be established!" delegate:nil cancelButtonTitle:@"OK" otherButtonTitles: nil]; [alert show]; [alert release]; sendButton.enabled = TRUE; return; } [pStr release]; [pBody release]; } } The Username and Password have to be in the URL, and it works in most cases, but when the password consists of special characters like in the example "%=&=-Test2009", the Webservice does not respond. If it is something like "Test2009" it works fine. Does anyone have an idea why, and maybe a solution for that?

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  • one page has 9 urls. I am looking for 301 auto redirect syntax for multiple urls.

    - by Ali Demirtas
    Hi This is the third time I am asking this question. I am only looking for the syntax of how to solve this problem. I am using prestashop as the cart for my website. I have a problem; the website used to be in dynamic urls. I enabled friendly url writing. The problem is that one page has more than one url. You can access a same page from the dynamic url and static url. In fact a single page has 9 different urls. This obviously creates problems for seo as search engines penalize my website for this. Here are examples of a page with more than 2 urls (http://www.turkishfootballstore.com/lang-nl/product.php?id_product=515) (http://www.turkishfootballstore.com/fenerbahce/515-fenerbahce-thuisshirt-20092010.html) (http://www.turkishfootballstore.com/lang-nl/fenerbahce/515-fenerbahce-thuisshirt-20092010.html) you can see even the static url's have 2 one with language defined and the other without. out fo the three urls above the correct one is the one at the bottom. What can I do to solve this problem? I have no knowledge of programming. Here is the htaccess for the website. Any sample code or help is really appreciated. There is 550 pages and every page is published in 17 different languages I want to use a 301 auto redirect. What is the simplest way to do it? Please only reply if you have the coding for a auto 301 redirect! URL rewriting module activation RewriteEngine on URL rewriting rules RewriteRule ^([a-z0-9]+)-([a-z0-9]+)(-[_a-zA-Z0-9-]*)/([_a-zA-Z0-9-]*).jpg$ /img/p/$1-$2$3.jpg [L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)-([0-9]+)/([_a-zA-Z0-9-]*).jpg$ /img/p/$1-$2.jpg [L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)(-[_a-zA-Z0-9-]*)/([_a-zA-Z0-9-]).jpg$ /img/c/$1$2.jpg [L,E] RewriteRule ^lang-([a-z]{2})/([a-zA-Z0-9-])/([0-9]+)-([a-zA-Z0-9-]).html(.)$ /product.php?id_product=$3&isolang=$1$5 [L,E] RewriteRule ^lang-([a-z]{2})/([0-9]+)-([a-zA-Z0-9-]).html(.)$ /product.php?id_product=$2&isolang=$1$4 [L,E] RewriteRule ^lang-([a-z]{2})/([0-9]+)-([a-zA-Z0-9-])(.)$ /category.php?id_category=$2&isolang=$1 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^([a-zA-Z0-9-])/([0-9]+)-([a-zA-Z0-9-]).html(.*)$ /product.php?id_product=$2$4 [L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)-([a-zA-Z0-9-]).html(.)$ /product.php?id_product=$1$3 [L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)-([a-zA-Z0-9-])(.)$ /category.php?id_category=$1 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^content/([0-9]+)-([a-zA-Z0-9-])(.)$ /cms.php?id_cms=$1 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)__([a-zA-Z0-9-])(.)$ /supplier.php?id_supplier=$1$3 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)_([a-zA-Z0-9-])(.)$ /manufacturer.php?id_manufacturer=$1$3 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^lang-([a-z]{2})/(.*)$ /$2?isolang=$1 [QSA,L,E] Catch 404 errors ErrorDocument 404 /404.php Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^.com [NC] RewriteRule ^(.)$ http://www.*.com/$1 [L,R=301] Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on index.php to / RewriteCond %{THE_REQUEST} ^[A-Z]{3,9}\ /.index.php\ HTTP/ RewriteRule ^(.)index.php$ /$1 [R=301,L] Header set Cache-Control: "no-store, no-cache, must-revalidate, pre-check=0, post-check=0, max-age=0"

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  • Why is my Interface Builder wiring so bonkers and what can I do to straighten it out?

    - by editor
    I've been working on an iPhone application in XCode and Interface Builder of the Tab Bar project type. After getting a table view of topics (business sectors) working fine I realized that I would need to add a Navigation Control to allow the user to drill into a subtopics (subsectors) table. As a green Objective-C developer, that was confusing, but I managed to get it working by reading various documentation trying out a few different IB options. My current setup is a Tab Bar Controller with Tab 1 as a Navigation Controller and Tab 2 a plain view with a Table View placed into it. The wiring works: I can log when table rows are selected and I'm ready to push a new View Controller onto the stack so that I can display the subtopics Table View. My problem: For some reason the first tab's Table View is a delegate and dataSource of the second ta. It doesn't make sense to me and I can't figure out why that's the only setup that works. Here is the wiring: Navigation Controller (Sectors) is a delegate of Tab Bar Navigation Bar is a delegate of Navigation Controller (Sectors) View Contoller (Sectors) has a view of Table View Table View (in Navigation Controller (Sectors)) is a delegate of First View Controller (Companies) Table View (in Navigation Controller (Sectors)) is a dataSource outlet of First View Controller (Companies) First View Controller (Companies) First View Contoller (Sectors) has a view of Table View Table View (in First View Controller (Companies)) is not hooked up to a dataSource outlet and is not a delegate When I click the tab buttons and look at the Inspector I see that the first tab is correctly hooked up to my MainWindow.xib and the second tab has selected a nib called SecondView.xib. It's in the File's Owner of MainWindow.xib where I inherit UITableViewDataSource and UITableViewDelegate (and also UITabBarControllerDelegate) in the .h, and in the .m where I implement the delegate methods. Why does this setup only work when the Table View in my first tab (View Controller (Sectors)) is a delegate and dataSource of the second tab? I'm confused: why wouldn't it need to be hooked up to the Navigation Controller-enabled tab in which the Table View is seen (Navigation Controller (Sectors))? The Table View seen on the second tab has neither dataSource and is not a delegate. I'm having trouble getting a pushViewController to fire (self.navigationController is not nil but the new View Controller still doesn't load) and I suspect that I need to work out this IB wiring issue before I can troubleshoot why the Nav Controller won't push a new View Controller onto the stack. if(nil == self.navigationController) { NSLog(@"self.navigationController is nil."); } else { NSLog(@"self.navigationController is not nil."); SectorList *subsectorViewController = [[SectorList alloc] initWithNibName:@"SectorList" bundle:nil]; subsectorViewController.title = @"Subsectors"; [[self navigationController] pushViewController:subsectorViewController animated:YES]; [subsectorViewController release]; }

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  • JavaFX - question regarding binding button's disabled state

    - by jamiebarrow
    I'm trying to create a dummy application that maintains a list of tasks. For now, all I'm trying to do is add to the list. I enter a task name in a text box, click on the add task button, and expect the list to be updated with the new item and the task name input to be cleared. I only want to be able to add tasks if the task name is not empty. The below code is my implementation, but I have a question regarding the binding. I'm binding the textbox's text variable to a string in my view model, and the button's disable variable to a boolean in my view model. I have a trigger to update the disabled state when the task name changes. When the binding of the task name happens the boolean is updated accordingly, but the button still appears disabled. But then when I mouse over the button, it becomes enabled. I believe this is due to JavaFX 1.3's binding being lazy - only updates the bound variable when it is read. Also, when I've added the task, I clear the task name in the model, but the textbox's text doesn't change - even though I'm using bind with inverse. Is there a way to make the textbox's text and the button's disabled state update automatically via the binding as I was expecting? Thanks, James AddTaskViewModel.fx: package jamiebarrow; import java.lang.System; public class AddTaskViewModel { function logChange(prop:String,oldValue,newValue):Void { println("{System.currentTimeMillis()} : {prop} [{oldValue}] to [{newValue}] "); } public var newTaskName: String on replace old { logChange("newTaskName",old,newTaskName); isAddTaskDisabled = (newTaskName == null or newTaskName.trim().length() == 0); }; public var isAddTaskDisabled: Boolean on replace old { logChange("isAddTaskDisabled",old,isAddTaskDisabled); }; public var taskItems = [] on replace old { logChange("taskItems",old,taskItems); }; public function addTask() { insert newTaskName into taskItems; newTaskName = ""; } } Main.fx: package jamiebarrow; import javafx.scene.control.Button; import javafx.scene.control.TextBox; import javafx.scene.control.ListView; import javafx.scene.Scene; import javafx.scene.layout.VBox; import javafx.stage.Stage; import javafx.scene.layout.HBox; def viewModel = AddTaskViewModel{}; var txtName: TextBox = TextBox { text: bind viewModel.newTaskName with inverse onKeyTyped: onKeyTyped }; function onKeyTyped(event): Void { txtName.commit(); // ensures model is updated cmdAddTask.disable = viewModel.isAddTaskDisabled;// the binding only occurs lazily, so this is needed } var cmdAddTask = Button { text: "Add" disable: bind viewModel.isAddTaskDisabled with inverse action: onAddTask }; function onAddTask(): Void { viewModel.addTask(); } var lstTasks = ListView { items: bind viewModel.taskItems with inverse }; Stage { scene: Scene { content: [ VBox { content: [ HBox { content: [ txtName, cmdAddTask ] }, lstTasks ] } ] } }

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  • "Unable to find any mappings for the given content, keyPath=null" RestKit 0.2

    - by abisson
    So I switched to using RestKit 0.2 and CoreData and I've been having a lot of trouble trying to get the mappings correct... I don't understand why. The JSON Response of my server is like this: { "meta": { "limit": 20, "next": null, "offset": 0, "previous": null, "total_count": 2 }, "objects": [{ "creation_date": "2012-10-15T20:16:47", "description": "", "id": 1, "last_modified": "2012-10-15T20:16:47", "order": 1, "other_names": "", "primary_name": "Mixing", "production_line": "/api/rest/productionlines/1/", "resource_uri": "/api/rest/cells/1/" }, { "creation_date": "2012-10-15T20:16:47", "description": "", "id": 2, "last_modified": "2012-10-15T20:16:47", "order": 2, "other_names": "", "primary_name": "Packaging", "production_line": "/api/rest/productionlines/1/", "resource_uri": "/api/rest/cells/2/" }] } Then in XCode I have: RKObjectManager *objectManager = [RKObjectManager sharedManager]; [AFNetworkActivityIndicatorManager sharedManager].enabled = YES; NSManagedObjectModel *managedObjectModel = [NSManagedObjectModel mergedModelFromBundles:nil]; RKManagedObjectStore *managedObjectStore = [[RKManagedObjectStore alloc] initWithManagedObjectModel:managedObjectModel]; objectManager.managedObjectStore = managedObjectStore; RKEntityMapping *cellMapping = [RKEntityMapping mappingForEntityForName:@"Cell" inManagedObjectStore:managedObjectStore]; cellMapping.primaryKeyAttribute = @"identifier"; [cellMapping addAttributeMappingsFromDictionary:@{ @"id": @"identifier", @"primary_name": @"primaryName", }]; RKResponseDescriptor *responseCell = [RKResponseDescriptor responseDescriptorWithMapping:cellMapping pathPattern:@"/api/rest/cells/?format=json" keyPath:@"objects" statusCodes:RKStatusCodeIndexSetForClass(RKStatusCodeClassSuccessful)]; [objectManager addResponseDescriptorsFromArray:@[responseCell, responseUser, responseCompany]]; [managedObjectStore createPersistentStoreCoordinator]; NSString *storePath = [RKApplicationDataDirectory() stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"AppDB.sqlite"]; NSString *seedPath = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"SeedDatabase" ofType:@"sqlite"]; NSError *error; NSPersistentStore *persistentStore = [managedObjectStore addSQLitePersistentStoreAtPath:storePath fromSeedDatabaseAtPath:seedPath withConfiguration:nil options:nil error:&error]; NSAssert(persistentStore, @"Failed to add persistent store with error: %@", error); // Create the managed object contexts [managedObjectStore createManagedObjectContexts]; // Configure a managed object cache to ensure we do not create duplicate objects managedObjectStore.managedObjectCache = [[RKInMemoryManagedObjectCache alloc] initWithManagedObjectContext:managedObjectStore.persistentStoreManagedObjectContext]; My request is: [[RKObjectManager sharedManager] getObjectsAtPath:@"/api/rest/cells/?format=json" parameters:nil success:^(RKObjectRequestOperation *operation, RKMappingResult *mappingResult) { RKLogInfo(@"Load complete: Table should refresh..."); [[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] setObject:[NSDate date] forKey:@"LastUpdatedAt"]; [[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] synchronize]; } failure:^(RKObjectRequestOperation *operation, NSError *error) { RKLogError(@"Load failed with error: %@", error); }]; And I always get the following error: **Error Domain=org.restkit.RestKit.ErrorDomain Code=1001 "Unable to find any mappings for the given content" UserInfo=0x1102d500 {DetailedErrors=(), NSLocalizedDescription=Unable to find any mappings for the given content, keyPath=null}** Thanks a lot!

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  • Editing Neo Slider to move in one direction

    - by user2106416
    I have a website with brandspace theme from pixelentity. Currently, the slider move from right to left ( auto transition) . But, when the slider reaches the last image, it will go back to the first image by making all previous images sliding back from left to right. I want to make the slider to have a normal transition,i.e. going back to first image but still with the image sliding from right to left. Below is the slider.php code.: <?php $t =& peTheme(); ?> <?php list($pid,$conf,$loop) = $t->template->data(); ?> <?php $w = $t->media->width(940); ?> <?php $h = $t->media->height(300); ?> <div class="peSlider peVolo" data-autopause="disabled" data-plugin="<?php echo apply_filters("pe_theme_slider_plugin","peVolo"); ?>" data-controls-arrows="edges-full" data-controls-bullets="disabled" data-icon-font="enabled"> <?php while ($slide =& $loop->next()): ?> <?php $link = empty($slide->link) ? false: $slide->link; ?> <?php $img = $t->image->resizedImg($slide->img,$w,$h); ?> <div data-delay="4" <?php echo $slide->idx == 0 ? ' class="visible"' : ''; ?>> <?php if (isset($slide->caption)) $t->slider->caption($slide->caption); ?> <?php if ($link): ?> <a href="<?php echo $link ?>" data-flare-gallery="fsGallery<?php echo $pid ?>"> <?php echo $img; ?> </a> <?php else: ?> <?php echo $img; ?> <?php endif; ?> </div> <?php endwhile; ?> </div>

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  • Add Access-Control-Allow-Origin to header in PHP

    - by SANDeveloper
    I am trying to workaround CORS restriction on a WebGL application. I have a Web Service which resolves URL and returns images. Since this web service is not CORS enabled, I can't use the returned images as textures. I was planning to: Write a PHP script to handle image requests Image requests would be sent through the query string as a url parameter The PHP Script will: Call the web service with the query string url Fetch the image response (web service returns a content-type:image response) Add the CORS header (Add Access-Control-Allow-Origin) to the response Send the response to the browser I tried to implement this using a variety of techniques including CURL, HTTPResponse, plain var_dump etc. but got stuck at some point in each. So I have 2 questions: Is the approach good enough? Considering the approach is good enough: I made the most progress with CURL. I could get the image header and data with: $ch = curl_init(); $url = $_GET["url"]; curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, array('Content-Type:image/jpeg')); //Execute request $response = curl_exec($ch); //get the default response headers $headers = curl_getinfo($ch); //close connection curl_close($ch); But this doesn't actually change set the response content-type to image/jpeg. It dumps the header + response into a new response of content-type text/html and display the header and the image BLOB data in the browser. How do I get it to send the response in the format I want? Managed to get it working: $ch = curl_init(); $url = $_GET["url"]; curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, false); //Execute request $response = curl_exec($ch); //get the default response headers $headers = curl_getinfo($ch); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, $headers); header('Content-Type: image/jpeg'); header("Access-Control-Allow-Origin: *"); // header("Expires: Sat, 26 Jul 2017 05:00:00 GMT"); //close connection curl_close($ch); flush();

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  • Adding x11vnc as a Solaris SMF service

    - by rojanu
    I am trying add x11vnc as SMF service but cannot get service to start. I tried googling but couldn't find anything that could help me. Here is the startup script #!/sbin/sh # # Copyright (c) 1995, 1997-1999 by Sun Microsystems, Inc. # All rights reserved. # #ident "@(#)x11vnc 1.14 06/11/17 SMI" case "$1" in 'start') #/usr/local/bin/x11vnc -geometry 1280x1024 -noshm -display :0 -ncache 10 -noshm -shared -forever -o /tmp/vnc_remote.log -bg /usr/local/bin/x11vnc -unixpw -ncache 10 -display :0 -noshm -shared -forever -o /tmp/vnc_remote.log ;; 'stop') /usr/bin/pkill -x -u 0 x11vnc ;; *) echo "Usage: $0 { start | stop }" ;; esac exit 0 and here is the manifest file <?xml version='1.0'?> <!DOCTYPE service_bundle SYSTEM '/usr/share/lib/xml/dtd/service_bundle.dtd.1'> <service_bundle type='manifest' name='vnc'> <service name='application/x11vnc' type='service' version='0'> <create_default_instance enabled='true'/> <single_instance/> <dependency name='docusp' grouping='require_all' restart_on='none' type='service'> <service_fmri value='svc:/milestone/multi-user-server:default'/> </dependency> <exec_method name='start' type='method' exec='/lib/svc/method/x11vnc' timeout_seconds='0'> <method_context/> </exec_method> <exec_method name='stop' type='method' exec=':true' timeout_seconds='10'> <method_context/> </exec_method> <stability value='Evolving' /> <property_group name='startd' type='framework'> <propval name='ignore_error' type='astring' value='core,signal'/> </property_group> </service> </service_bundle> and the log file Usage: /lib/svc/method/x11vnc { start | stop } [ Nov 16 19:35:52 Method "start" exited with status 0 ] [ Nov 16 19:35:52 Stopping because all processes in service exited. ] [ Nov 16 19:35:52 Executing stop method (:kill) ] [ Nov 16 19:35:52 Executing start method ("/lib/svc/method/x11vnc") ] Usage: /lib/svc/method/x11vnc { start | stop } [ Nov 16 19:35:52 Method "start" exited with status 0 ] [ Nov 16 19:35:52 Stopping because all processes in service exited. ] [ Nov 16 19:35:52 Executing stop method (:kill) ] [ Nov 16 19:35:52 Executing start method ("/lib/svc/method/x11vnc") ] Usage: /lib/svc/method/x11vnc { start | stop } [ Nov 16 19:35:52 Method "start" exited with status 0 ] [ Nov 16 19:35:52 Stopping because all processes in service exited. ] [ Nov 16 19:35:52 Executing stop method (:kill) ] [ Nov 16 19:35:52 Restarting too quickly, changing state to maintenance ] Any Ideas?

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  • Modal PopUp Extender labels wont update on Asynchronous Postback

    - by newbie2k
    Hi everyone! I have a ModalPopUpExtender with an UpdatePanel on it. On the UpdatePanel,there few labels and componentart Grid which Updates from the server on every Asynchronous postback when an image button is clicked. The Problem is that the server code updates the modalpopupextender labels as the information on the grid but it wont display the Updated version of it on the modal Popup Extender. Need some Help... Heres the sample code:     Name:     Loyalty Mode:     Expire Mode:     LoadingPanelClientTemplateId="LoadingFeedbackTemplate3" LoadingPanelPosition="MiddleCenter" LoadingPanelFadeDuration="1000" LoadingPanelFadeMaximumOpacity="60" OnNeedDataSource="LItemGrid_NeedDataSource" OnNeedRebind="LItemGrid_NeedRebind" OnPageIndexChanged="LItemGrid_PageIndexChanged" OnFilterCommand="LItemGrid_FilterCommand" OnSortCommand="LItemGrid_SortCommand" ShowFooter="true" PageSize="10" PagerStyle="Numbered" </Columns> </ComponentArt:GridLevel> </Levels> <ClientTemplates><ComponentArt:ClientTemplate Id="ClientTemplate2"> <table width="200" ><tr><td valign="center" align="center"> <table cellspacing="0" cellpadding="0" border="0"> <tr> <td style="font-size:10px;font-family:Verdana;">Loading...&nbsp;</td> <td><img src="images/spinner.gif" width="16" height="16" border="0"></td> </tr> </table> </td></tr></table> </ComponentArt:ClientTemplate> </ClientTemplates> </ComponentArt:Grid></ContentTemplate> <asp:Button ID="btnClose" runat="server" Text="Close" /> </asp:Panel> <asp:ModalPopupExtender TargetControlID="SaveImageButton1" ID="pnlModal_ModalPopupExtender" runat="server" DynamicServicePath="" Enabled="True" BackgroundCssClass="modalBackground" PopupControlID="pnlModal" CancelControlID="btnClose" DropShadow="true"> </asp:ModalPopupExtender> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel>

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  • User created Validator wont call Client side validation Javascript on 'complex' user control.

    Hi All, I have created a user control (from System.Web.UI.UserControl), and created my own validator for the user control (from System.Web.UI.WebControls.BaseValidator). Everything works ok until I try to get the user control to do client side validation. While trying to debug this issue I have set 'Control to Validate' to a text box instead of the custom user control, and the client side script works fine! It appears to me that it has an a issue with my composite user control I have created. Has anyone encountered this issue before? Has anyone else seen client side validation fail on custom user controls? Some extra info : The composite control is a drop down list and 'loader image', as it is a ajax enabled drop down list (using ICallbackEventHandler). I know that the client side javascript is being written to the page, and have placed an alert('random message') as the first line in the validator function that only appears if it is validating a text box (i.e. not when it is validating my custom control) Language : C# (ASP.NET 2.0) and jQuery 1.2.6 in aspx file : <rms:UserDDL ID="ddlUserTypes" runat="server" PreLoad="true" /> <rms:DDLValidator ID="userTypesVal" ControlToValidate="ddlUserTypes" ErrorMessage="You have not selected a UserType" runat="server" Text="You have not selected a UserType" Display="Dynamic" EnableClientScript="true" /> in validator code behind protected string ScriptBlock { get { string nl = System.Environment.NewLine; return "<script type=\"text/javascript\">" + nl + " function " + ScriptBlockFunctionName + "(ctrl)" + nl + " {" + nl + " alert('Random message'); " + nl + " var selVal = $('#' + ctrl.controltovalidate).val(); " + nl + " alert(selVal);" + nl + " if (selVal === '-1') return false; " + nl + " return false; " + nl + " }" + nl + "</script>"; } } protected override void OnPreRender(EventArgs e) { if (this.DetermineRenderUplevel() && this.EnableClientScript) { Page.ClientScript.RegisterExpandoAttribute(this.ClientID, "evaluationfunction", this.ScriptBlockFunctionName); Page.ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptBlock(GetType(), this.ScriptBlockKey, this.ScriptBlock); } base.OnPreRender(e); } I know my ControlPropertiesValid() and EvaluateIsValid() work ok. I appreciate any help on this issue. Noel.

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  • Cached ObjectDataSource not firing Select Event even Cache Dependecy Removed

    - by John Polvora
    I have the following scenario. A Page with a DetailsView binded to an ObjectDatasource with cache-enabled. The SelectMethod is assigned at Page_Load event, depending on my User Level Logic. After assigned the selectMethod and Parameters for the ODS, if Cache not exists, then ODS will be cached the first time. The next time, the cache will be applied to the ODS and the select event don't need to be fired since the dataresult is cached. The problem is, the ODS Cache works fine, but I have a Refresh button to clear the cache and rebind the DetailsView. Am I doing correctly ? Below is my code. <asp:DetailsView ID="DetailsView1" runat="server" DataSourceID="ObjectDataSource_Summary" EnableModelValidation="True" EnableViewState="False" ForeColor="#333333" GridLines="None"> </asp:DetailsView> <asp:ObjectDataSource ID="ObjectDataSource_Summary" runat="server" SelectMethod="" TypeName="BL.BusinessLogic" EnableCaching="true"> <SelectParameters> <asp:Parameter Name="idCompany" Type="String" /> <SelectParameters> </asp:ObjectDataSource> <asp:ImageButton ID="ImageButton_Refresh" runat="server" OnClick="RefreshClick" ImageUrl="~/img/refresh.png" /> And here is the code behind public partial class Index : Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectMethod = ""; ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectParameters[0].DefaultValue = ""; switch (this._loginData.UserLevel) //this is a struct I use for control permissions e pages behaviour { case OperNivel.SysAdmin: case OperNivel.SysOperator: { ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectMethod = "SystemSummary"; ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectParameters[0].DefaultValue = "0"; break; } case OperNivel.CompanyAdmin: case OperNivel.CompanyOperator: { ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectMethod = "CompanySummary"; ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectParameters[0].DefaultValue = this._loginData.UserLevel.ToString(); break; } default: break; } } protected void Page_LoadComplete(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (Cache[ObjectDataSource_Summary.CacheKeyDependency] == null) { this._loginData.LoginDatetime = DateTime.Now; Session["loginData"] = _loginData; Cache[ObjectDataSource_Summary.CacheKeyDependency] = _loginData; DetailsView1.DataBind(); } } protected void RefreshClick(object sender, ImageClickEventArgs e) { Cache.Remove(ObjectDataSource_Summary.CacheKeyDependency); } } Can anyone help me? The Select() Event of the ObjectDasource is not firing even I Remove the CacheKey Dependency

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  • Coolstack MySQL Crash Unable to Restart

    - by rayblasdel
    Environment: Solaris 10 This mysql server has been up and running for 6 months now. Today all of a sudden it crashed. When typing 'mysql' as user it gives the error MYSQL" Error 2002 (HY000): Can't Connect to Local MySQL server though socket '/tmp/mysql.sock' The server try to open mysql, it stays open for 9-10 seconds and restarts the process. Below are the application logs. Application-database-mysql_mysql-csk.log [ May 30 22:37:52 Enabled. ] [ May 30 22:37:58 Rereading configuration. ] [ May 30 22:37:59 Executing start method ("/opt/coolstack/lib/svc/method/svc-cskmysql start") ] /opt/coolstack/mysql/bin/mysqld_safe --user=mysql --datadir=/dbpool1/data --pid-file=/dbpool1/data/database.soliaonline.com.pid [ May 30 22:37:59 Method "start" exited with status 0 ] [ May 30 22:38:13 Stopping because all processes in service exited. ] [ May 30 22:38:13 Executing stop method ("/opt/coolstack/lib/svc/method/svc-cskmysql stop") ] [ May 30 22:38:13 Method "stop" exited with status 0 ] [ May 30 22:38:13 Executing start method ("/opt/coolstack/lib/svc/method/svc-cskmysql start") ] /opt/coolstack/mysql/bin/mysqld_safe --user=mysql --datadir=/dbpool1/data --pid-file=/dbpool1/data/database.soliaonline.com.pid [ May 30 22:38:13 Method "start" exited with status 0 ] [ May 30 22:38:25 Stopping because all processes in service exited. ] [ May 30 22:38:25 Executing stop method ("/opt/coolstack/lib/svc/method/svc-cskmysql stop") ] [ May 30 22:38:25 Method "stop" exited with status 0 ] I am hoping someone might have run into this before and might know how to fix it. The following is an excerpt from the MySQL Error log 100530 22:44:03 mysqld_safe mysqld from pid file /dbpool1/data/database.soliaonline.com.pid ended 100530 22:44:04 mysqld_safe Starting mysqld daemon with databases from /dbpool1/data InnoDB: Log scan progressed past the checkpoint lsn 32 727170612 100530 22:44:13 InnoDB: Database was not shut down normally! InnoDB: Starting crash recovery. InnoDB: Reading tablespace information from the .ibd files... InnoDB: Restoring possible half-written data pages from the doublewrite InnoDB: buffer... InnoDB: Doing recovery: scanned up to log sequence number 32 727200901 100530 22:44:14 InnoDB: Starting an apply batch of log records to the database... InnoDB: Progress in percents: 100530 22:44:14 - mysqld got signal 11 ; This could be because you hit a bug. It is also possible that this binary or one of the libraries it was linked against is corrupt, improperly built, or misconfigured. This error can also be caused by malfunctioning hardware. We will try our best to scrape up some info that will hopefully help diagnose the problem, but since we have already crashed, something is definitely wrong and this may fail. key_buffer_size=209715200 read_buffer_size=1048576 max_used_connections=0 max_threads=10000 threads_connected=0 It is possible that mysqld could use up to key_buffer_size + (read_buffer_size + sort_buffer_size)*max_threads = 31024253 K bytes of memory Hope that's ok; if not, decrease some variables in the equation. enter code here

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  • XY-Scatter Chart In SSRS Won't Display Points

    - by Dalin Seivewright
    I'm a bit confused with this one. I have a Dataset with a BackupDate and a BackupTime as well as a BackupType. The BackupDate is comprised of 12 characters from the left of a datetime string within a table. The BackupTime is comprised of 8 characters from the right of that same datetime string. So for example: BackupDate would be 'December 12 2008' and the BackupTime would be '12:53PM.' I have added an XY-scatter chart to the report. I've added a 'series' value for the BackupType (so one can distinguish between a Full/Incr/Log backup). I've added a category value of BackupDate and set the Scale for the X-axis from the Min of BackupDate to the Max of BackupDate. I've then added an item to the Values with the Y variable set to BackupTime and the X variable set to BackupDate. The interval for the Y-axis is 12:00AM to 11:59PM and the formatting for the labels is 'hh:mmtt'. The BackupTime matches the format of the Y-axis. The BackupDate matches the format of the X-axis. 10 entries are retrieved by my Dataset and the Legend is properly populated by the BackupType field. No points are being plotted on the graph and no markers/pointers are shown if they are enabled. There should be a point on the graph for every point in time of each day there is a backup of a specific type. Am I missing something? Does anyone know of a good tutorial dealing specifically with XY-scatter graphs and using them in a way I intend? I am using the 2005 version of SSRS rather than the 2008 version. Screenshot of what my chart currently looks like: In case it could be dataset related: SELECT TOP (10) backup_type, LTRIM(RTRIM(LEFT(backup_finish_date, 12))) AS BackupDate, LTRIM(RTRIM(RIGHT(backup_finish_date, 8))) AS BackupTime FROM DBARepository.Backup_History As requested, here are the results of this query. There is a Where clause to constrain the results to a specific database of a specific server that was not included in the above SQL Query. Log Dec 26 2008 12:00PM Log Dec 27 2008 4:00AM Log Dec 27 2008 8:00AM Log Dec 27 2008 12:00PM Log Dec 27 2008 4:00PM Log Dec 27 2008 8:00PM Database Dec 27 2008 10:01PM Log Dec 28 2008 12:00AM Log Dec 28 2008 4:00AM Log Dec 28 2008 8:00AM

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  • how to get mxml file in ActionScript class

    - by nemade-vipin
    hello friend I want to refer my mxml file into Actionscript class.My code is :- Mxml file is :- var User:Authentication; User = new Authentication(); User.authentication(); } ]] <mx:Panel width="100%" height="100%" layout="absolute"> <mx:TabNavigator width="100%" height="100%" id="viewstack2"> <mx:Form label="Login Form" id="loginform"> <mx:FormItem label="Mobile no:" creationPolicy="all"> <mx:TextInput id="mobileno"/> </mx:FormItem> <mx:FormItem label="Password:" creationPolicy="all"> <mx:TextInput displayAsPassword="true" id="password" /> </mx:FormItem> <mx:FormItem> <mx:Button label="Login" click="authentication()"/> </mx:FormItem> </mx:Form> <mx:Form label="Child List"> <mx:Label width="100%" color="blue" text="Select Child."/> </mx:Form> </mx:TabNavigator> </mx:Panel> Action script class is package SBTSBusineesObject { import generated.webservices.*; import mx.collections.ArrayCollection; import mx.controls.Alert; import mx.rpc.events.FaultEvent; public class Authentication { [Bindable] private var childName:ArrayCollection; [Bindable] private var childId:ArrayCollection; private var photoFeed:ArrayCollection; private var arrayOfchild:Array; private var newEntry:GetSBTSMobileAuthentication; public var user:SBTSWebService; public var mxmlobj:SBTS =null; public function authentication():void { user = new SBTSWebService(); mxmlobj = new SBTS(); if(user!=null) { user.addSBTSWebServiceFaultEventListener(handleFaults); user.addgetSBTSMobileAuthenticationEventListener(authenticationResult); newEntry = new GetSBTSMobileAuthentication(); if(newEntry!=null) { if(mxmlobj != null) { newEntry.mobile = mxmlobj.mobileno.text ; newEntry.password=mxmlobj.password.text; } user.getSBTSMobileAuthentication(newEntry); } } } public function handleFaults(event:FaultEvent):void { Alert.show("A fault occured contacting the server. Fault message is: " + event.fault.faultString); } public function authenticationResult(event:GetSBTSMobileAuthenticationResultEvent):void { if(event.result != null && event.result._return>0) { if(event.result._return > 0) { var UserId:int = event.result._return; if(mxmlobj != null) { mxmlobj.loginform.enabled = false; mxmlobj.viewstack2.selectedIndex=1; } } else { Alert.show("Authentication fail"); } } } } }

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  • difference between calling javascript function on body load or directly from script.

    - by Abbas
    i am using a javascript where in i am creating multiple div (say 5) at runtime, using javascript function, all the divs contain some text, which is again set at runtime, now i want to disable all the divs at runtime and have the page numbers in the bottom, so that whenever user clicks on the page number only that div should get visible else other should get disable, i have created a function, which accepts parameter, as page number, i enable the div whose page number is clicked and using a for loop, i disable all the other divs, now here my problem is i have created two functions, 1st (for adding divs and disabling all the divs except 1st) and writing content to it, and other for enabling the div whose page number is clicked, and i have called the Adding div function on body onload; now first time when i run, page everthing goes well, but next time when i click on any of the page number, it just gets enabled and again that AddDiv function, runs and re-enables all the divs.. Please reply why this is happening and how should i resolve my issue... Below is my script, content for the div are coming using Json. <body onload="JsonScript();"> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> function JsonScript() { var existingDiv = document.getElementById("form1"); var newAnchorDiv = document.createElement("div"); newAnchorDiv.id = "anchorDiv"; var list = { "Article": articleList }; for(var i=0; i < list.Article.length; i++) { var newDiv = document.createElement("div"); newDiv.id = "div"+(i+1); newDiv.innerHTML = list.Article[i].toString(); newAnchorDiv.innerHTML += "<a href='' onclick='displayMessage("+(i+1)+")'>"+(i+1)+"</a>&nbsp;"; existingDiv.appendChild(newDiv); existingDiv.appendChild(newAnchorDiv); } for(var j = 2; j < list.Article.length + 1; j ++) { var getDivs = document.getElementById("div"+j); getDivs.style.display = "none"; } } function displayMessage(currentId) { var list = {"Article" : articleList} document.getElementById("div"+currentId).style.display = 'block'; for(var i = 1; i < list.Article.length + 1; i++) { if (i != currentId) { document.getElementById("div"+i).style.display = 'none'; } } } </script> Thanks and Regards

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  • Nested Transaction issues within custom Windows Service

    - by pdwetz
    I have a custom Windows Service I recently upgraded to use TransactionScope for nested transactions. It worked fine locally on my old dev machine (XP sp3) and on a test server (Server 2003). However, it fails on my new Windows 7 machine as well as on 2008 Server. It was targeting 2.0 framework; I tried targeting 3.5 instead, but it still fails. The strange part is really in how it fails; no exception is thrown. The service itself merely times out. I added tracing code, and it fails when opening the connection for Database lookup #2 below. I also enabled tracing for System.Transactions; it literally cuts out partway while writing the block for the failed connection. We ran a SQL trace, but only the first lookup shows up. I put in code traces, and it gets to the trace the line before the second lookup, but nothing after. I've had the same experience hitting two different SQL servers (both are SQL 2005 running on Server 2003). The connection string is utilizing a SQL account (not Windows integration). All connections are against the same database in this case, but given the nature of the code it is being escalated to MSDTC. Here's the basic code structure: TransactionOptions options = new TransactionOptions(); options.IsolationLevel = System.Transactions.IsolationLevel.ReadCommitted; using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope(TransactionScopeOption.RequiresNew, options)) { // Database lookup #1 TransactionOptions options = new TransactionOptions(); options.IsolationLevel = Transaction.Current != null ? Transaction.Current.IsolationLevel : System.Transactions.IsolationLevel.ReadCommitted; using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope(TransactionScopeOption.Required, options)) { // Database lookup #2; fails on connection.Open() // Database save (never reached) scope.Complete();<br/> } scope.Complete();<br/> } My local firewall is disabled. The service normally runs using Network Service, but I also tried my user account (same results). The short of it is that I use the same general technique widely in my web applications and haven't had any issues. I pulled out the code and ran it fine within a local Windows Form application. If anyone has any additional debugging ideas (or, even better, solutions) I'd love to hear them.

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  • Issues declaring already existing NSMutableArray in new class

    - by Graeme
    I have a class (DataImporter) which has the code to download an RSS feed. I also have a view and separate class (TableView) which displays the data in a UITableView and starts the parsing process, storing parsed information in an NSMutableArray (items) which is located in the (TableView) subclass. Now I wish to add a UIMapView which displays the items in the (items) NSMutableArray. Herein lies the issue - I need to somehow get the data from the (items) NSMutableArray into the new (mapView) subclass which I'm struggling with - and I preferably don't want to have to create a new class to download the data again for the mapView class when it already is in the applications memory. Is there a way I can transfer the information from the NSMutableArray (items) class to the (mapView) class (i.e. how do I declare the NSMutableArray in the (mapView) class)? Here's a overview of how the system works: App opened Data downloaded (using DataImporter class) when (TableView) viewDidLoad runs Data stored in NSMutableArray accessible by the (TableView) class And from here I need to access and declare the array from a new (mapView) class. Any help greatly appreciated, thanks. Code for viewDidLoad MapKit: Data *data = nil; NSString *ilocation = [data locations]; NSString *ilocation2 = @"New Zealand"; NSString *inewlString; inewlString = [ilocation stringByAppendingString:ilocation2]; NSLog(@"inewlString=%@",inewlString); if(forwardGeocoder == nil) { forwardGeocoder = [[BSForwardGeocoder alloc] initWithDelegate:self]; } // Forward geocode! [forwardGeocoder findLocation: inewlString]; Code for parsing data into original NSMutable Array: - (void)beginParsing { NSLog(@"Parsing has begun"); //self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem.enabled = NO; // Allocate the array for song storage, or empty the results of previous parses if (incidents == nil) { NSLog(@"Grabbing array"); self.datas = [NSMutableArray array]; } else { [datas removeAllObjects]; [self.tableView reloadData]; } // Create the parser, set its delegate, and start it. self.parser = [[DataImporter alloc] init]; parser.delegate = self; [parser start]; }

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  • WCF facility : Metadata publishing for this service is currently disabled

    - by cvista
    I asked this before and got no where so i'm asking again as i'm now desperate!! Hey if i create a new wcf project i can browse the meta instantly. if I try - when using the WCF facility - i get the following: Metadata publishing for this service is currently disabled. i followed the instructions there and in a million other places and get no where. if i copy the contents of my faciltity service into the newly created project it complains that aspNetCompatibilityEnabled isnt enabled. so i enable it and then mex is disabled again and i get: Metadata publishing for this service is currently disabled. again!! this is driving me crazy - i have tried tried tried to follow every example on the web!! here is my current configuration - there is no client yet: <system.serviceModel> <serviceHostingEnvironment aspNetCompatibilityEnabled="true" /> <services> <service name="IbzStar.WebServices.UserServices" behaviorConfiguration="ServiceBehavior"> <!-- Service Endpoints --> <endpoint address="" binding="wsHttpBinding" contract="IbzStar.WebServices.IUserServices"> <!-- Upon deployment, the following identity element should be removed or replaced to reflect the identity under which the deployed service runs. If removed, WCF will infer an appropriate identity automatically. --> <identity> <dns value="localhost"/> </identity> </endpoint> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange"/> </service> </services> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="ServiceBehavior"> <!-- To avoid disclosing metadata information, set the value below to false and remove the metadata endpoint above before deployment --> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="true"/> <!-- To receive exception details in faults for debugging purposes, set the value below to true. Set to false before deployment to avoid disclosing exception information --> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="false"/> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> </system.serviceModel> please someone help me out before my laptop gets launched into orbit!! w://

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  • Scroll event of jquery is not working in IE 7 with IE 7 standard but works in IE8,9

    - by SidP
    I have an example below which has a terms div which has some terms and conditions as content. When the user scroll the div to bottom, then the checkbox is enabled. This is only not working only in IE 7 with IE 7/8/9 standards (I am changing the standard options from Developer window). Following is my html, css and js: <body> <div id="terms">Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Integer lacinia dui vel velit bibendum cursus. Nunc eget lacus vitae nulla euismod elementum ornare ac urna. Nam enim est, bibendum eu ultricies eu, mollis vitae lacus. Duis porta vulputate feugiat. Nullam eu iaculis lacus. Aliquam adipiscing posuere consequat. Donec et dui non massa congue eleifend. Nunc tortor diam, luctus eget mollis sit amet, posuere nec lectus. Morbi sit amet ultricies nisi. Nam sodales quam non mi tristique sollicitudin. Vestibulum vel augue eget mi tincidunt commodo. Sed egestas metus nibh, et vestibulum augue. Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Integer lacinia dui vel velit bibendum cursus. Nunc eget lacus vitae nulla euismod elementum ornare ac urna. Nam enim est, bibendum eu ultricies eu, mollis vitae lacus. Duis porta vulputate feugiat. Nullam eu iaculis lacus. Aliquam adipiscing posuere consequat. Donec et dui non massa congue eleifend. Nunc tortor diam, luctus eget mollis sit amet, posuere nec lectus. Morbi sit amet ultricies nisi. Nam sodales quam non mi tristique sollicitudin. Vestibulum vel augue eget mi tincidunt commodo. Sed egestas metus nibh, et vestibulum augue. </div> <input type="checkbox" name="cb1" id="cb1" disabled="true" /> </body> CSS: <style type="text/css"> #terms { height: 100px; overflow: auto; } body{ width:960px; margin: 0 auto; } </style> JS: <script src="jquery-1.8.1.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript">//<![CDATA[ $(window).load(function(){ $('#terms').scroll(function() { if ($(this)[0].scrollHeight - $(this).scrollTop() == $(this).outerHeight()) { $("#cb1").removeAttr("disabled"); } else { $("#cb1").attr("disabled", "true"); } }); });//]]> </script>

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