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  • JSON.Stringify data including boolean values

    - by ancdev
    What I'm trying to do is to pass JSON object to a WebAPI ajax call and mapped to a strongly typed object on the server side. String values are being posted perfectly however when it comes to boolean values, they are not being passed at all. Below is my code: var gsGasolineField = $('.gsGasoline').val(); blData = { Gasoline: gsGasolineField }; var json = JSON.stringify(blData); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: url, data: json, contentType: "application/json", dataType: "json", statusCode: { 201 /*Created"*/: function (data) { $("#BusinessLayerDialog").dialog("close"); ClearForm("#BusinessLayerForm"); }, 400: /*Bad request - validation error*/ function (data) { $("#BusinessLayerForm").validate().form(); }, 500: function (data) { alert('err'); } }, beforeSend: setHeader }); Gasoline property is of type boolean on the server side.

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  • Timespan not accepting day in MVC3

    - by middelpat
    I have a MVC3 application in which i want to set a timespan to for example 2 days and 5 hours. when i enter 02:05:00:00 it gives me the following exception: System.OverflowException: SqlDbType.Time overflow. Value '2.05:00:00' is out of range. Must be between 00:00:00.0000000 and 23:59:59.9999999. When i enter 05:00:00 it correctly saves 5 hours into the database. according to MSDN timespan has a property for days. How do i correctly set the days? Model: public class ProductionTimeVM { [Required] public TimeSpan DefaultTime { get; set; } } In my view i just use: @Html.TextBoxFor(x => x.DefaultTime) For my controller: public ActionResult SaveProductionTime(ProductionTimeVM vm) { ProductionTime productionTime = new ProductionTime(); productionTime.Default = vm.DefaultTime; //some more code } Any idea's?

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  • Multiple generic parameters on a html helper extension method

    - by WestDiscGolf
    What I'm trying to do is create an extension method for the HtmlHelper to create a specific output and associated details like TextBoxFor<. What I want to do is specify the property from the model class as per TextBoxFor<, then an associated controller action and other parameters. So far the signature of the method looks like: public static MvcHtmlString Create<TModel, TProperty, TController>(this HtmlHelper<TModel> htmlHelper, Expression<Func<TModel, TProperty>> expression, Expression<Action<TController>> action, object htmlAttributes) where TController : Controller where TModel : class The issue occurs when I go to call it. In my view if I call it as per the TextBoxFor without specifying the Model type I am able to specify the lambda expression to set the property which it's for, but when I go to specify the action I am unable to. However, when I specify the controller type Html.Create<HomeController>( ... ) I am unable to specify the model property that the control is to be created for. I want to be able to call it like <%= Html.Create(x => x.Title, controller => controller.action, null) %> I've been hitting my head for a few hours now on this issue over the past day, can anyone point me in the right direction?

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  • Rails - Scalable calculation model

    - by H O
    I currently have a calculation structure in my rails app that has models metric, operand and operation_type. Presently, the metric model has many operands, and can perform calculations based on the operation_type (e.g. sum, multiply, etc.), and each operand is defined as being right or left (i.e. so that if the operation is division, the numerator and denominator can be identified). Presently, an operand is always an attribute of some model, e.g. @customer.sales.selling_price.sum. In order to make this scalable, in need to allow an operand to be either an attribute of some kind, or the results of a previous operation, i.e. an operand can be a metric. I have included a diagram of how my models currently look: Can anyone assist me with the most elegant way of allowing an operand to be an actual operand, or another metric? Thanks! EDIT: It seems based on the only answer so far that perhaps polymorphic associations are the way to go on this, but the answer is so brief I have no idea how they could be used in this way - can anyone elaborate? EDIT 2: OK, I think I'm getting somewhere - essentially i presently have a metric, which has_many operands, and an operand has_many metrics. I need a polymorphic self join, where a metric can also have many metrics - do I need to call this something else, perhaps calculated_metrics, so that the metric model can use itself? That would leave me with a situation where a metric has_many operands, and a metric has many calculated_metrics.

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  • Orchard - Can't find the Resource defined in ResourceManifest.cs

    - by mlang
    I have a custom there, where I try to require some of my css and js files via the ResourceManifest.cs file - I keep into running a quite weird issue tough. I get the following error: a 'script' named 'FoundationScript' could not be found This is my ResourceManifest.cs: using Orchard.UI.Resources; namespace Themes.TestTheme { public class ResourceManifest : IResourceManifestProvider { public void BuildManifest(ResourceManifestBuilder builder) { var manifest = builder.Add(); manifest.DefineStyle("Foundation").SetUrl("foundation.min.css"); manifest.DefineScript("FoundationScript").SetUrl("foundation.min.js"); } } } In the Layout.cshtml, I have following: @{ Script.Require("ShapesBase"); Script.Require("FoundationScript"); Style.Include("site.css"); Style.Require("Foundation"); } What am I missing here?

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  • Set dropDownList to contain one value only, mvc3

    - by ParPar
    I have this in my controller: ViewBag.PriceListId = new SelectList(m_db.PriceLists, "Id", "Name", us.PriceListId); It contains two values now, but I want to enable the user to choose only the second value, and just if he does something else - allow him choose one of the both values. How do I omit the first value, and add and set him to default after that? Shoud I do it in my controller or use jquery? Thank in advance.

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  • How to open save dialog box for saving pdf

    - by Mutturaj Bali
    I truly appreciate your suggestions. I am using MVC3 and I want user to save to his own path by opening a dialog with password protected. Can you guys please help me on this. Below is my code: mydoc.GenerateLetter(PdfData); string WorkingFolder = Environment.GetFolderPath(Environment.SpecialFolder.MyDocuments); using (MemoryStream m = new MemoryStream()) { m.Write(mydoc.DocumentBytes, 0, mydoc.DocumentBytes.Length); m.Seek(0, SeekOrigin.Begin); string OutputFile = Path.Combine(WorkingFolder, PdfData.Name + ".pdf"); using (Stream output = new FileStream(OutputFile, FileMode.Create, FileAccess.Write, FileShare.None)) { PdfReader reader = new PdfReader(m); PdfEncryptor.Encrypt(reader, output, true, "abc123", "secret", PdfWriter.ALLOW_SCREENREADERS); } }

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  • how do i implement / build / create an 'in memory database' for my unit test

    - by Michel
    Hi all, i've started unit testing a while ago and as turned out i did more regression testing than unit testing because i also included my database layer thus going to the database verytime. So, implemented Unity to inject a fake database layer, but i of course want to store some data, and the main opinion was: "create an in-memory database" But what is that / how do i implement that? Main question is: i think i have to fake the database layer, but doesn't that make me create a 'simple database' myself or: how can i keep it simple and not rebuilding Sql Server just for my unit tests :) At the end of this question i'll give an explanation of the situation i got in on the project i just started on, and i was wondering if this was the way to go. Michel Current situation i've seen at this client is that testdata is contained in XML files, and there is a 'fake' database layer that connects all the xml files together. For the real database we're using the entity framework, and this works very simple. And now, in the 'fake' layer, i have top create all kind of classes to load, save, persist etc. the data. It sounds weird that there is so much work in the fake layer, and so little in the real layer. I hope this all makes sense :)

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  • HttpWebRequest possibly slowing website

    - by Steven Smith
    Using Visual studio 2012, C#.net 4.5 , SQL Server 2008, Feefo, Nopcommerce Hey guys I have Recently implemented a new review service into a current site we have. When the change went live the first day all worked fine. Since then though the sending of sales to Feefo hasnt been working, There are no logs either of anything going wrong. In the OrderProcessingService.cs in Nop Commerce's Service, i call a HttpWebrequest when an order has been confirmed as completed. Here is the code. var email = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(order.Customer.Email.ToString()); var name = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(order.Customer.GetFullName().ToString()); var description = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(productVariant.ProductVariant.Product.MetaDescription != null ? productVariant.ProductVariant.Product.MetaDescription.ToString() : "product"); var orderRef = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(order.Id.ToString()); var productLink = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(string.Format("myurl/p/{0}/{1}", productVariant.ProductVariant.ProductId, productVariant.ProductVariant.Name.Replace(" ", "-"))); string itemRef = ""; try { itemRef = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(productVariant.ProductVariant.ProductId.ToString()); } catch { itemRef = "0"; } var url = string.Format("feefo Url", login, password,email,name,description,orderRef,productLink,itemRef); var request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(url); request.KeepAlive = false; request.Timeout = 5000; request.Proxy = null; using (var response = (HttpWebResponse)request.GetResponse()) { if (response.StatusDescription == "OK") { var stream = response.GetResponseStream(); if(stream != null) { using (var reader = new StreamReader(stream)) { var content = reader.ReadToEnd(); } } } } So as you can see its a simple webrequest that is processed on an order, and all product variants are sent to feefo. Now: this hasnt been happening all week since the 15th (day of the implementation) the site has been grinding to a halt recently. The stream and reader in the the var content is there for debugging. Im wondering does the code redflag anything to you that could relate to the process of website? Also note i have run some SQL statements to see if there is any deadlocks or large escalations, so far seems fine, Logs have also been fine just the usual logging of Bots. Any help would be much appreciated! EDIT: also note that this code is in a method that is called and wrapped in A try catch UPDATE: well forget about the "not sending", thats because i was just told my code was rolled back last week

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  • Problem in Saving Multi Level Models in YII

    - by Waqar
    My Table structure for user and his adress detail is as follows CREATE TABLE tbl_users ( id bigint(20) unsigned NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, loginname varchar(128) NOT NULL, enabled enum("True","False"), approved enum("True","False"), password varchar(128) NOT NULL, email varchar(128) NOT NULL, role_id int(20) NOT NULL DEFAULT '2', name varchar(70) NOT NULL, co_type enum("S/O","D/O","W/O") DEFAULT "S/O", co_name varchar(70), gender enum("MALE","FEMALE","OTHER") DEFAULT "MALE", dob date DEFAULT NULL, maritalstatus enum("SINGLE","MARRIED","DIVORCED","WIDOWER") DEFAULT "MARRIED", occupation varchar(100) DEFAULT NULL, occupationtype_id int(20) DEFAULT NULL, occupationindustry_id int(20) DEFAULT NULL, contact_id bigint(20) unsigned DEFAULT NULL, signupreason varchar(500), PRIMARY KEY (id), UNIQUE KEY loginname (loginname), UNIQUE KEY email (email), FOREIGN KEY (role_id) REFERENCES tbl_roles (id), FOREIGN KEY (occupationtype_id) REFERENCES tbl_occupationtypes (id), FOREIGN KEY (occupationindustry_id) REFERENCES tbl_occupationindustries (id), FOREIGN KEY (contact_id) REFERENCES tbl_contacts (id) ) ENGINE=InnoDB; CREATE TABLE tbl_contacts ( id bigint(20) unsigned NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, contact_type enum("cres","pres","coff"), address varchar(300) DEFAULT NULL, landmark varchar(100) DEFAULT NULL, district_id int(11) DEFAULT NULL, city_id int(20) DEFAULT NULL, state_id int(20) DEFAULT NULL, pin_id bigint(20) unsigned DEFAULT NULL, area_id bigint(20) unsigned DEFAULT NULL, po_id bigint(20) unsigned DEFAULT NULL, phone1 varchar(20) DEFAULT NULL, phone2 varchar(20) DEFAULT NULL, mobile1 varchar(20) DEFAULT NULL, mobile2 varchar(20) DEFAULT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (id), FOREIGN KEY (district_id) REFERENCES tbl_districts (id), FOREIGN KEY (city_id) REFERENCES tbl_cities (id), FOREIGN KEY (state_id) REFERENCES tbl_states (id) ) ENGINE=InnoDB; CREATE TABLE tbl_states ( id int(20) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, name varchar(70) DEFAULT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (id) ) ENGINE=InnoDB; CREATE TABLE tbl_districts ( id int(20) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, name varchar(70) DEFAULT NULL, state_id int(20) DEFAULT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (id), FOREIGN KEY (state_id) REFERENCES tbl_states (id) ) ENGINE=InnoDB; CREATE TABLE tbl_cities ( id int(20) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, name varchar(70) DEFAULT NULL, district_id int(20) DEFAULT NULL, state_id int(20) DEFAULT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (id), FOREIGN KEY (district_id) REFERENCES tbl_districts (id), FOREIGN KEY (state_id) REFERENCES tbl_states (id) ) ENGINE=InnoDB; The relationship is as follows User has multiple contacts i.e Permanent Address, Current Address, Office Address. Each Contact has state and City. User-Contact-state like this How to save models of this structure in one go. Please provide a reply ASAP

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  • Error using MVCContrib TestHelper

    - by Brian McCord
    While trying to implement the second answer to a previous question, I am receiving an error. I have implemented the methods just as the post shows, and the first three work properly. The fourth one (HomeController_Delete_Action_Handler_Should_Redirect_If_Model_Successfully_Delete) gives this error: Could not find a parameter named 'controller' in the result's Values collection. If I change the code to: actual .AssertActionRedirect() .ToAction("Index"); it works properly, but I don't like the "magic string" in there and prefer to use the lambda method that the other poster used. My controller method looks like this: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Delete(State model) { try { if( model == null ) { return View( model ); } _stateService.Delete( model ); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } catch { return View( model ); } } What am I doing wrong?

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  • radiobutton checked on condition in jquery

    - by RememberME
    I have the following fields: <label>Company Type:</label> <label for="primary"><input onclick="javascript: $('#sec').hide('slow');$('#primary_company').find('option:first').attr('selected','selected');" type="radio" runat="server" name="companyType" id="primary" />Primary</label> <label for="secondary"><input onclick="javascript: $('#sec').show('slow');" type="radio" runat="server" name="companyType" id="secondary" />Secondary</label> <div id="sec"> <fieldset> <label for="primary_company">Primary Company:</label> <%= Html.DropDownList("primary_company", Model.SelectPrimaryCompanies, "** Select Primary Company **") %> </fieldset> If there is a primary_company, then the secondary radio button should be selected. If there is no primary_company, then the primary radio button should be selected. Here is my jQuery: $(document).ready(function() { if ($('#primary_company').val().length > 0) { $('#secondary').attr({ checked: true }); } else { $("#primary").attr('checked', true ); $('#sec').hide(); } The sec div hides and shows properly, but a radio button is never selected. I've tried .attr('checked', 'checked') and .attr({ checked: true }) and .attr('checked', true) but nothing is ever selected.

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  • How to handle model state errors in ajax-invoked controller action that returns a PartialView

    - by Robert Koritnik
    I have a POST controller action that returns a partial view. Everything seems really easy. but. I load it using $.ajax(), setting type as html. But when my model validation fails I thought I should just throw an error with model state errors. But my reply always returns 500 Server error. How can I report back model state errors without returning Json with whatever result. I would still like to return partial view that I can directly append to some HTML element. Edit I would also like to avoid returning error partial view. This would look like a success on the client. Having the client parse the result to see whether it's an actual success is prone to errors. Designers may change the partial view output and this alone would break the functionality. So I want to throw an exception, but with the correct error message returned to the ajax client.

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  • Display virtual keyword asp.net for password

    - by Nicole
    Hi! I have a login page with an input of type "password" I would like to have a virtual keyboard to enter the password. I've searched and I found the jquery script for virtual keyboard. The code said to add this to my page $('input[type=password]').keyboard({ layout: "qwerty", customLayout: [["q w e r t y {bksp}", "Q W E R T Y {bksp}"], ["s a m p l e {shift}", "S A M P L E {shift}"], ["{accept} {space} {cancel}", "{accept} {space} {cancel}"]] }); but I cant make it work!!!! nothing happens when y set focus on my password control. Any suggestions?? thank you!! Nicole.

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  • MVC4 - how to vaildate a drop down list?

    - by Grant Roy
    I have a .Net MVC4 model / view with a number of [Required] fields, one of which is selected via a drop down list, "Content_CreatedBy" [the first code block below]. Client side validation fires on all fields except the DDL [although server side validation does not allow no entry in DDL]. I have tried validating on the DDL text as well its numeric value but niether fire on the client side. Can anyone see what I am doing wrong? Thanks Model [Required] [Display(Name = "Author")] [ForeignKey("ContentContrib")] [Range(1, 99, ErrorMessage = "Author field is required.")] public virtual int Content_CreatedBy { get; set; } [Required] [Display(Name = "Date")] public virtual DateTime Content_CreatedDate { get; set; } [Required] [DataType(DataType.MultilineText)] [Display(Name = "Source / Notes ")] [StringLength(10, MinimumLength = 3)] public virtual string Content_Sources { get; set; } [Required] [Display(Name = "Keywords")] [StringLength(50, MinimumLength = 3)] public virtual string Content_KeyWords { get; set; } VIEW <div class="editor-label"> @Html.LabelFor(model => model.Content_CreatedBy, new { @class="whitelabel"}) </div> <div class="editor-field"> @Html.DropDownList("Content_CreatedBy", String.Empty) @Html.EditorFor(model => model.Content_CreatedBy) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Content_CreatedBy) </div>

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  • How to manually set an authenticated user in Spring Security / SpringMVC

    - by David Parks
    After a new user submits a 'New account' form, I want to manually log that user in so they don't have to login on the subsequent page. The normal form login page going through the spring security interceptor works just fine. In the new-account-form controller I am creating a UsernamePasswordAuthenticationToken and setting it in the SecurityContext manually: SecurityContextHolder.getContext().setAuthentication(authentication); On that same page I later check that the user is logged in with: SecurityContextHolder.getContext().getAuthentication().getAuthorities(); This returns the authorities I set earlier in the authentication. All is well. But when this same code is called on the very next page I load, the authentication token is just UserAnonymous. I'm not clear why it did not keep the authentication I set on the previous request. Any thoughts? Could it have to do with session ID's not being set up correctly? Is there something that is possibly overwriting my authentication somehow? Perhaps I just need another step to save the authentication? Or is there something I need to do to declare the authentication across the whole session rather than a single request somehow? Just looking for some thoughts that might help me see what's happening here.

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  • EF4 Code First - Many to many relationship issue

    - by Yngve B. Nilsen
    Hi! I'm having some trouble with my EF Code First model when saving a relation to a many to many relationship. My Models: public class Event { public int Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<Tag> Tags { get; set; } } public class Tag { public int Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<Event> Events { get; set; } } In my controller, I map one or many TagViewModels into type of Tag, and send it down to my servicelayer for persistence. At this time by inspecting the entities the Tag has both Id and Name (The Id is a hidden field, and the name is a textbox in my view) The problem occurs when I now try to add the Tag to the Event. Let's take the following scenario: The Event is already in my database, and let's say it already has the related tags C#, ASP.NET If I now send the following list of tags to the servicelayer: ID Name 1 C# 2 ASP.NET 3 EF4 and add them by first fetching the Event from the DB, so that I have an actual Event from my DbContext, then I simply do myEvent.Tags.Add to add the tags.. Problem is that after SaveChanges() my DB now contains this set of tags: ID Name 1 C# 2 ASP.NET 3 EF4 4 C# 5 ASP.NET This, even though my Tags that I save has it's ID set when I save it (although I didn't fetch it from the DB)

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  • How to implement conditional render in JS?

    - by mare
    Below is the JS (jQuery) code of autocomplete's result function. You can see there's some lines where I print out <li>s containing some data properties (that come in as a result of automcomplete's AJAX call). How could I rewrite this so that <li> would be conditionally rendered based on whether the property contains any value being either int or string (not empty string or whitespace) or something else that can be represented as string? $(".clients-dropdown").result(function (event, data, formatted) { if (data) { // set the hidden input that we need for Client entity rematerialize $(".client-id").val(data.client_id); if (data.ClientName && data.Address1 && data.postalcode && data.postname) { $(".client-address").html( "<li>" + data.ClientName + "</li>" + "<li>" + data.Address1 + "</li>" + "<li>" + data.postalcode + " " + data.postname + "</li>" ); $(".client-details").html( "<li>" + data.PrettyId + "</li>" + "<li>" + data.VatNo + "</li>" + "<li>" + data.Phone + "</li>" + "<li>" + data.Mobile + "</li>" + "<li>" + data.Email1 + "</li>" + "<li>" + data.Contact + "</li>" ); } } Also, for the AJAX call, should my server side action return null when there's a null for a property in the database or empty string?

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  • some problems with jquery

    - by CoffeeCode
    I'm using AJAX_POSTUP. When i make a request it sends a file to a bowser [offers to download] (the files content are params of the action methods). Does anyone know whats going on and how i can avoid this problem??? i'm not aware of other plugins such as AJAX_POSTUP

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  • Use different updatetargetid based on view

    - by Jerrie Pelser
    I have a web page which display a list of items in a HTML table. Above the list is a form which allows the user to add a new item to the list via AJAX (using Ajax.BeginForm). When the data is posted to the controller via AJAX I add the new item to the database backend and generate a new table row via a Partial View which then gets appended to the exisiting table. When the form to add new items however contains errors, I want to render the form back to the web browser and display that. So here is the question: Is it possible to specify the UpdateTargetId from within the controller? At the moment whatever View I return from the controller gets inserted in the same target, but I would like to update a different target (ie. different UpdateTargetId) based on whatever view was returned from the controller. Any help would be appreciated...

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  • Asp.net razor textbox array for list items

    - by yycdev
    I can't find or figure out how to take a list of items (cupcakes) and display them in razor with a quantity field. What is happening is I am not able to get the values for each cupcake quantity in the list. Can you do textbox arrays in Razor? VIEW <div class="form-group"> <label>Cupcakes</label> @foreach (var cupcake in Model.CupcakeList) { @Html.TextBox("CupcakeQuantities", cupcake.Id) @cupcake.Name <br/> } </div> MODEL public List<Cupcake> CupcakeList { get; set; } public List<int> CupcakeQuantities { get; set; } CONTROLLER public ActionResult Create() { var model = new PartyBookingModel() { CupcakeList = db.Cupcakes.ToList(), CupcakeQuantities = new List<int>() }; return View(model); }

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  • Controller with same name as an area - Asp.Net MVC4

    - by Trober
    I have a Contacts controller in the main/top area, and I have an area named "Contacts". I get POST 404s to the Contacts controller if I register my areas before I register my top-level routes: protected void Application_Start() { AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); ModelBinders.Binders.DefaultBinder = new NullStringBinder(); RouteConfig.RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } And, if I register my areas after my routes, my 404s to the Contacts controller goes away, but my routes to the Contacts area are now 404s. ...lots of duplicate controller name questions logged, but I haven't found a specific scenario where the area is the same name as the controller. ...probably an easy fix. Would appreciate help. :-D

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