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• Odd Things of ASP.NET MVC Deployment on IIS 6

  - by misaxi

  Recently, I am a bit interested in the deployment of ASP.NET MVC application on IIS6 because Phil Haack posted an easier way to deploy ASP.NET MVC application on ASP.NET 4. So I decided to see how different version of ASP.NET MVC works on different version of ASP.NET. First off, I created an ASP.NET MVC 2 project in Visual Studio 2010 and deploy it to IIS 6 on Windows Server 2003 (only .NET framework 3.5 installed). I set the application to run in ASP.NET 2.0 and no extra stuff. Because I just wanted to see what sort of error would occur. And as expected, some error was reported as following. Then, I set the Copy Local attribute of System.Web.Mvc assembly to true as following and deploy again. As a result, the application ran smoothly. I had read tons of materials talked about the mess of deploying MVC application on IIS 6. And I did fight to tackle the deploying issues in my previous project. At least, if had used Extensionless Url in your application, you should have configured wildcard mapping in IIS. But in this case, I even didn’t have chance to do so. What the heck was going on exactly? Did I discover a new continent?

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• How to find unmapped properties in a NHibernate mapped class?

  - by haarrrgh

  I just had a NHibernate related problem where I forgot to map one property of a class. A very simplified example: public class MyClass { public virtual int ID { get; set; } public virtual string SomeText { get; set; } public virtual int SomeNumber { get; set; } } ...and the mapping file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" assembly="MyAssembly" namespace="MyAssembly.MyNamespace"> <class name="MyClass" table="SomeTable"> <property name="ID" /> <property name="SomeText" /> </class> </hibernate-mapping> In this simple example, you can see the problem at once: there is a property named "SomeNumber" in the class, but not in the mapping file. So NHibernate will not map it and it will always be zero. The real class had a lot more properties, so the problem was not as easy to see and it took me quite some time to figure out why SomeNumber always returned zero even though I was 100% sure that the value in the database was != zero. So, here is my question: Is there some simple way to find this out via NHibernate? Like a compiler warning when a class is mapped, but some of its properties are not. Or some query that I can run that shows me unmapped properties in mapped classes...you get the idea. (Plus, it would be nice if I could exclude some legacy columns that I really don't want mapped.)

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• Custom API requirement

  - by Jonathan.Peppers

  We are currently working on an API for an existing system. It basically wraps some web-requests as an easy-to-use library that 3rd party companies should be able to use with our product. As part of the API, there is an event mechanism where the server can call back to the client via a constantly-running socket connection. To minimize load on the server, we want to only have one connection per computer. Currently there is a socket open per process, and that could eventually cause load problems if you had multiple applications using the API. So my question is: if we want to deploy our API as a single standalone assembly, what is the best way to fix our problem? A couple options we thought of: Write an out of process COM object (don't know if that works in .Net) Include a second exe file that would be required for events, it would have to single-instance itself, and open a named pipe or something to communicate through multiple processes Extract this exe file from an embedded resource and execute it None of those really seem ideal. Any better ideas?

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• Sending variable data from one of two text boxes to javascript

  - by Enyalius

  Greetings, all! I am fairly new to JS (my background is in C++, enterprise languages like assembly and COBOL, and some light .NET), so I was wondering if I could get some advice regarding how to send variable information from one of two text boxes to some javascript and then have the JS do some basic checks and such. Here's the pseudocode for what I am trying to do: <form = webForm> <p> _____________ textboxPeople| searchIcon //a text box to search an online phonebook at my company. ------------- //It has a little "magnifying glass" icon to search //(onClick), but I would also like them to be able to //search by hitting the "enter" key on their keyboards. </p> <p> _____________ texboxIntranet| searchIcon //Same as above search textbox, but this one is used if ------------- //the user wishes to search my corporate intranet site. </form> So ends the front-facing basic form that I would like to use. Now, onClick or onEnter, I would like the form to pass the contents of the text box used as well as an identifier such as "People" or "Intranet," depending on which box is used, to some basic JS on the back end: begin JavaScript: if(identifier = 'People') fire peopleSearch(); else if(identifier = 'Intranet') fire intranetSearch(); function peopleSearch() { http://phonebook.corporate.com/query=submittedValue //This will take the person //that the user submitted in the form and //place it at the end of a URL, after which //it will open said complete URL in the //same window. } function intranetSearch() { http://intranet.corporate.com/query=submittedValue //This will function in the //same way as the people search function. } end JavaScript Any thoughts/suggestions would be greatly appreciated. Thank you all in advance!

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• Fluent NHibernate no data being returned

  - by czuroski

  Hello, I have been successfully using NHibernate, but now I am trying to move to Fluent NHibernate. I have created all of my mapping files and set up my session manager to use a Fluent Configuration. I then run my application and it runs successfully, but no data is returned. There are no errors or any indication that there is a problem, but nothing runs. when using NHibernate, if I don't set my hbm xml files as an embedded resource, this same thing happens. This makes me wonder what I have to set my Map classes to. Right now, they are just set to Compile, and they are compiled into the dll, which I can see by disassembling it. Does anyone have any thoughts as to what may be happening here? Thanks private ISessionFactory GetSessionFactory() { return Fluently.Configure() .Database( IfxOdbcConfiguration .Informix1000 .ConnectionString("Provider=Ifxoledbc.2;Password=mypass;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=myuser;Data Source=mysource") .Dialect<InformixDialect1000>() .ProxyFactoryFactory<ProxyFactoryFactory>() .Driver<OleDbDriver>() .ShowSql() ) .Mappings( m => m.FluentMappings .AddFromAssemblyOf<cmCase>() .AddFromAssemblyOf<attorney>() .AddFromAssemblyOf<creditor>() .AddFromAssemblyOf<party>() .AddFromAssemblyOf<person>() .AddFromAssemblyOf<sardbk>() .AddFromAssemblyOf<schedule>() //x => x.FluentMappings.AddFromAssembly(System.Reflection.Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly()) //.ExportTo("C:\\mappings") ) .BuildSessionFactory(); }

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• How do I call C++/CLI (.NET) DLLs from standard, unmanaged non-.NET applications?

  - by tronjohnson

  In the unmanaged world, I was able to write a __declspec(dllexport) or, alternatively, use a .DEF file to expose a function to be able to call a DLL. (Because of name mangling in C++ for the __stdcall, I put aliases into the .DEF file so certain applications could re-use certain exported DLL functions.) Now, I am interested in being able to expose a single entry-point function from a .NET assembly, in unmanaged-fashion, but have it enter into .NET-style functions within the DLL. Is this possible, in a simple and straight-forward fashion? What I have is a third-party program that I have extended through DLLs (plugins) that implement some complex mathematics. However, the third-party program has no means for me to visualize the calculations. I want to somehow take these pre-written math functions, compile them into a separate DLL (but using C++/CLI in .NET), but then add hooks to the functions so I can render what's going on under the hood in a .NET user control. I'm not sure how to blend the .NET stuff with the unmanaged stuff, or what to Google to accomplish this task. Specific suggestions with regard to the managed/unmanaged bridge, or alternative methods to accomplish the rendering in the manner I have described would be helpful. Thank you.

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• Tools for debugging when debugger can't get you there?

  - by brian1001

  I have a fairly complex (approx 200,000 lines of C++ code) application that has decided to crash, although it crashes a little differently on a couple of different systems. The trick is that it doesn't crash or trap out in debugger. It only crashes when the application .EXE is run independently (either the debug EXE or the release EXE - both behave the same way). When it crashes in the debug EXE, and I get it to start debugging, the call stack is buried down into the windows/MFC part of things, and isn't reflecting any of my code. Perhaps I'm seeing a stack corruption of some sort, but I'm just not sure at the moment. My question is more general - it's about tools and techniques. I'm an old programmer (C and assembly language days), and a relative newcomer (couple/few years) to C++ and Visual Studio (2003 for this projecT). Are there tricks or techniques anyone's had success with in tracking down crashing issues when you cannot make the software crash in a debugger session? Stuff like permission issues, for example? The only thing I've thought of is to start plugging in debug/status messages to a logfile, but that's a long, hard way to go. Been there, done that. Any better suggestions? Am I missing some tools that would help? Is VS 2008 better for this kind of thing? Thanks for any guidance. Some very smart people here (you know who you are!). cheers.

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• Execute files included in Resource folder

  - by Sumeet Pujari

  In WPF application where I have included some files in resources, I want to execute them on a button click. How do I specify a path in Process.Start(). private void button1_Click_2(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { Process.Start("test.txt"); } Or is there any other way? private void button1_Click_2(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { string path = System.IO.Path.GetDirectoryName(Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().Location) + @"\test.txt"; if (File.Exists(path)) { Process.Start(new ProcessStartInfo(path)); } else { MessageBox.Show("No file found"+path); } I added a message box and it showed No files found. :( EDIT: I Tried to check the path after publishing and this what i got. No File Found With a Path - C:\Users\Administrator\AppData\Local\Apps\2.0... test.txt Before I published the Application I got a path which id No File Found at ..project..\bin\Debug\test.txt which is obvious since my Resource file not included there its Under a Resource Folder and not Debug when i add a test file in debug it open without any problem. Can someone Help throwing some light on this case. EDIT: I want to open a file from Resource directory @ C:\Users\Administrator\Documents\Visual Studio 2010\Projects\FastFix\FastFix\Resources Which would be included in my project when i am going to publish it is going to run as a standalone application without installation.

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• What happens when you create an instance of an object containing no state in C#?

  - by liquorice

  I am I think ok at algorithmic programming, if that is the right term? I used to play with turbo pascal and 8086 assembly language back in the 1980s as a hobby. But only very small projects and I haven't really done any programming in the 20ish years since then. So I am struggling for understanding like a drowning swimmer. So maybe this is a very niave question or I'm just making no sense at all, but say I have an object kind of like this: class Something : IDoer { void Do(ISomethingElse x) { x.DoWhatEverYouWant(42); } } And then I do var Thing1 = new Something(); var Thing2 = new Something(); Thing1.Do(blah); Thing2.Do(blah); does Thing1 = Thing2? does "new Something()" create anything? Or is it not much different different from having a static class, except I can pass it around and swap it out etc. Is the "Do" procedure in the same location in memory for both the Thing1(blah) and Thing2(blah) objects? I mean when executing it, does it mean there are two Something.Do procedures or just one?

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• Plugin-like architecture in .NET

  - by devoured elysium

  I'm trying to implement a plug-in like application. I know there are already several solution out there but this is just going to be proof of the concept, nothing more. The idea would be to make the application main application almost featureless by default and then let the plugins know about each other, having them have implement all the needed features. A couple of issues arise: I want the plugins at runtime to know about each other through my application. That wouldn't mean that at code-time they couldn't reference other plugin's assemblies so they could use its interfaces, only that plugin-feature initialization should be always through my main app. For example: if I have both plugins X and Y loaded and Y wants to use X's features, it should "register" its interest though my application to use its features. I'd have to have a kind of "dictionary" in my application where I store all the loaded plugins. After registering for interest in my application, plugin Y would get a reference to X so it could use it. Is this a good approach? When coding plugin Y that uses X, I'd need to reference X's assembly, so I can program against its interface. That has the issue of versioning. What if I code my plugin Y against an outdated version of plugin X? Should I always use a "central" place where all assemblies are, having there always the up to date versions of the assemblies? Are there by chance any books out there that specifically deal with these kinds of designs for .NET? Thanks

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• Generic Singleton Fasade design pattern

  - by Paul

  Hi I try write singleton fasede pattern with generics. I have one problem, how can I call method from generic variable. Something like this: T1 t1 = new T1(); //call method from t1 t1.Method(); In method SingletonFasadeMethod I have compile error: Error 1 'T1' does not contain a definition for 'Method' and no extension method 'Method' accepting a first argument of type 'T1' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) Any advace? Thank, I am beginner in C#. All code is here: namespace GenericSingletonFasade { public interface IMyInterface { string Method(); } internal class ClassA : IMyInterface { public string Method() { return " Calling MethodA "; } } internal class ClassB : IMyInterface { public string Method() { return " Calling MethodB "; } } internal class ClassC : IMyInterface { public string Method() { return "Calling MethodC"; } } internal class ClassD : IMyInterface { public string Method() { return "Calling MethodD"; } } public class SingletonFasade<T1,T2,T3> where T1 : class,new() where T2 : class,new() where T3 : class,new() { private static T1 t1; private static T2 t2; private static T3 t3; private SingletonFasade() { t1 = new T1(); t2 = new T2(); t3 = new T3(); } class SingletonCreator { static SingletonCreator() { } internal static readonly SingletonFasade<T1,T2,T3> uniqueInstace = new SingletonFasade<T1,T2,T3>(); } public static SingletonFasade<T1,T2,T3> UniqueInstace { get { return SingletonCreator.uniqueInstace; } } public string SingletonFasadeMethod() { //Problem is here return t1.Method() + t2.Method() + t3.Method(); } } }

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• NHibernate not dropping foreign key constraints.

  - by Kendrick

  I'm new to NHibernate, so this is probably my mistake, but when I use: schema.Create(true, true); I get: SchemaExport [(null)]- There is already an object named 'XXX' in the database. System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: There is already an object named 'XXX' in the database. I grabbed the SQL code nHibernate was using, ran it directly from MSSMS, and recieved similar errors. Looking into it, the generated code is not properly dropping the foreign key constraints. The drop looks like this: if exists (select 1 from sysobjects where id = OBJECT_ID(N'dbo[FK22212EAFBFE4C58]') AND parent_obj = OBJECT_ID('YYY')) alter table dbo.YYY drop constraint FK22212EAFBFE4C58 Doing a "select OBJECT_ID(N'dbo[FK22212EAFBFE4C58]')" I get null. If I take out the "dbo" (i.e. "select OBJECT_ID(N'[FK22212EAFBFE4C58]')") then the ID is returned. So, my question is, why is nHibernate adding the dbo, and why does that prevent the object from being returned (since the table owning the constraint is dbo.XXX) One of my mapping files: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <hibernate-mapping namespace="CanineApp.Model" assembly="CanineApp.Model" xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2"> <class name="MedicalLog" table="MedicalLog" schema="dbo"> <id name="MedicalLogID" type="Int64"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="InvoiceAmount" type="Decimal" not-null="true" /> ... <many-to-one name="Canine" class="Canine" column="CanineID" not-null="true" fetch="join" /> <many-to-one name="TreatmentCategory" class="TreatmentCategory" column="TreatmentCategoryID" not-null="true" access="field.camelcase-underscore" /> </class> </hibernate-mapping>

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• Need help with simple NHibernate mapping...

  - by mplarsen

  Need help with a simple NHibernate relationship... Tables/Classes Request ------- RequestId Title … Keywords ------- RequestID (key) Keyword (key) Request mapping file <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" namespace="CR.Model" assembly="CR"> <class name="CR.Model.Request, CR table="[dbo].[Request]" lazy="true"> <id name="Id" column="[RequestID]"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <property name="RequestorID" column="[RequestorID]" /> <property name="RequestorOther" column="[RequestorOther]" /> … Keyword?? </class> </hibernate-mapping> How do I simply map multiple keywords to a request? I don't need another mapping file for the keyword class, do I? It's be great if I could not only get the associated keywords, but add them too...

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• Does RazorEngine require MVC3 to be installed?

  - by tkha007

  I am working on a web project that uses MVC2. I decided to try out RazorEngine to do some e-mail templating. This appeared to work fine when I was protyping using an MVC2 project so I assumed that RazorEngine will work fine for my e-mail templating solution. What I had forgotten at the time was that I actually had MVC3 installed on my local development machine. After deploying the project on a pre-test server I get the following error in the logs when the application attempts to do anything with RazorEngine: Could not load file or assembly 'System.Web.Razor, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. File name: 'System.Web.Razor, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35' at RazorEngine.Compilation.DefaultCompilerServiceFactory.CreateCompilerService(Language language) at RazorEngine.Templating.TemplateService.CreateTemplateType(String razorTemplate, Type modelType) at RazorEngine.Templating.TemplateService.CreateTemplate[T](String razorTemplate, T model) at RazorEngine.Templating.TemplateService.Parse[T](String razorTemplate, T model) at RazorEngine.Razor.Parse[T](String razorTemplate, T model) at System.Dynamic.UpdateDelegates.UpdateAndExecute3[T0,T1,T2,TRet](CallSite site, T0 arg0, T1 arg1, T2 arg2) at Persistence.Utility.RazorEngineHelper.Parse(String templateName, Object model) in The fact that it can't find 'System.Web.Razor' means that this DLL does not exist on the deployed server. The only difference I can think of between the deployment server and my local dev machine is that the deployment server does not have MVC3 installed but I may be mistaken because the deployment server is not something I normally control and as such I don't have a lot of information about it. It is meant to host this particular application so there have been previous deployments of this application to this server. This is the first time I'm making a deployment with RazorEngine as a dependency.

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• C# Type comparison

  - by Sean.C

  This has me pooped, is there any reason the following: public abstract class aExtension { public abstract bool LoadExtension(Constants c); // method required in inherit public abstract string AppliesToModule // property required in inherit { get; } public abstract string ExtensionName // property required in inherit { get; } public abstract string ExtensionDescription // property required in inherit { get; } } public class UK : aExtension { public override bool LoadExtension(Constants c) { return true; } public override string AppliesToModule { get { return "string"; } } public override string ExtensionName { get { return "string"; } } public override string ExtensionDescription { get { return "string"; } } } would return false for the following expressions: bool a = t.IsAssignableFrom(aExtension)); bool b = t.BaseType.IsAssignableFrom(aExtension)); bool c = typeof(aExtension).IsAssignableFrom(t); bool d = typeof(aExtension).IsAssignableFrom(t.BaseType); bool e = typeof(aExtension).IsSubclassOf(t); bool f = typeof(aExtension).IsSubclassOf(t.BaseType); bool g = t.IsSubclassOf(typeof(aExtension)); bool h = t.BaseType.IsSubclassOf(typeof(LBT.AdMeter.aExtension)); bool i = t.BaseType.Equals(typeof(aExtension)); bool j = typeof(aExtension).Equals(t.BaseType); T is the reflected Type from the calss UK. Stange thing is i do the exact same thing just on an external assembly in the same application and it works as expected...

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• Why is Attributes.IsDefined() missing overloads?

  - by Hans Passant

  Inspired by an SO question. The Attribute class has several overloads for the IsDefined() method. Covered are attributes applied to Assembly, Module, MemberInfo, ParameterInfo. The MemberInfo overload covers PropertyInfo, FieldInfo, EventInfo, MethodInfo, ConstructorInfo. That takes care of most of the AttributeTargets. Except for one biggy: there is no overload for Attribute.IsDefined(Type, Type) so that you could check if an attribute is defined on a class. Or a struct, delegate or enum for that matter. Not that this is a real problem, Type.GetCustomAttributes() can fix that. But all of the BlahInfo types have this too. I wonder at the lack of symmetry. I can't put a finger on why this would be problem for Type. Guessing at an inheritance problem doesn't explain it to me. Having ValueType in the mix might be a lead, still doesn't make sense. I don't buy "they forgot", they never do. Why is this overload missing?

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• SQL query doesn't get inserted

  - by Deejdd

  I've been trying to get my query to work for some time it runs but doesn't insert anything nor does it return any errors. The database connection is open and is successfuly connection. The Table is called errorlog and holds the following data - id (int autoincremental, Primary key, Unique) - exception (varchar) - time (DateTime) exception = String(error message) time = DateTime.Now Here's the code: public void insertError(string error, DateTime time) { SqlCeParameter[] sqlParams = new SqlCeParameter[] { new SqlCeParameter("@exception", error), new SqlCeParameter("@time", time) }; try { cmd = new SqlCeCommand(); cmd.Connection = connection; cmd.CommandType = CommandType.Text; cmd.CommandText = "INSERT INTO errorlog (exception, time) VALUES(@exception, @time)"; cmd.Parameters.AddRange(sqlParams); cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e.Message); } } Any help would be appreciated, Thanks in advance. EDIT Removed quotes around @exception Heres the connection: protected DataController() { try { string appPath = System.IO.Path.GetDirectoryName(Assembly.GetAssembly(typeof(DataController)).CodeBase).Replace(@"file:\", "") + @"\"; string strCon = @"Data Source = " + appPath + @"Data\EasyShop.sdf"; connection = new SqlCeConnection(strCon); } catch (Exception e) { } connection.Open(); } Finally the way it gets called: public bool log(string msg, bool timestamp = true) { DataController dc = DataController.Instance(); dc.insertError(msg, DateTime.Today); return true; }

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• Reading a text file, and performing actions based on strings read

  - by user1691766

  Let me start off by saying that I really am quite new to C. So basically I have a text file (contains around 30 assembly instructions, separated by new lines), and I am successfully reading them into my program. From here I need to perform certain actions based off each instruction. I would assume the best way to do this would be via a switch-case statement. However I am encountering a lot of problems due to me trying to compare strings that are 33 characters long. Can anyone please offer me advice on what I am doing wrong, or offer an alternative? Thanks in advance. Here is what I have so far: char instruction[29][ 33 ]; int i,run; i = 0; run = 1; FILE *instPtr; /* LOADING INSTRUCTIONS FROM FILE INTO "instruction" ARRAY*/ if ( ( instPtr = fopen("MIPSinstructions.txt", "r") ) == NULL ) { printf("File could not be opened\n"); } // end if else { fscanf( instPtr, "%s", instruction[0]); printf("%s\n", instruction[0]); while (!feof( instPtr ) ){ i++; fscanf( instPtr, "%s", instruction[i]); printf("%s\n", instruction[i]); } fclose( instPtr ); i = 0; // Reset the counter } //end else return 0; }

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• JQuery dialog momentairly displayed on page load

  - by Kevin Won

  I created a page that has a JQuery based dialog using the standard JQuery UI function. I do this with out of the box functionality of JQuery... nothing special at all. Here is my HTML for the dialog: <div id = "myDialog"> <!-- ... more html in here for the dialog --> </div> Then the JQuery called in javascript that transforms the <div> to a dialog: // pruned .js as an example of kicking up a JQuery dialog $('#myDialog').dialog({ autoOpen: false, title: 'Title here', modal: true } }); Again, plain-vanilla JQuery. So you start this wizard by clicking on a link on the parent page, and it then spawns a JQuery dialog which has a significant chunk of HTML that includes images, etc. As I continued developing this page, I started to notice that when I loaded the page in the browser that the <div> tags I was putting in that JQuery transforms into dialogs would very briefly be displayed. Then the page would act as expected. In other words, the dialog would not be hidden, it would be displayed briefly in-line in the page. Quite ugly and unprofessional looking! But after a split second, the page would render correctly and look just as I expected/wanted. Over time, as the page size grew, the time the page would remain incorrectly rendered grew. My guess is that the rendering engine of the browser is rendering the page as it is loading, then at the end it is kicking off the JQuery that will transform the <div> into a dialog. This JQuery function will then transform the simple <div> to a JQuery dialog and hide it (since I have the autoOpen property set to false). Some browsers <cough>IE</cough> display it longer than others. My large-ish dialog now causes the page to incorrectly render for about 1 second... YUCK! I came up with a resolution to this problem which works OK, but I'm wondering if someone knows of a better way.

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• Android: manifest targetSdkVersion change resulted in: icon not visible, widget no longer works, and

  - by Casey

  I recently upgraded my Android app to support multiple resolutions. Previously, my Android.manifest file had a line: To support multiple density and resolution devices, I changed this to: <supports-screens android:smallScreens="false" android:normalScreens="true" android:largeScreens="true" android:anyDensity="true" /> <uses-sdk android:minSdkVersion="3" android:targetSdkVersion="4" /> I then added a couple of new directories, like drawable-hdpi-v4 and drawable-long-hdpi-v4 that includes the high-res versions of the graphics. That's about it. Ever since releasing this update, there have been a decent number of users complaining about various problems: - the app icon doesn't appear (I did not create a high res version of the icon) - the home screen widget no longer works, even if they delete and re-add it (this code did not change with the update). I've had a user send me their error log, which shows: 03-19 20:59:41.617 W/ActivityManager( 1854): Unable to launch app com.alt12.babybump/10078 for broadcast Intent { action=android.appwidget.action.APPWIDGET_UPDATE flags=0x4 comp={com.alt12.babybump/com.alt12.babybump.WidgetGirl} (has extras) }: process is bad There is one questionable section in my existing widget code that may be relevant: @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { // v1.5 fix that doesn't call onDelete Action final String action = intent.getAction(); if (AppWidgetManager.ACTION_APPWIDGET_DELETED.equals(action)) { final int appWidgetId = intent.getExtras().getInt( AppWidgetManager.EXTRA_APPWIDGET_ID, AppWidgetManager.INVALID_APPWIDGET_ID); if (appWidgetId != AppWidgetManager.INVALID_APPWIDGET_ID) { this.onDeleted(context, new int[] { appWidgetId }); } } else { super.onReceive(context, intent); } } And perhaps most troublesome: the sqlite database is no longer accessible/writeable for some users so their data is no longer available. I did add the WRITE_EXTERNAL_STORAGE permission to the manifest. This is only happening to certain users and it tends to be HTC Eris users. In that error log I see things such as: 03-19 16:00:56.173 E/FlurryAgent( 4791): java.io.FileNotFoundException: /data/data/com.alt12.babybump/files/.flurryagent.-2333f5cb 03-19 16:00:56.173 E/FlurryAgent( 4791): at org.apache.harmony.luni.platform.OSFileSystem.open(OSFileSystem.java:231) 03-19 16:01:09.393 E/Database( 4791): sqlite3_open_v2("/data/data/com.alt12.babybump/databases/uitematmamad.db", &handle, 6, NULL) failed 03-19 16:01:09.393 W/System.err( 4791): android.database.sqlite.SQLiteException: unable to open database file It's as if the update has caused a new process and it can't access the old process's data, or something. Any help appreciated!

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• DynamicMethod for ConstructorInfo.Invoke, what do I need to consider?

  - by Lasse V. Karlsen

  My question is this: If I'm going to build a DynamicMethod object, corresponding to a ConstructorInfo.Invoke call, what types of IL do I need to implement in order to cope with all (or most) types of arguments, when I can guarantee that the right type and number of arguments is going to be passed in before I make the call? Background I am on my 3rd iteration of my IoC container, and currently doing some profiling to figure out if there are any areas where I can easily shave off large amounts of time being used. One thing I noticed is that when resolving to a concrete type, ultimately I end up with a constructor being called, using ConstructorInfo.Invoke, passing in an array of arguments that I've worked out. What I noticed is that the invoke method has quite a bit of overhead, and I'm wondering if most of this is just different implementations of the same checks I do. For instance, due to the constructor matching code I have, to find a matching constructor for the predefined parameter names, types, and values that I have passed in, there's no way this particular invoke call will not end up with something it should be able to cope with, like the correct number of arguments, in the right order, of the right type, and with appropriate values. When doing a profiling session containing a million calls to my resolve method, and then replacing it with a DynamicMethod implementation that mimics the Invoke call, the profiling timings was like this: ConstructorInfo.Invoke: 1973ms DynamicMethod: 93ms This accounts for around 20% of the total runtime of this profiling application. In other words, by replacing the ConstructorInfo.Invoke call with a DynamicMethod that does the same, I am able to shave off 20% runtime when dealing with basic factory-scoped services (ie. all resolution calls end up with a constructor call). I think this is fairly substantial, and warrants a closer look at how much work it would be to build a stable DynamicMethod generator for constructors in this context. So, the dynamic method would take in an object array, and return the constructed object, and I already know the ConstructorInfo object in question. Therefore, it looks like the dynamic method would be made up of the following IL: l001: ldarg.0 ; the object array containing the arguments l002: ldc.i4.0 ; the index of the first argument l003: ldelem.ref ; get the value of the first argument l004: castclass T ; cast to the right type of argument (only if not "Object") (repeat l001-l004 for all parameters, l004 only for non-Object types, varying l002 constant from 0 and up for each index) l005: newobj ci ; call the constructor l006: ret Is there anything else I need to consider? Note that I'm aware that creating dynamic methods will probably not be available when running the application in "reduced access mode" (sometimes the brain just won't give up those terms), but in that case I can easily detect that and just calling the original constructor as before, with the overhead and all.

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• Animating custom-drawn UITableViewCell when entering edit mode

  - by Adam Alexander

  Background First of all, much gratitude to atebits for their very informative blog post Fast Scrolling in Tweetie with UITableView. The post explains in detail how the developers were able to squeeze as much scrolling performance as possible out of the UITableViews in Tweetie. Goals Beginning with the source code linked from the blog post (original) (my github repo): Allow a UITableView using these custom cells to switch to edit mode, exposing the UI for deleting an item from the table. (github commit) Move the cell's text aside as the deletion control slides in from the left. This is complete, although the text jumps back and forth without animation. (github commit) Apply animation to the text movement in goal 2 above for a smooth user experience. This is the step where I became stuck. The Question What is the best way to introduce this animation to complete goal 3? It would be nice if this could be done in a manner that keeps the logic from my last commit because I would love the option to move the conflicting part of the view only, while any non-conflicting portions (such as right-justified text) stay in the same place or move a different number of pixels. If the above is not possible then undoing my last commit and replacing it with an option that slides the entire view to the right would be a workable solution also. I appreciate any help anyone can provide, from quick pointers and ideas all the way to code snippets or github commits. Of course you are welcome to fork my repo if you would like. I will be staying involved with this question to make sure any successful resolution is committed to github and fully documented here. Thanks very much for your time! Updated thoughts I have been thinking about this a lot since my first post and realized that moving some text items relative to others in the view could undo some of the original performance goals solved in the original blog post. So at this point I am thinking a solution where the entire single subview is animated to its new postion may be the best one. Second, if it is done in this way there may be an instance where the subview has a custom color or gradient background. Hopefully this can be done in a way that in its normal position the background extends unseen off to the left enough so that when the view is slid to the right the custom background is still visible across the entire cell.

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• Why does filter: blur(0) still cause text to blur under Webkit?

  - by johnkavanagh

  I've come across a bug today that's taken far longer than I would like to admit to identify. Essentially: setting a filter: blur(0) (or the vendor-specific -webkit-filter) on an element should - I believe - mean that no form of blur is applied. However, having tested this today, it would appear that Webkit based browsers still blur the text within any element with either blur(0) or blur(0px) assigned to it. I've knocked together a quick Fiddle here: http://jsfiddle.net/f9rBE/ These are three identical dixs containing text (no custom fonts): This has absolutely nothing assigned Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Aliquam facilisis orci in quam venenatis, in tempus ipsum sagittis. Suspendisse potenti. Donec ullamcorper lacus vel odio accumsan, vel aliquam libero tempor. Praesent nec libero venenatis, ultrices arcu non, luctus quam. Morbi scelerisque sit amet turpis sit amet tincidunt. Praesent semper erat non purus pretium consequat. Aenean et iaculis turpis. Curabitur diam tellus, consectetur non massa et, commodo venenatis metus. One has no styles at all assigned, the other two have blur(0) and blur(0px): .no-blur{} .zero-px-blur{ -webkit-filter: blur(0px); -moz-filter: blur(0px); -o-filter: blur(0px); -ms-filter: blur(0px); filter: blur(0px); } .zero-blur{ -webkit-filter: blur(0); -moz-filter: blur(0); -o-filter: blur(0); -ms-filter: blur(0); filter: blur(0); } If you preview this under Chrome/Safari you'll see that the text in the second two are still blurred: A few things worth noting: This unintentional blurring occurs in Safari on iOS7 devices (both iPhones and iPads); It also occurs on Chrome and Safari under OSX; It doesn't happen under FireFox in OSX. Of course, this isn't supported at all in Firefox just yet so it's hard to tell whether the behaviour I'm seeing is intentional/expected behaviour, or whether this is a bug in Webkit? Is it possible that this is only prevalent in higher-density resolution devices (ie: retina MacBook/iPhone/iPad)? With this in mind, how do you actually overwrite an item that has blur applied to it to set it back to non-blurred?

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• JNDI / Classpath problem in glassfish

  - by Michael Borgwardt

  I am in the process of converting a large J2EE app from EJB 2 to EJB 3 (all stateless session beans, using glassfish 2.1.1), and running out of ideas. The first EJB I converted (let's call it Foo) ran without major problems (it was the only one in its ejb-module and I could completely replace the deployment descriptor with annotations) and the app ran fine. But after converting the second one (let's call it Bar, one of several in a different ejb-module) there is a weird combination of problems: The app deploys without errors (nothing in the logs either) There is an error when looking up Bar via JNDI When looking at the JNDI tree in the glassfish admin console, Bar is not present at all. Then when I look at the logs, I see this (Foo is the correct name of the EJB's remote interface of the first converted, previously working EJB): Caused by: javax.naming.NamingException: ejb ref resolution error for remote business interface Foo [Root exception is java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: Foo] at com.sun.ejb.EJBUtils.lookupRemote30BusinessObject(EJBUtils.java:425) at com.sun.ejb.containers.RemoteBusinessObjectFactory.getObjectInstance(RemoteBusinessObjectFactory.java:74) at javax.naming.spi.NamingManager.getObjectInstance(NamingManager.java:304) at com.sun.enterprise.naming.SerialContext.lookup(SerialContext.java:414) at com.sun.enterprise.naming.SerialContext.list(SerialContext.java:603) at javax.naming.InitialContext.list(InitialContext.java:395) at com.sun.enterprise.admin.monitor.jndi.JndiMBeanHelper.getJndiEntriesByContextPath(JndiMBeanHelper.java:106) at com.sun.enterprise.admin.monitor.jndi.JndiMBeanImpl.getNames(JndiMBeanImpl.java:231) ... 68 more Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: XXX at org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.loadClass(WebappClassLoader.java:1578) at com.sun.ejb.EJBUtils.getBusinessIntfClassLoader(EJBUtils.java:679) at com.sun.ejb.EJBUtils.lookupRemote30BusinessObject(EJBUtils.java:348) ... 75 more This is followed by more exceptions for all the entries that (like Foo) do appear in the JNDI tree. These look like this: Caused by: javax.naming.NotContextException: BarHome cannot be listed at com.sun.enterprise.naming.SerialContext.list(SerialContext.java:607) at javax.naming.InitialContext.list(InitialContext.java:395) at com.sun.enterprise.admin.monitor.jndi.JndiMBeanHelper.getJndiEntriesByContextPath(JndiMBeanHelper.java:106) at com.sun.enterprise.admin.monitor.jndi.JndiMBeanImpl.getNames(JndiMBeanImpl.java:231) ... 68 more However, no exception for Bar, it does not appear in the log at all except one entry during deployment. The other EJBs in the same module do appear, as does Foo. Any ideas what could cause this or how to diagnose it further? The beans are pretty straightforward: @Stateless(name = "Foo") @RolesAllowed("FOOUSER") @TransactionAttribute(TransactionAttributeType.SUPPORTS) public class FooImpl extends BaseBean implements Foo { I'm also having some problems with the deployment descriptor for Bar (I'd like to eliminate it, but glassfish doesn't seem to like having a bean appear only in sun-ejb-jar.xml, or having some beans in a module declared in the descriptor and others use only annotations), but I can't see how that could cause the ClassNotFoundException on Foo. Is there a way to see the ClassPath that Glassfish is actually using?

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• IoC/DI in the face of winforms and other generated code

  - by Kaleb Pederson

  When using dependency injection (DI) and inversion of control (IoC) objects will typically have a constructor that accepts the set of dependencies required for the object to function properly. For example, if I have a form that requires a service to populate a combo box you might see something like this: // my files public interface IDataService { IList<MyData> GetData(); } public interface IComboDataService { IList<MyComboData> GetComboData(); } public partial class PopulatedForm : BaseForm { private IDataService service; public PopulatedForm(IDataService service) { //... InitializeComponent(); } } This works fine at the top level, I just use my IoC container to resolve the dependencies: var form = ioc.Resolve<PopulatedForm>(); But in the face of generated code, this gets harder. In winforms a second file composing the rest of the partial class is generated. This file references other components, such as custom controls, and uses no-args constructors to create such controls: // generated file: PopulatedForm.Designer.cs public partial class PopulatedForm { private void InitializeComponent() { this.customComboBox = new UserCreatedComboBox(); // customComboBox has an IComboDataService dependency } } Since this is generated code, I can't pass in the dependencies and there's no easy way to have my IoC container automatically inject all the dependencies. One solution is to pass in the dependencies of each child component to PopulatedForm even though it may not need them directly, such as with the IComboDataService required by the UserCreatedComboBox. I then have the responsibility to make sure that the dependencies are provided through various properties or setter methods. Then, my PopulatedForm constructor might look as follows: public PopulatedForm(IDataService service, IComboDataService comboDataService) { this.service = service; InitializeComponent(); this.customComboBox.ComboDataService = comboDataService; } Another possible solution is to have the no-args constructor to do the necessary resolution: public class UserCreatedComboBox { private IComboDataService comboDataService; public UserCreatedComboBox() { if (!DesignMode && IoC.Instance != null) { comboDataService = Ioc.Instance.Resolve<IComboDataService>(); } } } Neither solution is particularly good. What patterns and alternatives are available to more capably handle dependency-injection in the face of generated code? I'd love to see both general solutions, such as patterns, and ones specific to C#, Winforms, and Autofac.

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