Search Results

Search found 18993 results on 760 pages for 'context info'.

Page 252/760 | < Previous Page | 248 249 250 251 252 253 254 255 256 257 258 259  | Next Page >

  • SQL Server problems reading columns with a foreign key

    - by illdev
    I have a weird situation, where simple queries seem to never finish for instance SELECT top 100 ArticleID FROM Article WHERE ProductGroupID=379114 returns immediately SELECT top 1000 ArticleID FROM Article WHERE ProductGroupID=379114 never returns SELECT ArticleID FROM Article WHERE ProductGroupID=379114 never returns SELECT top 1000 ArticleID FROM Article returns immediately By 'returning' I mean 'in query analyzer the green check mark appears and it says "Query executed successfully"'. I sometimes get the rows painted to the grid in qa, but still the query goes on waiting for my client to time out - 'sometimes': SELECT ProductGroupID AS Product23_1_, ArticleID AS ArticleID1_, ArticleID AS ArticleID18_0_, Inventory_Name AS Inventory3_18_0_, Inventory_UnitOfMeasure AS Inventory4_18_0_, BusinessKey AS Business5_18_0_, Name AS Name18_0_, ServesPeople AS ServesPe7_18_0_, InStock AS InStock18_0_, Description AS Descript9_18_0_, Description2 AS Descrip10_18_0_, TechnicalData AS Technic11_18_0_, IsDiscontinued AS IsDisco12_18_0_, Release AS Release18_0_, Classifications AS Classif14_18_0_, DistributorName AS Distrib15_18_0_, DistributorProductCode AS Distrib16_18_0_, Options AS Options18_0_, IsPromoted AS IsPromoted18_0_, IsBulkyFreight AS IsBulky19_18_0_, IsBackOrderOnly AS IsBackO20_18_0_, Price AS Price18_0_, Weight AS Weight18_0_, ProductGroupID AS Product23_18_0_, ConversationID AS Convers24_18_0_, DistributorID AS Distrib25_18_0_, type AS Type18_0_ FROM Article AS articles0_ WHERE (IsDiscontinued = '0') AND (ProductGroupID = 379121) shows this behavior. I have no idea what is going on. Probably select is broken ;) I got a foreign key on ProductGroups ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Article] WITH CHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_ProductGroup_Articles] FOREIGN KEY([ProductGroupID]) REFERENCES [dbo].[ProductGroup] ([ProductGroupID]) GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Article] CHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_ProductGroup_Articles] there are some 6000 rows and IsDiscontinued is a bit, not null, but leaving this condition out does not change the outcome. Anyone can tell me how to handle such a situation? More info, anyone? Additional Info: this does not seem to be restricted to this Foreign Key, but all/some referencing this entity.

    Read the article

  • stop android emulator call

    - by Shahzad Younis
    I am working on an Android application, having functionality like voicemail. I am using BroadcastReceiver to get dialing events. I have to get the event "WHEN CALL IS UNANSWERED (not picked after few rings) FROM RECEIVER". I will do some actions on caller end against this event. I am using AVD emulator, and I do call from one instance to another instance and it calls perfectly, but the problem is: It continuously calls until I reject or accept the call. This way I cannot detect that "CALL IS UNANSWERED AFTER A NUMBER OF RINGS". So I want the Caller emulator to drop the call after a number of rings (if unanswered) like a normal phone. I can do it (drop the call after some time) by writing some code, but I need the natural functionality of phone in the emulator. Can anyone please guide me? Is there any settings in the emulator? Or something else? The code is shown below in case it helps: public class MyPhoneReceiver extends BroadcastReceiver { @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { Bundle extras = intent.getExtras(); if (extras != null) { String state = "my call state = " + extras.getString(TelephonyManager.EXTRA_STATE); Log.w("DEBUG", state); } }

    Read the article

  • Multi-module Maven build

    - by Don
    Hi, My project has a fairly deep graph of Maven modules. The root POM has the following plugin configured <plugins> <plugin> <groupId>org.jvnet</groupId> <artifactId>animal-sniffer</artifactId> <version>1.2</version> <configuration> <signature> <groupId>org.jvnet.animal-sniffer</groupId> <artifactId>java1.4</artifactId> <version>1.0</version> </signature> </configuration> </plugin> </plugins> If I invoke this target from the command line in the root directory via: mvn animal-sniffer:check Then it works fine as long as the current module extends (either directly or indirectly) from the root POM. However there are many children (or grandchildren) of the root module, which do not inherit from that module's POM. In this case, the goal fails because it cannot find the necessary configuration [ERROR] BUILD ERROR [INFO] ------------------------------------------------------------------------ [INFO] One or more required plugin parameters are invalid/missing for 'animal-sniffer:check' [0] Inside the definition for plugin 'animal-sniffer' specify the following: <configuration> ... <signature>VALUE</signature> </configuration>. When configuring this plugin in the root module, is there any way to exclude a list of sub-modules either by name, or by packaging type? Thanks, Donal

    Read the article

  • How would you implement a hashtable in language x?

    - by mk
    The point of this question is to collect a list of examples of hashtable implementations using arrays in different languages. It would also be nice if someone could throw in a pretty detailed overview of how they work, and what is happening with each example. Edit: Why not just use the built in hash functions in your specific language? Because we should know how hash tables work and be able to implement them. This may not seem like a super important topic, but knowing how one of the most used data structures works seems pretty important to me. If this is to become the wikipedia of programming, then these are some of the types of questions that I will come here for. I'm not looking for a CS book to be written here. I could go pull Intro to Algorithms off the shelf and read up on the chapter on hash tables and get that type of info. More specifically what I am looking for are code examples. Not only for me in particular, but also for others who would maybe one day be searching for similar info and stumble across this page. To be more specific: If you had to implement them, and could not use built-in functions, how would you do it? You don't need to put the code here. Put it in pastebin and just link it.

    Read the article

  • How can I format Custom Data and display in autocomplete when source is an DB

    - by Andres Scarpone
    so I'm trying to get some info in the auto-complete widget like it's shown in the JQuery UI demo Demo, the only problem is they use a variable that they fill with the data they want to show, I instead want to access the data and the different description and stuff using a Data Base in MySQL, for this I have changed the source to use another php page that looks up the info. here is the code for the Auto-complete, I really don't understand the methods so I haven't changed it from the basic search. This is the JS: $(document).ready((function(){ $( "#completa" ).autocomplete({ source: "buscar.php", minLength: 1, focus: function (event, ui){ $("#completa").val(ui.item.val); return false; }; })); This is what I have in buscar.php: <?php $conec = mysql_connect(localhost, root, admin); if(!$conec) { die(mysql_error()); } else { $bd = mysql_select_db("ve_test",$conec ); if(!$bd) { die(mysql_error()); } } $termino = trim(strip_tags($_GET['term']));//Obtener el termino que envia el autocompletar $qstring = "SELECT name, descripcion FROM VE_table WHERE name LIKE '%".$termino."%'"; $result = mysql_query($qstring);//Solicitud a la Base de Datos while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($result,MYSQL_ASSOC))//Realizar un LOOP sobre los valores obtenidos { $row['value']=htmlentities(stripslashes($row['name'])); $row_set[] = $row;//build an array } echo json_encode($row_set);//Enviar los datos al autocompletar en codificacion JSON, Altamente Necesario. ?

    Read the article

  • To OpenID or not to OpenID? Is it worth it?

    - by Eloff
    Does OpenID improve the user experience? Edit Not to detract from the other comments, but I got one really good reply below that outlined 3 advantages of OpenID in a rational bottom line kind of way. I've also heard some whisperings in other comments that you can get access to some details on the user through OpenID (name? email? what?) and that using that it might even be able to simplify the registration process by not needing to gather as much information. Things that definitely need to be gathered in a checkout process: Full name Email (I'm pretty sure I'll have to ask for these myself) Billing address Shipping address Credit card info There may be a few other things that are interesting from a marketing point of view, but I wouldn't ask the user to manually enter anything not absolutely required during the checkout process. So what's possible in this regard? /Edit (You may have noticed stackoverflow uses OpenID) It seems to me it is easier and faster for the user to simply enter a username and password in a signup form they have to go through anyway. I mean you don't avoid entering a username and password either with OpenID. But you avoid the confusion of choosing a OpenID provider, and the trip out to and back from and external site. With Microsoft making Live ID an OpenID provider (More Info), bringing on several hundred million additional accounts to those provided by Google, Yahoo, and others, this question is more important than ever. I have to require new customers to sign up during the checkout process, and it is absolutely critical that the experience be as easy and smooth as possible, every little bit harder it becomes translates into lost sales. No geek factor outweighs cold hard cash at the end of the day :) OpenID seems like a nice idea, but the implementation is of questionable value. What are the advantages of OpenID and is it really worth it in my scenario described above?

    Read the article

  • Auto increment with a Unit Of Work

    - by Derick
    Context I'm building a persistence layer to abstract different types of databases that I'll be needing. On the relational part I have mySQL, Oracle and PostgreSQL. Let's take the following simplified MySQL tables: CREATE TABLE Contact ( ID varchar(15), NAME varchar(30) ); CREATE TABLE Address ( ID varchar(15), CONTACT_ID varchar(15), NAME varchar(50) ); I use code to generate system specific alpha numeric unique ID's fitting 15 chars in this case. Thus, if I insert a Contact record with it's Addresses I have my generated Contact.ID and Address.CONTACT_IDs before committing. I've created a Unit of Work (amongst others) as per Martin Fowler's patterns to add transaction support. I'm using a key based Identity Map in the UoW to track the changed records in memory. It works like a charm for the scenario above, all pretty standard stuff so far. The question scenario comes in when I have a database that is not under my control and the ID fields are auto-increment (or in Oracle sequences). In this case I do not have the db generated Contact.ID beforehand, so when I create my Address I do not have a value for Address.CONTACT_ID. The transaction has not been started on the DB session since all is kept in the Identity Map in memory. Question: What is a good approach to address this? (Avoiding unnecessary db round trips) Some ideas: Retrieve the last ID: I can do a call to the database to retrieve the last Id like: SELECT Auto_increment FROM information_schema.tables WHERE table_name='Contact'; But this is MySQL specific and probably something similar can be done for the other databases. If do this then would need to do the 1st insert, get the ID and then update the children (Address.CONTACT_IDs) – all in the current transaction context.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC 2 user input to SQL 2008 Database problems

    - by Rob
    After my publish in VS2010 the entire website loads and pulls data from the database perfectly. I can even create new users through the site with the correct key code, given out to who needs access. I have two connection strings in my web.config file The first: <add xdt:Transform="SetAttributes" xdt:Locator="Match(name)" name="EveModelContainer" connectionString="metadata=res://*/Models.EdmModel.EveModel.csdl|res://*/Models.EdmModel.EveModel.ssdl|res://*/Models.EdmModel.EveModel.msl;provider=System.Data.SqlClient;provider connection string=&quot;Data Source=localhost;Initial Catalog=fleet;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=fleet;Password=****&quot;" providerName="System.Data.EntityClient" /> The second: <add xdt:Transform="SetAttributes" xdt:Locator="Match(name)" name="ApplicationServices" connectionString="Data Source=localhost;Initial Catalog=fleet;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=fleet;Password=****;MultipleActiveResultSets=True" /> The first one is the one that is needed to post data with the main application, EveModelContainer. Everything else is pulled using the standard ApplicationServices connection. Do you see anything wrong with my connectionstring? I'm at a complete loss here. The site works perfectly on my friends server and not on mine... Could it be a provider issue? And if I go to iis 7's manager console, and click .net users I get a pop up message saying the custom provider isn't a trusted provider do I want to allow it to run at a higher trust level. I'm at the point where I think its either my string or this trusted provider error... but I have no clue how to add to the trusted provider list... Thank you in advance!!!

    Read the article

  • Newbie: Render RGB to GTK widget -- howto?

    - by Billy Pilgrim
    Hi All, Big picture: I want to render an RGB image via GTK on a linux box. I'm a frustrated GTK newbie, so please forgive me. I assume that I should create a Drawable_area in which to render the image -- correct? Do I then have to create a graphics context attached to that area? How? my simple app (which doesn't even address the rgb issue yet is this: int main(int argc, char** argv) { GdkGC * gc = NULL; GtkWidget * window = NULL; GtkDrawingArea * dpage = NULL; GtkWidget * page = NULL; gtk_init( &argc, & argv ); window = gtk_window_new( GTK_WINDOW_TOPLEVEL ); page = gtk_drawing_area_new( ); dpage = GTK_DRAWING_AREA( page ); gtk_widget_set_size_request( page, PAGE_WIDTH, PAGE_HEIGHT ); gc = gdk_gc_new( GTK_DRAWABLE( dpage ) ); gtk_widget_show( window ); gtk_main(); return (EXIT_SUCCESS); } my dpage is apparently not a 'drawable' (though it is a drawing area). I am confused as to a) how do I get/create the graphics context which is required in subsequent function calls? b) am I close to a solution, or am I so completely *#&@& wrong that there is no hope c) a baby steps tutorial. (I started with hello world as my base, so I got that far). any and all help appreciated. bp

    Read the article

  • Magento 1.4 - how to show html on product view?

    - by Sam
    Hi All The new version of Magento, 1.4, has it's own WYSIWYG editor, which can be enabled for any product attribute. However, if it is enabled, say for the additional info attribute, if you view the product page the html will be escaped, so you see all the tags (< p , < ul etc). If you change the following in template/catalog/product/view.phtml, you can get the "Quick Overview" and "Additional Information" sections to correctly show the html: <?php echo nl2br($this->htmlEscape($_product->getShortDescription())) ?> to <?php echo $_product->getShortDescription() ?> However, the additional info section is added via template/catalog/product/view/attributes.phtml using the following line, and I can't figure out how to get it to show the html correctly: <?php echo $_helper->productAttribute($_product, $_data['value'], $_data['code']) ?> This references Mage_Catalog_Block_Product_View_Attributes, and if I go to that file and change the following, it works: $value = $this->htmlEscape($value); to $value = value; But is there anyway to do this without overiding this core file with a local version?

    Read the article

  • Partial slideDown with jQuery

    - by Jon
    I have some buttons that have drawer menus and what I'd like to do is add a state so that when the user hovers over the button, the drawer bumps out slightly (maybe with a little wiggle/rubber-banding) so that they know that there's a drawer with more information. I have the sliding working and a hover function set up, but I don't know how to implement a partial slideDown. Any ideas? FIDDLE. Code: <div class="clause"> <div class="icon"><img src="http://i.imgur.com/rTu40.png"/></div> <div class="label">Location</div> <div class="info">Midwest > Indiana, Kentucky; Southwest > Texas, Nevada, Utah; Pacific > California, Hawaii</div> </div> <div class="drawer">Info 1<br/><br/></div> <div class="drawerBottom"></div> $(".clause").click(function() { var tmp = $(this).next("div.drawer"); if(tmp.is(":hidden")) tmp.slideDown('3s'); else tmp.slideUp('3s'); }); $(".clause").hover(function() { });

    Read the article

  • No GPS Update retrieved? Problem in Code?

    - by poeschlorn
    Hello mates, I've got a serious problem with my GPS on my Nexus One: I wrote a kind of hello world with GPS, but the Toast that should be displayed isn't :( I don't know what I'm doing wrong...maybe you could help me getting this work. Here's my code: package gps.test; import android.app.Activity; import android.content.Context; import android.location.Location; import android.location.LocationListener; import android.location.LocationManager; import android.os.Bundle; import android.widget.Toast; public class GPS extends Activity { private LocationManager lm; private LocationListener locationListener; /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); // ---use the LocationManager class to obtain GPS locations--- lm = (LocationManager) getSystemService(Context.LOCATION_SERVICE); locationListener = new MyLocationListener(); lm.requestLocationUpdates(LocationManager.GPS_PROVIDER, 100, 1, locationListener); } private class MyLocationListener implements LocationListener { @Override public void onLocationChanged(Location loc) { if (loc != null) { Toast.makeText( getBaseContext(), "Location changed : Lat: " + loc.getLatitude() + " Lng: " + loc.getLongitude(), Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); } } @Override public void onProviderDisabled(String provider) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } @Override public void onProviderEnabled(String provider) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } @Override public void onStatusChanged(String provider, int status, Bundle extras) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } } } Theoretically there should be a new toast every 100 milliseconds, shouldn't it? Or at least, when I change my position by one meter!? I've no idea why it doesn't. I must admit I'm new to the topic, maybe I've missed something? It would be great if you could give me a hint :) nice greetings, poeschlorn

    Read the article

  • LINQ to SQL: Reusable expression for property?

    - by coenvdwel
    Pardon me for being unable to phrase the title more exact. Basically, I have three LINQ objects linked to tables. One is Product, the other is Company and the last is a mapping table Mapping to store what Company sells which products and by which ID this Company refers to this Product. I am now retrieving a list of products as follows: var options = new DataLoadOptions(); options.LoadWith<Product>(p => p.Mappings); context.LoadOptions = options; var products = ( from p in context.Products select new { ProductID = p.ProductID, //BackendProductID = p.BackendProductID, BackendProductID = (p.Mappings.Count == 0) ? "None" : (p.Mappings.Count > 1) ? "Multiple" : p.Mappings.First().BackendProductID, Description = p.Description } ).ToList(); This does a single query retrieving the information I want. But I want to be able to move the logic behind the BackendProductID into the LINQ object so I can use the commented line instead of the annoyingly nested ternary operator statements for neatness and re-usability. So I added the following property to the Product object: public string BackendProductID { get { if (Mappings.Count == 0) return "None"; if (Mappings.Count > 1) return "Multiple"; return Mappings.First().BackendProductID; } } The list is still the same, but it now does a query for every single Product to get it's BackendProductID. The code is neater and re-usable, but the performance now is terrible. What I need is some kind of Expression or Delegate but I couldn't get my head around writing one. It always ended up querying for every single product, still. Any help would be appreciated!

    Read the article

  • How to change CSS color values in real-time off a javascript slider?

    - by bflora
    I'm making a page where the user gets a javascript slider that goes from 0 to 100 and can use it to set the opacity of a div on the page. I want the opacity of that div to change in real-time as they work the slider. I've not done this before. What's the best approach? There cursor in the slider displays the slider's current value as you move it. It seems to be that I just need to find a way to display that value in any arbitrary other place on the page so I can display it in the style settings for the div. The .js file that generates the slider has a line that (I think) is setting the current value in the cursor: $(this).children(".ui-slider-handle", context).html(parseInt(settings[index]['default'])); TO get this changing number to display somewhere else at the same time, do I just need to add a div somewhere and then add a line like this? $("#newDivId").children(".ui-slider-handle", context).html(parseInt(settings[index]['default'])); That seems like it would give me the number showing up in a div. How then would I get it into a form I could put into the style settings for a div? If this was a php variable, I would do something like this, style="opacity:<?php print $value ?>;" What would be the .js equivalent?

    Read the article

  • Can't process UIImage from UIImagePickerController and app crashes..

    - by eimaikala
    Hello guys, I am new to iPhone sdk and can't figure out why my application crashes. In the .h I have: UIImage *myimage; //so as it can be used as global -(IBAction) save; @property (nonatomic, retain) UIImage *myimage; In the .m I have: @synthesize myimage; - (void)viewDidLoad { self.imgPicker = [[UIImagePickerController alloc] init]; self.imgPicker.allowsImageEditing = YES; self.imgPicker.delegate = self; self.imgPicker.sourceType = UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypePhotoLibrary; } -(void)imagePickerController:(UIImagePickerController *)picker didFinishPickingMediaWithInfo:(NSDictionary *)info { myimage = [[info objectForKey:UIImagePickerControllerOriginalImage]retain]; [picker dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; } -(IBAction) process{ myimage=[self process:myimage var2:Val2 var3:Val3 var4:Val4]; UIImageWriteToSavedPhotosAlbum(myimage, nil, nil, nil); [myimage release]; } When the button process is clicked, the application crashes and really I have no idea why this happens. When i change it to: -(IBAction) process{ myimage =[UIImage imageNamed:@"im1.jpg"]; myimage=[self process:myimage var2:Val2 var3:Val3 var4:Val4]; UIImageWriteToSavedPhotosAlbum(myimage, nil, nil, nil); [myimage release]; } the process button works perfectly... Any help would be appreciated. Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • How do you use FastInfoset with JAXWS?

    - by Chris Kessel
    I've got code that looks like it should be correct based on what I can find, but the spewed output doesn't indicate that it's using FastInfoset. My understanding is the Accept should indicate it can accept Fastinfoset and the response would actually use it, meaning it's not text/xml as the response type. Any idea what I'm doing wrong? I've scoured with Google and I'm having a hard time finding much detail on how to use FastInfoset at all. JaxWsProxyFactoryBean factory = new JaxWsProxyFactoryBean(); factory.getInInterceptors().add(new LoggingInInterceptor()); factory.getOutInterceptors().add(new LoggingOutInterceptor()); factory.setServiceClass( C360Server.class); factory.setAddress("http://localhost:8501/cxfcontroller/cl_v5"); C360Server client = (C360Server)factory.create(); ((BindingProvider)client).getRequestContext().put( "com.sun.xml.ws.client.ContentNegotiation", "optimistic"); C360Request requestTrans = new C360Request(); ... code to fill in the request ... C360Response response = client.findContacts( requestTrans ); The logging doesn't seem to indicate FastInfoset is even attempted though: INFO: Outbound Message --------------------------- ID: 1 Address: http://localhost:8501/cxfcontroller/cl_v5 Encoding: UTF-8 Content-Type: text/xml Headers: {SOAPAction=[""], Authorization=[Basic cWFfc3VwZXI6cWFfc3VwZXI=], Accept=[*/*]} Payload: <soap:Envelope xmlns:soap="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/"><soap:Body><ns1:findContacts>...bunch of xml deleted for brevity...</ns1:findContacts></soap:Body></soap:Envelope> -------------------------------------- May 17, 2010 3:23:45 PM org.apache.cxf.interceptor.LoggingInInterceptor logging INFO: Inbound Message ---------------------------- ID: 1 Response-Code: 200 Encoding: UTF-8 Content-Type: text/xml; charset=utf-8 Headers: {content-type=[text/xml; charset=utf-8], Content-Length=[611], Server=[Jetty(6.1.x)]} Payload: <soap:Envelope xmlns:soap="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/"><soap:Body><ns1:findContactsResponse>...bunch of xml spew deleted for brevity...</ns1:findContactsResponse></soap:Body></soap:Envelope> -------------------------------------- Any ideas what I'm doing wrong? Even if the server wasn't supporting FastInfoset, I still should see the attempted negotiation in the request, right?

    Read the article

  • Is there a general-purpose printf-ish routine defined in any C standard

    - by supercat
    In many C libraries, there is a printf-style routine which is something like the following: int __vgprintf(void *info, (void)(*print_function(void*, char)), const char *format, va_list params); which will format the supplied string and call print_function with the passed-in info value and each character in sequence. A function like fprintf will pass __vgprintf the passed-in file parameter and a pointer to a function which will cast its void* to a FILE* and output the passed-in character to that file. A function like snprintf will create a struct holding a char* and length, and pass the address of that struct to a function which will output each character in sequence, space permitting. Is there any standard for such a function, which could be used if e.g. one wanted a function to output an arbitrary format to a TCP port? A common approach is to allocate a buffer one hopes is big enough, use snprintf to put the data there, and then output the data from the buffer. It would seem cleaner, though, if there were a standard way to to specify that the print formatter should call a user-supplied routine with each character.

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework - Many to Many Subquery

    - by Jorin
    I asked a question about this previously but my database structure has changed, and while it made other things simpler, now this part is more complicated. Here is the previous question. At the time, my EF Context had a UsersProjects object because there were other properties. Now that I've simplified that table, it is just the keys, so all my EF context knows about is Users and Projects and the M2M relationship between them. There is no more UsersProjects as far as EF knows. So my goal is to say "show me all the users who are working on projects with me." in SQL, this would go something like: SELECT * FROM Users INNER JOIN UsersProjects ON Users.ID=UsersProjects.UserID WHERE ProjectID IN (SELECT ProjectID FROM UsersProjects WHERE UserID=@UserID) and I started in EF with something like this: var myProjects = (from p in edmx.Projects where p.Users.Contains(edmx.Users.FirstOrDefault(u => u.Email == UserEmail)) orderby p.Name select p).ToList(); var associatedUsers = (from u in edmx.Users where myProjects.Contains(?????????) //where myProjects.Any(????????) select u); The trick is finding what to put in the ????????. Anyone help here?

    Read the article

  • Validate a XDocument against schema without the ValidationEventHandler (for use in a HTTP handler)

    - by Vaibhav Garg
    Hi everyone, (I am new to Schema validation) Regarding the following method, System.Xml.Schema.Extensions.Validate( ByVal source As System.Xml.Linq.XDocument, ByVal schemas As System.Xml.Schema.XmlSchemaSet, ByVal validationEventHandler As System.Xml.Schema.ValidationEventHandler, ByVal addSchemaInfo As Boolean) I am using it as follows inside a IHttpHandler - Try Dim xsd As XmlReader = XmlReader.Create(context.Server.MapPath("~/App_Data/MySchema.xsd")) Dim schemas As New XmlSchemaSet() : schemas.Add("myNameSpace", xsd) : xsd.Close() myXDoxumentOdj.Validate(schemas, Function(s As Object, e As ValidationEventArgs) SchemaError(s, e, context), True) Catch ex1 As Threading.ThreadAbortException 'manage schema error' Return Catch ex As Exception 'manage other errors' End Try The handler- Function SchemaError(ByVal s As Object, ByVal e As ValidationEventArgs, ByVal c As HttpContext) As Object If c Is Nothing Then c = HttpContext.Current If c IsNot Nothing Then HttpContext.Current.Response.Write(e.Message) HttpContext.Current.Response.End() End If Return New Object() End Function This is working fine for me at present but looks very weak. I do get errors when I feed it bad XML. But i want to implement it in a more elegant way. This looks like it would break for large XML etc. Is there some way to validate without the handler so that I get the document validated in one go and then deal with errors? To me it looks Async such that the call to Validate() would pass and some non deterministic time later the handler would get called with the result/errors. Is that right? Thanks and sorry for any goofy mistakes :).

    Read the article

  • adding a token onto a webservice or wcf call

    - by duncanUK
    I have an httphandler which I am using to log the http soap request and response for each webservice that is called from my application as a comms log. i would like to inject a token ont he 1st call (possibly the 1st call to invoke the service that is being logged) and then be able to track all subsequent webservice calls run in the same context with this token so i can tie the subsequent calls back up to the original call. so for example. main webservice -> 2nd web service -> another web service [token] [token] [token] -> nth web service [token] I would like to inject the token on the first call to the main webservice (http handler checks if no token, add it), I would like to use the same http handler to intercept each call to the subsequent webservices and pass on the token if it exists already (the job of the httphandler is to log the in/out soap with the token to reference with. I have managed to inject the first token, but my problem is how do I add the token on the subsequent calls.. can I make it stick on the same context or session? My worry is that when we call a new webservice, we create a whole new proxy/http request which will not inhrit the token... or will it?! Ideally I would like it to persist on the http header as I am setting the token as a header at the moment? has anyone got any ideas or a better way of doing this? I would be most greatful for you comments!

    Read the article

  • Tomcat does not pick up the class file - the JSP file is not displayed

    - by blueSky
    I have a Java code which is a controller for a jsp page, called: HomeController.java. Code is as follows: @Controller public class HomeController { protected final transient Log log = LogFactory.getLog(getClass()); @RequestMapping(value = "/mypage") public String home() { System.out.println("HomeController: Passing through..."); return "home"; } } There is nothing especial in the jsp page: home.jsp. If I go to this url: http://localhost:8080/adcopyqueue/mypage I can view mypage and everything works fine. Also in the tomcat Dos page I can see the comment: HomeController: Passing through... As expected. Now under the same directory that I have HomeController.java, I've created another file called: LoginController.java. Following is the code: @Controller public class LoginController { protected final transient Log log = LogFactory.getLog(getClass()); @RequestMapping(value = "/loginpage") public String login() { System.out.println("LoginController: Passing through..."); return "login"; } } And under the same place which I have home.jsp, I've created login.jsp. Also under tomcat folders, LoginController.class exists under the same folder that HomeController.class exists and login.jsp exists under the same folder which home.jsp exists. But when I go to this url: http://localhost:8080/adcopyqueue/loginpage Nothing is displayed! I think tomcat does not pick up LoginController.class b/c on the tomcat Dos window, I do NOT see this comment: LoginController: Passing through... Instead I see following which I do not know what do they mean? [ INFO] [http-8080-1 01:43:45] (AppInfo.java:populateAppInfo:34) got manifest [ INFO] [http-8080-1 01:43:45] (AppInfo.java:populateAppInfo:36) manifest entrie s 8 The structure and the code for HomeController.java and LoginController.java plus the jsp files match. I have no idea why tomcat sees one of the files and not the other? Clean build did not help. Does anybody have any idea? Any help is greatly appraciated.

    Read the article

  • How can i fetch the large image from url

    - by Kutbi
    i used below code to fetch the image from url.but its not working for large image.. i missing something to add for that type of image to fetch. imgView = (ImageView)findViewById(R.id.ImageView01); imgView.setImageBitmap(loadBitmap("http://www.360technosoft.com/mx4.jpg")); //imgView.setImageBitmap(loadBitmap("http://sugardaddydiaries.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/12/how_do_i_get_sugar_daddy.jpg")); //setImageDrawable("http://sugardaddydiaries.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/12/holding-money-copy.jpg"); //Drawable drawable = LoadImageFromWebOperations("http://www.androidpeople.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/03/android.png"); //imgView.setImageDrawable(drawable); /* try { ImageView i = (ImageView)findViewById(R.id.ImageView01); Bitmap bitmap = BitmapFactory.decodeStream((InputStream)new URL("http://sugardaddydiaries.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/12/holding-money-copy.jpg").getContent()); i.setImageBitmap(bitmap); } catch (MalformedURLException e) { System.out.println("hello"); } catch (IOException e) { System.out.println("hello"); }*/ } protected Drawable ImageOperations(Context context, String string, String string2) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub try { InputStream is = (InputStream) this.fetch(string); Drawable d = Drawable.createFromStream(is, "src"); return d; } catch (MalformedURLException e) { e.printStackTrace(); return null; } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); return null; } }

    Read the article

  • How can I serve static content with Glassfish embedded?

    - by Andy Fiedler
    I'm trying to setup Glassfish embedded with a WAR project that implements a REST API and then some static Javascript content that calls it. I got the WAR to deploy and the REST API is available with a context root of "/Users". How can I use Glassfish to serve static content with a context root of "/". So for example, if the user requests http://myserver.com/Users/some-REST-call it routes to the WAR application and http://myserver.com/somefile.js serves a static file from some directory? Here's my Main class file so far: public class Main{ public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { String port = System.getenv("PORT"); port = port != null ? port : "8080"; GlassFishProperties gfProps = new GlassFishProperties(); gfProps.setPort("http-listener", Integer.parseInt(port)); GlassFish glassfish = GlassFishRuntime.bootstrap().newGlassFish(gfProps); glassfish.start(); Deployer deployer = glassfish.getDeployer(); deployer.deploy(new File("target/Users-Rest.war")); } } Thanks a ton for your help!

    Read the article

  • Visual Studio 2008 Unit test does not pick up code changes unless I build the entire solution

    - by Orion Edwards
    Here's the scenario: Change my code: Change my unit test for that code With the cursor inside the unit test class/method, invoke VS2008's "Run tests in current context" command The visual studio "Output" window indicates that the code dll and the test dll both successfully build (in that order) The problem is however, that the unit test does not use the latest version of the dll which it has just built. Instead, it uses the previously built dll (which doesn't have the updated code in it), so the test fails. When adding a new method, this results in a MethodNotImplementedException, and when adding a class, it results in a TypeLoadException, both because the unit test thinks the new code is there, and it isn't!. If I'm just updating an existing method, then the test just fails due to incorrect results. I can 'work around' the problem by doing this Change my code: Change my unit test for that code Invoke VS2008's 'Build Solution' command With the cursor inside the unit test class/method, invoke VS2008's "Run tests in current context" command The problem is that doing a full build solution (even though nothing has changed) takes upwards of 30 seconds, as I have approx 50 C# projects, and VS2008 is not smart enough to realize that only 2 of them need to be looked at. Having to wait 30 seconds just to change 1 line of code and re-run a unit test is abysmal. Is there anything I can do to fix this? None of my code is in the GAC or anything funny like that, it's just ordinary old dll's (buiding against .NET 3.5SP1 on a win7/64bit machine) Please help!

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to replace values in a queryset before sending it to your template?

    - by Issy
    Hi Guys, Wondering if it's possible to change a value returned from a queryset before sending it off to the template. Say for example you have a bunch of records Date | Time | Description 10/05/2010 | 13:30 | Testing... etc... However, based on the day of the week the time may change. However this is static. For example on a monday the time is ALWAYS 15:00. Now you could add another table to configure special cases but to me it seems overkill, as this is a rule. How would you replace that value before sending it to the template? I thought about using the new if tags (if day=1), but this is more of business logic rather then presentation. Tested this in a custom template tag def render(self, context): result = self.model._default_manager.filter(from_date__lte=self.now).filter(to_date__gte=self.now) if self.day == 4: result = result.exclude(type__exact=2).order_by('time') else: result = result.order_by('type') result[0].time = '23:23:23' context[self.varname] = result return '' However it still displays the results from the DB, is this some how related to 'lazy' evaluation of templates? Thanks! Update Responding to comments below: It's not stored wrong in the DB, its stored Correctly However there is a small side case where the value needs to change. So for example I have a From Date & To date, my query checks if todays date is between those. Now with this they could setup a from date - to date for an entire year, and the special cases (like mondays as an example) is taken care off. However if you want to store in the DB you would have to capture several more records to cater for the side case. I.e you would be capturing the same information just to cater for that 1 day when the time changes. (And the time always changes on the same day, and is always the same)

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 248 249 250 251 252 253 254 255 256 257 258 259  | Next Page >