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  • timeIntervalSinceDate Accuracy

    - by mmccomb
    I've been working on a game with an engine that updates 20 times per seconds. I've got to point now where I want to start getting some performance figures and tweak the rendering and logic updates. In order to do so I started to add some timing code to my game loop, implemented as follows... NSDate* startTime = [NSDate date]; // Game update logic here.... // Also timing of smaller internal events NSDate* endTime = [NSDate date]; [endTime timeIntervalSinceDate:startTime]; I noticed however that when I timed blocks within the outer timing logic that the time they took to execute did not sum up to match the overall time taken. So I wrote a small unit test to demonstrate the problem in which I time the overall time taken to complete the test and then 10 smaller events, here it is... - (void)testThatSumOfTimingsMatchesOverallTiming { NSDate* startOfOverallTime = [NSDate date]; // Variable to hold summation of smaller timing events in the upcoming loop... float sumOfIndividualTimes = 0.0; NSTimeInterval times[10] = {0.0, 0.0, 0.0, 0.0, 0.0, 0.0, 0.0, 0.0, 0.0, 0.0}; for (int i = 0; i < 10; i++) { NSDate* startOfIndividualTime = [NSDate date]; // Kill some time... sleep(1); NSDate* endOfIndividualTime = [NSDate date]; times[i] = [endOfIndividualTime timeIntervalSinceDate:startOfIndividualTime]; sumOfIndividualTimes += times[i]; } NSDate* endOfOverallTime = [NSDate date]; NSTimeInterval overallTimeTaken = [endOfOverallTime timeIntervalSinceDate:startOfOverallTime]; NSLog(@"Sum of individual times: %fms", sumOfIndividualTimes); NSLog(@"Overall time: %fms", overallTimeTaken); STAssertFalse(TRUE, @""); } And here's the output... Sum of individual times: 10.001377ms Overall time: 10.016834ms Which illustrates my problem quite clearly. The overall time was 0.000012ms but the smaller events took only 0.000001ms. So what happened to the other 0.000011ms? Is there anything that looks particularly wrong with my code? Or is there an alternative timing mechanism I should use?

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  • UIScrollView ImageView with pins on top

    - by Koppo
    To all, I have a UIScrollView which has a UIImageView. I want to show pins on this imageView. When I add pins as subviews of the ImageView everything is great except for when you zoom the scale transform happens on the pins also. I don't want this behavior and want my pins to stay the same. So I choose to add the Pins to another view which sits on top of the ImageView and is also a subview of the UIScrollView. The idea here if you will imagine is to have a layer which hovers over the map and won't scale yet show pins over where I plot them. The pin when added to the layer view don't cale if the ImageView scales. However the issue then bceomes the position of the pins doesn't match the original origin x/y as the ImageView has had a scale transform. Basically this is a custom map of a place with Pins. I am trying to have the Pins float over and not zoom in and out over my ImageView yet remember where I placed them when the zoom happens. Some code scrollView = [[UIScrollView alloc] initWithFrame:viewRect]; scrollView.delegate = self; scrollView.pagingEnabled = NO; scrollView.scrollsToTop = NO; [scrollView setBackgroundColor:[UIColor clearColor]]; scrollView.clipsToBounds = YES; // default is NO, we want to restrict drawing within our scrollview scrollView.bounces = YES; scrollView.autoresizingMask = UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleHeight; scrollView.indicatorStyle = UIScrollViewIndicatorStyleWhite; imageViewMap = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"image.png"]]; imageViewMap.userInteractionEnabled = YES; viewRect = CGRectMake(0,0,imageViewMap.image.size.width,imageViewMap.image.size.height); //viewRect = CGRectMake(0,0,2976,3928); [scrollView addSubview:imageViewMap]; [scrollView setContentSize:CGSizeMake(viewRect.size.width, viewRect.size.height)]; iconsView = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:imageViewMap.frame]; [scrollView addSubview:iconsView]; Code to add Pin later on some event. [iconsView addSubview:pinIcon]; I am stuck in trying tp figure out how to to get my pins to hover on the map without moving when the scale happens. Thanks

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  • Sending large serialized objects over sockets is failing only when trying to grow the byte Array, bu

    - by FinancialRadDeveloper
    I have code where I am trying to grow the byte array while receiving the data over my socket. This is erroring out. public bool ReceiveObject2(ref Object objRec, ref string sErrMsg) { try { byte[] buffer = new byte[1024]; byte[] byArrAll = new byte[0]; bool bAllBytesRead = false; int iRecLoop = 0; // grow the byte array to match the size of the object, so we can put whatever we // like through the socket as long as the object serialises and is binary formatted while (!bAllBytesRead) { if (m_socClient.Receive(buffer) > 0) { byArrAll = Combine(byArrAll, buffer); iRecLoop++; } else { m_socClient.Close(); bAllBytesRead = true; } } MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(buffer); BinaryFormatter bf1 = new BinaryFormatter(); ms.Position = 0; Object obj = bf1.Deserialize(ms); objRec = obj; return true; } catch (System.Runtime.Serialization.SerializationException se) { objRec = null; sErrMsg += "SocketClient.ReceiveObject " + "Source " + se.Source + "Error : " + se.Message; return false; } catch (Exception e) { objRec = null; sErrMsg += "SocketClient.ReceiveObject " + "Source " + e.Source + "Error : " + e.Message; return false; } } private byte[] Combine(byte[] first, byte[] second) { byte[] ret = new byte[first.Length + second.Length]; Buffer.BlockCopy(first, 0, ret, 0, first.Length); Buffer.BlockCopy(second, 0, ret, first.Length, second.Length); return ret; } Error: mscorlibError : The input stream is not a valid binary format. The starting contents (in bytes) are: 68-61-73-43-68-61-6E-67-65-73-3D-22-69-6E-73-65-72 ... Yet when I just cheat and use a MASSIVE buffer size its fine. public bool ReceiveObject(ref Object objRec, ref string sErrMsg) { try { byte[] buffer = new byte[5000000]; m_socClient.Receive(buffer); MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(buffer); BinaryFormatter bf1 = new BinaryFormatter(); ms.Position = 0; Object obj = bf1.Deserialize(ms); objRec = obj; return true; } catch (Exception e) { objRec = null; sErrMsg += "SocketClient.ReceiveObject " + "Source " + e.Source + "Error : " + e.Message; return false; } } This is really killing me. I don't know why its not working. I have lifted the Combine from a suggestion on here too, so I am pretty sure this is not doing the wrong thing? I hope someone can point out where I am going wrong

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  • Workflows not starting after fresh install

    - by Greg McGuffey
    I just installed Dynamics CRM 4.0. It is working nicely except for workflows. They won't start. I turned on tracing and it appears that there is an IO error. The server is setup with IFD and SSL. No issues accessing it internally or externally. Here is the trace: # CRM Tracing Version 2.0 # LocalTime: 2010-06-08 11:34:58.2 # Categories: # CallStackOn: No # ComputerName: FOX-CRM1 # CRMVersion: 4.0.7333.2741 # DeploymentType: OnPremise # ScaleGroup: # ServerRole: AppServer, AsyncService, DiscoveryService, WebService, ApiServer, HelpServer, DeploymentService [2010-06-08 11:34:58.2] Process:CrmAsyncService |Organization:821a137e-7191-49a4-86cc-69101e2b6d20 |Thread: 24 |Category: Platform.Async |User: 00000000-0000-0000-0000-000000000000 |Level: Error | AsyncOperationCommand.Execute >Exception while trying to execute AsyncOperationId: {DF68F483-2C73-DF11-9A34-18A9053B7B38} AsyncOperationType: 1 - System.Net.WebException: The underlying connection was closed: An unexpected error occurred on a send. ---> System.IO.IOException: The handshake failed due to an unexpected packet format. at System.Net.Security.SslState.StartReadFrame(Byte[] buffer, Int32 readBytes, AsyncProtocolRequest asyncRequest) at System.Net.Security.SslState.StartReceiveBlob(Byte[] buffer, AsyncProtocolRequest asyncRequest) at System.Net.Security.SslState.CheckCompletionBeforeNextReceive(ProtocolToken message, AsyncProtocolRequest asyncRequest) at System.Net.Security.SslState.StartSendBlob(Byte[] incoming, Int32 count, AsyncProtocolRequest asyncRequest) at System.Net.Security.SslState.ForceAuthentication(Boolean receiveFirst, Byte[] buffer, AsyncProtocolRequest asyncRequest) at System.Net.Security.SslState.ProcessAuthentication(LazyAsyncResult lazyResult) at System.Net.TlsStream.CallProcessAuthentication(Object state) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Net.TlsStream.ProcessAuthentication(LazyAsyncResult result) at System.Net.TlsStream.Write(Byte[] buffer, Int32 offset, Int32 size) at System.Net.PooledStream.Write(Byte[] buffer, Int32 offset, Int32 size) at System.Net.ConnectStream.WriteHeaders(Boolean async) --- End of inner exception stack trace --- at System.Web.Services.Protocols.WebClientProtocol.GetWebResponse(WebRequest request) at System.Web.Services.Protocols.HttpWebClientProtocol.GetWebResponse(WebRequest request) at System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol.Invoke(String methodName, Object[] parameters) at Microsoft.Crm.SdkTypeProxy.CrmService.Retrieve(String entityName, Guid id, ColumnSetBase columnSet) at Microsoft.Crm.Asynchronous.SdkTypeProxyCrmServiceWrapper.Retrieve(String entityName, Guid id, ColumnSetBase columnSet) at Microsoft.Crm.Asynchronous.SdkPluginDescriptionProvider.GetPluginTypeDescription(Guid pluginTypeId, IOrganizationContext context) at Microsoft.Crm.Caching.PluginTypeCacheLoader.LoadCacheData(Guid key, IOrganizationContext context) at Microsoft.Crm.Caching.CrmMultiOrgCache`2.CreateEntry(TKey key, IOrganizationContext context) at Microsoft.Crm.Caching.CrmSharedMultiOrgCache`2.LookupEntry(TKey key, IOrganizationContext context) at Microsoft.Crm.Caching.PluginTypeCache.LookupEntry(Guid pluginTypeId, IOrganizationContext context) at Microsoft.Crm.Asynchronous.AsyncOperationCommand.GetPluginType(Guid pluginTypeId) at Microsoft.Crm.Asynchronous.EventOperation.InternalExecute(AsyncEvent asyncEvent) at Microsoft.Crm.Asynchronous.AsyncOperationCommand.Execute(AsyncEvent asyncEvent) The only thing I've tried to to update the AsyncSdkRootDomain row in the Deployment table to match the ADSdkRootDomain and the ADApplicationRootDomain values. It was blank. That didn't appear to work. After some more research, I think this might be caused because the Asynch service can't access the SDK web services using SSL. If this is correct, how would one configure a CRM server for secure access, internal and external (IFD) and still allow asynch service to hit web site? Thanks for your help!

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  • Spring ROO issue with UrlRewrite in STS (eclipse)

    - by user224270
    Hi. I'm having trouble figuring out how to solve this issue. I have a file called: "urlrewrite.xml" which was automatically generated by spring ROO after running the "controller" command in ROO Shell. However, I still get the following error: "Referenced file contains errors (http://tuckey.org/res/dtds/urlrewrite3.0.dtd). For more information, right click on the message in the Problems View and select "Show Details..." Here's the content of the urlrewrite.xml file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <!DOCTYPE urlrewrite PUBLIC "-//tuckey.org//DTD UrlRewrite 3.0//EN" "http://tuckey.org/res/dtds/urlrewrite3.0.dtd"> <urlrewrite default-match-type="wildcard"> <rule> <from>/resources/**</from> <to last="true">/resources/$1</to> </rule> <rule> <from>/static/WEB-INF/**</from> <set type="status">403</set> <to last="true">/static/WEB-INF/$1</to> </rule> <rule> <from>/static/**</from> <to last="true">/$1</to> </rule> <rule> <from>/</from> <to last="true">/app/index</to> </rule> <rule> <from>/app/**</from> <to last="true">/app/$1</to> </rule> <rule> <from>/**</from> <to>/app/$1</to> </rule> <outbound-rule> <from>/app/**</from> <to>/$1</to> </outbound-rule> </urlrewrite> Any thoughts on how to get rid of this error?

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  • Automatically generate table of function pointers in C.

    - by jeremytrimble
    I'm looking for a way to automatically (as part of the compilation/build process) generate a "table" of function pointers in C. Specifically, I want to generate an array of structures something like: typedef struct { void (*p_func)(void); char * funcName; } funcRecord; /* Automatically generate the lines below: */ extern void func1(void); extern void func2(void); /* ... */ funcRecord funcTable[] = { { .p_func = &func1, .funcName = "func1" }, { .p_func = &func2, .funcName = "func2" } /* ... */ }; /* End automatically-generated code. */ ...where func1 and func2 are defined in other source files. So, given a set of source files, each of which which contain a single function that takes no arguments and returns void, how would one automatically (as part of the build process) generate an array like the one above that contains each of the functions from the files? I'd like to be able to add new files and have them automatically inserted into the table when I re-compile. I realize that this probably isn't achievable using the C language or preprocessor alone, so consider any common *nix-style tools fair game (e.g. make, perl, shell scripts (if you have to)). But Why? You're probably wondering why anyone would want to do this. I'm creating a small test framework for a library of common mathematical routines. Under this framework, there will be many small "test cases," each of which has only a few lines of code that will exercise each math function. I'd like each test case to live in its own source file as a short function. All of the test cases will get built into a single executable, and the test case(s) to be run can be specified on the command line when invoking the executable. The main() function will search through the table and, if it finds a match, jump to the test case function. Automating the process of building up the "catalog" of test cases ensures that test cases don't get left out (for instance, because someone forgets to add it to the table) and makes it very simple for maintainers to add new test cases in the future (just create a new source file in the correct directory, for instance). Hopefully someone out there has done something like this before. Thanks, StackOverflow community!

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  • Lucene.NET search index approach

    - by Tim Peel
    Hi, I am trying to put together a test case for using Lucene.NET on one of our websites. I'd like to do the following: Index in a single unique id. Index across a comma delimitered string of terms or tags. For example. Item 1: Id = 1 Tags = Something,Separated-Term I will then be structuring the search so I can look for documents against tag i.e. tags:something OR tags:separate-term I need to maintain the exact term value in order to search against it. I have something running, and the search query is being parsed as expected, but I am not seeing any results. Here's some code. My parser (_luceneAnalyzer is passed into my indexing service): var parser = new QueryParser(Lucene.Net.Util.Version.LUCENE_CURRENT, "Tags", _luceneAnalyzer); parser.SetDefaultOperator(QueryParser.Operator.AND); return parser; My Lucene.NET document creation: var doc = new Document(); var id = new Field( "Id", NumericUtils.IntToPrefixCoded(indexObject.id), Field.Store.YES, Field.Index.NOT_ANALYZED, Field.TermVector.NO); var tags = new Field( "Tags", string.Join(",", indexObject.Tags.ToArray()), Field.Store.NO, Field.Index.ANALYZED, Field.TermVector.YES); doc.Add(id); doc.Add(tags); return doc; My search: var parser = BuildQueryParser(); var query = parser.Parse(searchQuery); var searcher = Searcher; TopDocs hits = searcher.Search(query, null, max); IList<SearchResult> result = new List<SearchResult>(); float scoreNorm = 1.0f / hits.GetMaxScore(); for (int i = 0; i < hits.scoreDocs.Length; i++) { float score = hits.scoreDocs[i].score * scoreNorm; result.Add(CreateSearchResult(searcher.Doc(hits.scoreDocs[i].doc), score)); } return result; I have two documents in my index, one with the tag "Something" and one with the tags "Something" and "Separated-Term". It's important for the - to remain in the terms as I want an exact match on the full value. When I search with "tags:Something" I do not get any results. Question What Analyzer should I be using to achieve the search index I am after? Are there any pointers for putting together a search such as this? Why is my current search not returning any results? Many thanks

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  • RegEx strip html tags problem

    - by Aleksandar Mirilovic
    Hi, I've tried to strip html tags using regex replace with pattern "<[^]*" from word generated html that looks like this: <html xmlns:v="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:vml" xmlns:o="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:office:office" xmlns:w="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:office:word" xmlns:st1="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:office:smarttags" xmlns="http://www.w3.org/TR/REC-html40"> <head> <meta http-equiv=Content-Type content="text/html; charset=iso-8859-2"> <meta name=Generator content="Microsoft Word 11 (filtered medium)"> <!--[if !mso]> <style> v\:* {behavior:url(#default#VML);} o\:* {behavior:url(#default#VML);} w\:* {behavior:url(#default#VML);} .shape {behavior:url(#default#VML);} </style> <![endif]--><o:SmartTagType namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:office:smarttags" name="place" downloadurl="http://www.5iantlavalamp.com/"/> <!--[if !mso]> <style> st1\:*{behavior:url(#default#ieooui) } </style> <![endif]--> <style> <!-- /* Font Definitions / @font-face {font-family:Tahoma; panose-1:2 11 6 4 3 5 4 4 2 4;} / Style Definitions */ p.MsoNormal, li.MsoNormal, div.MsoNormal {margin:0in; margin-bottom:.0001pt; font-size:12.0pt; font-family:"Times New Roman";} a:link, span.MsoHyperlink {color:blue; text-decoration:underline;} a:visited, span.MsoHyperlinkFollowed {color:purple; text-decoration:underline;} span.EmailStyle17 {mso-style-type:personal; font-family:Arial; color:windowtext;} span.EmailStyle18 {mso-style-type:personal-reply; font-family:Arial; color:navy;} @page Section1 {size:8.5in 11.0in; margin:1.0in 1.25in 1.0in 1.25in;} div.Section1 {page:Section1;} --> </style> </head> Everything works fine except for the bolded lines above, anybody got ideas how to match the them to? Thanks, Aleksandar

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  • XSLT Transformation of XML File

    - by Russ Clark
    I've written a simple XML Document that I am trying to transform with an XSLT file, but I get no results when I run the code. Here is my XML document: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <Employee xmlns:i="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns="XSLT_MVC.Controllers"> <ID>42</ID> <Name>Russ</Name> </Employee> And here is the XSLT file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" xmlns:msxsl="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:xslt" exclude-result-prefixes="msxsl" xmlns:ex="XSLT_MVC.Controllers" > <xsl:output method="xml" indent="yes"/> <xsl:template match="/"> <xsl:copy> <!--<xsl:apply-templates select="@* | node()"/>--> <xsl:value-of select="ex:Employee/Name"/> </xsl:copy> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> Here is the code (from a C# console app) I am trying to run to perform the transform: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Xml; using System.Xml.Xsl; using System.Xml.XPath; namespace XSLT { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Transform(); } public static void Transform() { XPathDocument myXPathDoc = new XPathDocument(@"docs\sampledoc.xml"); XslTransform myXslTrans = new XslTransform(); myXslTrans.Load(@"docs\new.xslt"); XmlTextWriter myWriter = new XmlTextWriter( "results.html", null); myXslTrans.Transform(myXPathDoc, null, myWriter); myWriter.Close(); } } } When I run the code I get a blank html file. I think I may have problems with the namespaces, but am not sure. Can anyone help with this?

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  • trouble with utf-8 chars & apache2 rewrite rules

    - by tixrus
    I see the post http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2565864/validating-utf-8-in-htaccess-rewrite-rule and I think that is great, but a more fundamental problem I am having first: I needed to expand to handle utf-8 chars for query string parameters, names of directories, files, and used in displays to users etc. I configured my Apache with DefaultCharset utf-8 and also my php if that matters. My original rewrite rule filtered everything except regular A-Za-z and underscore and hyphen. and it worked. Anything else would give you a 404 (which is what I want!) Now, however it seems that everything matches, including stuff I don't want, however, although it seems to match it doesn't go in the query string unless it is a regular A-Za-z_- character string. I find this confusing, because the rule says put whatever you matched into the query string: Here is the original rule: RewriteRule ^/puzzle/([A-Za-z_-]+)$ /puzzle.php?g=$1 [NC] and here is the revised rule: RewriteRule ^/puzzle/(\w+)$ /puzzle.php?g=$1 [NC] I made the change because somewhere I read that \w matches ALL the alpha chars where as A-Zetc. only matches the ones without accents and stuff. It doesn't seem to matter which of those rules I use: Here is what happens: In the application I have this: echo $_GET['g']; If I feed it a url like http://mydomain.com/puzzle/USA it echoes out "USA" and works fine. If I feed it a url like http://mydomain.com/puzzle/México it echoes nothing for that and warns me that index g is not defined and of course doesn't get resources for Mexico. if I feed it a url like http://mydomain.com/puzzle/fuzzle/buzzle/j.qle it does the same thing. This last case should be a 404! And it does this no matter which of the above rules I use. I configured a rewrite log RewriteLogLevel 5 RewriteLog /opt/local/apache2/logs/puzzles.httpd.rewrite but it is empty. Here is from the regular access log (it gives a status of 200) [26/May/2010:11:21:42 -0700] "GET /puzzle/M%C3%A9xico HTTP/1.1" 200 342 [26/May/2010:11:21:54 -0700] "GET /puzzle/M/l.foo HTTP/1.1" 200 342 What can I do to get these $%#$@(*#@!!! characters but not slash, dot or other non-alpha into my program, and once there, will it decode them correctly??? Would posix char classes work any better? Is there anything else I need to configure?

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  • XSLT Document function returns empty result on Maven POM

    - by user328618
    Greetings! I want to extract some properties from different Maven POMs in a XSLT via the document function. The script itself works fine but the document function returns an empty result for the POM as long as I have the xmlns="http://maven.apache.org/POM/4.0.0" in the project tag. If I remove it, everything works fine. Any idea how the make this work while leaving the xmlns attribute where it belongs or why this doesn't work with the attribute in place? Here comes the relevant portion of my XSLT: <xsl:template match="abcs"> <xsl:variable name="artifactCoordinate" select="abc"/> <xsl:choose> <xsl:when test="document(concat($artifactCoordinate,'-pom.xml'))"> <abc> <ID><xsl:value-of select="$artifactCoordinate"/></ID> <xsl:copy-of select="document(concat($artifactCoordinate,'-pom.xml'))/project/properties"/> </abc> </xsl:when> <xsl:otherwise> <xsl:message terminate="yes"> Transformation failed: POM "<xsl:value-of select="concat($artifactCoordinate,'-pom.xml')"/>" doesn't exist. </xsl:message> </xsl:otherwise> </xsl:choose> And, for completeness, a POM extract with the "bad" attribute: <project xmlns="http://maven.apache.org/POM/4.0.0" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://maven.apache.org/POM/4.0.0 http://maven.apache.org/maven-v4_0_0.xsd"> <modelVersion>4.0.0</modelVersion> <!-- ... --> <properties> <proalpha.version>[5.2a]</proalpha.version> <proalpha.openedge.version>[10.1B]</proalpha.openedge.version> <proalpha.optimierer.version>[1.1]</proalpha.optimierer.version> <proalpha.sonic.version>[7.6.1]</proalpha.sonic.version> </properties> </project>

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  • Using OpenID as the only authentication method

    - by iconiK
    I have read the other questions and they mostly talk about the security of doing so. That's not entirely my concern, mostly because the website is question is a browser-based game. However, the larger issue is the user - not every user is literate enough to understand OpenID. Sure RPX makes this pretty easy, which is what I'll use, but what if the user does not have an account at Google or Facebook or whatever, or does not trust the system to log in with an existing account? They'd have to get an account at another provide - I'm sure most will know how to do it, let alone be bothered to do it. There is also the problem of how to manage it in the application. A user might want to use multiple identities with a single account, so it's not as simple as username + password to deal with. How do I store the OpenID identities of a user in the database? Using OpenID gives me a benefit too: RPX can provide extensive profile information, so I can just prefill the profile form and ask the user to edit as required. I currently have this: UserID Email ------ --------------- 86000 [email protected] 86001 [email protected] UserOpenID OpenID ---------- ------ 86000 16733 86001 16839 86002 19361 OpenID Provider Identifier ------ -------- ---------------- 16733 Yahoo https:\\me.yahoo.com\bob#d36bd 16839 Yahoo https:\\me.yahoo.com\bigbobby#x75af 19361 Yahoo https:\\me.yahoo.com\alice#c19fd Is that the right way to store OpenID identifiers in the database? How would I match the identifier RPX gave me with one in the database to log in the user (if the identifier is known). So here are concrete questions: How would I make it accessible to users not having an OpenID or not wanting to use one? (security concerns over say, logging in with their Google account for example) How do I store the identifier in the database? (I'm not sure if the tables above are right) What measures do I need to take in order to prevent someone from logging in as another user and happily doing anything with their account? (as I understand RPX sends the identifier via HTTP, so what anyone would have to do is to just somehow grab it then enter it in the "OpenID" field) What else do I need to be aware of when using OpenID?

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  • PHP: How to find connections between users so I can create a closed friend circle?

    - by CuSS
    Hi all, First of all, I'm not trying to create a social network, facebook is big enough! (comic) I've chosen this question as example because it fits exactly on what I'm trying to do. Imagine that I have in MySQL a users table and a user_connections table with 'friend requests'. If so, it would be something like this: Users Table: userid username 1 John 2 Amalia 3 Stewie 4 Stuart 5 Ron 6 Harry 7 Joseph 8 Tiago 9 Anselmo 10 Maria User Connections Table: userid_request userid_accepted 2 3 7 2 3 4 7 8 5 6 4 5 8 9 4 7 9 10 6 1 10 7 1 2 Now I want to find circles between friends and create a structure array and put that circle on the database (none of the arrays can include the same friends that another has already). Return Example: // First Circle of Friends Circleid => 1 CircleStructure => Array( 1 => 2, 2 => 3, 3 => 4, 4 => 5, 5 => 6, 6 => 1, ) // Second Circle of Friends Circleid => 2 CircleStructure => Array( 7 => 8, 8 => 9, 9 => 10, 10 => 7, ) I'm trying to think of an algorithm to do that, but I think it will take a lot of processing time because it would randomly search the database until it 'closes' a circle. PS: The minimum structure length of a circle is 3 connections and the limit is 100 (so the daemon doesn't search the entire database) EDIT: I've think on something like this: function browse_user($userget='random',$users_history=array()){ $user = user::get($userget); $users_history[] = $user['userid']; $connections = user::connection::getByUser($user['userid']); foreach($connections as $connection){ $userid = ($connection['userid_request']!=$user['userid']) ? $connection['userid_request'] : $connection['userid_accepted']; // Start the circle array if(in_array($userid,$users_history)) return array($user['userid'] => $userid); $res = browse_user($userid, $users_history); if($res!==false){ // Continue the circle array return $res + array($user['userid'] => $userid); } } return false; } while(true){ $res = browse_user(); // Yuppy, friend circle found! if($res!==false){ user::circle::create($res); } // Start from scratch again! } The problem with this function is that it could search the entire database without finding the biggest circle, or the best match.

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  • Adding UIView animation mysteriously changes starting frame

    - by clozach
    I'm working on an app that shows a thumbnail of a photo taken by the user. In order to show a seemless transition from the full-screen image shown in the UIImagePickerController to the thumbnail, I set the frame on my copy of the image to [[UIScreen mainScreen] bounds] and then change the frame to match the frame of an invisible button. (The button allows users to re-take their photo by tapping the thumbnail image.) The trouble is that the starting x-origin of my UIImageView (imageView) is mysteriously starting nearly offscreen to the left: As you can see from the alert, the imageView purports to be located at (0,0), yet it's displaying at something like (-255,0). Here's the code: CGRect frame = [[UIScreen mainScreen] bounds]; imageView.frame = frame; [[[[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Yo!" message:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"starting frame:%@",NSStringFromCGRect(imageView.frame)] delegate:nil cancelButtonTitle:@"K." otherButtonTitles:nil] autorelease] show]; // Slide the enlarged image seamlessly "onto" the photo button [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:1000]; [UIView setAnimationDelay:.5]; imageView.frame = pictureButton.frame; [UIView commitAnimations]; As if to taunt me, the image actually does go full screen if I comment out the animation code: CGRect frame = [[UIScreen mainScreen] bounds]; imageView.frame = frame; [[[[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Yo!" message:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"starting frame:%@",NSStringFromCGRect(imageView.frame)] delegate:nil cancelButtonTitle:@"K." otherButtonTitles:nil] autorelease] show]; // Slide the enlarged image seamlessly "onto" the photo button // [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:nil]; // [UIView setAnimationDuration:1000]; // [UIView setAnimationDelay:.5]; // // imageView.frame = pictureButton.frame; // // [UIView commitAnimations]; (Note: animationDuration will of course be set to something more like .5 in production, not 1000 seconds.) Update — Other weirdness worth mentioning in case it's relevant: It turns out the offset changes depending on the orientation of the camera when the photo was taken. If I take the picture with the phone upside-down, for instance, then the image gets offset vertically as well as horizontally. The picker seems to be filling the image's imageOrientation incorrectly: I have to hold the phone sideways, Home button on the left, to get an image with UIImageOrientationUp. At one point I experimented with setting imageView.clipsToBounds = YES;, which revealed that my image view's frame is in fact correct. Rather, it's the UIImage's placement within the UIImageView that gets offset. Fwiw, the image view's contentMode is the default, UIViewContentModeScaleToFill.

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  • Java Nimbus LAF with transparent text fields

    - by Software Monkey
    I have an application that uses disabled JTextFields in several places which are intended to be transparent - allowing the background to show through instead of the text field's normal background. When running the new Nimbus LAF these fields are opaque (despite setting setOpaque(false)), and my UI is broken. It's as if the LAF is ignoring the opaque property. Setting a background color explicitly is both difficult in several places, and less than optimal due to background images actually doesn't work - it still paints it's LAF default background over the top, leaving a border-like appearance (the splash screen below has the background explicitly set to match the image). Any ideas on how I can get Nimbus to not paint the background for a JTextField? Note: I need a JTextField, rather than a JLabel, because I need the thread-safe setText(), and wrapping capability. Note: My fallback position is to continue using the system LAF, but Nimbus does look substantially better. See example images below. Conclusions The surprise at this behavior is due to a misinterpretation of what setOpaque() is meant to do - from the Nimbus bug report: This is a problem the the orginal design of Swing and how it has been confusing for years. The issue is setOpaque(false) has had a side effect in exiting LAFs which is that of hiding the background which is not really what it is ment for. It is ment to say that the component my have transparent parts and swing should paint the parent component behind it. It's unfortunate that the Nimbus components also appear not to honor setBackground(null) which would otherwise be the recommended way to stop the background painting. Setting a fully transparent background seems unintuitive to me. In my opinion, setOpaque()/isOpaque() is a faulty public API choice which should have been only: public boolean isFullyOpaque(); I say this, because isOpaque()==true is a contract with Swing that the component subclass will take responsibility for painting it's entire background - which means the parent can skip painting that region if it wants (which is an important performance enhancement). Something external cannot directly change this contract (legitimately), whose fulfillment may be coded into the component. So the opacity of the component should not have been settable using setOpaque(). Instead something like setBackground(null) should cause many components to "no long have a background" and therefore become not fully opaque. By way of example, in an ideal world most components should have an isOpaque() that looks like this: public boolean isOpaque() { return (background!=null); }

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  • MVC 2 AntiForgeryToken - Why symmetric encryption + IPrinciple?

    - by Brad R
    We recently updated our solution to MVC 2, and this has updated the way that the AntiForgeryToken works. Unfortunately this does not fit with our AJAX framework any more. The problem is that MVC 2 now uses symmetric encryption to encode some properties about the user, including the user's Name property (from IPrincipal). We are able to securely register a new user using AJAX, after which subsequent AJAX calls will be invalid as the anti forgery token will change when the user has been granted a new principal. There are also other cases when this may happen, such as a user updating their name etc. My main question is why does MVC 2 even bother using symmetric encryption? Any then why does it care about the user name property on the principal? If my understanding is correct then any random shared secret will do. The basic principle is that the user will be sent a cookie with some specific data (HttpOnly!). This cookie is then required to match a form variable sent back with each request that may have side effects (POST's usually). Since this is only meant to protect from cross site attacks it is easy to craft up a response that would easily pass the test, but only if you had full access to the cookie. Since a cross site attacker is not going to have access to your user cookies you are protected. By using symmetric encryption, what is the advantage in checking the contents of the cookie? That is, if I already have sent an HttpOnly cookie the attacker cannot override it (unless a browser has a major security issue), so why do I then need to check it again? After having a think about it it appears to be one of those 'added layer of security' cases - but if your first line of defence has fallen (HttpOnly) then the attacker is going to get past the second layer anyway as they have full access to the users cookie collection, and could just impersonate them directly, instead of using an indirect XSS/CSRF attack. Of course I could be missing a major issue, but I haven't found it yet. If there are some obvious or subtle issues at play here then I would like to be aware of them.

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  • Any software for pattern-matching and -rewriting source code?

    - by Steven A. Lowe
    I have some old software (in a language that's not dead but is dead to me ;-)) that implements a basic pattern-matching and -rewriting system for source code. I am considering resurrecting this code, translating it into a modern language, and open-sourcing the project as a refactoring power-tool. Before I go much further, I want to know if anything like this exists already (my google-fu is fanning air on this tonight). Here's how it works: the pattern-matching part matches source-code patterns spanning multiple lines of code using a template with binding variables, the pattern-rewriting part uses a template to rewrite the matched code, inserting the contents of the bound variables from the matching template matching and rewriting templates are associated (1:1) by a simple (unconditional) rewrite rule the software operates on the abstract syntax tree (AST) of the input application, and outputs a modified AST which can then be regenerated into new source code for example, suppose we find a bunch of while-loops that really should be for-loops. The following template will match the while-loop pattern: Template oldLoopPtrn int @cnt@ = 0; while (@cnt@ < @max@) { … @body@ ++@cnt@; } End_Template while the following template will specify the output rewrite pattern: Template newLoopPtrn for(int @cnt@ = 0; @cnt@ < @max@; @cnt@++) { @body@ } End_Template and a simple rule to associate them Rule oldLoopPtrn --> newLoopPtrn so code that looks like this int i=0; while(i<arrlen) { printf("element %d: %f\n",i,arr[i]); ++i; } gets automatically rewritten to look like this for(int i = 0; i < arrlen; i++) { printf("element %d: %f\n",i,arr[i]); } The closest thing I've seen like this is some of the code-refactoring tools, but they seem to be geared towards interactive rewriting of selected snippets, not wholesale automated changes. I believe that this kind of tool could supercharge refactoring, and would work on multiple languages (even HTML/CSS). I also believe that converting and polishing the code base would be a huge project that I simply cannot do alone in any reasonable amount of time. So, anything like this out there already? If not, any obvious features (besides rewrite-rule conditions) to consider? EDIT: The one feature of this system that I like very much is that the template patterns are fairly obvious and easy to read because they're written in the same language as the target source code, not in some esoteric mutated regex/BNF format.

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  • Structure of NAnt build scripts and solution structure on build server

    - by llykke
    We're in the process of streamlining/automating build, integration and unit testing as well as deployment. Our software is developed in Visual Studio where we have use both C# and VB.NET in our projects. A single project can be contained within multiple solutions (i.e. Utils project is used in both ProductA and ProductB solutions) For historical reasons our code repository isn't as well structured as one could have hoped for. E.g. Utils project might be located under ProductA solution (because that's were it was first used) but it was later deemed useful for productB development and merely just included into the solution of productB (but still located in a subdirectory of productA). I would like to use continous integration testing and have setup a CC.NET build server where I intend to use NAnt for creating the actual builds. Question 1: How should I structure my builds on the buildserver? Should I instruct CC.NET to retrieve all the projects for productB into a single library e.g. a file structure similar to -ProductB --Utils --BetterUtils --Data or should I opt for a filestructure similar to this -ProductA --Utils -ProductB --BetterUtils --Data and then just have the NAnt build scripts handle the references? Our references in VS doesn't match the actual location in the code repository so it's not possible today to just check-out productB solution and build it straight away (unfortunately). I hope this question makes sense? Question 2: Is it better to check out all the source code located in different projects into a single file folder (whilst retaining some kind of structure) and then build every thing at once or have multiple projects in CC.NET and then let the CC.NET server handle dependencies? Example: Should I have a seperate project in CC.NET for monitoring the automated build/test of Utils project when it's never released on it's own? Or should I just build/test it whilst building it as part of ProductB? I hope the above makes sense and that you can provide me with some arguments for using either option. We're nowhere near an ideal source code repository structure and I would prefer if I can resolve the lack of repository structure on the build server instead of having to clean up the structure of our repository. Switching away from VSS is (unfortunately) not an option. Right now our build consists of either deploying via VS clickonce or pressing F5 so just getting the build automated would be a huge step up for us. Thanks

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  • Learning Treetop

    - by cmartin
    I'm trying to teach myself Ruby's Treetop grammar generator. I am finding that not only is the documentation woefully sparse for the "best" one out there, but that it doesn't seem to work as intuitively as I'd hoped. On a high level, I'd really love a better tutorial than the on-site docs or the video, if there is one. On a lower level, here's a grammar I cannot get to work at all: grammar SimpleTest rule num (float / integer) end rule float ( (( '+' / '-')? plain_digits '.' plain_digits) / (( '+' / '-')? plain_digits ('E' / 'e') plain_digits ) / (( '+' / '-')? plain_digits '.') / (( '+' / '-')? '.' plain_digits) ) { def eval text_value.to_f end } end rule integer (( '+' / '-' )? plain_digits) { def eval text_value.to_i end } end rule plain_digits [0-9] [0-9]* end end When I load it and run some assertions in a very simple test object, I find: assert_equal @parser.parse('3.14').eval,3.14 Works fine, while assert_equal @parser.parse('3').eval,3 raises the error: NoMethodError: private method `eval' called for # If I reverse integer and float on the description, both integers and floats give me this error. I think this may be related to limited lookahead, but I cannot find any information in any of the docs to even cover the idea of evaluating in the "or" context A bit more info that may help. Here's pp information for both those parse() blocks. The float: SyntaxNode+Float4+Float0 offset=0, "3.14" (eval,plain_digits): SyntaxNode offset=0, "" SyntaxNode+PlainDigits0 offset=0, "3": SyntaxNode offset=0, "3" SyntaxNode offset=1, "" SyntaxNode offset=1, "." SyntaxNode+PlainDigits0 offset=2, "14": SyntaxNode offset=2, "1" SyntaxNode offset=3, "4": SyntaxNode offset=3, "4" The Integer... note that it seems to have been defined to follow the integer rule, but not caught the eval() method: SyntaxNode+Integer0 offset=0, "3" (plain_digits): SyntaxNode offset=0, "" SyntaxNode+PlainDigits0 offset=0, "3": SyntaxNode offset=0, "3" SyntaxNode offset=1, "" Update: I got my particular problem working, but I have no clue why: rule integer ( '+' / '-' )? plain_digits { def eval text_value.to_i end } end This makes no sense with the docs that are present, but just removing the extra parentheses made the match include the Integer1 class as well as Integer0. Integer1 is apparently the class holding the eval() method. I have no idea why this is the case. I'm still looking for more info about treetop.

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  • How can I highlight empty fields in ASP.NET MVC 2 before model binding has occurred?

    - by Richard Poole
    I'm trying to highlight certain form fields (let's call them important fields) when they're empty. In essence, they should behave a bit like required fields, but they should be highlighted if they are empty when the user first GETs the form, before POST & model validation has occurred. The user can also ignore the warnings and submit the form when these fields are empty (i.e. empty important fields won't cause ModelState.IsValid to be false). Ideally it needs to work server-side (empty important fields are highlighted with warning message on GET) and client-side (highlighted if empty when losing focus). I've thought of a few ways of doing this, but I'm hoping some bright spark can come up with a nice elegant solution... Just use a CSS class to flag important fields Update every view/template to render important fields with an important CSS class. Write some jQuery to highlight empty important fields when the DOM is ready and hook their blur events so highlights & warning messages can be shown/hidden as appropriate. Pros: Quick and easy. Cons: Unnecessary duplication of importance flags and warning messages across views & templates. Clients with JavaScript disabled will never see highlights/warnings. Custom data annotation and client-side validator Create classes similar to RequiredAttribute, RequiredAttributeAdapter and ModelClientValidationRequiredRule, and register the adapter with DataAnnotationsModelValidatorProvider.RegisterAdapter. Create a client-side validator like this that responds to the blur event. Pros: Data annotation follows DRY principle (Html.ValidationMessageFor<T> picks up field importance and warning message from attribute, no duplication). Cons: Must call TryValidateModel from GET actions to ensure empty fields are decorated. Not technically validation (client- & server-side rules don't match) so it's at the mercy of framework changes. Clients with JavaScript disabled will never see highlights/warnings. Clone the entire validation framework It strikes me that I'm trying to achieve exactly the same thing as validation but with warnings rather than errors. It needs to run before model binding (and therefore validation) has occurred. Perhaps it's worth designing a similar framework with annotations like Required, RegularExpression, StringLength, etc. that somehow cause Html.TextBoxFor<T> etc. to render the warning CSS class and Html.ValidationMessageFor<T> to emit the warning message and JSON needed to enable client-side blur checks. Pros: Sounds like something MVC 2 could do with out of the box. Cons: Way too much effort for my current requirement! I'm swaying towards option 1. Can anyone think of a better solution?

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  • Comparing two large sets of attributes

    - by andyashton
    Suppose you have a Django view that has two functions: The first function renders some XML using a XSLT stylesheet and produces a div with 1000 subelements like this: <div id="myText"> <p id="p1"><a class="note-p1" href="#" style="display:none" target="bot">?</a></strong>Lorem ipsum</p> <p id="p2"><a class="note-p2" href="#" style="display:none" target="bot">?</a></strong>Foo bar</p> <p id="p3"><a class="note-p3" href="#" style="display:none" target="bot">?</a></strong>Chocolate peanut butter</p> (etc for 1000 lines) <p id="p1000"><a class="note-p1000" href="#" style="display:none" target="bot">?</a></strong>Go Yankees!</p> </div> The second function renders another XML document using another stylesheet to produce a div like this: <div id="myNotes"> <p id="n1"><cite class="note-p1"><sup>1</sup><span>Trololo</span></cite></p> <p id="n2"><cite class="note-p1"><sup>2</sup><span>Trololo</span></cite></p> <p id="n3"><cite class="note-p2"><sup>3</sup><span>lololo</span></cite></p> (etc for n lines) <p id="n"><cite class="note-p885"><sup>n</sup><span>lololo</span></cite></p> </div> I need to see which elements in #myText have classes that match elements in #myNotes, and display them. I can do this using the following jQuery: $('#myText').find('a').each(function() { var $anchor = $(this); $('#myNotes').find('cite').each(function() { if($(this).attr('class') == $anchor.attr('class')) { $anchor.show(); }); }); However this is incredibly slow and inefficient for a large number of comparisons. What is the fastest/most efficient way to do this - is there a jQuery/js method that is reasonable for a large number of items? Or do I need to reengineer the Django code to do the work before passing it to the template?

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  • iPhone SDK - Comparing characters in string

    - by Karl Daniel
    Basically what I'm trying to do is compare 2 strings one from a plist and one from the user's input. I use a while loop to step through each character and compare it and if true then I increase an integer then once the loop has finished I work out the percentage correct / similarity of the plist answer and the user's answer. I seem to be having a problem however as the only return I'm getting is 0. Below is the code I'm using... The code below is all functioning and the question no longer requires answering... Working code... answerLength = boxAnswer.length; //Gets number of characters of first string. plistLength = plistAnswer.length; //Gets number of characters of second string. characterRange = 0; //Sets the variable for which character to look at. charactersCorrect = 0; //Sets the variable of number of matching characters. unichar answerCharacter; //Declares a unichar for the first string. unichar plistCharacter; //Declares a unichar for the second string. while (answerLength > 0 && plistLength > 0) { answerCharacter = [boxAnswer characterAtIndex:characterRange]; //Gets character of first string at the index of the range integer. plistCharacter = [plistAnswer characterAtIndex:characterRange]; //Gets character of second string at the index of the range integer. answerLength--; //Reduces number of characters left to compare. plistLength--; characterRange++; //Increases integer to tell it to look at next character in string. if (answerCharacter == plistCharacter) { //Checks to see if character of first string and character of second string match. charactersCorrect++; //If true increases the number correct. } } //Works out percentage of matching characters out of the total string. totalChar = plistAnswer.length; totalPercentage = (charactersCorrect/totalChar)*100; percentageCorrect.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%i%%",totalPercentage]; Variable Declarations... int answerLength; int plistLength; int characterRange; double totalChar; double charactersCorrect; int totalPercentage;

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  • Using Hibernate to do a query involving two tables

    - by Nathan Spears
    I'm inexperienced with sql in general, so using Hibernate is like looking for an answer before I know exactly what the question is. Please feel free to correct any misunderstandings I have. I am on a project where I have to use Hibernate. Most of what I am doing is pretty basic and I could copy and modify. Now I would like to do something different and I'm not sure how configuration and syntax need to come together. Let's say I have two tables. Table A has two (relevant) columns, user GUID and manager GUID. Obviously managers can have more than one user under them, so queries on manager can return more than one row. Additionally, a manager can be managing the same user on multiple projects, so the same user can be returned multiple times for the same manager query. Table B has two columns, user GUID and user full name. One-to-one mapping there. I want to do a query on manager GUID from Table A, group them by unique User GUID (so the same User isn't in the results twice), then return those users' full names from Table B. I could do this in sql without too much trouble but I want to use Hibernate so I don't have to parse the sql results by hand. That's one of the points of using Hibernate, isn't it? Right now I have Hibernate mappings that map each column in Table A to a field (well the get/set methods I guess) in a DAO object that I wrote just to hold that Table's data. I could also use the Hibernate DAOs I have to access each table separately and do each of the things I mentioned above in separate steps, but that would be less efficient (I assume) that doing one query. I wrote a Service object to hold the data that gets returned from the query (my example is simplified - I'm going to keep some other data from Table A and get multiple columns from Table B) but I'm at a loss for how to write a DAO that can do the join, or use the DAOs I have to do the join. FYI, here is a sample of my hibernate config file (simplified to match my example): <hibernate-mapping package="com.my.dao"> <class name="TableA" table="table_a"> <id name="pkIndex" column="pk_index" /> <property name="userGuid" column="user_guid" /> <property name="managerGuid" column="manager_guid" /> </class> </hibernate-mapping> So then I have a DAOImplementation class that does queries and returns lists like public List<TableA> findByHQL(String hql, Map<String, String> params) etc. I'm not sure how "best practice" that is either.

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  • CSS selectors : should I make my CSS easier to read or optimise the speed

    - by Laurent Bourgault-Roy
    As I was working on a small website, I decided to use the PageSpeed extension to check if their was some improvement I could do to make the site load faster. However I was quite surprise when it told me that my use of CSS selector was "inefficient". I was always told that you should keep the usage of the class attribute in the HTML to a minimum, but if I understand correctly what PageSpeed tell me, it's much more efficient for the browser to match directly against a class name. It make sense to me, but it also mean that I need to put more CSS classes in my HTML. It make my .css file harder to read. I usually tend to mark my CSS like this : #mainContent p.productDescription em.priceTag { ... } Which make it easy to read : I know this will affect the main content and that it affect something in a paragraph tag (so I wont start to put all sort of layout code in it) that describe a product and its something that need emphasis. However it seem I should rewrite it as .priceTag { ... } Which remove all context information about the style. And if I want to use differently formatted price tag (for example, one in a list on the sidebar and one in a paragraph), I need to use something like that .paragraphPriceTag { ... } .listPriceTag { ... } Which really annoy me since I seem to duplicate the semantic of the HTML in my classes. And that mean I can't put common style in an unqualified .priceTag { ... } and thus I need to replicate the style in both CSS rule, making it harder to make change. (Altough for that I could use multiple class selector, but IE6 dont support them) I believe making code harder to read for the sake of speed has never been really considered a very good practice . Except where it is critical, of course. This is why people use PHP/Ruby/C# etc. instead of C/assembly to code their site. It's easier to write and debug. So I was wondering if I should stick with few CSS classes and complex selector or if I should go the optimisation route and remove my fancy CSS selectors for the sake of speed? Does PageSpeed make over the top recommandation? On most modern computer, will it even make a difference?

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  • Regular expression works normally, but fails when placed in an XML schema

    - by Eli Courtwright
    I have a simple doc.xml file which contains a single root element with a Timestamp attribute: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <root Timestamp="04-21-2010 16:00:19.000" /> I'd like to validate this document against a my simple schema.xsd to make sure that the Timestamp is in the correct format: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <xs:schema attributeFormDefault="unqualified" elementFormDefault="qualified" xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <xs:element name="root"> <xs:complexType> <xs:attribute name="Timestamp" use="required" type="timeStampType"/> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> <xs:simpleType name="timeStampType"> <xs:restriction base="xs:string"> <xs:pattern value="(0[0-9]{1})|(1[0-2]{1})-(3[0-1]{1}|[0-2]{1}[0-9]{1})-[2-9]{1}[0-9]{3} ([0-1]{1}[0-9]{1}|2[0-3]{1}):[0-5]{1}[0-9]{1}:[0-5]{1}[0-9]{1}.[0-9]{3}" /> </xs:restriction> </xs:simpleType> </xs:schema> So I use the lxml Python module and try to perform a simple schema validation and report any errors: from lxml import etree schema = etree.XMLSchema( etree.parse("schema.xsd") ) doc = etree.parse("doc.xml") if not schema.validate(doc): for e in schema.error_log: print e.message My XML document fails validation with the following error messages: Element 'root', attribute 'Timestamp': [facet 'pattern'] The value '04-21-2010 16:00:19.000' is not accepted by the pattern '(0[0-9]{1})|(1[0-2]{1})-(3[0-1]{1}|[0-2]{1}[0-9]{1})-[2-9]{1}[0-9]{3} ([0-1]{1}[0-9]{1}|2[0-3]{1}):[0-5]{1}[0-9]{1}:[0-5]{1}[0-9]{1}.[0-9]{3}'. Element 'root', attribute 'Timestamp': '04-21-2010 16:00:19.000' is not a valid value of the atomic type 'timeStampType'. So it looks like my regular expression must be faulty. But when I try to validate the regular expression at the command line, it passes: >>> import re >>> pat = '(0[0-9]{1})|(1[0-2]{1})-(3[0-1]{1}|[0-2]{1}[0-9]{1})-[2-9]{1}[0-9]{3} ([0-1]{1}[0-9]{1}|2[0-3]{1}):[0-5]{1}[0-9]{1}:[0-5]{1}[0-9]{1}.[0-9]{3}' >>> assert re.match(pat, '04-21-2010 16:00:19.000') >>> I'm aware that XSD regular expressions don't have every feature, but the documentation I've found indicates that every feature that I'm using should work. So what am I mis-understanding, and why does my document fail?

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