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  • Which pdf elements could cause crashes?

    - by Felixyz
    This is a very general question but it's based on a specific problem. I've created a pdf reader app for the iPad and it works fine except for certain pdf pages which always crash the app. We now found out that the very same pages cause Safari to crash as well, so as I had started to suspect the problem is somewhere in Apple's pdf rendering code. From what I have been able to see, the crashing pages cause the rendering libraries to start allocating memory like mad until the app is killed. I have nothing else to help me pinpoint what triggers this process. It doesn't necessarily happen with the largest documents, or the ones with the most shapes. In fact, we haven't found any parameter that helps us predict which pages will crash and which not. Now we just discovered that running the pages through a consumer program that lets you merge docs gets rid of the problem, but I haven't been able to detect which attribute or element it is that is the key. Changing documents by hand is also not an option for us in the long run. We need to run an automated process on our server. I'm hoping someone with deeper knowledge about the pdf file format would be able to point me in a reasonable direction to look for document features that could cause this kind of behavior. All I've found so far is something about JBIG2 images, and I don't think we have any of those.

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  • Threadsafe way of exposing keySet()

    - by Jake
    This must be a fairly common occurrence where I have a map and wish to thread-safely expose its key set: public MyClass { Map<String,String> map = // ... public final Set<String> keys() { // returns key set } } Now, if my "map" is not thread-safe, this is not safe: public final Set<String> keys() { return map.keySet(); } And neither is: public final Set<String> keys() { return Collections.unmodifiableSet(map.keySet()); } So I need to create a copy, such as: public final Set<String> keys() { return new HashSet(map.keySet()); } However, this doesn't seem safe either because that constructor traverses the elements of the parameter and add()s them. So while this copying is going on, a ConcurrentModificationException can happen. So then: public final Set<String> keys() { synchronized(map) { return new HashSet(map.keySet()); } } seems like the solution. Does this look right?

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2.0 + Implementation of a IRouteHandler goes not fire

    - by Peter
    Can anybody please help me with this as I have no idea why public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) is not executing. In my Global.asax.cs I have public class MvcApplication : System.Web.HttpApplication { public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); routes.Add("ImageRoutes", new Route("Images/{filename}", new CustomRouteHandler())); } protected void Application_Start() { RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } } //CustomRouteHandler implementation is below public class CustomRouteHandler : IRouteHandler { public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) { // IF I SET A BREAK POINT HERE IT DOES NOT HIT FOR SOME REASON. string filename = requestContext.RouteData.Values["filename"] as string; if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(filename)) { // return a 404 HttpHandler here } else { requestContext.HttpContext.Response.Clear(); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.ContentType = GetContentType(requestContext.HttpContext.Request.Url.ToString()); // find physical path to image here. string filepath = requestContext.HttpContext.Server.MapPath("~/logo.jpg"); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.WriteFile(filepath); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.End(); } return null; } } Can any body tell me what I'm missing here. Simply public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) does not fire. I havn't change anything in the web.config either. What I'm missing here? Please help.

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  • PHP Commercial Project Function define

    - by Shiro
    Currently I am working with a commercial project with PHP. I think this question not really apply to PHP for all programming language, just want to discuss how your guys solve it. I work in MVC framework (CodeIgniter). all the database transaction code in model class. Previously, I seperate different search criteria with different function name. Just an example function get_student_detail_by_ID($id){} function get_student_detail_by_name($name){} as you can see the function actually can merge to one, just add a parameter for it. But something you are rushing with project, you won't look back previously got what similar function just make some changes can meet the goal. In this case, we found that there is a lot function there and hard to maintenance. Recently, we try to group the entity to one ultimate search something like this function get_ResList($is_row_count=FALSE, $record_start=0, $arr_search_criteria='', $paging_limit=20, $orderby='name', $sortdir='ASC') we try to make this function to fit all the searching criteria. However, our system getting bigger and bigger, the search criteria not more 1-2 tables. It require join with other table with different purpose. What we had done is using IF ELSE, if(bla bla bla) { $sql_join = JOIN_SOME_TABLE; $sql_where = CONDITION; } at the end, we found that very hard to maintance the function. it is very hard to debug as well. I would like to ask your opinion, what is the commercial solution they solve this kind of issue, how to define a function and how to revise it. I think this is link project management skill. Hope you willing to share with us. Thanks.

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  • VB.Net - Launch app on Windows startup

    - by Queops
    We all now the tricky folders where your application runs when you publish your VB.NET to other people, but I won't give up on the benefits of the system (auto-update, you know). Problem is: Program is supposed to startup, or not, with Windows if the user wishes so. I'm saving program preferences into My.Settings. All fine with that. If you debug it it will save the values between sessions. The problem is after deployment. I installed the program on a testing machine. Application works okay, the settings load, if it's the user launching it by themselfs (using shortcut on desktop for example). Now upon restarting the program does indeed start up as I want it to but the My.Settings don't show up! It's like the config file has been erased. If I close program and re-open by clicking shorcut it loads the settings just fine though. So I wonder what's the problem? This is the code I use to save the registry key: regKey = Registry.CurrentUser.OpenSubKey("SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run", True) regKey.SetValue("ScapeTracker", Chr(34) & Application.ExecutablePath & Chr(34) & " startup") Does what it's supposed to. The startup parameter is needed so the program knows if it's launched on startup on not (to show up on tray and idle there until user decides to use it). So the problem is that I can't use the settings upon restart of Windows, so I'm assuming the VB.Net applications have some extra parameters when launching? How can I solve this?

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  • How to access global variable in a view in Ruby on Rails?

    - by ben
    I have a User model. I have a Session controller, in which I have a global user variable that is assigned as follows: $user = User.authenticate(params[:session][:email], params[:session][:password]) (I've made user global just to try to solve this problem, so if there's a better way please let me know!) I need to use the email of the logged in user as a parameter to send to Flex part of my website. At the moment I'm creating the link as follows: <%= link_to "secondpage", secondpage_path(:email => @session.$user.email) But I'm getting the following error: compile error /Users/benhartney/rails_projects/talk/app/views/layouts/_header.html.erb:12: syntax error, unexpected tGVAR ..._path(:email = @session.$user.email) ).to_s); @output_buffe... There's also a little arrow pointing at $user If I remove the $ from $user, I get this error: undefined method `user' for nil:NilClass If I remove the (:email => @session.user.email) part, everything works fine, so I think all of the code except for this is ok. Can anyone tell me what I'm doing wrong? Thanks for reading!

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  • Which design is better (OO Design)?

    - by Tattat
    I have an "Enemy" object, that have many "gun" . Each "gun" can fire "bullet". Storing "gun" is using an array. when the "gun" is fired, the "bullet" will be created. And the enemy object will have an array to store the "bullet". So, I am thinking about the fire method. I am think making a firebulletFromGun in the "enemy". It need have a parameter: "gun". while this method is called. The "enemy" 's bullet will be added in the Array. Another design is writing the fire method in the "gun". The "enemy" use the "gun"'s fire method. And the "gun" will return a "bullet" object, and it will be added in the Array of "enemy". Both method can work, but which way is better? or they are similar the same? plx drop ur ideas/suggestions. thz.

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  • Is there a general-purpose printf-ish routine defined in any C standard

    - by supercat
    In many C libraries, there is a printf-style routine which is something like the following: int __vgprintf(void *info, (void)(*print_function(void*, char)), const char *format, va_list params); which will format the supplied string and call print_function with the passed-in info value and each character in sequence. A function like fprintf will pass __vgprintf the passed-in file parameter and a pointer to a function which will cast its void* to a FILE* and output the passed-in character to that file. A function like snprintf will create a struct holding a char* and length, and pass the address of that struct to a function which will output each character in sequence, space permitting. Is there any standard for such a function, which could be used if e.g. one wanted a function to output an arbitrary format to a TCP port? A common approach is to allocate a buffer one hopes is big enough, use snprintf to put the data there, and then output the data from the buffer. It would seem cleaner, though, if there were a standard way to to specify that the print formatter should call a user-supplied routine with each character.

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  • Sending a JSON object to an ASP.NET web service using JQUERY ajax function

    - by uzay95
    I want to create object on the client side of aspx page. And i want to add functions to these javascript classes to make easier the life. Actually i can get and use the objects (derived from the server side classes) which returns from the services. When i wanted to send objects from the client by jquery ajax methods, i couldn't do it :) This is my javascript object: function ClassAndMark(_mark, _lesson){ this.Lesson = _lesson; this.Mark = _mark; } function Student(_name, _surname, _classAndMark){ this.Name = _name; this.SurName = _surname; this.ClassAndMark = _classAndMark; } JSClass.prototype.fSaveToDB(){ $.ajax({ type: "POST", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", url: "/WS/SaveObject.asmx/fSaveToDB"), data: ????????????, dataType: "json" }); } Actually i don't know what should be definition of classes and methods on the Server side but i think: class ClassAndMark{ public string Lesson ; public string Mark ; } class Student{ public string Name ; public string SurName ; public ClassAndMark ClassAndMark ; } Web service is below but again i couldn't get what should be instead of the ???? : [WebMethod()] public void fSaveToDB(???? _obj) { // How can i convert input parameter/parameters // of method in the server side object? }

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  • using a stored procedure for login in c#

    - by Jin Yim
    Hi all, If I run a store procedure with two parameter values (admin, admin) (parameters : admin, admin) I get the following message : Session_UID User_Group_Name Sys_User_Name NULLAdministratorsNTMSAdmin No rows affected. (1 row(s) returned) @RETURN_VALUE = 0 Finished running [dbo].[p_SYS_Login]. -- To get the same message in c# I used the code following : string strConnection = Settings.Default.ConnectionString; using (SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(strConnection)) { using (SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand()) { SqlDataReader rdr = null; cmd.Connection = conn; cmd.CommandText = "p_SYS_Login"; cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; SqlParameter paramReturnValue = new SqlParameter(); paramReturnValue.ParameterName = "@RETURN_VALUE"; paramReturnValue.SqlDbType = SqlDbType.Int; paramReturnValue.SourceColumn = null; paramReturnValue.Direction = ParameterDirection.ReturnValue; cmd.Parameters.Add(paramReturnValue); cmd.Parameters.Add(paramGroupName); cmd.Parameters.Add(paramUserName); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Sys_Login", "admin"); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Sys_Password", "admin"); try { conn.Open(); rdr = cmd.ExecuteReader(); string test = (string)cmd.Parameters["@RETURN_VALUE"].Value; while (rdr.Read()) { Console.WriteLine("test : " + rdr[0]); } } catch (Exception ex) { string message = ex.Message; string caption = "MAVIS Exception"; MessageBoxButtons buttons = MessageBoxButtons.OK; MessageBox.Show( message, caption, buttons, MessageBoxIcon.Warning, MessageBoxDefaultButton.Button1); } finally { cmd.Dispose(); conn.Close(); } } } but I get nothing in SqlDataReader rdr ; is there something I am missing ? Thanks

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  • asp file system object

    - by sushant
    i am using this code to access files and folders. <%@ Language=VBScript %<% option explicit dim sRoot, sDir, sParent, objFSO, objFolder, objFile, objSubFolder, sSize % <% sRoot = "D:Raghu" sDir = Request("Dir") sDir = sDir & "\" Response.Write "" & sDir & "" & vbCRLF Set objFSO = CreateObject("Scripting.FileSystemObject") on error resume next Set objFolder = objFSO.GetFolder(sRoot & sDir) if err.number < 0 then Response.Write "Could not open folder" Response.End end if on error goto 0 sParent = objFSO.GetParentFolderName(objFolder.Path) ' Remove the contents of sRoot from the front. This gives us the parent ' path relative to the root folder ' eg. if parent folder is "c:webfilessubfolder1subfolder2" then we just want "subfolder1subfolder2" sParent = mid(sParent, len(sRoot) + 1) Response.Write "" ' Give a link to the parent folder. This is just a link to this page only pssing in ' the new folder as a parameter Response.Write "Parent folder" & vbCRLF ' Now we want to loop through the subfolders in this folder For Each objSubFolder In objFolder.SubFolders ' And provide a link to them Response.Write "" & objSubFolder.Name & "" & vbCRLF Next ' Now we want to loop through the files in this folder For Each objFile In objFolder.Files if Clng(objFile.Size) < 1024 then sSize = objFile.Size & " bytes" else sSize = Clng(objFile.Size / 1024) & " KB" end if ' And provide a link to view them. This is a link to show.asp passing in the directory and the file ' as parameters Response.Write "" & objFile.Name & "" & sSize & "" & objFile.Type & "" & vbCRLF Next Response.Write "" % it works fine. but when i try to access something on shred path like: "\cvrdd0110:share" it gives error. how to access these files?

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  • C# - Advantages/Disadvantages of different implementations for Comparing Objects

    - by Kevin Crowell
    This questions involves 2 different implementations of essentially the same code. First, using delegate to create a Comparison method that can be used as a parameter when sorting a collection of objects: class Foo { public static Comparison<Foo> BarComparison = delegate(Foo foo1, Foo foo2) { return foo1.Bar.CompareTo(foo2.Bar); }; } I use the above when I want to have a way of sorting a collection of Foo objects in a different way than my CompareTo function offers. For example: List<Foo> fooList = new List<Foo>(); fooList.Sort(BarComparison); Second, using IComparer: public class BarComparer : IComparer<Foo> { public int Compare(Foo foo1, Foo foo2) { return foo1.Bar.CompareTo(foo2.Bar); } } I use the above when I want to do a binary search for a Foo object in a collection of Foo objects. For example: BarComparer comparer = new BarComparer(); List<Foo> fooList = new List<Foo>(); Foo foo = new Foo(); int index = fooList.BinarySearch(foo, comparer); My questions are: What are the advantages and disadvantages of each of these implementations? What are some more ways to take advantage of each of these implementations? Is there a way to combine these implementations in such a way that I do not need to duplicate the code? Can I achieve both a binary search and an alternative collection sort using only 1 of these methods?

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  • How To Update EF 4 Entity In ASP.NET MVC 3?

    - by Jason Evans
    Hi there. I have 2 projects - a class library containing an EDM Entity Framework model and a seperate ASP.NET MVC project. I'm having problems with how your suppose to edit and save changes to an entity using MVC. In my controller I have: public class UserController : Controller { public ActionResult Edit(int id) { var rep = new UserRepository(); var user = rep.GetById(id); return View(user); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(User user) { var rep = new UserRepository(); rep.Update(user); return View(user); } } My UserRepository has an Update method like this: public void Update(User user) { using (var context = new PDS_FMPEntities()) { context.Users.Attach(testUser); context.ObjectStateManager.ChangeObjectState(testUser, EntityState.Modified); context.SaveChanges(); } } Now, when I click 'Save' on the edit user page, the parameter user only contains two values populated: Id, and FirstName. I take it that is due to the fact that I'm only displaying those two properties in the view. My question is this, if I'm updating the user's firstname, and then want to save it, what am I suppose to do about the other User properties which were not shown on the view, since they now contain 0 or NULL values in the user object? I've been reading a lot about using stub entities, but I'm getting nowhere fast, in that none of the examples I've seen actually work. i.e. I keep getting EntityKey related exceptions. Can someone point me to a good tutorial/example of how to update EF 4 entities using a repository class, called by an MVC front-end? Cheers. Jas.

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  • C Program Stalls or Infinite Loops inside and else statement?

    - by Bobby S
    I have this weird thing happening in my C program which has never happened to me before. I am calling a void function with a single parameter, the function is very similar to this so you can get the jist: ... printf("Before Call"); Dumb_Function(a); printf("After Call"); ... ... void Dumb_Function(int a){ if(a == null) { } else{ int i; for(i=0; i<a; i++) { do stuff } printf("test"); } } This will output Before Call test and NOT "After Call" How is this possible? Why does my function not return? Did my program counter get lost? I can not modify it to a non void function. When running the cursor will blink and I am able to type, I press CTRL+C to terminate. Any ideas?

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  • Have Microsoft changed how ASP.NET MVC deals with duplicate action method names?

    - by Jason Evans
    I might be missing something here, but in ASP.NET MVC 4, I can't get the following to work. Given the following controller: public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(string order1, string order2) { return null; } } and it's view: @{ ViewBag.Title = "Home"; } @using (Html.BeginForm()) { @Html.TextBox("order1")<br /> @Html.TextBox("order2") <input type="submit" value="Save"/> } When start the app, all I get is this: The current request for action 'Index' on controller type 'HomeController' is ambiguous between the following action methods: System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index() on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index(System.String, System.String) on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController Now, in ASP.NET MVC 3 the above works fine, I just tried it, so what's changed in ASP.NET MVC 4 to break this? OK there could be a chance that I'm doing something silly here, and not noticing it. EDIT: I notice that in the MVC 4 app, the Global.asax.cs file did not contain this: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); } which the MVC 3 app does, by default. So I added the above to the MVC 4 app but it fails with the same error. Note that the MVC 3 app does work fine with the above route. I'm passing the "order" data via the Request.Form. EDIT: In the file RouteConfig.cs I can see RegisterRoutes is executed, with the following default route: routes.MapRoute( name: "Default", url: "{controller}/{action}/{id}", defaults: new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); I still get the original error, regards ambiguity between which Index() method to call.

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  • Java - Call to start method on thread : how does it route to Runnable interface's run () ?

    - by Bhaskar
    Ok , I know the two standard ways to create a new thread and run it in Java : 1 Implement Runnable in a class , define run method ,and pass an instance of the class to a new Thread. When the start method on the thread instance is called , the run method of the class instance will be invoked. 2 Let the class derive from Thread, so it can to override the method run() and then when a new instance's start method is called , the call is routed to overridden method. In both methods , basically a new Thread object is created and its start method invoked. However , while in the second method , the mechanism of the call being routed to the user defined run() method is very clear ,( its a simple runtime polymorphism in play ), I dont understand how the call to start method on the Thread object gets routed to run() method of the class implementing Runnable interface. Does the Thread class have an private field of Type Runnable which it checks first , and if it is set then invokes the run method if it set to an object ? that would be a strange mechanism IMO. How does the call to start() on a thread get routed to the run method of the Runnable interface implemented by the class whose object is passed as a parameter when contructing the thread ?

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  • How do I use .htaccess to redirect to a URL containing HTTP_HOST?

    - by Jon Cram
    Problem I need to redirect some short convenience URLs to longer actual URLs. The site in question uses a set of subdomains to identify a set of development or live versions. I would like the URL to which certain requests are redirected to include the HTTP_HOST such that I don't have to create a custom .htaccess file for each host. Host-specific Example (snipped from .htaccess file) Redirect /terms http://support.dev01.example.com/articles/terms/ This example works fine for the development version running at dev01.example.com. If I use the same line in the main .htaccess file for the development version running under dev02.example.com I'd end up being redirected to the wrong place. Ideal rule (not sure of the correct syntax) Redirect /terms http://support.{HTTP_HOST}/articles/terms/ This rule does not work and merely serves as an example of what I'd like to achieve. I could then use the exact same rule under many different hosts and get the correct result. Answers? Can this be done with mod_alias or does it require the more complex mod_rewrite? How can this be achieved using mod_alias or mod_rewrite? I'd prefer a mod_alias solution if possible. Clarifications I'm not staying on the same server. I'd like: http://example.com/terms/ - http://support.example.com/articles/terms/ https://secure.example.com/terms/ - http://support.example.com/articles/terms/ http://dev.example.com/terms/ - http://support.dev.example.com/articles/terms/ https://secure.dev.example.com/terms/ - http://support.dev.example.com/articles/terms/ I'd like to be able to use the same rule in the .htaccess file on both example.com and dev.example.com. In this situation I'd need to be able to refer to the HTTP_HOST as a variable rather than specifying it literally in the URL to which requests are redirected. I'll investigate the HTTP_HOST parameter as suggested but was hoping for a working example.

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  • Retriving data from ListView control

    - by Josh
    I have a ListView control set up in details mode with 5 columns. It is populated by code using the following subroutine: For j = 0 To 14 cmd = New OleDbCommand("SELECT TeacherName, ClassSubject, BookingDate, BookingPeriod FROM " & SchemaTable.Rows(i)!TABLE_NAME.ToString() & " WHERE (((BookingDate)=" & Chr(34) & Date.Today.AddDays(j) & Chr(34) & ") AND ((UserName)=" & Chr(34) & user & Chr(34) & "));", cn) dr = cmd.ExecuteReader Dim itm As ListViewItem Dim itms(4) As String While dr.Read() itms(0) = dr(0) itms(1) = SchemaTable.Rows(i)!TABLE_NAME.ToString() itms(2) = dr(1) itms(3) = dr(2) itms(4) = dr(3) itm = New ListViewItem(itms) Manage.ManageList.Items.Add(itm) End While Next Note that this is not the full routine, just the bit that populated the grid. Now I need to retrieve data from the ListView control in order to delete a booking in my database. I used the following code to retrieve the content of each column: ManageList.SelectedItems(0).Text But it only seems to work on index 0. If I do: ManageList.SelectedItems(3).Text I get this error: InvalidArgument=Value of '3' is not valid for 'index'. Parameter name: index I'm pretty much stumped, it seems logical to me that index 1 will point to the 2nd column, index 2 to the 3rd etc, as it's 0 based? Any help would be appreciated, thanks.

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  • Pass scalar/list context to called subroutine

    - by Will
    I'm trying to write a sub that takes a coderef parameter. My sub does some initialization, calls the coderef, then does some cleanup. I need to call the coderef using the same context (scalar, list, void context) that my sub was called in. The only way I can think of is something like this: sub perform { my ($self, $code) = @_; # do some initialization... my @ret; my $ret; if (not defined wantarray) { $code->(); } elsif (wantarray) { @ret = $code->(); } else { $ret = $code->(); } # do some cleanup... if (not defined wantarray) { return; } elsif (wantarray) { return @ret; } else { return $ret; } } Obviously there's a good deal of redundancy in this code. Is there any way to reduce or eliminate any of this redundancy? EDIT   I later realized that I need to run $code->() in an eval block so that the cleanup runs even if the code dies. Adding eval support, and combining the suggestions of user502515 and cjm, here's what I've come up with. sub perform { my ($self, $code) = @_; # do some initialization... my $w = wantarray; return sub { my $error = $@; # do some cleanup... die $error if $error; # propagate exception return $w ? @_ : $_[0]; }->(eval { $w ? $code->() : scalar($code->()) }); } This gets rid of the redundancy, though unfortunately now the control flow is a little harder to follow.

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  • PHP Transferring Photos From One Oracle Database Table to Another

    - by Jonathan Swift
    I am attempting to transfer a set of photos (blobs) from one table to another across databases. I'm nearly there, except for binding the photo parameter. I have the following code: $conn_db1 = oci_pconnect('username', 'password', 'db1'); $conn_db2 = oci_pconnect('username', 'password', 'db2'); $parse_db1_select = oci_parse($conn_db1, "SELECT REF PID, BINARY_OBJECT PHOTOGRAPH FROM BLOBS"); $parse_db2_insert = oci_parse($conn_db2, "INSERT INTO PHOTOGRAPHS (PID, PHOTOGRAPH) VALUES (:pid, :photo)"); oci_execute($parse_db1_select); while ($row = oci_fetch_assoc($parse_db1_select)) { $pid = $row['PID']; $photo = $row['PHOTOGRAPH']; oci_bind_by_name($parse_db2_insert, ':pid', $pid, -1, OCI_B_INT); // This line causes an error oci_bind_by_name($parse_db_insert, ':photo', $photo, -1, OCI_B_BLOB); oci_execute($parse_db2_insert); } oci_close($db1); oci_close($db2); But I get the following error, on the error line commented above: Warning: oci_execute() [function.oci-execute]: ORA-03113: end-of-file on communication channel Process ID: 0 Session ID: 790 Serial number: 118 Does anyone know the right way to do this?

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  • What good open source programs exist for fuzzing popular image file types?

    - by JohnnySoftware
    I am looking for a free, open source, portable fuzzing tool for popular image file types that is written in either Java, Python, or Jython. Ideally, it would accept specifications for the fuzzable fields using some kind of declarative constraints. Non-procedural grammar for specifying constraints are greatly preferred. Otherwise, might as well write them all in Python or whatever. Just specifying ranges of valid values or expressions for them. Ideally, it would support some kind of generative programming to export the fuzzer into various programming languages to suit cases where more customization was required. If it supported a direct-manipulation GUI for controlling parameter values and ranges, that would be nice too. The file formats that should be supported are: GIF JPEG PNG So basically, it should be sort of a toolkit consisting of ready-to-run utility, a framework or library, and be capable of generating the fuzzed files directly as well as from programs it generates. It needs to be simple so that test images can be created quickly. It should have a batch capability for creating a series of images. Creating just one at a time would be too painful. I do not want a hacking tool, just a QA tool. Basically, I just want to address concerns that it is taking too long to get commonplace image rendering/parsing libraries stable and trustworthy.

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  • Strange Sql Server 2005 behavior

    - by Justin C
    Background: I have a site built in ASP.NET with Sql Server 2005 as it's database. The site is the only site on a Windows Server 2003 box sitting in my clients server room. The client is a local school district, so for data security reasons there is no remote desktop access and no remote Sql Server connection, so if I have to service the database I have to be at the terminal. I do have FTP access to update ASP code. Problem: I was contacted yesterday about an issue with the system. When I looked in to it, it seems a bug that I had solved nearly a year ago had returned. I have a stored procedure that used to take an int as a parameter but a year ago we changed the structure of the system and updated the stored procedure to take an nvarchar(10). The stored procedure somehow changed back to taking an int instead of an nvarchar. There is an external hard drive connected to the server that copies data periodically and has the ability to restore the server in case of failure. I would have assumed that somehow an older version of the database had been restored, but data that I know was inserted 7 days and 1 day before the bug occurred is still in the database. Question: Is there anyway that the structure of a Sql Server 2005 database can revert to a previous version or be restored to a previous version without touching the actual data? No one else should have access to the server so I'm going a little insane trying to figure out how this even happened. Any ideas?

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  • Identifying the GeoPoint that trigger an onTap call

    - by Akroy
    I'm developing a Google Maps app on Android. I have a number of GeoPoints that I'm displaying by adding them as OverlayItems to an ItemizedOverlay. This works well for displaying them and bringing up a nice box when I click them, however I'm trying to put info in the box it brings up. Thus, I've extended ItemizedOverlay with my own class, and I'm overriding onTap (final GeoPoint p, final MapView mapView). At first I thought that this would be very simple, as one of the parameters is the GeoPoint, so I would know exactly which GeoPoint was clicked. However, from what I can tell, the GeoPoint argument there is the GeoPoint for where the user actually touched. Given the range the user can touch and still trigger the onTap, that GeoPoint isn't very helpful for knowing precisely which GeoPoint was actually touched. I'm currently checking the parameter GeoPoint against all my existing GeoPoints and seeing which it's closest to. This seems like a super hacky abstraction inversion. Is there a better way to know what was actually tapped?

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  • Send C++ Structure to MSMQ Message

    - by Gobalakrishnan
    Hi, I am trying to send the below structure through MSMQ Message typedef struct { char cfiller[7]; short MsgCode; char cfiller1[11]; short MsgLength; char cfiller2[2]; } MESSAGECODE; typedef struct { MESSAGECODE Header; char DealerId[16]; char GroupId[16]; long Token; short Periodicity; double Deposit; double GrossExposureLimit; double NetExposureLimit; double NetSaleExposureLimit; double NetPositionLimit; double TurnoverLimit; double PendingOrdersLimit; double MTMLossLimit; double MaxSingleTransValue; long MaxSingleTransQty; double IMLimit; long NetQuantityLimit; } LIMITUPDATE; void main() { // // create queue // open queue // send message // OleInitialize(NULL); // have to init OLE // // declare some variables // IMSMQQueueInfoPtr qinfo("MSMQ.MSMQQueueInfo"); IMSMQQueuePtr qSend; IMSMQMessagePtr m("MSMQ.MSMQMessage"); LIMITUPDATE l1; l1.Header.MsgCode=26001; l1.Header.MsgLength=150; qinfo->PathName = ".\\private$\\q99"; m->Body = l1; qSend = qinfo->Open(MQ_SEND_ACCESS, MQ_DENY_NONE); m->Send(qSend); qSend->Close(); } while compiling i am getting the following error. Error 2 error C2664: 'IMSMQMessage::PutBody' : cannot convert parameter 1 from 'LIMITUPDATE' to 'const _variant_t &' c:\temp\msmq\msmq.cpp 58 msmq thank you.

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  • PHP Sessions and Passing Session ID

    - by Jason McCreary
    I have an API where I am passing the session id back and forth between calls. I set up the session like so: // start API session session_name('apikey'); session_id($data['apikey']); // required to link session session_start(); Although I named my session and am passing the session id via GET and POST using the name, PHP does not automatically resume that session. It always creates a new one unless I set the explicitly set the session id. I found some old user comments on www.php.net that said unless the session id is the first parameter PHP won't set it automatically. This seems odd, but even when I call tried it still didn't work: rest_services.php?apikey=sdr6d3subaofcav53cpf71j4v3&q=testing I have used PHP for years, but am a little confused on why I needed to explicitly set the session with session_id() when I am naming the session and passing it's key accordingly. UPDATE It seems I wasn't clear. My question is why is setting the session ID with session_id() required when I am passing the id, using the session name apikey, via $_GET or $_POST. Theoretically this is no different than PHP's SID when cookies are disabled. But for me it doesn't work unless I explicitly set the session ID. Why?

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