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• How to copy DispatcherObject (BitmapSource) into different thread?

  - by Tomáš Kafka

  Hi, I am trying to figure out how can I copy DispatcherObject (in my case BitmapSource) into another thread. Use case: I have a WPF app that needs to show window in a new thread (the app is actually Outlook addin and we need to do this because Outlook has some hooks in the main UI thread and is stealing certain hotkeys that we need to use - 'lost in translation' in interop of Outlook, WPF (which we use for UI), and Winforms (we need to use certain microsoft-provided winforms controls)). With that, I have my implementation of WPFMessageBox, that is configured by setting some static properties - and and one of them is BitmapSource for icon. This is used so that in startup I can set WPFMessageBox.Icon once, and since then, every WPFMessageBox will have the same icon. The problem is that BitmapSource, which is assigned into icon, is a DispatcherObject, and when read, it will throw InvalidOperationException: "The calling thread cannot access this object because a different thread owns it.". How can I clone that BitmapSource into the actual thread? It has Clone() and CloneCurrentValue() methods, which don't work (they throw the same exception as well). It also occured to me to use originalIcon.Dispatcher.Invoke( do the cloning here ) - but the BitmapSource's Dispatcher is null, and still - I'd create a copy on a wrong thread and still couldnt use it on mine. BitmapSource.IsFrozen == true. Any idea on how to copy the BitmapSource into different thread (without completely reconstructing it from an image file in a new thread)? EDIT: So, freezing does not help: In the end I have a BitmapFrame (Window.Icon doesn't take any other kind of ImageSource anyway), and when I assign it as a Window.Icon on a different thread, even if frozen, I get InvalidOperationException: "The calling thread cannot access this object because a different thread owns it." with a following stack trace: WindowsBase.dll!System.Windows.Threading.Dispatcher.VerifyAccess() + 0x4a bytes WindowsBase.dll!System.Windows.Threading.DispatcherObject.VerifyAccess() + 0xc bytes PresentationCore.dll!System.Windows.Media.Imaging.BitmapDecoder.Frames.get() + 0xe bytes PresentationFramework.dll!MS.Internal.AppModel.IconHelper.GetIconHandlesFromBitmapFrame(object callingObj = {WPFControls.WPFMBox.WpfMessageBoxWindow: header}, System.Windows.Media.Imaging.BitmapFrame bf = {System.Windows.Media.Imaging.BitmapFrameDecode}, ref MS.Win32.NativeMethods.IconHandle largeIconHandle = {MS.Win32.NativeMethods.IconHandle}, ref MS.Win32.NativeMethods.IconHandle smallIconHandle = {MS.Win32.NativeMethods.IconHandle}) + 0x3b bytes > PresentationFramework.dll!System.Windows.Window.UpdateIcon() + 0x118 bytes PresentationFramework.dll!System.Windows.Window.SetupInitialState(double requestedTop = NaN, double requestedLeft = NaN, double requestedWidth = 560.0, double requestedHeight = NaN) + 0x8a bytes PresentationFramework.dll!System.Windows.Window.CreateSourceWindowImpl() + 0x19b bytes PresentationFramework.dll!System.Windows.Window.SafeCreateWindow() + 0x29 bytes PresentationFramework.dll!System.Windows.Window.ShowHelper(object booleanBox) + 0x81 bytes PresentationFramework.dll!System.Windows.Window.Show() + 0x48 bytes PresentationFramework.dll!System.Windows.Window.ShowDialog() + 0x29f bytes WPFControls.dll!WPFControls.WPFMBox.WpfMessageBox.ShowDialog(System.Windows.Window owner = {WPFControlsTest.MainWindow}) Line 185 + 0x10 bytes C#

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• how to: handle exceptions, best practices

  - by b0x0rz

  need to implement a global error handling, so maybe you can help out with the following example... i have this code: public bool IsUserAuthorizedToSignIn(string userEMailAddress, string userPassword) { // get MD5 hash for use in the LINQ query string passwordSaltedHash = this.PasswordSaltedHash(userEMailAddress, userPassword); // check for email / password / validity using (UserManagementDataContext context = new UserManagementDataContext()) { var users = from u in context.Users where u.UserEMailAdresses.Any(e => e.EMailAddress == userEMailAddress) && u.UserPasswords.Any(p => p.PasswordSaltedHash == passwordSaltedHash) && u.IsActive == true select u; // true if user found return (users.Count() == 1) ? true : false; } } and the md5 as well: private string PasswordSaltedHash(string userEMailAddress, string userPassword) { MD5 hasher = MD5.Create(); byte[] data = hasher.ComputeHash(Encoding.Default.GetBytes(userPassword + userEMailAddress)); StringBuilder stringBuilder = new StringBuilder(); for (int i = 0; i < data.Length; i++) { stringBuilder.Append(data[i].ToString("x2")); } Trace.WriteLine(String.Empty); Trace.WriteLine("hash: " + stringBuilder.ToString()); return stringBuilder.ToString(); } so, how would i go about handling exceptions from these functions? they first one is called from the Default.aspx page. the second one is only called from other functions from the class library. what is the best practice? surround code INSIDE each function with try-catch surround the FUNCTION CALL with try-catch something else?? what to do if exceptions happen? in this example: this is a user sign in, so somehow even if everything fails, the user should get some meaningful info - along the lines: sign in ok (just redirect), sign in not ok (wrong user name / password), sign in not possible due to internal problems, sorry (exception happened). for the first function i am worried if there is a problem with database access. not sure if there is anything that needs to be handled in the second one. thnx for the info. how would you do it? need specific info on this (easier for me to understand), but also general info on how to handle other tasks/functions. i looked around the internet but everyone has different things to say, so unsure what to do... will go with either most votes here, or most logicaly explained answer :) thank you.

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• Included php file calling Javascript function

  - by Illes Peter

  Hi there! Here's the deal. I've got index.php which links to an internal JS file in it's header. index.php then includes another .php file, which outputs this: + add file. addFile() is a Javascript function defined in the external JS file. By doing this nothing happens, the included php does not "see" the JS function. Encapsulating the JS in the included PHP makes it all work. But I don't want to do it that way. Any ideas? EDIT: here's the source <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.1//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml11/DTD/xhtml11.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title>Archie</title> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"/> <link rel="stylesheet" href="/screen.css" type="text/css" media="screen"/> <script src="/lib/js/archie.js" type="text/javascript"></script> </head> <body> ... ... //included php starts here <form action="/lib/course.php" method="post"> <fieldset> <div id="addFileLocation"></div> <a href="#" onClick="addFile()">+ add file</a> <input type="hidden" id="addFileCount" value="0"/> </fieldset> </form> //ends here ... ... </body> </html> and the js: <script type="text/javascript"> //Dynamically add form fields //add file browser function addFile() { var location = document.getElementById('addFileLocation'); var num = document.getElementById('addFileCount'); var newnum = (document.getElementById('addFileCount').value -1)+ 2; num.value = newnum; var newname = 'addFile_'+newnum; var newelement = document.createElement('input'); newelement.setAttribute('name',newname); newelement.setAttribute('type','file'); location.appendChild(newelement); } </script>

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• What to name column in database table that holds versioning number

  - by rwmnau

  I'm trying to figure out what to call the column in my database table that holds an INT to specific "record version". I'm currently using "RecordOrder", but I don't like that, because people think higher=newer, but the way I'm using it, lower=newer (with "1" being the current record, "2" being the second most current, "3" older still, and so on). I've considered "RecordVersion", but I'm afraid that would have the same problem. Any other suggestions? "RecordAge"? I'm doing this because when I insert into the table, instead of having to find out what version is next, then run the risk of having that number stolen from me before I write, I just insert insert with a "RecordOrder" of 0. There's a trigger on the table AFTER INSERT that increments all the "RecordOrder" numbers for that key by 1, so the record I just inserted becomes "1", and all others are increased by 1. That way, you can get a person's current record by selection RecordOrder=1, instead of getting the MAX(RecordOrder) and then selecting that. PS - I'm also open to criticism about why this is a terrible idea and I should be incrementing this index instead. This just seemed to make lookups much easier, but if it's a bad idea, please enlighten me! Some details about the data, as an example: I have the following database table: CREATE TABLE AmountDue ( CustomerNumber INT, AmountDue DECIMAL(14,2), RecordOrder SMALLINT, RecordCreated DATETIME ) A subset of my data looks like this: CustomerNumber Amountdue RecordOrder RecordCreated 100 0 1 2009-12-19 05:10:10.123 100 10.05 2 2009-12-15 06:12:10.123 100 100.00 3 2009-12-14 14:19:10.123 101 5.00 1 2009-11-14 05:16:10.123 In this example, there are three rows for customer 100 - they owed $100, then $10.05, and now they owe nothing. Let me know if I need to clarify it some more. UPDATE: The "RecordOrder" and "RecordCreated" columns are not available to the user - they're only there for internal use, and to help figure out which is the current customer record. Also, I could use it to return an appropriately-ordered customer history, though I could just as easily do that with the date. I can accomplish the same thing as an incrementing "Record Version" with just the RecordCreated date, I suppose, but that removes the convenience of knowing that RecordOrder=1 is the current record, and I'm back to doing a sub-query with MAX or MIN on the DateTime to determine the most recent record.

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• Problem determining how to order F# types due to circular references

  - by James Black

  I have some types that extend a common type, and these are my models. I then have DAO types for each model type for CRUD operations. I now have a need for a function that will allow me to find an id given any model type, so I created a new type for some miscellaneous functions. The problem is that I don't know how to order these types. Currently I have models before dao, but I somehow need DAOMisc before CityDAO and CityDAO before DAOMisc, which isn't possible. The simple approach would be to put this function in each DAO, referring to just the types that can come before it, so, State comes before City as State has a foreign key relationship with City, so the miscellaneous function would be very short. But, this just strikes me as wrong, so I am not certain how to best approach this. Here is my miscellaneous type, where BaseType is a common type for all my models. type DAOMisc = member internal self.FindIdByType item = match(item:BaseType) with | :? StateType as i -> let a = (StateDAO()).Retrieve i a.Head.Id | :? CityType as i -> let a = (CityDAO()).Retrieve i a.Head.Id | _ -> -1 Here is one dao type. CommonDAO actually has the code for the CRUD operations, but that is not important here. type CityDAO() = inherit CommonDAO<CityType>("city", ["name"; "state_id"], (fun(reader) -> [ while reader.Read() do let s = new CityType() s.Id <- reader.GetInt32 0 s.Name <- reader.GetString 1 s.StateName <- reader.GetString 3 ]), list.Empty ) This is my model type: type CityType() = inherit BaseType() let mutable name = "" let mutable stateName = "" member this.Name with get() = name and set restnameval=name <- restnameval member this.StateName with get() = stateName and set stateidval=stateName <- stateidval override this.ToSqlValuesList = [this.Name;] override this.ToFKValuesList = [StateType(Name=this.StateName);] The purpose for this FindIdByType function is that I want to find the id for a foreign key relationship, so I can set the value in my model and then have the CRUD functions do the operations with all the correct information. So, City needs the id for the state name, so I would get the state name, put it into the state type, then call this function to get the id for that state, so my city insert will also include the id for the foreign key. This seems to be the best approach, in a very generic way to handle inserts, which is the current problem I am trying to solve.

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• Simaltaneous connections with PHP and SOAP?

  - by Dov

  I'm new to using SOAP and understanding the utmost basics of it. I create a client resource/connection, I then run some queries in a loop and I'm done. The issue I am having is when I increase the iterations of the loop, ie: from 100 to 1000, it seems to run out of memory and drops an internal server error. How could I possibly run either a) multiple simaltaneous connections or b) create a connection, 100 iterations, close connection, create connection.. etc. "a)" looks to be the better option but I have no clue as to how to get it up and running whilst keeping memory (I assume opening and closing connections) at a minimum. Thanks in advance! index.php <?php // set loops to 0 $loops = 0; // connection credentials and settings $location = 'https://theconsole.com/'; $wsdl = $location.'?wsdl'; $username = 'user'; $password = 'pass'; // include the console and client classes include "class_console.php"; include "class_client.php"; // create a client resource / connection $client = new Client($location, $wsdl, $username, $password); while ($loops <= 100) { $dostuff; } ?> class_console.php <?php class Console { // the connection resource private $connection = NULL; /** * When this object is instantiated a connection will be made to the console */ public function __construct($location, $wsdl, $username, $password, $proxyHost = NULL, $proxyPort = NULL) { if(is_null($proxyHost) || is_null($proxyPort)) $connection = new SoapClient($wsdl, array('login' => $username, 'password' => $password)); else $connection = new SoapClient($wsdl, array('login' => $username, 'password' => $password, 'proxy_host' => $proxyHost, 'proxy_port' => $proxyPort)); $connection->__setLocation($location); $this->connection = $connection; return $this->connection; } /** * Will print any type of data to screen, where supported by print_r * * @param $var - The data to print to screen * @return $this->connection - The connection resource **/ public function screen($var) { print '<pre>'; print_r($var); print '</pre>'; return $this->connection; } /** * Returns a server / connection resource * * @return $this->connection - The connection resource */ public function srv() { return $this->connection; } } ?>

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• Help with strange memory behavior. Looking for leaks both in my brain and in my code.

  - by BastiBechtold

  I spent the last few days trying to find memory leaks in a program we are developing. First of all, I tried using some leak detectors. After fixing a few issues, they do not find any leaks any more. However, I am also monitoring my application using perfmon.exe. Performance Monitor reports that 'Private Bytes' and 'Working Set - Private' are steadily rising when the app is used. To me, this suggests that the program is using more and more memory the longer it runs. Internal resources seem to be stable however, so this sounds like leaking to me. The program is loading a DLL at runtime. I suspect that these leaks or whatever they are occur in that library and get purged when the library is unloaded, hence they won't get picked up by the leak detectors. I used both DevPartner BoundsChecker and Virtual Leak Detector to look for memory leaks. Both supposedly catch leaks in DLLs. Also, the memory consumption is increasing in steps and those steps roughly, but not exactly, coincide with certain GUI actions I perform in the application. If these were errors in our code, they should get triggered every single time the actions are performed and not just most of the time. Whenever I am confronted with so much strangeness, I begin to question my basic assumptions. So I turn to you, who know everything, for suggestions. Is there a flaw in my assumptions? Do you have an idea of how to go about troubleshooting a problem like this? Edit: I am currently using Microsoft Visual C++ (x86) on Windows 7 64. Edit2: I just used IBM Purify to hunt for leaks. First of all, it lists a full 30% of the program as leaked memory. This can not be true. I guess it is identifying the whole DLL as leaked or something like that. However, if I search for new leaks every few actions, it reports leaks that correspond with the size increase reported by Performance Monitor. This could be a lead to a leak. Sadly, I am only using the trial version of Purify, so it won't show me the actual location of those leaks. (These leaks only show up at runtime. When the program exits, there are no leaks whatsoever reported by any tool.)

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• XmlHttpRequest bug?

  - by valdo

  Hello all. I'm writing a program that among other things needs to download a file given its URL. I'm too lazy to implement the Http/Https protocols manually, so that I needed some library/object/function that'll do the job. Critical requirement: The download must be asynchronous. That is, the thread that issued the download must be able to do something else "while" downloading the file, plus the download must be able to be aborted anytime without any barbaric side effects (such as internal call to TerminateThread). Nice-to-have requirements: Should be able to download the file "into memory". Means - read the contents of the file as they arrive, not necessarily save it into some "file system" file. It'd be nice to have some convenient Win32 progress notification mechanism (waitable event, semahpore, completion port, etc.), rather than just periodically polling the download status. I've chosen the XmlHttpRequest COM object to do the work. It seemed to work fine enough, plus it supported asynchronous mode. However I noticed that after some period it just stops working. That is, after several successful file downloads it stops downloading anything. I periodically poll it to get its status, it reports "in-progress", but nothing actually happens, and there's no network activity. Moreover, when the same process creates another instance of XmlHttpRequest object to perform new downloads - the effect is the same. The object reports "in progress", whereas it doesn't even try to connect to the server (according to network sniffers and system TCP state). The only way to make this object work back is to restart the process. This makes me suspect that there's a sort of a bug (sorry, I meant undocumented feature) in the object. Also it's not a bug at the level of an individual object, since the problem persists when the object is destroyed and another one is created. It's probably some global state of the DLL that implements this object. Does anyone know something about this? Is this a known bug? I'm pretty sure there's no chance that I have another bug in my code, because of which it seems to me to be the bug is in the XmlHttpRequest. I've done enoughtests and spent time with the debugger to conclude without reasonable doubt that it's just the object stops working. BTW, while the object should work, I do all the waiting via MsgWaitXXXX API calls. So that if this object needs the message loop to work properly (for instance, it may create a hidden notification window and bind it to a socket via WSAAsyncSelect) - I give it the opportunity.

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• QValidator for hex input

  - by Evan Teran

  I have a Qt widget which should only accept a hex string as input. It is very simple to restrict the input characters to [0-9A-Fa-f], but I would like to have it display with a delimiter between "bytes" so for example if the delimiter is a space, and the user types 0011223344 I would like the line edit to display 00 11 22 33 44 Now if the user presses the backspace key 3 times, then I want it to display 00 11 22 3. I almost have what i want, so far there is only one subtle bug involving using the delete key to remove a delimiter. Does anyone have a better way to implement this validator? Here's my code so far: class HexStringValidator : public QValidator { public: HexStringValidator(QObject * parent) : QValidator(parent) {} public: virtual void fixup(QString &input) const { QString temp; int index = 0; // every 2 digits insert a space if they didn't explicitly type one Q_FOREACH(QChar ch, input) { if(std::isxdigit(ch.toAscii())) { if(index != 0 && (index & 1) == 0) { temp += ' '; } temp += ch.toUpper(); ++index; } } input = temp; } virtual State validate(QString &input, int &pos) const { if(!input.isEmpty()) { // TODO: can we detect if the char which was JUST deleted // (if any was deleted) was a space? and special case this? // as to not have the bug in this case? const int char_pos = pos - input.left(pos).count(' '); int chars = 0; fixup(input); pos = 0; while(chars != char_pos) { if(input[pos] != ' ') { ++chars; } ++pos; } // favor the right side of a space if(input[pos] == ' ') { ++pos; } } return QValidator::Acceptable; } }; For now this code is functional enough, but I'd love to have it work 100% as expected. Obviously the ideal would be the just separate the display of the hex string from the actual characters stored in the QLineEdit's internal buffer but I have no idea where to start with that and I imagine is a non-trivial undertaking. In essence, I would like to have a Validator which conforms to this regex: "[0-9A-Fa-f]( [0-9A-Fa-f])*" but I don't want the user to ever have to type a space as delimiter. Likewise, when editing what they types, the spaces should be managed implicitly.

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• Send Mail through Jsp page.

  - by sourabhtaletiya

  hi friends ,i have tried alot to send mail via jsp page but i am not succeded. A error is coming javax.servlet.ServletException: 530 5.7.0 Must issue a STARTTLS command first. x1sm5029316wbx.19 <html> <head> <title>JSP JavaMail Example </title> </head> <body> <%@ page import="java.util.*" %> <%@ page import="javax.mail.*" %> <%@ page import="javax.mail.internet.*" %> <%@ page import="javax.activation.*" %> <% java.security.Security.addProvider(new com.sun.net.ssl.internal.ssl.Provider()); Properties props = System.getProperties(); props.put("mail.smtp.starttls.enable","true"); props.put("mail.smtp.starttls.required","true"); String host = "smtp.gmail.com"; String to = request.getParameter("to"); String from = request.getParameter("from"); String subject = request.getParameter("subject"); String messageText = request.getParameter("body"); boolean sessionDebug = false; props.put("mail.smtp.host", "smtp.gmail.com"); props.put("mail.transport.protocol", "smtp"); props.put("mail.smtp.port", "25"); props.put("mail.smtp.auth", "true"); props.put("mail.debug", "true"); props.put("mail.smtp.socketFactory.port","25"); props.put("mail.smtp.starttls.enable","true"); Session mailSession = Session.getDefaultInstance(props, null); mailSession.setDebug(sessionDebug); Message msg = new MimeMessage(mailSession); props.put("mail.smtp.starttls.enable","true"); msg.setFrom(new InternetAddress(from)); InternetAddress[] address = {new InternetAddress(to)}; msg.setRecipients(Message.RecipientType.TO, address); msg.setSubject(subject); msg.setSentDate(new Date()); msg.setText(messageText); props.put("mail.smtp.starttls.enable","true"); Transport tr = mailSession.getTransport("smtp"); tr.connect(host, "sourabh.web7", "june251989"); msg.saveChanges(); // don't forget this props.put("mail.smtp.starttls.enable","true"); tr.sendMessage(msg, msg.getAllRecipients()); tr.close(); // Transport.send(msg); /* out.println("Mail was sent to " + to); out.println(" from " + from); out.println(" using host " + host + ".");*/ %> </table> </body> </html>

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• How to remove the explicit dependencies to other projects' libraries in Eclipse launch configuration

  - by euluis

  In Eclipse it is possible to create launch configurations in a project, specifying the runtime dependencies from another project. A problem I found was that if you have a multiple project workspace, being possible that each project has its own libraries, it is easy to add explicit dependencies in a secondary project to libraries that are of another project and therefore subject to change. An example of this problem follows: proj1 +-- src +-- lib +-- jar1-v1.0.jar +-- jar2-v1.0.jar proj2 +-- src +-- proj2-tests.launch I don't have a dependency from the code in proj2/src to the libraries in proj1/lib. Nevertheless, I do have a dependency from proj2/src to proj1/src, although since there is an internal dependency in the code in proj1/src to its libraries jar1-v1.0.jar and jar2.v1.0.jar, I have to add a dependency in proj2-tests.launch to the libraries in proj1/lib. This translates to the following ugly lines in proj2-tests.launch: <listEntry value="<?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="no"?> <runtimeClasspathEntry path="3" projectName="proj1" type="1"/> "/> <listEntry value="<?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="no"?> <runtimeClasspathEntry internalArchive="/proj1/lib/jar1-v1.0.jar" path="3" type="2"/> "/> <listEntry value="<?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="no"?> <runtimeClasspathEntry internalArchive="/proj1/lib/jar2-v1.0.jar" path="3" type="2"/> "/> This wouldn't be a big problem if there wasn't the need from time to time to evolve the software, upgrade the libraries and etc. Consider the common need to upgrade the libraries jar1-v1.0.jar and jar2-v1.0.jar to their versions v1.1. Consider that you have about 10 projects in one workspace, having about 5 libraries each and about 4 launch configurations. You get a maintenance overhead in doing a simple upgrade of a library, which normally must imply changes in files for which there wasn't the need for. Or maybe I'm doing something wrong... What I would like to state is proj2 depends on proj1 and on its libraries and having this translated to simply that in the *.launch files. Is that possible?

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• Using boost::iterator

  - by Neil G

  I wrote a sparse vector class (see #1, #2.) I would like to provide two kinds of iterators: The first set, the regular iterators, can point any element, whether set or unset. If they are read from, they return either the set value or value_type(), if they are written to, they create the element and return the lvalue reference. Thus, they are: Random Access Traversal Iterator and Readable and Writable Iterator The second set, the sparse iterators, iterate over only the set elements. Since they don't need to lazily create elements that are written to, they are: Random Access Traversal Iterator and Readable and Writable and Lvalue Iterator I also need const versions of both, which are not writable. I can fill in the blanks, but not sure how to use boost::iterator_adaptor to start out. Here's what I have so far: template<typename T> class sparse_vector { public: typedef size_t size_type; typedef T value_type; private: typedef T& true_reference; typedef const T* const_pointer; typedef sparse_vector<T> self_type; struct ElementType { ElementType(size_type i, T const& t): index(i), value(t) {} ElementType(size_type i, T&& t): index(i), value(t) {} ElementType(size_type i): index(i) {} ElementType(ElementType const&) = default; size_type index; value_type value; }; typedef vector<ElementType> array_type; public: typedef T* pointer; typedef T& reference; typedef const T& const_reference; private: size_type size_; mutable typename array_type::size_type sorted_filled_; mutable array_type data_; // lots of code for various algorithms... public: class sparse_iterator : public boost::iterator_adaptor< sparse_iterator // Derived , array_type::iterator // Base (the internal array) (this paramater does not compile! -- says expected a type, got 'std::vector::iterator'???) , boost::use_default // Value , boost::random_access_traversal_tag? // CategoryOrTraversal > class iterator_proxy { ??? }; class iterator : public boost::iterator_facade< iterator // Derived , ????? // Base , ????? // Value , boost::?????? // CategoryOrTraversal > { }; };

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• Memory Leak with Swing Drag and Drop

  - by tom

  I have a JFrame that accepts top-level drops of files. However after a drop has occurred, references to the frame are held indefinitely inside some Swing internal classes. I believe that disposing of the frame should release all of its resources, so what am I doing wrong? Example import java.awt.datatransfer.DataFlavor; import java.io.File; import java.util.List; import javax.swing.JFrame; import javax.swing.JLabel; import javax.swing.TransferHandler; public class DnDLeakTester extends JFrame { public static void main(String[] args) { new DnDLeakTester(); //Prevent main from returning or the jvm will exit while (true) { try { Thread.sleep(10000); } catch (InterruptedException e) { } } } public DnDLeakTester() { super("I'm leaky"); add(new JLabel("Drop stuff here")); setTransferHandler(new TransferHandler() { @Override public boolean canImport(final TransferSupport support) { return (support.isDrop() && support .isDataFlavorSupported(DataFlavor.javaFileListFlavor)); } @Override public boolean importData(final TransferSupport support) { if (!canImport(support)) { return false; } try { final List<File> files = (List<File>) support.getTransferable().getTransferData(DataFlavor.javaFileListFlavor); for (final File f : files) { System.out.println(f.getName()); } } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } return true; } }); setDefaultCloseOperation(DISPOSE_ON_CLOSE); pack(); setVisible(true); } } To reproduce, run the code and drop some files on the frame. Close the frame so it's disposed of. To verify the leak I take a heap dump using JConsole and analyse it with the Eclipse Memory Analysis tool. It shows that sun.awt.AppContext is holding a reference to the frame through its hashmap. It looks like TransferSupport is at fault. What am I doing wrong? Should I be asking the DnD support code to clean itself up somehow? I'm running JDK 1.6 update 19.

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• NHibernate unintentional lazy property loading

  - by chiccodoro

  I introduced a mapping for a business object which has (among others) a property called "Name": public class Foo : BusinessObjectBase { ... public virtual string Name { get; set; } } For some reason, when I fetch "Foo" objects, NHibernate seems to apply lazy property loading (for simple properties, not associations): The following code piece generates n+1 SQL statements, whereof the first only fetches the ids, and the remaining n fetch the Name for each record: ISession session = ...IQuery query = session.CreateQuery(queryString); ITransaction tx = session.BeginTransaction(); List<Foo> result = new List<Foo>(); foreach (Foo foo in query.Enumerable()) { result.Add(foo); } tx.Commit(); session.Close(); produces: NHibernate: select foo0_.FOO_ID as col_0_0_ from V1_FOO foo0_<br/> NHibernate: SELECT foo0_.FOO_ID as FOO1_2_0_, foo0_.NAME as NAME2_0_ FROM V1_FOO foo0_ WHERE foo0_.FOO_ID=:p0;:p0 = 81<br/> NHibernate: SELECT foo0_.FOO_ID as FOO1_2_0_, foo0_.NAME as NAME2_0_ FROM V1_FOO foo0_ WHERE foo0_.FOO_ID=:p0;:p0 = 36470<br/> NHibernate: SELECT foo0_.FOO_ID as FOO1_2_0_, foo0_.NAME as NAME2_0_ FROM V1_FOO foo0_ WHERE foo0_.FOO_ID=:p0;:p0 = 36473 Similarly, the following code leads to a LazyLoadingException after session is closed: ISession session = ... ITransaction tx = session.BeginTransaction(); Foo result = session.Load<Foo>(id); tx.Commit(); session.Close(); Console.WriteLine(result.Name); Following this post, "lazy properties ... is rarely an important feature to enable ... (and) in Hibernate 3, is disabled by default." So what am I doing wrong? I managed to work around the LazyLoadingException by doing a NHibernateUtil.Initialize(foo) but the even worse part are the n+1 sql statements which bring my application to its knees. This is how the mapping looks like: <class name="Foo" table="V1_FOO"> ... <property name="Name" column="NAME"/> </class> BTW: The abstract "BusinessObjectBase" base class encapsulates the ID property which serves as the internal identifier.

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• User Control as container at design time

  - by Luca

  I'm designing a simple expander control. I've derived from UserControl, drawn inner controls, built, run; all ok. Since an inner Control is a Panel, I'd like to use it as container at design time. Indeed I've used the attributes: [Designer(typeof(ExpanderControlDesigner))] [Designer("System.Windows.Forms.Design.ParentControlDesigner, System.Design", typeof(IDesigner))] Great I say. But it isn't... The result is that I can use it as container at design time but: The added controls go back the inner controls already embedded in the user control Even if I push to top a control added at design time, at runtime it is back again on controls embedded to the user control I cannot restrict the container area at design time into a Panel area What am I missing? Here is the code for completeness... why this snippet of code is not working? [Designer(typeof(ExpanderControlDesigner))] [Designer("System.Windows.Forms.Design.ParentControlDesigner, System.Design", typeof(IDesigner))] public partial class ExpanderControl : UserControl { public ExpanderControl() { InitializeComponent(); .... [System.Security.Permissions.PermissionSet(System.Security.Permissions.SecurityAction.Demand, Name = "FullTrust")] internal class ExpanderControlDesigner : ControlDesigner { private ExpanderControl MyControl; public override void Initialize(IComponent component) { base.Initialize(component); MyControl = (ExpanderControl)component; // Hook up events ISelectionService s = (ISelectionService)GetService(typeof(ISelectionService)); IComponentChangeService c = (IComponentChangeService)GetService(typeof(IComponentChangeService)); s.SelectionChanged += new EventHandler(OnSelectionChanged); c.ComponentRemoving += new ComponentEventHandler(OnComponentRemoving); } private void OnSelectionChanged(object sender, System.EventArgs e) { } private void OnComponentRemoving(object sender, ComponentEventArgs e) { } protected override void Dispose(bool disposing) { ISelectionService s = (ISelectionService)GetService(typeof(ISelectionService)); IComponentChangeService c = (IComponentChangeService)GetService(typeof(IComponentChangeService)); // Unhook events s.SelectionChanged -= new EventHandler(OnSelectionChanged); c.ComponentRemoving -= new ComponentEventHandler(OnComponentRemoving); base.Dispose(disposing); } public override System.ComponentModel.Design.DesignerVerbCollection Verbs { get { DesignerVerbCollection v = new DesignerVerbCollection(); v.Add(new DesignerVerb("&asd", new EventHandler(null))); return v; } } } I've found many resources (Interaction, designed, limited area), but nothing was usefull for being operative... Actually there is a trick, since System.Windows.Forms classes can be designed (as usual) and have a correct behavior at runtime (TabControl, for example).

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• Hide public method used to help test a .NET assembly

  - by ChrisW

  I have a .NET assembly, to be released. Its release build includes: A public, documented API of methods which people are supposed to use A public but undocumented API of other methods, which exist only in order to help test the assembly, and which people are not supposed to use The assembly to be released is a custom control, not an application. To regression-test it, I run it in a testing framework/application, which uses (in addition to the public/documented API) some advanced/undocumented methods which are exported from the control. For the public methods which I don't want people to use, I excluded them from the documentation using the <exclude> tag (supported by the Sandcastle Help File Builder), and the [EditorBrowsable] attribute, for example like this: /// <summary> /// Gets a <see cref="IEditorTransaction"/> instance, which helps /// to combine several DOM edits into a single transaction, which /// can be undone and redone as if they were a single, atomic operation. /// </summary> /// <returns>A <see cref="IEditorTransaction"/> instance.</returns> IEditorTransaction createEditorTransaction(); /// <exclude/> [EditorBrowsable(EditorBrowsableState.Never)] void debugDumpBlocks(TextWriter output); This successfully removes the method from the API documentation, and from Intellisense. However, if in a sample application program I right-click on an instance of the interface to see its definition in the metadata, I can still see the method, and the [EditorBrowsable] attribute as well, for example: // Summary: // Gets a ModelText.ModelDom.Nodes.IEditorTransaction instance, which helps // to combine several DOM edits into a single transaction, which can be undone // and redone as if they were a single, atomic operation. // // Returns: // A ModelText.ModelDom.Nodes.IEditorTransaction instance. IEditorTransaction createEditorTransaction(); // [EditorBrowsable(EditorBrowsableState.Never)] void debugDumpBlocks(TextWriter output); Questions: Is there a way to hide a public method, even from the meta data? If not then instead, for this scenario, would you recommend making the methods internal and using the InternalsVisibleTo attribute? Or would you recommend some other way, and if so what and why? Thank you.

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• Hierarchy inheritance

  - by reito

  I had faced the problem. In my C++ hierarchy tree I have two branches for entities of difference nature, but same behavior - same interface. I created such hierarchy trees (first in image below). And now I want to work with Item or Base classes independetly of their nature (first or second). Then I create one abstract branch for this use. My mind build (second in image below). But it not working. Working scheme seems (third in image below). It's bad logic, I think... Do anybody have some ideas about such hierarchy inheritance? How make it more logical? More simple for understanding? Image Sorry for my english - russian internet didn't help:) Update: You ask me to be more explicit, and I will be. In my project (plugins for Adobe Framemaker) I need to work with dialogs and GUI controls. In some places I working with WinAPI controls, and some other places with FDK (internal Framemaker) controls, but I want to work throw same interface. I can't use one base class and inherite others from it, because all needed controls - is a hierarchy tree (not one class). So I have one hierarchy tree for WinAPI controls, one for FDK and one abstract tree to use anyone control. For example, there is an Edit control (WinEdit and FdkEdit realization), a Button control (WinButton and FdkButton realization) and base entity - Control (WinControl and FdkControl realization). For now I can link my classes in realization trees (Win and Fdk) with inheritence between each of them (WinControl is base class for WinButton and WinEdit; FdkControl is base class for FdkButton and FdkEdit). And I can link to abstract classes (Control is base class for WinControl and FdkControl; Edit is base class for WinEdit and FdkEdit; Button is base class for WinButton and FdkButton). But I can't link my abstract tree - compiler swears. In fact I have two hierarchy trees, that I want to inherite from another one. Update: I have done this quest! :) I used the virtual inheritence and get such scheme (http://img12.imageshack.us/img12/7782/99614779.png). Abstract tree has only absolute abstract methods. All inheritence in abstract tree are virtual. Link from realization tree to abstract are virtual. On image shown only one realization tree for simplicity. Thanks for help!

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• ZF-Autoloader not working in UnitTests on Ubuntu

  - by Sam

  i got a problem regarding Unit-testing a Zend-Framework application under Ubuntu 12.04. The project-structure is a default zend application whereas the models are defined as the following ./application ./models ./DbTable ./ProjectStatus.php (Application_Model_DbTable_ProjectStatus) ./Mappers ./ProjectStatus.php (Application_Model_Mapper_ProjectStatus) ./ProjectStatus.php (Application_Model_ProjectStatus) The Problem here is with the Zend-specific autoloading. The naming convention here appears that the folder Mappers loads all classes with _Mapper but not _Mappers. This is some internal Zend behavior which is fine so far. On my windows machine the phpunit runs without any Problems, trying to initiate all those classes. On my Ubuntu machine however with jenkins running on it, phpunit fails to find the appropriate classes giving me the following error Fatal error: Class 'Application_Model_Mapper_ProjectStatus' not found in /var/lib/jenkins/jobs/PAM/workspace/tests/application/models/Mapper/ProjectStatusTest.php on line 39 The error appears to really be that the Zend-Autoloader doesn't load from the ubuntu machine, but i can't figure out how or why this works. The question remains of why this is. I think i've double checked every point of contact with the zend autoloading stuff, but i just can't figure this out. I'll paste the - from my point of view relevant snippets - and hope someone of you has any insight to this. Jenkins Snippet for PHPUnit <target name="phpunit" description="Run unit tests with PHPUnit"> <exec executable="phpunit" failonerror="true"> <arg line="--configuration '${basedir}/tests/phpunit.xml' --coverage-clover '${basedir}/build/logs/clover.xml' --coverage-html '${basedir}/build/coverage/.' --log-junit '${basedir}/build/logs/junit.xml'" /> </exec> </target> ./tests/phpunit.xml <phpunit bootstrap="./bootstrap.php"> ... this shouldn't be of relevance ... </phpunit> ./tests/bootstrap.php <?php // Define path to application directory defined('APPLICATION_PATH') || define('APPLICATION_PATH', realpath(dirname(__FILE__) . '/../application')); // Define application environment defined('APPLICATION_ENV') || define('APPLICATION_ENV', (getenv('APPLICATION_ENV') ? getenv('APPLICATION_ENV') : 'testing')); // Ensure library/ is on include_path set_include_path(implode(PATH_SEPARATOR, array( realpath(APPLICATION_PATH . '/../library'), get_include_path(), ))); require_once 'Zend/Loader/Autoloader.php'; Zend_Loader_Autoloader::getInstance(); Any help will be appreciated.

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• Is there a recommended approach to handle saving data in response to within-site navigation without

  - by Carvell Fenton

  Hello all, Preamble to scope my question: I have a web app (or site, this is an internal LAN site) that uses jQuery and AJAX extensively to dynamically load the content section of the UI in the browser. A user navigates the app using a navigation menu. Clicking an item in the navigation menu makes an AJAX call to php, and php then returns the content that is used to populate the central content section. One of the pages served back by php has a table form, set up like a spreadsheet, that the user enters values into. This table is always kept in sync with data in the database. So, when the table is created, is it populated with the relevant database data. Then when the user makes a change in a "cell", that change immediately is written back to the database so the table and database are always in sync. This approach was take to reassure users that the data they entered has been saved (long story...), and to alleviate them from having to click a save button of some kind. So, this always in sync idea is great, except that a user can enter a value in a cell, not take focus out of the cell, and then take any number of actions that would cause that last value to be lost: e.g. navigate to another section of the site via the navigation menu, log out of the app, close the browser, etc. End of preamble, on to the issue: I initially thought that wasn't a problem, because I would just track what data was "dirty" or not saved, and then in the onunload event I would do a final write to the database. Herein lies the rub: because of my clever (or not so clever, not sure) use of AJAX and dynamically loading the content section, the user never actually leaves the original url, or page, when the above actions are taken, with the exception of closing the browser. Therefore, the onunload event does not fire, and I am back to losing the last data again. My question, is there a recommended way to handle figuring out if a person is navigating away from a "section" of your app when content is dynamically loaded this way? I can come up with a solution I think, that involves globals and tracking the currently viewed page, but I thought I would check if there might be a more elegant solution out there, or a change I could make in my design, that would make this work. Thanks in advance as always!

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• Hibernate @Transactional not starting transaction

  - by rhinds

  I have a web app using Hibernate, and I am attempting to persist some data, but it is failing to persist within a Transaction despite using the @Transactional annotation. My service class is as follows: @Service("profileService") public class ProfileService { private EntityManager entityManager; @Autowired private AccountService accountService; @Autowired private ProfileDAOImpl profileDao; @PersistenceContext public void setEntityManager(EntityManager em) { this.entityManager = em; } @Transactional public void addConnectionToAccount(SocialConnection sc) { entityManager.persist(sc); } } The addConnectionToAccount() method is being called from another Spring bean in a normal method, and the ProfileService class is currently being injected there: public class HibernateConnectionRepository implements ConnectionRepository { @Inject private ProfileService profileService; @Override @Transactional public void addConnection(SocialConnection sc) { try { profileService.addConnectionToAccount(accountId, sc); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } I tried putting the @Transactional annotation on the calling method in the vain hope that it might make a difference but nothing. Previously I have experienced problems like this its been because the object being persisted does not satisfy table restrictions (such as non-nullable columns as null) or because the method is being called from within the same class and the calling method is not Transactional, but neither of those are the case here.. Any ideas? it just fails silently, the logs are as follows: 2012-03-26 22:25:04,702 [http-bio-8085-exec-9] DEBUG com.mchange.v2.resourcepool.BasicResourcePool - trace com.mchange.v2.resourcepool.BasicResourcePool@1bc25c8 [managed: 3, unused: 2, excluded: 0] (e.g. com.mchange.v2.c3p0.impl.NewPooledConnection@e5b006) 2012-03-26 22:25:04,710 [http-bio-8085-exec-9] DEBUG org.hibernate.SQL - select SEQ_COUNT from SEQUENCE where SEQ_NAME = 'PO_SEQ' for update 2012-03-26 22:25:04,711 [http-bio-8085-exec-9] DEBUG org.hibernate.SQL - update SEQUENCE set SEQ_COUNT = ? where SEQ_COUNT = ? and SEQ_NAME = 'PO_SEQ' 2012-03-26 22:25:04,723 [http-bio-8085-exec-9] DEBUG com.mchange.v2.resourcepool.BasicResourcePool - trace com.mchange.v2.resourcepool.BasicResourcePool@1bc25c8 [managed: 3, unused: 2, excluded: 0] (e.g. com.mchange.v2.c3p0.impl.NewPooledConnection@e5b006) 2012-03-26 22:25:04,723 [http-bio-8085-exec-9] DEBUG org.hibernate.event.internal.AbstractSaveEventListener - Generated identifier: 2200, using strategy: org.hibernate.id.MultipleHiLoPerTableGenerator UPDATE Also wanted to mention that the HibernateConnectionRepository bean is not annotated and is actually being configured in an @Configuration class (if this makes any difference? not used @Configuration classes much). The method to create the bean is as follows: @Bean @Scope(value = "request", proxyMode = ScopedProxyMode.INTERFACES) public ConnectionRepository connectionRepository() { Authentication authentication = SecurityContextHolder.getContext().getAuthentication(); if (authentication == null) { throw new IllegalStateException("Unable to get a ConnectionRepository: no user signed in"); } ApplicationUser user = (ApplicationUser) authentication.getPrincipal(); return usersConnectionRepository().createConnectionRepository(String.valueOf(user.getAccountId())); } The bean is scoped to the logged in user, but may also be created multiple times for each user..

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• JAXB doesn't unmarshal list of interfaces

  - by Joker_vD

  It seems JAXB can't read what it writes. Consider the following code: interface IFoo { void jump(); } @XmlRootElement class Bar implements IFoo { @XmlElement public String y; public Bar() { y = ""; } public Bar(String y) { this.y = y; } @Override public void jump() { System.out.println(y); } } @XmlRootElement class Baz implements IFoo { @XmlElement public int x; public Baz() { x = 0; } public Baz(int x) { this.x = x; } @Override public void jump() { System.out.println(x); } } @XmlRootElement public class Holder { private List<IFoo> things; public Holder() { things = new ArrayList<>(); } @XmlElementWrapper @XmlAnyElement public List<IFoo> getThings() { return things; } public void addThing(IFoo thing) { things.add(thing); } } // ... try { JAXBContext context = JAXBContext.newInstance(Holder.class, Bar.class, Baz.class); Holder holder = new Holder(); holder.addThing(new Bar("1")); holder.addThing(new Baz(2)); holder.addThing(new Baz(3)); for (IFoo thing : holder.getThings()) { thing.jump(); } StringWriter s = new StringWriter(); context.createMarshaller().marshal(holder, s); String data = s.toString(); System.out.println(data); StringReader t = new StringReader(data); Holder holder2 = (Holder)context.createUnmarshaller().unmarshal(t); for (IFoo thing : holder2.getThings()) { thing.jump(); } } catch (Exception e) { System.err.println(e.getMessage()); } It's a simplified example, of course. The point is that I have to store two very differently implemented classes, Bar and Baz, in one collection. Well, I observed that they have pretty similar public interface, so I created an interface IFoo and made them two to implement it. Now, I want to have tools to save and load this collection to/from XML. Unfortunately, this code doesn't quite work: the collection is saved, but then it cannot be loaded! The intended output is 1 2 3 some xml 1 2 3 But unfortunately, the actual output is 1 2 3 some xml com.sun.org.apache.xerces.internal.dom.ElementNSImpl cannot be cast to testapplication1.IFoo Apparently, I need to use the annotations in a different way? Or to give up on JAXB and look for something else? I, well, can write "XMLNode toXML()" method for all classes I wan't to (de)marshal, but...

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• How to Work Around Limitations in Generic Type Constraints in C#?

  - by Jose

  Okay I'm looking for some input, I'm pretty sure this is not currently supported in .NET 3.5 but here goes. I want to require a generic type passed into my class to have a constructor like this: new(IDictionary<string,object>) so the class would look like this public MyClass<T> where T : new(IDictionary<string,object>) { T CreateObject(IDictionary<string,object> values) { return new T(values); } } But the compiler doesn't support this, it doesn't really know what I'm asking. Some of you might ask, why do you want to do this? Well I'm working on a pet project of an ORM so I get values from the DB and then create the object and load the values. I thought it would be cleaner to allow the object just create itself with the values I give it. As far as I can tell I have two options: 1) Use reflection(which I'm trying to avoid) to grab the PropertyInfo[] array and then use that to load the values. 2) require T to support an interface like so: public interface ILoadValues { void LoadValues(IDictionary values); } and then do this public MyClass<T> where T:new(),ILoadValues { T CreateObject(IDictionary<string,object> values) { T obj = new T(); obj.LoadValues(values); return obj; } } The problem I have with the interface I guess is philosophical, I don't really want to expose a public method for people to load the values. Using the constructor the idea was that if I had an object like this namespace DataSource.Data { public class User { protected internal User(IDictionary<string,object> values) { //Initialize } } } As long as the MyClass<T> was in the same assembly the constructor would be available. I personally think that the Type constraint in my opinion should ask (Do I have access to this constructor? I do, great!) Anyways any input is welcome.

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• Mixing .NET versions between website and virtual directories and the "server application unavailable" error Message

  - by Doug Chamberlain

  Backstory Last month our development team created a new asp.net 3.5 application to place out on our production website. Once we had the work completed, we requested from the group that manages are server to copy the app out to our production site, and configure the virtual directory as a new application. On 12/27/2010, two public 'Gineau Pigs' were selected to use the app, and it worked great. On 12/30/2010, We received notification by internal staff, that when that staff member tried to access the application (this was the Business Process Owner) they recieved the 'Server Application Unavailable' message. When I called the group that does our server support, I was told that it probably failed, because I didn't close the connections in my code. However, the same group went in and then created a separate app pool for this Extension Request application. It has had no issues since. I did a little googling, since I do not like being blamed for things. I found that the 'Server Application Unavailable' message will also appear when you have multiple applications using different frameworks and you do not put them in different application pools. Technical Details - Tree of our website structure Main Website <-- ASP Classic +-Virtual Directory(ExtensionRequest) <-- ASP 3.5 From our server support group: 'Reviewed server logs and website setup in IIS. Had to reset the application pool as it was not working properly. This corrected the website and it is now back online. We went ahead and created a application pool for the extension web so it is isolated from the main site pool. In the past we have seen other application do this when there is a connection being left open and the pool fills up. Would recommend reviewing site code to make sure no connections are being left open.' The Real Question: What really caused the failure? Isn't the connection being left open issue an ASP Classic issue? Wouldn't the ExtensionRequest application have to be used (more than twice) in the first place to have the connections left open? Is it more likely the failure is caused by them not bothering to setup the new Application in it's own App Pool in the first place? Sorry for the long windedness

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• Switch between speakerphone and headset on Android

  - by user210504

  Hi! I wish to know if there is a way, using which we can switch between the speaker and headset dynamically in an android application. I am using this sample code, I found online for my experiments final float frequency = 440; float increment = (float)(2*Math.PI) * frequency / 44100; // angular increment for each sample float angle = 0; AndroidAudioDevice device = new AndroidAudioDevice( ); AudioManager am = (AudioManager)getSystemService(AUDIO_SERVICE); am.setMode(AudioManager.MODE_IN_CALL); float samples[] = new float[1024]; int count = 0; while( count < 10 ) { count++; for( int i = 0; i < samples.length; i++ ) { samples[i] = (float)Math.sin( angle ) ; angle += increment; } device.writeSamples( samples ); } device.stop(); am.setMode(AudioManager.MODE_NORMAL); ---- next class public class AndroidAudioDevice { AudioTrack track; short[] buffer = new short[1024]; public AndroidAudioDevice( ) { int minSize =AudioTrack.getMinBufferSize( 44100, AudioFormat.CHANNEL_CONFIGURATION_MONO, AudioFormat.ENCODING_PCM_16BIT ); track = new AudioTrack( AudioManager.STREAM_VOICE_CALL, 44100, AudioFormat.CHANNEL_CONFIGURATION_MONO, AudioFormat.ENCODING_PCM_16BIT, minSize, AudioTrack.MODE_STREAM); track.play(); } public void writeSamples(float[] samples) { fillBuffer( samples ); track.write( buffer, 0, samples.length ); } private void fillBuffer( float[] samples ) { if( buffer.length < samples.length ) buffer = new short[samples.length]; for( int i = 0; i < samples.length; i++ ) buffer[i] = (short)(samples[i] * Short.MAX_VALUE);; } public void stop() { track.stop(); } } As per my understanding this should play audio on headset, because we have not enabled the speaker phone. However, the audio is playing on the speaker phone. 1 Am I doing something wrong here? 2 What would be a way to switch between internal speaker and speaker phone dynamically for same code peice Any help will be appreciated.

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• Wordpress pages address rewrite

  - by kemp

  UPDATE I tried using the internal wordpress rewrite. What I have to do is an address like this: http://example.com/galleria/artist-name sent to the gallery.php page with a variable containing the artist-name. I used these rules as per Wordpress' documentation: // REWRITE RULES (per gallery) {{{ add_filter('rewrite_rules_array','wp_insertMyRewriteRules'); add_filter('query_vars','wp_insertMyRewriteQueryVars'); add_filter('init','flushRules'); // Remember to flush_rules() when adding rules function flushRules(){ global $wp_rewrite; $wp_rewrite->flush_rules(); } // Adding a new rule function wp_insertMyRewriteRules($rules) { $newrules = array(); $newrules['(galleria)/(.*)$'] = 'index.php?pagename=gallery&galleryname=$matches[2]'; return $newrules + $rules; } // Adding the id var so that WP recognizes it function wp_insertMyRewriteQueryVars($vars) { array_push($vars, 'galleryname'); return $vars; } what's weird now is that on my local wordpress test install, that works fine: the gallery page is called and the galleryname variable is passed. On the real site, on the other hand, the initial URL is accepted (as in it doesn't go into a 404) BUT it changes to http://example.com/gallery (I mean it actually changes in the browser's address bar) and the variable is not defined in gallery.php. Any idea what could possibly cause this different behavior? Alternatively, any other way I couldn't think of which could achieve the same effect described in the first three lines is perfectly fine. Old question What I need to do is rewriting this address: (1) http://localhost/wordpress/fake/text-value to (2) http://localhost/wordpress/gallery?somevar=text-value Notes: the remapping must be transparent: the user always has to see address (1) gallery is a permalink to a wordpress page, not a real address I basically need to rewrite the address first (to modify it) and then feed it back to mod rewrite again (to let wordpress parse it its own way). Problems if I simply do RewriteRule ^fake$ http://localhost/wordpress/gallery [L] it works but the address in the browser changes, which is no good, if I do RewriteRule ^fake$ /wordpress/gallery [L] I get a 404. I tried different flags instead of [L] but to no avail. How can I get this to work? EDIT: full .htaccess # BEGIN WordPress <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^fake$ /wordpress/gallery [R] RewriteBase /wordpress/ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule . /wordpress/index.php [L] </IfModule> # END WordPress

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