Search Results

Search found 7617 results on 305 pages for 'fields for'.

Page 252/305 | < Previous Page | 248 249 250 251 252 253 254 255 256 257 258 259  | Next Page >

  • Static Property losing its value intermittently ?

    - by joedotnot
    Is there something fundamentally wrong with the following design, or can anyone see why would the static properties sometimes loose their values ? I have a class library project containing a class AppConfig; this class is consumed by a Webforms project. The skeleton of AppConfig class is as follows: Public Class AppConfig Implements IConfigurationSectionHandler Private Const C_KEY1 As String = "WebConfig.Key.1" Private Const C_KEY2 As String = "WebConfig.Key.2" Private Const C_KEY1_DEFAULT_VALUE as string = "Key1defaultVal" Private Const C_KEY2_DEFAULT_VALUE as string = "Key2defaultVal" Private Shared m_field1 As String Private Shared m_field2 As String Public Shared ReadOnly Property ConfigValue1() As String Get ConfigValue1= m_field1 End Get End Property Public Shared ReadOnly Property ConfigValue2() As String Get ConfigValue2 = m_field2 End Get End Property Public Shared Sub OnApplicationStart() m_field1 = ReadSetting(C_KEY1, C_KEY1_DEFAULT_VALUE) m_field2 = ReadSetting(C_KEY2, C_KEY1_DEFAULT_VALUE) End Sub Public Overloads Shared Function ReadSetting(ByVal key As String, ByVal defaultValue As String) As String Try Dim setting As String = System.Configuration.ConfigurationManager.AppSettings(key) If setting Is Nothing Then ReadSetting = defaultValue Else ReadSetting = setting End If Catch ReadSetting = defaultValue End Try End Function Public Function Create(ByVal parent As Object, ByVal configContext As Object, ByVal section As System.Xml.XmlNode) As Object Implements System.Configuration.IConfigurationSectionHandler.Create Dim objSettings As NameValueCollection Dim objHandler As NameValueSectionHandler objHandler = New NameValueSectionHandler objSettings = CType(objHandler.Create(parent, configContext, section), NameValueCollection) Return 1 End Function End Class The Static Properties get set once on application start, from the Application_Start event of the Global.asax Sub Application_Start(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) //Fires when the application is started AppConfig.OnApplicationStart() End Sub Thereafter, whenever we want to access a value in the Web.Config from anywhere, e.g. aspx page code-behind or another class or referenced class, we simply call the static property. For example, AppConfig.ConfigValue1() AppConfig.ConfigValue2() This is turn returns the value stored in the static backing fields m_field1, m_field2 Problem is sometimes these values are empty string, when clearly the Web.Config entry has values. Is there something fundamentally wrong with the above design, or is it reasonable to expect the static properties would keep their value for the life of the Application session?

    Read the article

  • Question about cloning in Java

    - by devoured elysium
    In Effective Java, the author states that: If a class implements Cloneable, Object's clone method returns a field-by-field copy of the object; otherwise it throws CloneNotSupportedException. What I'd like to know is what he means with field-by-field copy. Does it mean that if the class has X bytes in memory, it will just copy that piece of memory? If yes, then can I assume all value types of the original class will be copied to the new object? class Point { private int x; private int y; @Override public Point clone() { return (Point)super.clone(); } } If what Object.clone() does is a field by field copy of the Point class, I'd say that I wouldn't need to explicitly copy fields x and y, being that the code shown above will be more than enough to make a clone of the Point class. That is, the following bit of code is redundant: @Override public Point clone() { Point newObj = (Point)super.clone(); newObj.x = this.x; //redundant newObj.y = this.y; //redundant } Am I right? I know references of the cloned object will point automatically to where the original object's references pointed to, I'm just not sure what happens specifically with value types. If anyone could state clearly what Object.clone()'s algorithm specification is (in easy language) that'd be great. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Python - Checking for membership inside nested dict

    - by victorhooi
    heya, This is a followup questions to this one: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2901422/python-dictreader-skipping-rows-with-missing-columns Turns out I was being silly, and using the wrong ID field. I'm using Python 3.x here. I have a dict of employees, indexed by a string, "directory_id". Each value is a nested dict with employee attributes (phone number, surname etc.). One of these values is a secondary ID, say "internal_id", and another is their manager, call it "manager_internal_id". The "internal_id" field is non-mandatory, and not every employee has one. (I've simplified the fields a little, both to make it easier to read, and also for privacy/compliance reasons). The issue here is that we index (key) each employee by their directory_id, but when we lookup their manager, we need to find managers by their "internal_id". Before, when employee.keys() was a list of internal_ids, I was using a membership check on this. Now, the last part of my if statement won't work, since the internal_ids is part of the dict values, instead of the key itself. def lookup_supervisor(manager_internal_id, employees): if manager_internal_idis not None and manager_internal_id!= "" and manager_internal_id in employees.keys(): return (employees[manager_internal_id]['mail'], employees[manager_internal_id]['givenName'], employees[manager_internal_id]['sn']) else: return ('Supervisor Not Found', 'Supervisor Not Found', 'Supervisor Not Found') So the first question is, how do I check whether the manager_internal_id is present in the dict's values. I've tried substituting employee.keys() with employee.values(), that didn't work. Also, I'm hoping for something a little more efficient, not sure if there's a way to get a subset of the values, specifically, all the entries for employees[directory_id]['internal_id']. Hopefully there's some Pythonic way of doing this, without using a massive heap of nested for/if loops. My second question is, how do I then cleanly return the required employee attributes (mail, givenname, surname etc.). My for loop is iterating over each employee, and calling lookup_supervisor. I'm feeling a bit stupid/stumped here. def tidy_data(employees): for directory_id, data in employees.items(): # We really shouldnt' be passing employees back and forth like this - hmm, classes? data['SupervisorEmail'], data['SupervisorFirstName'], data['SupervisorSurname'] = lookup_supervisor(data['manager_internal_id'], employees) Thanks in advance =), Victor

    Read the article

  • 'Fixed' for loop - what is more efficient?

    - by pimvdb
    I'm creating a tic-tac-toe game, and one of the functions has to iterate through each of the 9 fields (tic-tac-toe is played on a 3x3 grid). I was wondering what is more efficient (which one is perhaps faster, or what is the preferred way of scripting in such situation) - using two for nested loops like this: for(var i=0; i<3; i++) { for(var j=0; j<3; j++) { checkField(i, j); } } or hard-coding it like this: checkField(0, 0); checkField(0, 1); checkField(0, 2); checkField(1, 0); checkField(1, 1); checkField(1, 2); checkField(2, 0); checkField(2, 1); checkField(2, 2); As there are only 9 combinations, it would be perhaps overkill to use two nested for loops, but then again this is clearer to read. The for loop, however, will increment variables and check whether i and j are smaller than 3 every time as well. In this example, the time saving at least might be negligible, but what is the preferred way of coding in this case? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • database structure

    - by jindalsyogesh
    I have a table named ActivityRecording. This table currently has 500,000 records. I need to add a lot of new inputs that relates to activityrecording table. The relation of activityrecording with these new input fields is 1 to 0,1. So, what's going to happen on screen is when user fills the ActivityRecording data, he will then be taken to a new page and this page will show a form based on the user's input (from a dropdown named service) in activityrecording. There will 6 different kinds of form (each form will have 7-8 inputs which includes textareas of size 5kb, textboxes and checkboxes). So, for one activityrecording user will fill one out of 6 forms. There are two ways I know (there could be more), I can design the data structure: Add all the inputs from all these 6 forms into the activityrecording table. So, columns belonging to 5 of these forms will be null in this table, only columns belonging to one of the forms will have values The other way would be add 6 new tables (one for each form) and add 6 foreign key columns to activityrecording table. So, out of 6 foreign keys, 5 will be null and one will actually point to a table Which approach is a better data structure design? Please take into consideration that number of rows in this table are 500,000 and are expected to grow at a faster rate now.

    Read the article

  • How to disable firefox's form auto completion without change events?

    - by Dmitriy Likhten
    So firefox has a nifty mechanism which will try to autocomplete values in fields when a page is reloaded or the back button is used. Which is great and all except when you have something like a drop-down which when set to a value modifies the page using ajax. What winds up happening is that the browser reloads the page, the drop down is pre-filled with the remembered value, and then no change event is fired when the dom is ready. And therefore the change handlers attached don't fire and thus the page does not update. Is there a good way to "fix" this behavior so that it works for the user as expected: a) We do want the browser to auto-complete because that is a good user experience. b) Still want that onchange event firing. The only thing I can think of doing at the moment is to add an on-ready event to the document which has javascript pre-populated with initial values in the form, when the document loads the javascript will check the pre-populated values and if not matching what is in the input will trigger the change handlers. Anyone have a better solution? Is there a lib that does this already? (Using Rails 2.3.5 + jQuery)

    Read the article

  • Tree data in MySql database table

    - by Robert Koritnik
    I have a table that uses Adjacency list model for hierarchy storage. My most relevant columns in this table are therefore: ItemId // is auto_increment ParentId Level ParentTrail // in the form of "parentId/../parentId/itemId" then I created a before insert tigger, that populates columns Level and ParentTrail. Since the last column also includes current item's ID I had to use a trick in my trigger because auto_increment columns are not available in the before insert trigger. So I get that value from the information_schema.tables table. All works fine, until I try to write an update trigger, that would update my item and its descendants when the item changes its parent (ParentId has changed). But I can't make an update on my table inside the update trigger. All I can do is to change current record's values but not other's. I could use a separate table for hierarchy data, but that would mean that I would also have to create a view that would combine these two tables (1:1 relation) and I would like to avoid this is at all possible. Is there a way to have all these in the same table so that these fields (Level and ParetTrail) set/update themselves automagically using triggers?

    Read the article

  • How can I tell whether a webpart that has been deployed to a site is a native webpart that ships wit

    - by program247365
    I have a SharePoint 2007 MOSS instance, and I'm on a fact-finding mission. There have been multiple developers, developing multiple webparts and deploying them (using VS2005/2008 SharePoint Extensions). I thought maybe I could look at the fields in the "Web Part Gallery" list in my site, and look by "Modified by", but it looks like a developer's name is on some of the out-of-the-box webparts somehow, and on ones I know are custom developed, they say "System Account" - so looking at that field in this list is a no go. I thought then maybe I could look at the "Group" to which each webpart was assigned but it looks like they were arbitrarily assigned to many different groups inconsistently - so using that piece of information is a no go. Here is my code I have for just looping through and getting the names of all the webparts. Is there any property I can access on the list items of webparts that would tell me whether it's a custom developed webpart? Any way to distinguish the custom webparts from the out-of-the-box ones? Is there another way to do this? #region Misc Site Collection Methods public static List<string> GetAllWebParts(string connectedSPInstanceUrl) { List<string> lstWebParts = new List<string>(); try { using (SPSite site = new SPSite(connectedSPInstanceUrl)) { using (SPWeb web = site.OpenWeb()) { SPList list = web.Lists["Web Part Gallery"]; foreach (SPListItem item in list.Items) { lstWebParts.Add(item.Name); } } } } catch (Exception ex) { lstWebParts.Add("Error"); lstWebParts.Add("Message: " + ex.Message); lstWebParts.Add("Inner Exception: " + ex.InnerException.ToString()); lstWebParts.Add("Stack Trace: " + ex.StackTrace); } return lstWebParts; } #endregion

    Read the article

  • What does it mean to say "Instance variables are not over-rided" in java?

    - by Ankit
    I am aware of the concept called field hiding in java. But still I am having a confusion in relation to instance variable being not over-ridden. According to my present knowledge, overriding a method of super-class means that the JVM will call the sub-class's over-ridden method though the super-class's method is available to the sub-class. And I read the similar thing for field hiding via the link:- Hiding Fields So, in any case we are over-ridding the instance if we change the values of the inherited instance variable in the sub-class. I am confused please help. I am using the following super-class:- public class Animal{ File picture; String food; int hunger; int width, height; int xcoord, ycoord; public void makeNoise(){ ......... } public void eat(){ ............. } public void sleep(){ .......... } public void roam(){ ............. } } It has sub-classes like Tiger, cat, dog,hippo etc. The sub-classes over-ride the makeNoise(), eat and roam() method. But each sub-class also uses a different set of values for instance variables. So as per my confusion, I am kind-of overriding all the instance variables and 3 methods of the super-class Animal; and I still have the super-class instance variables available to the sub-class with the use of the super keyword.

    Read the article

  • What's the most efficient query?

    - by Aaron Carlino
    I have a table named Projects that has the following relationships: has many Contributions has many Payments In my result set, I need the following aggregate values: Number of unique contributors (DonorID on the Contribution table) Total contributed (SUM of Amount on Contribution table) Total paid (SUM of PaymentAmount on Payment table) Because there are so many aggregate functions and multiple joins, it gets messy do use standard aggregate functions the the GROUP BY clause. I also need the ability to sort and filter these fields. So I've come up with two options: Using subqueries: SELECT Project.ID AS PROJECT_ID, (SELECT SUM(PaymentAmount) FROM Payment WHERE ProjectID = PROJECT_ID) AS TotalPaidBack, (SELECT COUNT(DISTINCT DonorID) FROM Contribution WHERE RecipientID = PROJECT_ID) AS ContributorCount, (SELECT SUM(Amount) FROM Contribution WHERE RecipientID = PROJECT_ID) AS TotalReceived FROM Project; Using a temporary table: DROP TABLE IF EXISTS Project_Temp; CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE Project_Temp (project_id INT NOT NULL, total_payments INT, total_donors INT, total_received INT, PRIMARY KEY(project_id)) ENGINE=MEMORY; INSERT INTO Project_Temp (project_id,total_payments) SELECT `Project`.ID, IFNULL(SUM(PaymentAmount),0) FROM `Project` LEFT JOIN `Payment` ON ProjectID = `Project`.ID GROUP BY 1; INSERT INTO Project_Temp (project_id,total_donors,total_received) SELECT `Project`.ID, IFNULL(COUNT(DISTINCT DonorID),0), IFNULL(SUM(Amount),0) FROM `Project` LEFT JOIN `Contribution` ON RecipientID = `Project`.ID GROUP BY 1 ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE total_donors = VALUES(total_donors), total_received = VALUES(total_received); SELECT * FROM Project_Temp; Tests for both are pretty comparable, in the 0.7 - 0.8 seconds range with 1,000 rows. But I'm really concerned about scalability, and I don't want to have to re-engineer everything as my tables grow. What's the best approach?

    Read the article

  • How can I get the rank of rows relative to total number of rows based on a field?

    - by Arms
    I have a scores table that has two fields: user_id score I'm fetching specific rows that match a list of user_id's. How can I determine a rank for each row relative to the total number of rows, based on score? The rows in the result set are not necessarily sequential (the scores will vary widely from one row to the next). I'm not sure if this matters, but user_id is a unique field. Edit @Greelmo I'm already ordering the rows. If I fetch 15 rows, I don't want the rank to be 1-15. I need it to be the position of that row compared against the entire table by the score property. So if I have 200 rows, one row's rank may be 3 and another may be 179 (these are arbitrary #'s for example only). Edit 2 I'm having some luck with this query, but I actually want to avoid ties SELECT s.score , s.created_at , u.name , u.location , u.icon_id , u.photo , (SELECT COUNT(*) + 1 FROM scores WHERE score > s.score) AS rank FROM scores s LEFT JOIN users u ON u.uID = s.user_id ORDER BY s.score DESC , s.created_at DESC LIMIT 15 If two or more rows have the same score, I want the latest one (or earliest - I don't care) to be ranked higher. I tried modifying the subquery with AND id > s.id but that ended up giving me an unexpected result set and different ties.

    Read the article

  • Finding the Column Index for a Specific Value

    - by Btibert3
    Hi All, I am having a brain cramp. Below is a toy dataset: df <- data.frame( id = 1:6, v1 = c("a", "a", "c", NA, "g", "h"), v2 = c("z", "y", "a", NA, "a", "g"), stringsAsFactors=F) I have a specific value that I want to find across a set of defined columns and I want to identify the position it is located in. The fields I am searching are characters and the trick is that the value I am looking for might not exist. In addition, null strings are also present in the dataset. Assuming I knew how to do this, the variable position indicates the values I would like returned. > df id v1 v2 position 1 1 a z 1 2 2 a y 1 3 3 c a 2 4 4 <NA> <NA> 99 5 5 g a 2 6 6 h g 99 The general rule is that I want to find the position of value "a", and if it is not located or if v1 is missing, then I want 99 returned. In this instance, I am searching across v1 and v2, but in reality, I have 10 different variables. It is also worth noting that the value I am searching for can only exist once across the 10 variables. What is the best way to generate this recode? Many thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • using linq to sql

    - by mazhar
    Well I am new to this orm stuff. We have to create a large project . I read about linq to sql . will it be appropiate to use it in the project of high risk . i found no problem with it personally but the thing is that there will be no going back once started.So i need some feedback from the orm gurus here at the msdn.Will entity framework will be better?( I am in doubt about link to sql because I have read and heard negative feedback here and there) I will be using mvc2 as the framework. So please give the feedback about linq to sql in this regard. q2) Also I am a fan of stored procedure as they are precomputed and fasten up the thing and I have never worked without them.I know that linq to sql support stored procedures but will it be feasible to give up stored procedure seeing the beautiful data access layer generated with little effort as we are also in a need of rapid development. q3) If some changes to some fields required in the database in Link to Sql how will the changes be accommodated in the data access layer.

    Read the article

  • using linq to sql

    - by user324831
    Well I am new to this orm stuff. We have to create a large project . I read about linq to sql . will it be appropiate to use it in the project of high risk . i found no problem with it personally but the thing is that there will be no going back once started.So i need some feedback from the orm gurus here at the msdn.Will entity framework will be better?( I am in doubt about link to sql because I have read and heard negative feedback here and there) I will be using mvc2 as the framework. So please give the feedback about linq to sql in this regard. q2) Also I am a fan of stored procedure as they are precomputed and fasten up the thing and I have never worked without them.I know that linq to sql support stored procedures but will it be feasible to give up stored procedure seeing the beautiful data access layer generated with little effort as we are also in a need of rapid development. q3) If some changes to some fields required in the database in Link to Sql how will the changes be accommodated in the data access layer.

    Read the article

  • How can I create a "dynamic" WHERE clause?

    - by TheChange
    Hello there, First: Thanks! I finished my other project and the big surprise: now everything works as it should :-) Thanks to some helpful thinkers of SO! So here I go with the next project. I'd like to get something like this: SELECT * FROM tablename WHERE field1=content AND field2=content2 ... As you noticed this can be a very long where-clause. tablename is a static property which does not change. field1, field2 , ... (!) and the contents can change. So I need an option to build up a SQL statement in PL/SQL within a recursive function. I dont really know what to search for, so I ask here for links or even a word to search for.. Please dont start to argue about wether the recursive function is really needed or what its disadvanteges - this is not in question ;-) If you could help me to create something like an SQL-String which will later be able to do a successful SELECT this would be very nice! Iam able to go through the recursive function and make a longer string each time, but I cannot make an SQL statement from it.. Oh, one additional thing: I get the fields and contents by a xmlType (xmldom.domdocument etc) I can get the field and the content for example in a clob from the xmltype

    Read the article

  • mysql subquery strangely slow

    - by aviv
    I have a query to select from another sub-query select. While the two queries look almost the same the second query (in this sample) runs much slower: SELECT user.id ,user.first_name -- user.* FROM user WHERE user.id IN (SELECT ref_id FROM education WHERE ref_type='user' AND education.institute_id='58' AND education.institute_type='1' ); This query takes 1.2s Explain on this query results: id select_type table type possible_keys key key_len ref rows Extra 1 PRIMARY user index first_name 152 141192 Using where; Using index 2 DEPENDENT SUBQUERY education index_subquery ref_type,ref_id,institute_id,institute_type,ref_type_2 ref_id 4 func 1 Using where The second query: SELECT -- user.id -- user.first_name user.* FROM user WHERE user.id IN (SELECT ref_id FROM education WHERE ref_type='user' AND education.institute_id='58' AND education.institute_type='1' ); Takes 45sec to run, with explain: id select_type table type possible_keys key key_len ref rows Extra 1 PRIMARY user ALL 141192 Using where 2 DEPENDENT SUBQUERY education index_subquery ref_type,ref_id,institute_id,institute_type,ref_type_2 ref_id 4 func 1 Using where Why is it slower if i query only by index fields? Why both queries scans the full length of the user table? Any ideas how to improve? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How to do HABTM management with auto completion in Rails?

    - by Andrei
    I am looking for a good solution for a probably typical problem of managing models with HABTM association in Rails. Let's assume that we have two models -- products and categories: Products has_many :categorizations has_many :categories, :through => :categorizations Categories has_many :categorizations has_many :products, :through => :categorizations Categorization belongs_to :product belongs_to :category Pat Shaughnessy is developing modified auto_complete plugin which can allow to manage one-to-many (and many-to-many) association: For someone that would be enough, but I don't really like so many text fields. I guess it is possible to combine the Ryan Bates' screencasts used by Pat in a slightly different way, namely, using one text field with autocomplete: Also it would be better to remove from the list of suggested tasks (one-to-many), or products|categories (many-to-many) those which have been already added. In the case of products-categories relationship, such auto completion would be used both in the form for product, and in the form for category. I hope that there is an existing plugin for that. I am not very experienced in Ruby, and don't really know how to implement such logic by myself. Any help is appreciated!

    Read the article

  • XForms relation of 'constraint' and 'required' properties

    - by Danny
    As a reference, the most similar question already asked is: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/8667849/making-xforms-enforce-the-constraint-and-type-model-item-properties-only-when-fi The difference is that I cannot use the relevant properties since I do want the field to be visible and accessible. I'm attempting to make a XForms form that has the following properties: It displays a text field named 'information'. (for the example) This field must not be required, since it may not be necessary to enter data. (Or this data will be entered at a later time.) However, if data is entered in this field, it must adhere to the specified constraint. I cannot mark the field as not relevant since this would hide the field and some data may need to be entered in it. The trouble now is that even though the field has no data in it, the constraint is still enforced (i.e. even though it is not marked as 'required'). I have taken a look at the XForms 1.1 specification, however it does not seem to describe how the properties 'required' and 'constraint' should interact. The only option I see, is to add a part to the constraint such that an empty value is allowed. e.g.: . = '' or <actual-constraint However, I don't like this. It feels like a workaround to add this to every such field. Is there any other way to express that non-required fields should not need to match the constraint for that field? (Am I missing something?)

    Read the article

  • Problem creating a custom input element using FluentHtml (MVCContrib)

    - by seth
    Hi there, I just recently started dabbling in ASP.NET MVC 1.0 and came across the wonderful MVCContrib. I had originally gone down the path of creating some extended html helpers, but after finding FluentHTML decided to try my hand at creating a custom input element. Basically I am wanting to ultimately create several custom input elements to make it easier for some other devs on the project I'm working on to add their input fields to the page and have all of my preferred markup to render for them. So, in short, I'd like to wrap certain input elements with additional markup.. A TextBox would be wrapped in an <li /> for example. I've created my custom input elements following Tim Scott's answer in another question on here: DRY in the MVC View. So, to further elaborate, I've created my class, "TextBoxListItem": public class TextBoxListItem : TextInput<TextBox> { public TextBoxListItem (string name) : base(HtmlInputType.Text, name) { } public TextBoxListItem (string name, MemberExpression forMember, IEnumerable<IBehaviorMarker> behaviors) : base(HtmlInputType.Text, name, forMember, behaviors) { } public override string ToString() { var liBuilder = new TagBuilder(HtmlTag.ListItem); liBuilder.InnerHtml = ToString(); return liBuilder.ToString(TagRenderMode.SelfClosing); } } I've also added it to my ViewModelContainerExtensions class: public static TextBox TextBoxListItem<T>(this IViewModelContainer<T> view, Expression<Func<T, object>> expression) where T : class { return new TextBoxListItem(expression.GetNameFor(view), expression.GetMemberExpression(), view.Behaviors) .Value(expression.GetValueFrom(view.ViewModel)); } And lastly, I've added it to ViewDataContainerExtensions as well: public static TextBox TextBoxListItem(this IViewDataContainer view, string name) { return new TextBox(name).Value(view.ViewData.Eval(name)); } I'm calling it in my view like so: <%= this.TextBoxListItem("username").Label("Username:") %> Anyway, I'm not getting anything other than the standard FluentHTML TextBox, not wrapped in <li></li> elements. What am I missing here? Thanks very much for any assistance.

    Read the article

  • Multiple remote_form_for on the same page causes duplicate ids

    - by Ben Scheirman
    I've got a rails app that displays a list of items called modules. I'm iterating over these, rendering a partial for each one that includes a remote_form_for call. This all works, but fails HTML validation because my form text fields all have the same id. Is there a :prefix option on the form (or something else) I can use to get around this? Update: (some code) //_module_form.html.erb <% remote_form_for app_module do |f| %> <%= f.label :name %> <%= f.text_field :name %> <%= submit_tag 'Save' %> <%end %> //parent page <% @thing.modules.each do |app_module| %> <%= render :partial => "module_form", :locals => { :app_module => app_module } %> <% end %> So if I have more than 1 item in the collection, I render the identical form on the same page, and the form id and textbox id are duplicated. I can customize the form id pretty easily, but what about the text_box, since the controller is looking for specific named controls?

    Read the article

  • How to change the behavior of string objects in web service calls via Windows Communication Foundati

    - by Geri Langlois
    I have third party api's which require string values to be submitted as empty strings. On an asp.net page I can use this code (abbreviated here) and it works fine: public class Customer { private string addr1 = ""; public string Addr1 { get {return addr1;} set {addr1 = value;} } private string addr2 = ""; public string Addr2 { get {return addr2;} set {addr2 = value;} } private string city = ""; public string City { get {return city;} set {city = value;} } } Customer cust = new Customer(); cust.Addr1 = "1 Main St."; cust.City = "Hartford"; int custno = CustomerController.InsertCustomer(cust); The Addr2 field, which was not initialized is still an empty string when inserted. However, using the same code but called it through a web service based on Windows Communication Foundation the Addr2 field is null. Is there a way (or setting) where all string fields, even if uninitialized, would return an empty string (unless, of course, a value was set).

    Read the article

  • Dynamic/Generic ViewModelBase?

    - by Shimmy
    I am learning MVVM now and I understand few things (more than but few are here..): Does every model potentially exposed (thru a VM) to the View is having a VM? For example, if I have a Contact and Address entity and each contact has an Addresses (many) property, does it mean I have to create a ContactViewModel and an AddressViewModel etc.? Do I have to redeclare all the properties of the Model again in the ViewModel (i.e. FirstName, LastName blah blah)? why not have a ViewModelBase and the ContactViewMode will be a subclass of ViewModelBase accessing the Entity's properties itself? and if this is a bad idea that the View has access to the entity (please explain why), then why not have the ViewModelBase be a DynamicObject (view the Dictionary example @ the link page), so I don't have to redeclare all the properties and validation over and over in the two tiers (M & VM) - because really, the View is anyway accessing the ViewModel's fields via reflection anyway. I think MVVM was the hardest technology I've ever learned. it doesn't have out-the-box support and there are to many frameworks and methods to achieve it, and in the other hand there is no arranged way to learn it (as MVC for instance), learning MVVM means browsing and surfing around trying to figure out what's better. Bottom line, what I mean by this section is please go and vote to MSFT to add MVVM support in the BCL and generators for VMs and Vs according to the Ms. Thanks

    Read the article

  • jquery change event not working with IE6

    - by manivineet
    It is indeed quite unfortunate that my client still uses IE6. using jquery 1.4.2 The problem is that I open a window using a click event and do some edit operation in the new window. I have a 'change' event attached to the row of a table which has input fields. Now when the window loads for the first time and I make a change in the input for the FIRST time, the change event does not fire. however, on a second try it starts working. I have noticed that I e.g. I run a dummy page, i.e. create a new page(i work with visual studio) and run that page individually , the 'change' event works just fine. what it going on? and what can i do, besides going back to 1.3.2 (by the way that doesn't work either, but haven't fully tested it yet) <!--HTML--> <table id="tbReadData"> <tr class="nenDataRow" id="nenDr2"> <td> <input type="text" class="nenMeterRegister" value="1234" /> </td> <tr /> <table> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $('#tbReadData').find('tr').change(function() { alert('this works'); } }); </script>

    Read the article

  • MVC View Model Intellesense / Compile error

    - by Marty Trenouth
    I have one Library with my ORM and am working with a MVC Application. I have a problem where the pages won't compile because the Views can't see the Model's properties (which are inherited from lower level base classes). They system throws a compile error saying that 'object' does not contain a definition for 'ID' and no extension method 'ID' accepting a first argument of type 'object' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) implying that the View is not seeing the model. In the Controller I have full access to the Model and have check the Inherits from portion of the view to validate the correct type is being passed. Controller: return View(new TeraViral_Blog()); View: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<com.models.TeraViral_Blog>" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="TitleContent" runat="server"> Index2 </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <h2>Index2</h2> <fieldset> <legend>Fields</legend> <p> ID: <%= Html.Encode(Model.ID) %> </p> </fieldset> </asp:Content>

    Read the article

  • TFS query mixing Tasks and Bugs, sorted by Priority

    - by Val
    We're using TFS with MSF for Agile 4.2 on a project, and I have a bunch of work to do, both Tasks and Bugs. Both are prioritized by our managers, and assigned due dates and target releases. I use a Work Item query as my main TODO list, and I want to list all the Work Items assigned to me, in order by due date and priority. Problem: I can't seem to find a way to write a unified query that will list both Tasks and Bugs sorted by date and then priority. The problem is that Tasks and Bugs use different fields for Priority. So, my query currently lists the tasks by Due Date, then by Task Priority, then it lists Bugs by Due Date, then by Priority. So, I see tasks that are due later than bugs: Title Due Date Priority Task Priority task1 4/23/2010 Medium task2 4/23/2010 High task3 4/30/2010 Low task4 4/30/2010 Medium bug1 4/23/2010 1 bug2 4/23/2010 2 What I want: Title Due Date Priority Task Priority task1 4/23/2010 Medium task2 4/23/2010 High bug1 4/23/2010 1 bug2 4/23/2010 2 task3 4/30/2010 Low task4 4/30/2010 Medium I don't care if the bugs come before or after the tasks on the same due date; I just want all the work items grouped together by due date, so I never see Tasks for a later due date before Bugs for an earlier one. Another problem is the sorting on Task Priority -- alpha sort means I can't get them to sort by the meaning of the priority. But that's a minor problem I can live with if I can get the Tasks and Bugs intermingled. Any way to do this in a single query?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 248 249 250 251 252 253 254 255 256 257 258 259  | Next Page >