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  • Coping with feelings of technical mediocrity

    - by Karim
    As I've progressed as a programmer, I noticed more nuance and areas I could study in depth. In part, I've come to think of myself from, at one point, a "guru" to now much less, even mediocre or inadequate. Is this normal, or is it a sign of a destructive excessive ambition? Background I started to program when I was still a kid, I had about 10 or 11 years. I really enjoy my work and never get bored from it. It's amazing how somebody could be paid for what he really likes to do and would be doing it anyway even for free. When I first started to program, I was feeling proud of what I was doing, each application I built was for me a success and after 2-3 year I had a feeling that I'm a coding guru. It was a nice feeling. ;-) But the more I was in the field and the more types of software I started to develop, I was starting to have a feeling that I'm completely wrong in thinking I'm a guru. I felt that I'm not even a mediocre developer. Each new field I start to work on is giving me this feeling. Like when I once developed a device driver for a client, I saw how much I need to learn about device drivers. When I developed a video filter for an application, I saw how much do I still need to learn about DirectShow, Color Spaces, and all the theory behind that. The worst thing was when I started to learn algorithms. It was several years ago. I knew then the basic structures and algorithms like the sorting, some types of trees, some hashtables, strings, etc. and when I really wanted to learn a group of structures I learned about 5-6 new types and saw that in fact even this small group has several hundred subtypes of structures. It's depressing how little time people have in their lives to learn all this stuff. I'm now a software developer with about 10 years of experience and I still feel that I'm not a proficient developer when I think about things that others do in the industry.

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  • Android browser touch events stop display being updated inc. canvas/elements - How to work around?

    - by Ed Kirk
    On some android's native browser touching the page seems to stop the display from being updated until the finger is released. This occurs for both html element based animation (switching classes) and for canvas based animation. It does not however stop normal js execution and other events are fired as normal. On devices with this problem the dolphin browser also seems effected (not firefox though). Touchstart/move both have preventDefault() fired as well as stopPropergation(), cancelBubble = true; and e.returnValue = false;. In the CSS webkit selection has also been disabled. The page will not scroll. A similar question has been asked here: Does Android browser lock DOM on touchStart? but I'd like to find out if this behaviour can be overcome, or at least to discover what devices will be effected by the problem, is it a device or version android issue? If you cannot answer the question running the demo and reporting your experience along with your device model and useragent (displayed at bottom of demo page) as a comment might help others or myself answer the question. Here is a demo and steps to reproduce the behaviour. A QR code for the link can be found here https://s3-eu-west-1.amazonaws.com/canvas-test-pd/tmp.png. https://s3-eu-west-1.amazonaws.com/canvas-test-pd/index.html The web page has a canvas at the top and a div with a background image at the bottom. Every second the canvas is cleared and a different image displayed and the div has it's class switched (both toggle between 0 and 1 pngs). Once this has toggled a few times place your finger on the canvas (the top grey box) and hold it there. Wait to see if the animation continues (sometimes it will once or twice then stops) and if there are any visual distortions. Update It seems that the Galaxy Tab running 3.2 requires handlers for touchstart/end of document, not just required divs for the screen to continue updating the display. Thanks jimpic. I'm starting to believe it's an issue caused by manufacturers skins, although this is difficult to prove.

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  • Problem persisting inheritance tree

    - by alaiseca
    I have a problem trying to map an inheritance tree. A simplified version of my model is like this: @MappedSuperclass @Embeddable public class BaseEmbedded implements Serializable { @Column(name="BE_FIELD") private String beField; // Getters and setters follow } @MappedSuperclass @Embeddable public class DerivedEmbedded extends BaseEmbedded { @Column(name="DE_FIELD") private String deField; // Getters and setters follow } @MappedSuperclass public abstract class BaseClass implements Serializable { @Embedded protected BaseEmbedded embedded; public BaseClass() { this.embedded = new BaseEmbedded(); } // Getters and setters follow } @Entity @Table(name="MYTABLE") @Inheritance(strategy=InheritanceType.SINGLE_TABLE) @DiscriminatorColumn(name="TYPE", discriminatorType=DiscriminatorType.STRING) public class DerivedClass extends BaseClass { @Id @Column(name="ID", nullable=false) private Long id; @Column(name="TYPE", nullable=false, insertable=false, updatable=false) private String type; public DerivedClass() { this.embedded = new DerivedClass(); } // Getters and setters follow } @Entity @DiscriminatorValue("A") public class DerivedClassA extends DerivedClass { @Embeddable public static NestedClassA extends DerivedEmbedded { @Column(name="FIELD_CLASS_A") private String fieldClassA; } public DerivedClassA() { this.embedded = new NestedClassA(); } // Getters and setters follow } @Entity @DiscriminatorValue("B") public class DerivedClassB extends DerivedClass { @Embeddable public static NestedClassB extends DerivedEmbedded { @Column(name="FIELD_CLASS_B") private String fieldClassB; } public DerivedClassB() { this.embedded = new NestedClassB(); } // Getters and setters follow } At Java level, this model is working fine, and I believe is the appropriate one. My problem comes up when it's time to persist an object. At runtime, I can create an object which could be an instance of DerivedClass, DerivedClassA or DerivedClassB. As you can see, each one of the derived classes introduces a new field which only makes sense for that specific derived class. All the classes share the same physical table in the database. If I persist an object of type DerivedClass, I expect fields BE_FIELD, DE_FIELD, ID and TYPE to be persisted with their values and the remaining fields to be null. If I persist an object of type DerivedClass A, I expect those same fields plus the FIELD_CLASS_A field to be persisted with their values and field FIELD_CLASS_B to be null. Something equivalent for an object of type DerivedClassB. Since the @Embedded annotation is at the BaseClass only, Hibernate is only persisting the fields up to that level in the tree. I don't know how to tell Hibernate that I want to persist up to the appropriate level in the tree, depending on the actual type of the embedded property. I cannot have another @Embedded property in the subclasses since this would duplicate data that is already present in the superclass and would also break the Java model. I cannot declare the embedded property to be of a more specific type either, since it's only at runtime when the actual object is created and I don't have a single branch in the hierarchy. Is it possible to solve my problem? Or should I resignate myself to accept that there is no way to persist the Java model as it is? Any help will be greatly appreciated.

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  • In R, how do you get the best fitting equation to a set of data?

    - by Matherion
    I'm not sure wether R can do this (I assume it can, but maybe that's just because I tend to assume that R can do anything :-)). What I need is to find the best fitting equation to describe a dataset. For example, if you have these points: df = data.frame(x = c(1, 5, 10, 25, 50, 100), y = c(100, 75, 50, 40, 30, 25)) How do you get the best fitting equation? I know that you can get the best fitting curve with: plot(loess(df$y ~ df$x)) But as I understood you can't extract the equation, see Loess Fit and Resulting Equation. When I try to build it myself (note, I'm not a mathematician, so this is probably not the ideal approach :-)), I end up with smth like: y.predicted = 12.71 + ( 95 / (( (1 + df$x) ^ .5 ) / 1.3)) Which kind of seems to approximate it - but I can't help to think that smth more elegant probably exists :-) I have the feeling that fitting a linear or polynomial model also wouldn't work, because the formula seems different from what those models generally use (i.e. this one seems to need divisions, powers, etc). For example, the approach in Fitting polynomial model to data in R gives pretty bad approximations. I remember from a long time ago that there exist languages (Matlab may be one of them?) that do this kind of stuff. Can R do this as well, or am I just at the wrong place? (Background info: basically, what we need to do is find an equation for determining numbers in the second column based on the numbers in the first column; but we decide the numbers ourselves. We have an idea of how we want the curve to look like, but we can adjust these numbers to an equation if we get a better fit. It's about the pricing for a product (a cheaper alternative to current expensive software for qualitative data analysis); the more 'project credits' you buy, the cheaper it should become. Rather than forcing people to buy a given number (i.e. 5 or 10 or 25), it would be nicer to have a formula so people can buy exactly what they need - but of course this requires a formula. We have an idea for some prices we think are ok, but now we need to translate this into an equation.

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  • Call PHP Function in jQuery (var)

    - by l3gion
    Hello, I'm facing a small problem that I can't solve by myself. I have this php function: function intervalo_manha(){ $que="select id_intervalo,data_15 from intervalo_manha order by id_intervalo"; $re=mysql_query($que); $object.="<select>"; $object.="<option></option>"; while(list($id_intervalo, $data_15)=mysql_fetch_row($re)) { $object.= "<option value=\"".$id_intervalo."\">".$data_15."</option>"; } $object.="</select>"; return $object; } This function return a select with information from database. I also have this js function: $(document).ready(function() { var destTable = $("#dataTable"); $("#btnAdd").click(function() { var newRow = $("<tr style='margin-left:-60px'><td><INPUT type='checkbox' name='chk'/></td><td><INPUT type='text' name='txt[]' id='txt'/></td><td></td></tr>"); $("#dataTable").append(newRow); newRow.find('input').autocomplete("get_cols_name.php", { width: 260, matchContains: true, selectFirst: false }); }); }); This one will add a new row to my table, and for each new input will "activate" autocomplete. What I want to do is, instead of this: var newRow = $("<tr style='margin-left:-60px'><td><INPUT type='checkbox' name='chk'/></td><td><INPUT type='text' name='txt[]' id='txt'/></td><td></td></tr>"); I would like to have something like this: var newRow = $("<tr style='margin-left:-60px'><td><INPUT type='checkbox' name='chk'/></td><td><INPUT type='text' name='txt[]' id='txt'/></td><td><?php echo intervalo_manha(); ?></td></tr>"); Calling php function directly will return nothing, and I can't do anything. Is there any way to accomplish this? Thank you

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  • Robust way to save/load objects with dependencies?

    - by mrteacup
    I'm writing an Android game in Java and I need a robust way to save and load application state quickly. The question seems to apply to most OO languages. To understand what I need to save: I'm using a Strategy pattern to control my game entities. The idea is I have a very general Entity class which e.g. stores the location of a bullet/player/enemy and I then attach a Behaviour class that tells the entity how to act: class Entiy { float x; float y; Behavior b; } abstract class Behavior { void update(Entity e); {} // Move about at a constant speed class MoveBehavior extends Behavior { float speed; void update ... } // Chase after another entity class ChaseBehavior extends Behavior { Entity target; void update ... } // Perform two behaviours in sequence class CombineBehavior extends Behavior { Behaviour a, b; void update ... } Essentially, Entity objects are easy to save but Behaviour objects can have a semi-complex graph of dependencies between other Entity objects and other Behaviour objects. I also have cases where a Behaviour object is shared between entities. I'm willing to change my design to make saving/loading state easier, but the above design works really well for structuring the game. Anyway, the options I've considered are: Use Java serialization. This is meant to be really slow in Android (I'll profile it sometime). I'm worried about robustness when changes are made between versions however. Use something like JSON or XML. I'm not sure how I would cope with storing the dependencies between objects however. Would I have to give each object a unique ID and then use these IDs on loading to link the right objects together? I thought I could e.g. change the ChaseBehaviour to store a ID to an entity, instead of a reference, that would be used to look up the Entity before performing the behaviour. I'd rather avoid having to write lots of loading/saving code myself as I find it really easy to make mistakes (e.g. forgetting to save something, reading things out in the wrong order). Can anyone give me any tips on good formats to save to or class designs that make saving state easier?

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  • Having trouble understanding some code (Ruby on Rails)

    - by user284194
    I posted a question awhile ago asking how I could limit the rate at which a form could be submitted from a rails application. I was helped by a very patient user and their solution works great. The code was for my comments controller, and now I find myself wanting to add this functionality to another controller, my Messages controller. I immediately tried reusing the working code from the comments controller but I couldn't get it to work. Instead of asking for the working code, could someone please help me understand my working comment controller code? class CommentsController < ApplicationController #... before_filter :post_check def record_post_time cookies[:last_post_at] = Time.now.to_i end def last_post_time Time.at((cookies[:last_post_at].to_i rescue 0)) end MIN_POST_TIME = 2.minutes def post_check return true if (Time.now - last_post_time) > MIN_POST_TIME flash[:warning] = "You are trying to reply too fast." @message = Message.find(params[:message_id]) redirect_to(@message) return false end #... def create @message = Message.find(params[:message_id]) @comment = @message.comments.build(params[:comment]) if @comment.save record_post_time flash[:notice] = "Replied to \"#{@message.title}\"" redirect_to(@message) else render :action => "new" end end def update @message = Message.find(params[:message_id]) @comment = Comment.find(params[:id]) if @comment.update_attributes(params[:comment]) record_post_time redirect_to post_comment_url(@message, @comment) else render :action => "edit" end end #... end My Messages controller is pretty much a standard rails generated controller with a few before filters and associated private methods for DRYing up the code and a redirect for non existent pages. I'll explain how much of the code I understand. When a comment is created, a cookie is created with a last_post_time value. If they try to post another comment, the cookie is checked if the last one was made in the last two minutes. If it was a flash warning is displayed and no comment is recorded. What I don't really understand is how the post_check method works and how I can adapt it for my simpler posts controller. I thought I could reuse all the code in the message controller with the exception of the line: @message = Message.find(params[:message_id]) # (don't need the redirect code) in the post_check method. But it trips up on the "record_post_time" in the create action/method. I really want to understand this. Can someone explain why this doesn't work? I greatly appreciate you reading my lengthy question.

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  • Are there compelling reasons not to use Groovy?

    - by Leonard H Martin
    I'm developing a LoB application in Java after a long absence from the platform (having spent the last 8 years or so entrenched in Fortran, C, a smidgin of C++ and latterly .Net). Java, the language, is not much changed from how I remember it. I like it's strengths and I can work around its weaknesses - the platform has grown and deciding upon the myriad of different frameworks which appear to do much the same thing as one another is a different story; but that can wait for another day - all-in-all I'm comfortable with Java. However, over the last couple of weeks I've become enamoured with Groovy, and purely from a selfish point of view: but not just because it makes development against the JVM a more succinct and entertaining (and, well, "groovy") proposition than Java (the language). What strikes me most about Groovy is its inherent maintainability. We all (I hope!) strive to write well documented, easy to understand code. However, sometimes the languages we use themselves defeat us. An example: in 2001 I wrote a library in C to translate EDIFACT EDI messages into ANSI X12 messages. This is not a particularly complicated process, if slightly involved, and I thought at the time I had documented the code properly - and I probably had - but some six years later when I revisited the project (and after becoming acclimatised to C#) I found myself lost in so much C boilerplate (mallocs, pointers, etc. etc.) that it took three days of thoughtful analysis before I finally understood what I'd been doing six years previously. This evening I've written about 2000 lines of Java (it is the day of rest, after all!). I've documented as best as I know how, but, but, of those 2000 lines of Java a significant proportion is Java boiler plate. This is where I see Groovy and other dynamic languages winning through - maintainability and later comprehension. Groovy lets you concentrate on your intent without getting bogged down on the platform specific implementation; it's almost, but not quite, self documenting. I see this as being a huge boon to me when I revisit my current project (which I'll port to Groovy asap) in several years time and to my successors who will inherit it and carry on the good work. So, are there any reasons not to use Groovy?

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  • Sort a list of pointers.

    - by YuppieNetworking
    Hello all, Once again I find myself failing at some really simple task in C++. Sometimes I wish I could de-learn all I know from OO in java, since my problems usually start by thinking like Java. Anyways, I have a std::list<BaseObject*> that I want to sort. Let's say that BaseObject is: class BaseObject { protected: int id; public: BaseObject(int i) : id(i) {}; virtual ~BaseObject() {}; }; I can sort the list of pointer to BaseObject with a comparator struct: struct Comparator { bool operator()(const BaseObject* o1, const BaseObject* o2) const { return o1->id < o2->id; } }; And it would look like this: std::list<BaseObject*> mylist; mylist.push_back(new BaseObject(1)); mylist.push_back(new BaseObject(2)); // ... mylist.sort(Comparator()); // intentionally omitted deletes and exception handling Until here, everything is a-ok. However, I introduced some derived classes: class Child : public BaseObject { protected: int var; public: Child(int id1, int n) : BaseObject(id1), var(n) {}; virtual ~Child() {}; }; class GrandChild : public Child { public: GrandChild(int id1, int n) : Child(id1,n) {}; virtual ~GrandChild() {}; }; So now I would like to sort following the following rules: For any Child object c and BaseObject b, b<c To compare BaseObject objects, use its ids, as before. To compare Child objects, compare its vars. If they are equal, fallback to rule 2. GrandChild objects should fallback to the Child behavior (rule 3). I initially thought that I could probably do some casts in Comparator. However, this casts away constness. Then I thought that probably I could compare typeids, but then everything looked messy and it is not even correct. How could I implement this sort, still using list<BaseObject*>::sort ? Thank you

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  • .htaccess mod_rewrite URL query

    - by 1001001
    I was hoping someone could help me out. I'm building a CRM application and need help modifying the .htaccess file to clean up the URLs. I've read every post regarding .htaccess and mod_rewrite and I've even tried using http://www.generateit.net/mod-rewrite/ to obtain the results with no success. Here is what I am attempting to do. Let's call the base URL www.domain.com We are using php with a mysql back-end and some jQuery and javascript In that "root" folder is my .htaccess file. I'm not sure if I need a .htaccess file in each subdirectory or if one in the root is enough. We have several actual directories of files including "crm", "sales", "finance", etc. First off we want to strip off all the ".php" extensions which I am able to do myself thanks to these posts. However, the querying of the company and contact IDs are where I am stuck. Right now if I load www.domain.com/crm/companies.php it displays all the companies in a list. If I click on one of the companies it uses javascript to call a "goto_company(x)" jQuery script that writes a form and submit that form based on the ID (x) of the company. This works fine and keeps the links clean as all the end user sees is www.domain.com/crm/company.php. However you can't navigate directly to a company. So we added a few lines in PHP to see if the POST is null and try a GET instead allowing us to do www.domain.com/crm/company.php?companyID=40 which displays company #40 out of the database. I need to rewrite this link, and all other associated links to www.domain.com/crm/company/40 I've tried everything and nothing seems to work. Keep in mind that I need to do this for "contacts" and also on the sales portion of the app will need to do something for "deals". To summarize here's what I am looking to do: Change www.domain.com/crm/dash.php to www.domain.com/crm/dash Change www.domain.com/crm/company.php?companyID=40 to www.domain.com/crm/company/40 Change www.domain.com/crm/contact.php?contactID=27 to www.domain.com/crm/contact/27 Change www.domain.com/sales/dash.php to www.domain.com/sales/dash Change www.domain.com/sales/deal.php?dealID=6 to www.domain.com/sales/deal/6 (40, 27, and 6 are just arbitrary numbers as examples) Just for reference, when I used the generateit.net/mod-rewrite site using www.domain.com/crm/company.php?companyID=40 as an example, here is what it told me to put in my .htaccess file: Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^crm/company/([^/]*)$ /crm/company.php?companyID=$1 [L] Needless to say that didn't work.

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  • How do I make a GUI that behaves like this?

    - by Karl Knechtel
    This is difficult to explain without illustration, so - behold, an illustration, cobbled together from screenshots of a few hello-world examples and a lot of Paint work: I have started out using Windows Forms on .NET (via IronPython, but that shouldn't be important), and haven't been able to figure out very much. GUI libraries in general are very intimidating, simply because every class has so many possible attributes. Documentation is good at explaining what everything does, but not so good at helping you figure out what you need. I will be assembling the GUI dynamically, but I'm not expecting that to be the hard part. The sticking points for me right now are: How do I get text labels to size themselves automatically to the width of the contained text (so that the text doesn't clip, and I also don't reserve unnecessary space for them when resizing the window)? How do I make the vertical scrollbar always appear? Setting the VScroll property (why is this protected when AutoScroll is public, BTW?) doesn't seem to do anything. How come the horizontal scrollbar is not added by AutoScroll when contents are laid out vertically (via Dock = DockStyle.Top)? I can use a minimum size for panels to prevent the label and corresponding control from overlapping when the window is shrunk horizontally, but then the scrollbar doesn't appear and the control is inaccessible. How can I put limits on window resizing (e.g. set a minimum width) without disabling it completely? (Just set minimum/maximum sizes for the Form?) Related to that, is there any way to set minimum/maximum widths or heights without setting a minimum/maximum size (i.e. can I constrain the size in only one dimension)? Is there a built-in control suitable for hex editing or am I going to have to build something myself? ... And should I be using something else (perhaps something more capable?) I've heard WPF mentioned, but I understand that this involves XML and I really want to build a GUI from XML - I already have data in an object graph, and doing some kind of weird XML pseudo-serialization (in Python, no less!) in order to create a GUI seems incredibly roundabout.

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  • Benchmark of Java Try/Catch Block

    - by hectorg87
    I know that going into a catch block has some significance cost when executing a program, however, I was wondering if entering a try{} block also had any impact so I started looking for an answer in google with many opinions, but no benchmarking at all. Some answers I found were: Java try/catch performance, is it recommended to keep what is inside the try clause to a minimum? Try Catch Performance Java Java try catch blocks However they didn't answer my question with facts, so I decided to try it for myself. Here's what I did. I have a csv file with this format: host;ip;number;date;status;email;uid;name;lastname;promo_code; where everything after status is optional and will not even have the corresponding ; , so when parsing a validation has to be done to see if the value is there, here's where the try/catch issue came to my mind. The current code that in inherited in my company does this: StringTokenizer st=new StringTokenizer(line,";"); String host = st.nextToken(); String ip = st.nextToken(); String number = st.nextToken(); String date = st.nextToken(); String status = st.nextToken(); String email = ""; try{ email = st.nextToken(); }catch(NoSuchElementException e){ email = ""; } and it repeats what it's done for email with uid, name, lastname and promo_code. and I changed everything to: if(st.hasMoreTokens()){ email = st.nextToken(); } and in fact it performs faster. When parsing a file that doesn't have the optional columns. Here are the average times: --- Trying:122 milliseconds --- Checking:33 milliseconds however, here's what confused me and the reason I'm asking: When running the example with values for the optional columns in all 8000 lines of the CSV, the if() version still performs better than the try/catch version, so my question is Does really the try block does not have any performance impact on my code? The average times for this example are: --- Trying:105 milliseconds --- Checking:43 milliseconds Can somebody explain what's going on here? Thanks a lot

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  • javascript multidimensional array?

    - by megapool020
    Hi there, I hope I can make myself clear in English and in what I want to create. I first start with what I want. I want to make a IBANcalculator that can generate 1-n IBANnumbers and also validate a given IBANnumber. IBANnumbers are used in many countries for payment and the tool I want to make can be used to generate the numbers for testing purpose. On wikipedia (Dutch site) I found a list with countries and their way of defining the IBANnumber. What I want to do it to make a kind of an array that holds all the countries with their name, the code, there IBANlength, the bankingformat and the account format. The array needs to be used to: Generate a select list (for selecting a country) used to check part for generating numbers used to check part for validating number I don't know if an array is the best way, but that's so far the most knowledge I have. I allready made a table like this that holds the info (this table isn't used anyware, but it was a good way for me to show you what I have in mind about how the structure is): <table> <tr> <td>countryname</td> <td>country code</td> <td>valid IBAN length</td> <td>Bank/Branch Code (check1, bank, branch)</td> <td>Account Number (check2, number, check3)</td> <tr> <tr> <td>Andorra</td> <td>AD</td> <td>24</td> <td>0 4n 4n</td> <td>0 12 0 </td> <tr> <tr> <td>België</td> <td>BE</td> <td>16</td> <td>0 3n 0 </td> <td>0 7n 2n</td> <tr> <tr> <td>Bosnië-Herzegovina</td> <td>BA</td> <td>20</td> <td>0 3n 3n</td> <td>0 8n 2n</td> <tr> </table> and many more ;-) I hope someone can help me with this. Tnx in advance

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  • Architectural Design for a Data-Driven Silverlight WP7 app

    - by Rosarch
    I have a Silverlight Windows Phone 7 app that pulls data from a public API. I find myself doing much of the same thing over and over again: In the UI, set a loading message or loading progress bar in place of where the content is Get the content, which may be already in memory, cached in isolated file storage, or require an HTTP request If the content can not be acquired (no network connection, etc), display an error message If the content is acquired, display it in the UI Keep the content in main memory for subsequent queries The content that is displayed to the user can be taken directly from a data source, such as an ObservableCollection, or it may be a query on a data source. I would like to factor out this repetitive process into a framework where ideally only the following needs to be specified: Where to display the content in the UI The UI elements to show while loading, on failure, and on success The URI of the HTTP request How to parse the HTTP response into the data structure that will kept in memory The location of the file in isolated storage, if it exists How to parse the file contents into the data structure that will be kept in memory It may sound like a lot, but two strings, three FrameworkElements, and two methods is less than the overhead that I currently have. Also, this needs to work for however the data is maintained in memory, and needs to work for direct collections and queries on those collections. My questions are: Has something like this already been implemented? Are my thoughts about the topic above fundamentally wrong in some way? Here is a design I'm thinking of: There are two components, a View and a Model. The View is given the FrameworkElements for loading, failure, and success. It is also given a reference to the corresponding Model. The View is a UserControl that is placed somewhere in the UI. The Model a class that is given the URI for the data, a method of how to parse the data, and optionally a filename and how to parse the file. It is responsible for retrieving the data and notifying the View whenever the current status (loading/fail/success) changes. If the data downloaded from the network is different from the cache, the network data takes precedence. When the app closes or is tombstoned, the model writes the data to the cache. How does that sound?

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  • WPF PathGeometry/RotateTransform optimization

    - by devinb
    I am having performance issues when rendering/rotating WPF triangles If I had a WPF triangle being displayed and it will be rotated to some degree around a centrepoint, I can do it one of two ways: Programatically determine the points and their offset in the backend, use XAML to simply place them on the canvas where they belong, it would look like this: <Path Stroke="Black"> <Path.Data> <PathGeometry> <PathFigure StartPoint ="{Binding CalculatedPointA, Mode=OneWay}"> <LineSegment Point="{Binding CalculatedPointB, Mode=OneWay}" /> <LineSegment Point="{Binding CalculatedPointC, Mode=OneWay}" /> <LineSegment Point="{Binding CalculatedPointA, Mode=OneWay}" /> </PathFigure> </PathGeometry> </Path.Data> </Path> Generate the 'same' triangle every time, and then use a RenderTransform (Rotate) to put it where it belongs. In this case, the rotation calculations are being obfuscated, because I don't have any access to how they are being done. <Path Stroke="Black"> <Path.Data> <PathGeometry> <PathFigure StartPoint ="{Binding TriPointA, Mode=OneWay}"> <LineSegment Point="{Binding TriPointB, Mode=OneWay}" /> <LineSegment Point="{Binding TriPointC, Mode=OneWay}" /> <LineSegment Point="{Binding TriPointA, Mode=OneWay}" /> </PathFigure> </PathGeometry> </Path.Data> <Path.RenderTransform> <RotateTransform CenterX="{Binding Centre.X, Mode=OneWay}" CenterY="{Binding Centre.Y, Mode=OneWay}" Angle="{Binding Orientation, Mode=OneWay}" /> </Path.RenderTransform> </Path> My question is which one is faster? I know I should test it myself but how do I measure the render time of objects with such granularity. I would need to be able to time how long the actual rendering time is for the form, but since I'm not the one that's kicking off the redraw, I don't know how to capture the start time.

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  • Calling a JAVA method from C++ with JNI, no parameters

    - by PRNDL Development Studios
    Please bear with me, I am an iPhone developer and this whole android this confuses me a bit. I have some c++ methods that are called from a cocos2d-x CCMenuItem. Therefore I cannot send any parameters, according to the docs. I need to open a url with the android browser which will require me to call a JAVA function to start a new intent. I understand that I need to create a VM, however the below code gives me the error: jni/../../Classes/MyClass.cpp:184: error: 'JNI_CreateJavaVM' was not declared in this scope I was looking at this thread: Calling a java method from c++ in Android But he uses parameters, and I can't do that. And I don't see where those are in his code to just make them myself. I don't know what the string should be in the 'Find Class' method. Also, I assume it is pretty terrible to create a new VM instance in every method I need to call. How would I create one as a singleton to use across the board? This is my c++ code called by my menu item: #include <jni.h> ... JavaVM *vm; // Global ... void OptionsScene::website(){ JNIEnv *env; JavaVMInitArgs vm_args; vm_args.version = JNI_VERSION_1_2; vm_args.nOptions = 0; vm_args.ignoreUnrecognized = 1; jint result = JNI_CreateJavaVM(&vm, (void **)&env, &vm_args); // This line still errors jclass clazz = env->FindClass("com/prndl/project/WebExecute"); jmethodID method = env->GetMethodID(clazz, "website", "(Ljava/lang/String;)V"); env->CallVoidMethod(NULL,method); vm->DestroyJavaVM(); And this is the JAVA Method that I need to call: public class WebExecute extends Activity{ public void website(){ Intent browserIntent = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_VIEW, Uri.parse("http://www.google.com")); startActivity(browserIntent); } } Honestly, I am struggling with this, any help is appreciated. Thanks.

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  • How to close all, or only some, tabs in Safari using AppleScript?

    - by Form
    I have made a very simple AppleScript to close all tabs in Safari. The problem is, it works, but not completely. The problem is that only a couple of tabs are closed. Here's the code: tell application "Safari" repeat with aWindow in windows repeat with aTab in tabs of aWindow if [some condition is encountered] then aTab close end if end repeat end repeat end tell I've also tried this script: tell application "Safari" repeat with i from 0 to the number of items in windows set aWindow to item i of windows repeat with j from 0 to the number of tabs in aWindow set aTab to item j of tabs of aWindow if [some condition is encountered] then aTab close end if end repeat end repeat end tell ... but it does not work either (same behavior). I tried that on my system (MacBook Pro jan 2008), as well as on a Mac Pro G5 under Tiger and the script fails on both, albeit with a much less descriptive error on Tiger. Running the script a few times closes a few tab each time until none is left, but always fails with the same error after closing a few tabs. Under Leopard I get an out of bounds error. Since I am using fast enumeration (not using "repeat from 0 to number of items in windows") I don't see how I can get an out of bounds error with this... My goal is to use the Cocoa Scripting Bridge to close tabs in Safari from my Objective-C Cocoa application but the Scripting Bridge fails in the same manner. The non-deletable tabs show as NULL in the Xcode debugger, while the other tabs are valid objects from which I can get values back (such as their title). In fact I tried with the Scripting Bridge first then told myself why not try this directly in AppleScript and I was surprised to see the same results. I must have a glaring omission or something in there... (seems like a bug in Safari AppleScript support to me... :S) I've used repeat loops and Obj-C 2.0 fast enumeration to iterate through collections before with zero problems, so I really don't see what's wrong here. Anyone can help? Thanks in advance!

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  • Comments Parent-Child query with indentation

    - by poldoj
    I've been trying to retrieve comments to articles in a pretty common blog fashion way. Here's my sample code: -- ---------------------------- -- Sample Table structure for [dbo].[Comments] -- ---------------------------- CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Comments] ( [CommentID] int NOT NULL , [AddedDate] datetime NOT NULL , [AddedBy] nvarchar(256) NOT NULL , [ArticleID] int NOT NULL , [Body] nvarchar(4000) NOT NULL , [parentCommentID] int NULL ) GO -- ---------------------------- -- Sample Records of Comments -- ---------------------------- INSERT INTO [dbo].[Comments] ([CommentID], [AddedDate], [AddedBy], [ArticleID], [Body], [parentCommentID]) VALUES (N'1', N'2011-11-26 23:18:07.000', N'user', N'1', N'body', null); GO INSERT INTO [dbo].[Comments] ([CommentID], [AddedDate], [AddedBy], [ArticleID], [Body], [parentCommentID]) VALUES (N'2', N'2011-11-26 23:18:50.000', N'user', N'2', N'body', null); GO INSERT INTO [dbo].[Comments] ([CommentID], [AddedDate], [AddedBy], [ArticleID], [Body], [parentCommentID]) VALUES (N'3', N'2011-11-26 23:19:09.000', N'user', N'1', N'body', null); GO INSERT INTO [dbo].[Comments] ([CommentID], [AddedDate], [AddedBy], [ArticleID], [Body], [parentCommentID]) VALUES (N'4', N'2011-11-26 23:19:46.000', N'user', N'3', N'body', null); GO INSERT INTO [dbo].[Comments] ([CommentID], [AddedDate], [AddedBy], [ArticleID], [Body], [parentCommentID]) VALUES (N'5', N'2011-11-26 23:20:16.000', N'user', N'1', N'body', N'1'); GO INSERT INTO [dbo].[Comments] ([CommentID], [AddedDate], [AddedBy], [ArticleID], [Body], [parentCommentID]) VALUES (N'6', N'2011-11-26 23:20:42.000', N'user', N'1', N'body', N'1'); GO INSERT INTO [dbo].[Comments] ([CommentID], [AddedDate], [AddedBy], [ArticleID], [Body], [parentCommentID]) VALUES (N'7', N'2011-11-26 23:21:25.000', N'user', N'1', N'body', N'6'); GO -- ---------------------------- -- Indexes structure for table Comments -- ---------------------------- -- ---------------------------- -- Primary Key structure for table [dbo].[Comments] -- ---------------------------- ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Comments] ADD PRIMARY KEY ([CommentID]) GO -- ---------------------------- -- Foreign Key structure for table [dbo].[Comments] -- ---------------------------- ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Comments] ADD FOREIGN KEY ([parentCommentID]) REFERENCES [dbo]. [Comments] ([CommentID]) ON DELETE NO ACTION ON UPDATE NO ACTION GO I thought I could use a CTE query to do the job like this: WITH CommentsCTE(CommentID, AddedDate, AddedBy, ArticleID, Body, parentCommentID, lvl, sortcol) AS ( SELECT CommentID, AddedDate, AddedBy, ArticleID, Body, parentCommentID, 0, cast(CommentID as varbinary(max)) FROM Comments UNION ALL SELECT P.CommentID, P.AddedDate, P.AddedBy, P.ArticleID, P.Body, P.parentCommentID, PP.lvl+1, CAST(sortcol + CAST(P.CommentID AS BINARY(4)) AS VARBINARY(max)) FROM Comments AS P JOIN CommentsCTE AS PP ON P.parentCommentID = PP.CommentID ) SELECT REPLICATE('--', lvl) + right('>',lvl)+ AddedBy + ' :: ' + Body, CommentID, parentCommentID, lvl FROM CommentsCTE WHERE ArticleID = 1 order by sortcol go but the results have been very disappointing so far, and after days of tweaking I decided to ask for help. I was looking for a method to display hierarchical comments to articles like it happens in blogs. [edit] The problem with this query is that I get duplicates because I couldn't figure out how to properly select the ArticleID which I want comments from to display. I'm also looking for a method that sorts children entries by date within a same level. An example of what I'm trying to accomplish could be something like: (ArticleID[post retrieved]) ------------------------- ------------------------- (Comments[related to the article id above]) first comment[no parent] --[first child to first comment] --[second child to first comment] ----[first child to second child comment to first comment] --[third child to first comment] ----[first child to third child comment to first comment] ------[(recursive child): first child to first child to third child comment to first comment] ------[(recursive child): second child to first child to third child comment to first comment] second comment[no parent] third comment[no parent] --[first child to third comment] I kinda got myself lost in all this mess...I appreciate any help or simpler ways to get this working. Thanks

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  • How to access the map returned by IParameterValues::getParameterValues()?

    - by Hua
    I declared a command and a commandParameter for this command. I specified the "values" of this commandParameter as a class implemented by myself. The implementation of this class is below, public class ParameterValues implements IParameterValues { @Override public Map<String, Double> getParameterValues() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub Map<String, Double> values = new HashMap<String, Double>(2); values.put("testParam", 1.1239); values.put("AnotherTest", 4.1239); return values; } } The implementation of the handler of this command is blow, public class testHandler extends AbstractHandler implements IHandler { private static String PARAMETER_ID = "my.parameter1"; @Override public Object execute(ExecutionEvent event) throws ExecutionException { String value = event.getParameter(PARAMETER_ID); MessageDialog.openInformation(HandlerUtil.getActiveShell(event), "Test", "Parameter ID: " + PARAMETER_ID + "\nValue: " + value); return null; } } Now, I contribute the command to a menu, <menuContribution locationURI="menu:org.eclipse.ui.main.menu"> <menu id="my.edit" label="Edit"> <command commandId="myCommand.test" label="Test1"> <parameter name="my.parameter1" value="testParam"> </parameter> </command> Since I specified a "values" class for the commandParater, I expect when the menu is clicked, this code line "String value = event.getParameter(PARAMETER_ID);" in the handler class returns 1.1239 instead of "testParam". But, I still see that code line returns "testParam". What's the problem? How could I access the map returned by getParameterValues()? By the way, following menu declaration still works even I don't define "ppp" in the map. <menuContribution locationURI="menu:org.eclipse.ui.main.menu"> <menu id="my.edit" label="Edit"> <command commandId="myCommand.test" label="Test1"> <parameter name="my.parameter1" value="ppp"> </parameter> </command> Thanks!

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  • Unfortunately App stopped when destroying SupportMapFragment

    - by user1408341
    I have the following problem. I have three fragments which are hosted in a TabHost. When I'm working with the app everything works fine. Now I like to end the app when the user hits the back button. Instead of terminating without errors I get the message Unfortunately App stopped. Then I said to myself something is wrong with the onDestroy() method of the FragmentActivity or with the onDestroyView method() of the Fragment. The problem is I cannot debug the point where the app crash. I get only the error:Fatal signal 11 (SIGSEGV). I then removed one by one each Fragment to identify which fragment causes the error. I could identify the fragment that I named BasicMapFragment. Something is wrong there. The code: public class BasicMapFragment extends SupportMapFragment implements LocationListener { @Override public View onCreateView(LayoutInflater inflater, ViewGroup container, Bundle savedInstanceState) { View view = super.onCreateView(inflater, container, savedInstanceState); //removeAllMarkers(); //setupGps(); //setupMap(); //setupMarkersFromModel(); //registerListeners(); return view; } } I commented out all my self written code to isolate the place where the error occurs. @Override public void onDestroy() { Log.d("ch.xxx.fragment.BasiceMapFragment", "On destroy called"); super.onDestroy(); } public void onDestroyView() { Log.d("ch.xxx.fragment.BasiceMapFragment", "On destroy view called"); super.onDestroyView(); } When I press the back button now the onDestroy() method of my FragmentActivity is first called like expected. Then the onDestroyView method is called on my BasicMapFragment class. At the end the onDestroy method is called - and then the application crash. Here is my layout file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <FrameLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" xmlns:tools="http://schemas.android.com/tools" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent"> <fragment android:id="@+id/map" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" class="com.google.android.gms.maps.SupportMapFragment"/> </FrameLayout> Resume: - Map is showed - I can work with the app. - When I leave out the BasicMapFragment the app finish without error. - When I add the BasicMapFragment the app returns an error when I press the back button Is there something that I have forgot to implement? Have somebody had the same trouble?

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  • How to add a title attribute to every option of an ASP.NET DropDownList

    - by zuallauz
    I'm working on an older ASP.NET project (not MVC I don't think) and one of the features they require is to view a description of an item when they hover over that item in a dropdown list. This can be simply done with HTML using the following code and making use of title text: <select> <option value="1" title="Option 1 Desc">Option 1</option> <option value="2" title="Option 2 Desc">Option 2</option> <option value="3" title="Option 3 Desc">Option 3</option> </select> Ok so how do I do this using ASP.NET DropDownList control? I have the following code: <asp:DropDownList ID="DropDownListLocation" runat="server" AutoPostBack="true" OnSelectedIndexChanged="DropDownListLocation_OnSelectedIndexChanged" CssClass="editorFieldServerControl" ClientIDMode="Static"></asp:DropDownList> And in the 'code behind' page: private void PopulateFacilityDropdown(List<FacilityAvailableByLocation> facilities, int? selectedID) { DropDownListFacility.DataSource = facilities; DropDownListFacility.DataTextField = "FacilityName"; DropDownListFacility.DataValueField = "FacilityID"; DropDownListFacility.DataBind(); DropDownListFacility.Items.Insert(0, new System.Web.UI.WebControls.ListItem("", "")); if (selectedID.HasValue && selectedID.Value > 0) DropDownListFacility.SelectedIndex = facilities.FindIndex(b => b.FacilityID == selectedID.Value); else DropDownListFacility.SelectedIndex = 0; } } Basically each facility in the list of facilities there has properties for an ID, Name, Description that I can get out. I just want to be able to put a title attribute on each <option> that gets rendered and put the description into it. Either that or be able to add a custom attribute like 'data-description' to each <option> tag then I can add the title into each option tag myself using a bit of jQuery which is easy enough. I miss the days where you could just loop through a list and output the custom dropdown code manually. Any ideas? Many thanks

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  • How can I obtain the IPv4 address of the client?

    - by Dr Dork
    Hello! I'm prepping for a simple work project and am trying to familiarize myself with the basics of socket programming in a Unix dev environment. At this point, I have some basic server side code setup to listen for incoming TCP connection requests from clients after the parent socket has been created and is set to listen... int sockfd, newfd; unsigned int len; socklen_t sin_size; char msg[]="Test message sent"; char buf[MAXLEN]; int st, rv; struct addrinfo hints, *serverinfo, *p; struct sockaddr_storage client; char ip[INET6_ADDRSTRLEN]; . . //parent socket creation and listen code omitted for simplicity . //wait for connection requests from clients while(1) { //Returns the socketID and address of client connecting to socket if( ( newfd = accept(sockfd, (struct sockaddr *)&client, &len) ) == -1 ){ perror("Accept"); exit(-1); } if( (rv = recv(newfd, buf, MAXLEN-1, 0 )) == -1) { perror("Recv"); exit(-1); } struct sockaddr_in *clientAddr = ( struct sockaddr_in *) get_in_addr((struct sockaddr *)&client); inet_ntop(client.ss_family, clientAddr, ip, sizeof ip); printf("Receive from %s: query type is %s\n", ip, buf); if( ( st = send(newfd, msg, strlen(msg), 0)) == -1 ) { perror("Send"); exit(-1); } //ntohs is used to avoid big-endian and little endian compatibility issues printf("Send %d byte to port %d\n", ntohs(clientAddr->sin_port) ); close(newfd); } } I found the get_in_addr function online and placed it at the top of my code and use it to obtain the IP address of the client connecting... // get sockaddr, IPv4 or IPv6: void *get_in_addr(struct sockaddr *sa) { if (sa->sa_family == AF_INET) { return &(((struct sockaddr_in*)sa)->sin_addr); } return &(((struct sockaddr_in6*)sa)->sin6_addr); } but the function always returns the IPv6 IP address since thats what the sa_family property is set as. My question is, is the IPv4 IP address stored anywhere in the data I'm using and, if so, how can I access it? Thanks so much in advance for all your help!

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  • Rails controller not rendering correct view when form is force-submitted by Javascript

    - by whazzmaster
    I'm using Rails with jQuery, and I'm working on a page for a simple site that prints each record to a table. The only editable field for each record is a checkbox. My goal is that every time a checkbox is changed, an ajax request updates that boolean attribute for the record (i.e., no submit button). My view code: <td> <% form_remote_tag :url => admin_update_path, :html => { :id => "form#{lead.id}" } do %> <%= hidden_field :lead, :id, :value => lead.id %> <%= check_box :lead, :contacted, :id => "checkbox"+lead.id.to_s, :checked => lead.contacted, :onchange => "$('#form#{lead.id}').submit();" %> <% end %> </td> In my routes.rb, admin_update_path is defined by map.admin_update 'update', :controller => "admin", :action => "update", :method => :post I also have an RJS template to render back an update. The contents of this file is currently just for testing (I just wanted to see if it worked, this will not be the ultimate functionality on a successful save)... page << "$('#checkbox#{@lead.id}').hide();" When clicked, the ajax request is successfully sent, with the correct params, and the action on the controller can retrieve the record and update it just fine. The problem is that it doesn't send back the JS; it changes the page in the browser and renders the generated Javascript as plain text rather than executing it in-place. Rails does some behind-the-scenes stuff to figure out if the incoming request is an ajax call, and I can't figure out why it's interpreting the incoming request as a regular web request as opposed to an ajax request. I may be missing something extremely simple here, but I've kind-of burned myself out looking so I thought I'd ask for another pair of eyes. Thanks in advance for any info!

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  • Javascript problem when setting src for img element in FireFox - string parsing error?

    - by Kevin
    I'm having problems with image's on the page. I'm using Javascript to create the elements, and in FireFox it seems the string that I'm using to set the innerHTML is not being parsed correctly. I'll see this when the server page is requested with invalid GET variables. They look like this (from the PHP script's error handler): GET[] = Array ( [shrink] => true [file_id] => \' file_id \' [refresh] => \' now.getTime() \' ) This only happens for about 5% of requests, which is making it difficult to solve. I have been able to reproduce this myself in FireFox, and Firebug will show that the URL it is trying to fetch is: https://www.domain.com/secure/%27%20+%20image_src%20+%20%27 I read somewhere that it might be related to FireFox prefetching content (can't find it googling now), since it seems to only happen on FireFox. Disabling prefetching in about:config does prevent the problem from occurring, but I'm looking for another solution or workaround that doesn't involve end users changing their configurations. Here's the specifics and code: I have an empty table cell on an HTML page. In JQuery's $(document).ready() function for the page, I used JQuery's $.ajax() method to get some data from the server about what should be in that cell. It returns the file_id variable, which for simplicity I just set below. It then sets the empty table cell to have an image with src that points to a page that will serve the image file depending on what file_id is passed. This part of the code was JQuery originally, so I changed it to straight Javascript but that didn't help anything. //get data about image from server //this is actually done through JQuery's $.ajax() but you get the idea var file_id = 12; //create the src for the img //the refresh is to prevent the image from being cached ever, since the page's //javascript will be it changes //during the course of the page's life var now = new Date(); var image_src = 'serve_image.php?shrink=true&file_id=' + file_id + '&refresh=' + now.getTime(); //create document.getElementById('image_cell').innerHTML = '<A target="_blank" href="serve_image.php?file_id=' + file_id + '">' + '<IMG id=image_element src="' + image_src + '" alt="Loading...">' + '</A>';` Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

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  • How can I obtain the IP address of my server program?

    - by Dr Dork
    Hello! This question is related to another question I just posted. I'm prepping for a simple work project and am trying to familiarize myself with the basics of socket programming in a Unix dev environment. At this point, I have some basic server side code and client side code setup to communicate. Currently, my client code successfully connects to the server code and the server code sends it a test message, then both quit out. Perfect! That's exactly what I wanted to accomplish. Now I'm playing around with the functions used to obtain info about the two environments (server and client). I'd like to obtain my server program's IP address. Here's the code I currently have to do this, but it's not working... int sockfd; unsigned int len; socklen_t sin_size; char msg[]="test message"; char buf[MAXLEN]; int st, rv; struct addrinfo hints, *serverinfo, *p; struct sockaddr_storage client; char s[INET6_ADDRSTRLEN]; char ip[INET6_ADDRSTRLEN]; //zero struct memset(&hints,0,sizeof(hints)); hints.ai_family = AF_UNSPEC; hints.ai_socktype = SOCK_STREAM; hints.ai_flags = AI_PASSIVE; //get the server info if((rv = getaddrinfo(NULL, SERVERPORT, &hints, &serverinfo ) != 0)){ perror("getaddrinfo"); exit(-1); } // loop through all the results and bind to the first we can for( p = serverinfo; p != NULL; p = p->ai_next) { //Setup the socket if( (sockfd = socket( p->ai_family, p->ai_socktype, p->ai_protocol )) == -1 ) { perror("socket"); continue; } //Associate a socket id with an address to which other processes can connect if(bind(sockfd, p->ai_addr, p->ai_addrlen) == -1){ close(sockfd); perror("bind"); continue; } break; } if( p == NULL ){ perror("Fail to bind"); } inet_ntop(p->ai_family, get_in_addr((struct sockaddr *)p->ai_addr), s, sizeof(s)); printf("Server has TCP Port %s and IP Address %s\n", SERVERPORT, s); and the output for the IP is always empty... server has TCP Port 21412 and IP Address :: any ideas for what I'm missing? thanks in advance for your help! this stuff is really complicated at first.

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