Search Results

Search found 7618 results on 305 pages for 'named graph'.

Page 260/305 | < Previous Page | 256 257 258 259 260 261 262 263 264 265 266 267  | Next Page >

• Reducing a set of non-unique elements via transformations

  - by Andrey Fedorov

  I have: 1) a "starting set" of not-necessarily-unique elements, e.x. { x, y, z, z }, 2) a set of transformations, e.x. (x,z) = y, (z,z) = z, x = z, y = x, and 3) a "target set" that I am trying to get by applying transformations to the starting set, e.x. { z }. I'd like to find an algorithm to generate the (possibly infinite) possible applications of the transformations to the starting set that result in the target set. For example: { x, y, z, z }, y => x { x, x, z, z }, x => z { z, x, z, z }, x => z { z, z, z, z }, (z, z) => z { z, z, z }, (z, z) => z { z, z }, (z, z) => z { z } This sounds like something that's probably an existing (named) problem, but I don't recognize it. Can anyone help me track it down, or suggest further reading on something similar?

  Read the article

• XForms relation of 'constraint' and 'required' properties

  - by Danny

  As a reference, the most similar question already asked is: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/8667849/making-xforms-enforce-the-constraint-and-type-model-item-properties-only-when-fi The difference is that I cannot use the relevant properties since I do want the field to be visible and accessible. I'm attempting to make a XForms form that has the following properties: It displays a text field named 'information'. (for the example) This field must not be required, since it may not be necessary to enter data. (Or this data will be entered at a later time.) However, if data is entered in this field, it must adhere to the specified constraint. I cannot mark the field as not relevant since this would hide the field and some data may need to be entered in it. The trouble now is that even though the field has no data in it, the constraint is still enforced (i.e. even though it is not marked as 'required'). I have taken a look at the XForms 1.1 specification, however it does not seem to describe how the properties 'required' and 'constraint' should interact. The only option I see, is to add a part to the constraint such that an empty value is allowed. e.g.: . = '' or <actual-constraint However, I don't like this. It feels like a workaround to add this to every such field. Is there any other way to express that non-required fields should not need to match the constraint for that field? (Am I missing something?)

  Read the article

• DuplicateKeyException in LINQ, but I've set auto increment and auto sync

  - by Fritos

  I'm getting a DuplicateKeyException error in my C# code. I've set Auto Generated = true, and Auto-Sync = OnInsert in my dbml. I'm not even touching the PK field in any manually written code (as seen below [My primary key field is actually called PK]). using (DeviceExerciseDataDataContext context = new DeviceExerciseDataDataContext()) { foreach(Data tgudData in data.Data) { tgd = new tableData(); tgd.FK = key; tgd.Time = tgudData.TimeStamp; tgd.Calories = Convert.ToInt32(tgudData.Calories); tgd.HeartRate = tgudData.AvgHr; tgd.BenchAngle = tgudData.Angle; tgd.WorkoutTarget = 0; tgd.Reps = tgudData.Reps; context.tableDatas.InsertOnSubmit(tgd); } context.SubmitChanges(); } This is the code for the column in the designer (columns are named PK and FK) [global::System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Storage="_PK", AutoSync=AutoSync.OnInsert, DbType="Int NOT NULL", IsPrimaryKey=true, IsDbGenerated=true)] public int PK { get { return this._PK; } set { if ((this._PK != value)) { this.OnPKChanging(value); this.SendPropertyChanging(); this._PK = value; this.SendPropertyChanged("PK"); this.OnPKChanged(); } } } [global::System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Storage="_FK", DbType="Int")] public System.Nullable<int> FK { get { return this._FK; } set { if ((this._FK != value)) { this.OnFKChanging(value); this.SendPropertyChanging(); this._FK = value; this.SendPropertyChanged("FK"); this.OnFKChanged(); } } }

  Read the article

• If the dependency is a unique snapshot version and install is called, what does maven select?

  - by chrsk

  Imagine two projects. The first is the framework-core project which is in version 1.1.0 and has several snapshot builds. The other is the example-business project which has the following dependency to framework-core on the build-iteration number 9. <dependency> <groupId>org.example</groupId> <artifactId>framework-core</artifactId> <version>1.1.0-20100518.134928-9</version> </dependency> What happens if mvn install is called on the framework-core? I found out that the artifact is copied to the folder and is named to *.1.1.0-SNAPSHOT.jar (as expected). This lead me to the assumption that this version is only used if even this 1.1.0-SNAPSHOT version is defined as dependency and not the precise build. To test something local without deploying it to the maven repository: call mvn install, change the dependency to 1.1.0-SNAPSHOT -- and the artifact just installed is used? Or is it possible to overwrite the specific build (with using the install lifecycle phase)?

  Read the article

• IE "Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object expected"

  - by Stephen Borg

  Hi there, I have problems with regards to javascript only when using IE. The error I am getting is "Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object expected" and I have no idea why. It is then jumping into the JQuery 1.4.2 file, without giving me a proper error message. All I am doing is simply reading on page load the raw URL, and getting a query string named Search. Using that in an AJAX call to return products and put then into a DIV. No biggies, but somehow IE is managing to blow my page up :-( Any ideas? Code as follows : <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function (e) { $('.boxLoader').show(); function getParameterByName(name) { name = name.replace(/[\[]/, "\\\[").replace(/[\]]/, "\\\]"); var regexS = "[\\?&]" + name + "=([^&#]*)"; var regex = new RegExp(regexS); var results = regex.exec(window.location.href); if (results == null) return ""; else return decodeURIComponent(results[1].replace(/\+/g, " ")); } var Search; Search = getParameterByName("search"); $('#searchCriteria').text(Search); $.get("/Handlers/processProducts.aspx", { SearchCriteria: Search }, function (data) { $('#innercontent').html(data); $('#innercontent').fadeIn(200); $('.boxLoader').fadeOut(200); }); $('#searchBox').live("click", function () { $.get("/Handlers/processProducts.aspx", { SearchCriteria: $('#searchCriteria').val() }, function (data) { $('#innercontent').html(data); $('#innercontent').fadeIn(200); $('.boxLoader').fadeOut(200); }); }); }); </script>

  Read the article

• Why does Hibernate 2nd level cache only cache queries within a session?

  - by Synesso

  Using a named query in our application and with ehcache as the provider, it seems that the query results are tied to the session within the cache. Any attempt to access the value from the cache for a second time results in a LazyInitializationException We have set lazy = true for the following mapping because this object is also used by another part of the system which does not require the reference... and we want to keep it lean. <class name="domain.ReferenceAdPoint" table="ad_point" mutable="false" lazy="false"> <cache usage="read-only"/> <id name="code" type="long" column="ad_point_id"> <generator class="assigned" /> </id> <property name="name" column="ad_point_description" type="string"/> <set name="synonyms" table="ad_point_synonym" cascade="all-delete-orphan" lazy="true"> <cache usage="read-only"/> <key column="ad_point_id" /> <element type="string" column="synonym_description" /> </set> </class> <query name="find.adpoints.by.heading">from ReferenceAdPoint adpoint left outer join fetch adpoint.synonyms where adpoint.adPointField.headingCode = ?</query> Here's a snippet from our hibernate.cfg.xml <property name="hibernate.cache.provider_class">net.sf.ehcache.hibernate.SingletonEhCacheProvider</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.use_query_cache">true</property> It doesn't seem to make sense that the cache would be constrained to the session. Why are the cached queries not usable outside of the (relatively short-lived) sessions?

  Read the article

• sql server mdf file database attachment

  - by jnsohnumr

  hello all i'm having a bear of a time getting visual studio 2010 (ultimate i think) to properly attach to my database. it was moved from original spot to #MYAPP#/#MYAPP#.Web/App_Data/#MDF_FILE#.mdf. I have three instances of sql server running on this machine. i have tried to replace the old mdf file with my new one and cannot get the connectionstring right for it. what i'm really wanting to do is to just open some DB instance, run a DB create script. Then I can have a DB that was generated via my edmx (generate database from model) in silverlight business application (c#) right now, when i go to server explorer in VS, choose add new connection, choose MS SQL Server Database FIle (SqlClient), choose my file location (app_data directory), use windows authentication, and hit the Test Connection button I get the following error: Unable to open the physical file "". Operating system error 5: "5(Access Denied.)". An attempt to attach to an auto-named database for file"" failed. A database with the same name exists, or specified file cannot be opened, or it is located on UNC share. The mdf file was created on the same machine by connecting to (local) on the sql server management studio, getting a new query, pasting in the SQL from the generated ddl file, adding a CREATE DATABASE [NcrCarDatabase]; GO before the pasted SQL, and executing the query. I then disconnected from the DB in management studio, closed management studio, navigated to the DATA directory for that instance, and copying the mdf and ldf files to my application's app_data folder. I am then trying to connect to the same file inside visual studio. I hope that gives more clarity to my problems :). Connection string is: Data Source=.\SQLEXPRESS;AttachDbFilename=C:\SourceCode\NcrCarDatabase\NcrCarDatabase.Web\App_Data\NcrCarDatabase.mdf;Integrated Security=True;Connect Timeout=30;User Instance=True

  Read the article

• How to link a table to a field a in MySQL server

  - by Nek

  I have this data from a xml file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <words> <id>...</id> <word>...</word> <meaning>...</meaning> <translation> <ES>...</ES> <PT>...</PT> </translation> </words> This forms the table named "words", which has four fields ("id","word","meaning" and "translation"). On the other hand, the "translation" field can hold several languages like ES,PT,EN,JA,KO,etc... So I create a table ("words.translation", one field is "id" and the others ones are languages ids like "ES","PT",...). I'm sorry for this newby question, but I'd like to know a couple of things about this one-to-many relationship. How to join (or link?) this two tables in MySQL? What information does the "translation" field in the "words" table has to store? How is the sql query to get all the word information (JOIN syntax used?) Thanks for your patience.

  Read the article

• Why is a Silverlight application created from an exported template show a blank screen in the browse

  - by Edward Tanguay

  I created a silverlight app (without website) named TestApp, with one TextBox: <UserControl x:Class="TestApp.MainPage" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" mc:Ignorable="d" d:DesignWidth="640" d:DesignHeight="480"> <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot"> <TextBlock Text="this is a test"/> </Grid> </UserControl> I press F5 and see "this is a test" in my browser (firefox). I select File | Export Template | name it TestAppTemplate and save it. I create a new silverlight app based on the above template. The MainPage.xaml has the exact same XAML as above. I press F5 and see a blank screen in my browser. I look at the HTML source of both of these and they are identical. Everything I have compared in both projects is identical. What do I have to do so that a Silverlight application which is created from my exported template does not show a blank screen?

  Read the article

• Prepare your site images for google image search indexing

  - by Vittorio Vittori

  Hi, I'm trying to understand how can I do to let my site be reachable from google image search spiders. I like how last.fm solution, and I thought to use a technique like his staff do to let google find artists images on their pages. When I'm looking for an artist and I search it on google image search, as often as not I find an image from last.fm artists page, I make an example: If I search the band Pure Reason Revolution It brings me here, the artist's image page http://www.last.fm/music/Pure+Reason+Revolution/+images/4284073 Now if I take a look to the image file, i can see it's named: http://userserve-ak.last.fm/serve/500/4284073/Pure+Reason+Revolution+4.jpg so if I try to undertand how the service works I can try to say: http://userserve-ak.last.fm/serve/ the server who serve the images 500/ the selected size for the image 4284073/ the image id for database Pure+Reason+Revolution+4.jpg the image name I thought it's difficult to think the real filename for the image is Pure+Reason+Revolution+4.jpg for image overwrite problems when an user upload it, in fact if I digit: http://userserve-ak.last.fm/serve/500/4284073.jpg I probably find the real image location and filename With this tecnique the image is highly reachable from search engines and easily archived. My question is, does exist some guide or tutorial to approach on this kind of tecniques, or something similar?

  Read the article

• PHP & MySQL Image deletion problem?

  - by IMAGE

  I have this script that deletes a users avatar image that is stored in a folder name thumbs and another named images and the image name is stored in a mysql database. But for some reason the script deletes all the users info for example if the users id is 3 all of the users info like first name last name age and so are deleted as well, basically everything is deleted including the user how do I fix this so only the images and image name is deleted? Here is the code. $user_id = '3'; if (isset($_POST['delete_image'])) { $a = "SELECT * FROM users WHERE avatar = '". $avatar ."' AND user_id = '". $user_id ."'"; $r = mysqli_query ($mysqli, $a) or trigger_error("Query: $a\n<br />MySQL Error: " . mysqli_error($mysqli)); if ($r == TRUE) { unlink("../members/" . $user_id . "/images/" . $avatar); unlink("../members/" . $user_id . "/images/thumbs/" . $avatar); $a = "DELETE FROM users WHERE avatar = '". $avatar ."' AND user_id = '". $user_id ."'"; $r = mysqli_query ($mysqli, $a) or trigger_error("Query: $a\n<br />MySQL Error: " . mysqli_error($mysqli)); } }

  Read the article

• Does C# allow method overloading, PHP style (__call)?

  - by mr.b

  In PHP, there is a special method named __call($calledMethodName, $arguments), which allows class to catch calls to non-existing methods, and do something about it. Since most of classic languages are strongly typed, compiler won't allow calling a method that does not exist, I'm clear with that part. What I want to accomplish (and I figured this is how I would do it in PHP, but C# is something else) is to proxy calls to a class methods and log each of these calls. Right now, I have code similar to this: class ProxyClass { static logger; public AnotherClass inner { get; private set; } public ProxyClass() { inner = new AnotherClass(); } } class AnotherClass { public void A() {} public void B() {} public void C() {} // ... } // meanwhile, in happyCodeLandia... ProxyClass pc = new ProxyClass(); pc.inner.A(); pc.inner.B(); // ... So, how can I proxy calls to an object instance in extensible way? Extensible, meaning that I don't have to modify ProxyClass whenever AnotherClass changes. In my case, AnotherClass can have any number of methods, so it wouldn't be appropriate to overload or wrap all methods to add logging. I am aware that this might not be the best approach for this kind of problem, so if anyone has idea what approach to use, shoot. Thanks!

  Read the article

• How do I connect to SQL Server with VB?

  - by Wayne Werner

  Hi, I'm trying to connect to a SQL server from VB. The SQL server is across the network uses my windows login for authentication. I can access the server using the following python code: import odbc conn = odbc.odbc('SignInspection') c = conn.cursor() c.execute("SELECT * FROM list_domain") c.fetchone() This code works fine, returning the first result of the SELECT. However, I've been trying to use the SqlClient.SqlConnection in VB, and it fails to connect. I've tried several different connection strings but this is the current code: Private Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim conn As New SqlClient.SqlConnection conn.ConnectionString = "data source=signinspection;initial catalog=signinspection;integrated security=SSPI" Try conn.Open() MessageBox.Show("Sweet Success") 'Insert some code here, woo Catch ex As Exception MessageBox.Show("Failed to connect to data source.") MessageBox.Show(ex.ToString()) Finally conn.Close() End Try End Sub It fails miserably, and it gives me an error that says "A network-related or instance-specific error occurred... (provider: Named Pipes Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server) I'm fairly certain it's my connection string, but nothing I've found has given me any solid examples (server=mySQLServer is not a solid example) of what I need to use. Thanks! -Wayne

  Read the article

• Starting Beyond Compare from the Command Line

  - by Logan

  I have Beyond Compare 3 installed at; "C:\Program Files\Beyond Compare 3\BCompare.exe" and Cygwin; "C:\Cygwin\bin\bash.exe" What I would like is to be able to use a command such as; diff <file1> <file2> into the Cygwin shell and to have the shell fork a process opening the two files in beyond compare. I looked at the Beyond Compare Support Page but I'm afraid It was too brief for me. I tried copying the text verbatim (apart from path to executable) to no avail; Instead of using a batch file, create a file named "bc.sh" with the following line: "$(cygpath 'C:\Progra~1\Beyond~1\bcomp.exe')" `cygpath -w "$6"` `cygpath -w "$7"` /title1="$3" /title2="$5" /readonly Was I supposed to replace cygpath? I get a 'Command not found' error when I enter the name of the script on the command line. gavina@whwgavina1 /cygdrive $ "C:\Documents and Settings\gavina\Desktop\bc.sh" bash: C:\Documents and Settings\gavina\Desktop\bc.sh: command not found Does anyone have Beyond Compare working as I have described? Is this even possible in a Windows environment? Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• Link error for user defined class type template parameter

  - by isurulucky

  Hi, I implemented a Simple STL map in C++. Factored out the comparison as a type as I was instructed to, then implemented the comparison as shown below: template <typename T> int KeyCompare<T>::operator () (T tKey1, T tKey2) { if(tKey1 < tKey2) return -1; else if(tKey1 > tKey2) return 1; else return 0; } here, tKey1 and tKet2 are the two keys I'm comparing. This worked well for all the basic data types and string. I added a template specialization to compare keys of a user defined type named Test and added a specialization as follows: int KeyCompare<Test>::operator () (Test tKey1, Test tKey2) { if(tKey1.a < tKey2.a) return -1; else if(tKey1.a > tKey2.a) return 1; else return 0; } when I run this, I get a linking error saying SimpleMap.obj : error LNK2005: "public: int __thiscall KeyCompare::operator()(class Test,class Test)" (??R?$KeyCompare@VTest@@@@QAEHVTest@@0@Z) already defined in MapTest.obj SimpleMap.obj : error LNK2005: "public: __thiscall KeyCompare::~KeyCompare(void)" (??1?$KeyCompare@VTest@@@@QAE@XZ) already defined in MapTest.obj SimpleMap.obj : error LNK2005: "public: __thiscall KeyCompare::KeyCompare(void)" (??0?$KeyCompare@VTester@@@@QAE@XZ) already defined in MapTest.obj MapTest.cpp is the test harness class in which I wrote the test case. I have used include guards as well, to stop multiple inclusions. Any idea what the matter is?? Thank you very much!!

  Read the article

• Polling servers at the same port - Threads and Java

  - by John

  Hi there. I'm currently busy working on an IP ban tool for the early versions of Call of Duty 1. (Apparently such a feature wasn't implemented in these versions). I've finished a single threaded application but it won't perform well enough for multiple servers, which is why I am trying to implement threading. Right now, each server has its own thread. I have a Networking class, which has a method; "GetStatus" -- this method is synchronized. This method uses a DatagramSocket to communicate with the server. Since this method is static and synchronized, I shouldn't get in trouble and receive a whole bunch of "Address already in use" exceptions. However, I have a second method named "SendMessage". This method is supposed to send a message to the server. How can I make sure "SendMessage" cannot be invoked when there's already a thread running in "GetStatus", and the other way around? If I make both synchronized, I will still get in trouble if Thread A is opening a socket on Port 99999 and invoking "SendMessage" while Thread B is opening a socket on the same port and invoking "GetStatus"? (Game servers are usually hosted on the same ports) I guess what I am really after is a way to make an entire class synchronized, so that only one method can be invoked and run at a time by a single thread. Hope that what I am trying to accomplish/avoid is made clear in this text. Any help is greatly appreciated.

  Read the article

• Reporting Services: Tablix RepeatColumnHeaders doesn't work on some reports

  - by I Have the Hat

  So I've got various reports that consist of a DataSet rendered in a Tablix... pretty garden variety stuff. There is a property for the Tablix control named RepeatColumnHeaders, which I have set to True for each report in question. The explanation for this property states “Indicates whether column headers are repeated on each page on which part of the data region appear.” Sounds pretty straightforward, but on some reports it works and on others it does not. I can't seem to find what's different about the reports that might affect this. On one report where the headers do repeat, there is some fairly arcane grouping mojo, but in an example where it doesn't work the Tablix only has one level--no grouping. I would expect the multi-nested one to be the problem, not the flat one. Maybe it's a different problem altogether. I threw together a simple Tablix rendering SELECT * FROM Foo, accepted all the default values, which results in RepeatColumnHeaders being set to False, and lo and behold the column headers do repeat for that report... Grrr. Any insights greatly appreciated.

  Read the article

• How do I write an RSpec test to unit-test this interesting metaprogramming code?

  - by Kyle Kaitan

  Here's some simple code that, for each argument specified, will add specific get/set methods named after that argument. If you write attr_option :foo, :bar, then you will see #foo/foo= and #bar/bar= instance methods on Config: module Configurator class Config def initialize() @options = {} end def self.attr_option(*args) args.each do |a| if not self.method_defined?(a) define_method "#{a}" do @options[:"#{a}"] ||= {} end define_method "#{a}=" do |v| @options[:"#{a}"] = v end else throw Exception.new("already have attr_option for #{a}") end end end end end So far, so good. I want to write some RSpec tests to verify this code is actually doing what it's supposed to. But there's a problem! If I invoke attr_option :foo in one of the test methods, that method is now forever defined in Config. So a subsequent test will fail when it shouldn't, because foo is already defined: it "should support a specified option" do c = Configurator::Config c.attr_option :foo # ... end it "should support multiple options" do c = Configurator::Config c.attr_option :foo, :bar, :baz # Error! :foo already defined # by a previous test. # ... end Is there a way I can give each test an anonymous "clone" of the Config class which is independent of the others?

  Read the article

• How to emulate mod_rewrite in PHP

  - by Tyler Crompton

  I have a few URLs that I want to map to certain files via PHP. Currently, I am just using mod_rewrite in Apache. However, my application is getting too large for the rewriting to be done with regular expressions. So I created a file router.php that does the rewriting. I understand to do a redirect I could just send the Location: header. However, I don't always want to do a redirect. For example, I may want /api/item/ to map to the file /herp/derp.php relative to the document root. I need to preserve the HTTP method as well. "No problem," I thought. I made my .htaccess have the following snippet. RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^api/item/$ /cgi-bin/router.php [L] And my router.php file looks as follows: <?php $uri = parse_url($_SERVER['REQUEST_URI']); $query = isset($uri['query']) ? $uri['query'] ? array(); // some code that modifies the query require_once "{$_SERVER['DOCUMENT_ROOT']}/herp/derp.php?" . http_build_query($query); ?> However, this doesn't work, because the OS is looking for a file named derp.php?some=query. How can I simulate a rewrite rule such as RewriteRule ^api/item/$ /herp/derp/ [L] in PHP. In other words, how do I tell the server to process a different URL than requested and preserve the query and HTTP method without causing a redirect? Note: Using variables set in router.php is less than desirable and is bad structure since it's only supposed to be responsible for handling URLs. I am open to using a light-weight third party solution.

  Read the article

• shell script filter du and find by a string inside a file in a subfolder

  - by Jason

  I have the following command that I run on cygwin: find /cygdrive/d/tmp/* -maxdepth 0 -mtime -150 -type d | xargs du --max-depth=0 > foldersizesreport.csv I intended to do the following with this command: for each folder under /d/tmp/ that was modified in last 150 days, check its total size including files within it and report it to file foldersizesreport.csv however that is now not good enough for me, as it turns out inside each /d/tmp/subfolder1/somefile.properties /d/tmp/subfolder2/somefile.properties /d/tmp/subfolder3/somefile.properties /d/tmp/subfolder4/somefile.properties so as you see inside each subfolderX there is a file named somefile.properties inside it there is a property SOMEPROPKEY=3808612800100 (among other properties) this is the time in millisecond, i need to change the command so that instead of -mtime -150 it will include in the whole calculation only subfolderX that has a file inside them somefile.properties where the SOMEPROPKEY=3808612800100 is the time in millisecond in future, if the value SOMEPROPKEY=23948948 is in past then dont at all include the folder in the foldersizesreport.csv because its not relevant to me. so the result report should be looking like: /d/tmp/,subfolder1,<itssizein KB> /d/tmp/,subfolder2,<itssizein KB> and if subfolder3 had a SOMEPROPKEY=34243234 (time in ms in past) then it would not be in that csv file. so basically I'm looking for: find /cygdrive/d/tmp/* -maxdepth 0 -mtime -150 -type d | <only subfolders that have in them property in file SOMEPROPKEY=28374874827 - time in ms in future and not in past | xargs du --max-depth=0 > foldersizesreport.csv

  Read the article

• How to Parse an XML (using XELement) having multiple Namespace ?

  - by Subhen

  Hi I , I get the followinng Xresponse after parsing the XML document: <DIDL-Lite xmlns="urn:schemas-upnp-org:metadata-1-0/DIDL-Lite/" xmlns:dc="http://purl.org/dc/elements/1.1/" xmlns:upnp="urn:schemas-upnp-org:metadata-1-0/upnp/" xmlns:dlna="urn:schemas-dlna-org:metadata-1-0/"> <item id="1182" parentID="40" restricted="1"> <title>Hot Issue</title> </item> As per the earlier thread, When there is a default namespace in the document, you must parse it as if it were a named namespace. For example. XNamespace ns = "urn:schemas-upnp-org:metadata-1-0/DIDL-Lite/"; var xDIDL = xResponse.Element(ns + "DIDL-Lite"); But in my case I have four different name space. I am not getting any results after using the following query , I am getting the response , Not Yeilding any results: XNamespace dc = "http://purl.org/dc/elements/1.1/"; var vAudioData = from xAudioinfo in xResponse.Descendants(ns + "DIDL-lite").Elements("item") select new RMSMedia { strAudioTitle = ((string)xAudioinfo.Element(dc + "title")).Trim(), }; I have no clue whats going on as am new to it. Please help

  Read the article

• C# How to create various objects at runtime that can hold strongly typed data?

  - by JL

  Is it possible to create objects at runtime without having to have hard coded class definitions, then populate properties with primitives or even strongly typed data types? For example: Lets say I want to an XML config file that could hold configuration values for connecting to various systems in an SOA application. In C# I read in these values, but for each system the properties are different (e.g: SQL might have a connection string, while SharePoint might need a username + password + domain + url, while yet an smtp server would need username + password + port + url) So instead of creating static classes as follows public class SharePointConfiguration or public class SQLConfiguration, then have each class with custom properties (this is cumbersome) Is there not a more preferred way to achieve this, without using 1990's methods, in otherwords it would still be nice to have intellisense and code completion and named properties. Since this collection of properties (object) would be passed within the class and possible to other classes from function to function I am also wondering where this class definition would get defined if its all happening at run time. Any recommendations, and hope the question was clear enough. Would like to use language features, not hacks. Thank you.

  Read the article

• PHP Sessions and Passing Session ID

  - by Jason McCreary

  I have an API where I am passing the session id back and forth between calls. I set up the session like so: // start API session session_name('apikey'); session_id($data['apikey']); // required to link session session_start(); Although I named my session and am passing the session id via GET and POST using the name, PHP does not automatically resume that session. It always creates a new one unless I set the explicitly set the session id. I found some old user comments on www.php.net that said unless the session id is the first parameter PHP won't set it automatically. This seems odd, but even when I call tried it still didn't work: rest_services.php?apikey=sdr6d3subaofcav53cpf71j4v3&q=testing I have used PHP for years, but am a little confused on why I needed to explicitly set the session with session_id() when I am naming the session and passing it's key accordingly. UPDATE It seems I wasn't clear. My question is why is setting the session ID with session_id() required when I am passing the id, using the session name apikey, via $_GET or $_POST. Theoretically this is no different than PHP's SID when cookies are disabled. But for me it doesn't work unless I explicitly set the session ID. Why?

  Read the article

• Is anyone familiar with SDPT.clsSDPT?

  - by David Stratton

  Normally I wouldn't ask this kind of question here, but I'm desperate at this point. I'm attempting to support a classic ASP app written by a predecessor who is no longer available. Keeping it short, several applications use a dll to perform encryption of sensitive data. This dll is named SDPT.dll, and the line of code used to create an object is set objSDPT = server.CreateObject("SDPT.clsSDPT") At this point, I am getting errors in a critical app on one of my servers, and I've actually hit a dead end. The error is a standard "Server.CreateObject Failed" message, which I know how to troubleshoot in most cases. However, in this case, all of my normal tries, plus several hours of Google searches are coming up with nothing that works. At this point, I'm not so much looking for help in troubleshooting the issue as I am in finding any sort of reference on this third party component. Even finding that is proving to be difficult, so I'm resorting to asking any of the seasoned developers that hang out here if they are familiar with this product, who it was developed by, and if any documentation on it exists anywhere.

  Read the article

• d3: Coloring Multiple Lines from Nested Data

  - by diet_coke

  I'm currently assembling some line graphs with circles at the datapoints from arrays of JSON objects formatted like so: var data = [{ "name": "metric1", "datapoints": [ [10.0, 1333519140], [48.0, 1333519200] ] }, { "name": "metric2", "datapoints": [ [48.0, 1333519200], [12.0, 1333519260] ] }] I want to have a color for each metric, so I'm trying to color them based on the index of the object within the array data. The code I have currently for just placing the circles looks like: // We bind an svg group to each metric. var metric_groups = this.vis.selectAll("g.metric_group") .data(data).enter() .append("g") .attr("class", "metric_group"); // Then bind a circle for each datapoint. var circles = metric_groups.selectAll("circle") .data(function(d) { return d.datapoints; }); circles.enter().append("circle") .attr("r", 3.5); Now if I change that last bit to something like: circles.enter().append("circle") .attr("r", 3.5); .style("fill", function(d,i) { return i%2 ? "red" : "blue"; } I get alternating red and blue circles, as could be expected. Taking some advice from Nested Selections : 'Nesting and Index', I tried: circles.enter().append("circle") .attr("r", 3.5); .style("fill", function(d,i,j) { return j%2 ? "red" : "blue"; } Which doesn't work (j is undefined), presumably because we are in the named property datapoints, rather than an array element. How might I go about doing the coloring that I want without changing my data structure? Thanks!

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 256 257 258 259 260 261 262 263 264 265 266 267  | Next Page >