Search Results

Search found 8391 results on 336 pages for 'partial hash arguments'.

Page 260/336 | < Previous Page | 256 257 258 259 260 261 262 263 264 265 266 267  | Next Page >

  • Extension methods in class library project

    - by Mostafa
    I've implemented some extension methods and put those in separate Class Library project. Imagine I have a simple extension method like this in class library called MD.Utility: namespace MD.Utility { public static class ExtenMethods { public static bool IsValidEmailAddress(this string s) { Regex regex = new Regex(@"^[\w-\.]+@([\w-]+\.)+[\w-]{2,4}$"); return regex.IsMatch(s); } } } But nowhere in WebApp like App_code folder or WebFroms code-behind page I can't use this Extension method. If I do like this: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using MD.Utility; public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { string email = "[email protected]"; if (email.IsValidEmailAddress()) { //To do } } } The compiler doesn't recognize IsValidEmailAddress() and even no intellisense support. While if I put my extension method in App_Code folder it's ok for using in another cs file in App_code Folder or Web Form code-behind pages.

    Read the article

  • how to know location of return address on stack c/c++

    - by Dr Deo
    i have been reading about a function that can overwrite its return address. void foo(const char* input) { char buf[10]; //What? No extra arguments supplied to printf? //It's a cheap trick to view the stack 8-) //We'll see this trick again when we look at format strings. printf("My stack looks like:\n%p\n%p\n%p\n%p\n%p\n% p\n\n"); //%p ie expect pointers //Pass the user input straight to secure code public enemy #1. strcpy(buf, input); printf("%s\n", buf); printf("Now the stack looks like:\n%p\n%p\n%p\n%p\n%p\n%p\n\n"); } It was sugggested that this is how the stack would look like Address of foo = 00401000 My stack looks like: 00000000 00000000 7FFDF000 0012FF80 0040108A <-- We want to overwrite the return address for foo. 00410EDE Question: -. Why did the author arbitrarily choose the second last value as the return address of foo()? -. Are values added to the stack from the bottom or from the top? apart from the function return address, what are the other values i apparently see on the stack? ie why isn't it filled with zeros Thanks.

    Read the article

  • weighted matching algorithm in Perl

    - by srk
    Problem : We have equal number of men and women.each men has a preference score toward each woman. So do the woman for each man. each of the men and women have certain interests. Based on the interest we calculate the preference scores. So initially we have an input in a file having x columns. First column is the person(men/woman) id. id are nothing but 0.. n numbers.(first half are men and next half woman) the remaining x-1 columns will have the interests. these are integers too. now using this n by x-1 matrix... we have come up with a n by n/2 matrix. the new matrix has all men and woman as their rows and scores for opposite sex in columns. We have to sort the scores in descending order, also we need to know the id of person related to the scores after sorting. So here i wanted to use hash table. once we get the scores we need to make up pairs.. for which we need to follow some rules. My trouble is with the second matrix of n by n/2 that needs to give information of which man/woman has how much preference on a woman/man. I need these scores sorted so that i know who is the first preferred woman/man, 2nd preferred and so on for a man/woman. I hope to get good suggestions on the data structures i use.. I prefer php or perl. Thank you in advance

    Read the article

  • Map element position in data file to class property

    - by Augusto
    I need to read/write files, following a format provided by a third party specification. The specification itself is pretty simple: it says the position and the size of the data that will be saved in the file. For example: Position Size Description -------------------------------------------------- 0001 10 Device serial number 0011 02 Hour 0013 02 Minute 0015 02 Second 0017 02 Day 0019 02 Month 0021 02 Year The list is very long, it has about 400 elements. But lots of them can be combined. For example, hour, minute, second, day, month and year can be combined in a single DateTime object. I've splitted the elements into about 4 categories, and created separeted classes for holding the data. So, instead of a big structure representing the data, I have some smaller classes. I've also created different classes for reading and writing the data. The problem is: how to map the positions in the file to the objects properties, so that I don't need to repeat the values in the reading/writing class? I could use some custom attributes and retrieve them via reflection. But since the code will be running on devices with small memory and processor, it would be nice to find another way. My current read code looks like this: public void Read() { DataFile dataFile = new DataFile(); // the arguments are: position, size dataFile.SerialNumber = ReadLong(1, 10); //... } Any ideas on this one? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • jQuery Address - redirect after form submit

    - by Stian
    Hello all, I use jQuery and AJAX to load content from links and forms into a content div. In addition I use the Address plugin to enable the back button and refresh. On the server side I use Java and Spring MVC. Since I'm using jQuery Address and AJAX the only page that is directly loaded is "index.html". Everything else is loaded into a content div, and what page to load is specified in the hash, ie. "index.html#/users/add.html" will load "users/add.html". Now, "users/add.html" contains a form for creating a new user. When the form is submitted and everything went OK, the controller redirects to "users/index.html". The problem is that jQuery Address doesn't know about the redirect, so the url will remain "index.html#/users/add.html". And this is a problem when you refresh the page and then get sent back to the form, instead of the index page. Is there a way to fix this problem? Thanks, Stian

    Read the article

  • How does one convert from a Java resultset to ColdFusion query in Railo?

    - by Shawn Grigson
    The following works fine in CFMX 7 and CF8, and I'd assume CF9 as well: <!--- 'conn' is a JDBC connection ---> <cfset stat = conn.createStatement() /> <cfset rs = stat.executeQuery(trim(arguments.sql)) /> <!--- convert this Java resultset to a CF query recordset ---> <cfset queryTable = CreateObject("java", "coldfusion.sql.QueryTable")> <cfset queryTable.init(rs) > <cfset query = queryTable.FirstTable() /> This creates a statement using a JDBC driver, executes a query against it, putting it into a java resultset, and then coldfusion.sql.QueryTable is instantiated, passed the Java resulset object, and then queryTable.FirstTable() is called, which returns an actual coldfusion resultset (for cfloop and the like). The problem comes with a difference in Railo's implementation. Running this code in Railo returns the following error: No matching Constructor for coldfusion.sql.QueryTable(org.sqlite.RS) found. I've dumped the Railo java object, and don't see init() among the methods. Am I missing something simple? I'd love to get this working in Railo as well. Please note: I am doing a DSN-less connection to a SQLite db. I understand how to set up a CF datasource. My only hiccup at this point is doing the translation from a Java result set to a Railo query.

    Read the article

  • Rails fields_for parameters for a has_many relation don't yield an Array in params

    - by user1289061
    I have a model Sensor with has_many and accepts_nested_attributes_for relationships to another model Watch. In a form to update a Sensor, I have something like the following <%= sensor_form.fields_for :watches do |watches_form| %> <%= watches_form.label :label %><br /> <%= watches_form.text_field :label %> <% end %> This is indended to allow editting of the already-created Watches belonging to a Sensor. This call spits form inputs as so: <input name="sensor[watches_attributes][0][label]" ... /> <input name="sensor[watches_attributes][0][id]" ... /> When this gets submitted, the params object in the Sensor controller gets an assoc like "sensor" => { "id"=>"1", "watches_attributes"=> { "0"=>{"id" => "1", "label" => "foo"}, "1"=>{"id" => "2", "label" => "bar"} } } For a has_many, accepts_nested_attributes_for update to work upon the @sensor.update_attributes call, it seems that that attributes key really must map to an Array. From what I've seen in the examples, the combination of has_many, accepts_nested_attributes_for, and sensor_form.fields_for should allow me to pass the resulting params object directly to @sensor.update_attributes and update each related object as intended. Instead the Sensor takes place, with no errors, but the Watch objects are not updated (since "watches_attributes" maps to a Hash instead of an Array?) Have I missed something?

    Read the article

  • RESTfully Nesting Resource Routes with Single Identifiers

    - by Craig Walker
    In my Rails app I have a fairly standard has_many relationship between two entities. A Foo has zero or more Bars; a Bar belongs to exactly one Foo. Both Foo and Bar are identified by a single integer ID value. These values are unique across all of their respective instances. Bar is existence dependent on Foo: it makes no sense to have a Bar without a Foo. There's two ways to RESTfully references instances of these classes. Given a Foo.id of "100" and a Bar.id of "200": Reference each Foo and Bar through their own "top-level" URL routes, like so: /foo/100 /bar/200 Reference Bar as a nested resource through its instance of Foo: /foo/100 /foo/100/bar/200 I like the nested routes in #2 as it more closely represents the actual dependency relationship between the entities. However, it does seem to involve a lot of extra work for very little gain. Assuming that I know about a particular Bar, I don't need to be told about a particular Foo; I can derive that from the Bar itself. In fact, I probably should be validating the routed Foo everywhere I go (so that you couldn't do /foo/150/bar/200, assuming Bar 200 is not assigned to Foo 150). Ultimately, I don't see what this brings me. So, are there any other arguments for or against these two routing schemes?

    Read the article

  • proper way to dynamically assign backbone.js view el

    - by kikuchiyo
    I would like to create two ( or more ) view instances, each with different el attributes, and have events bound to them via backbone.js view's events hash ( not through jQuery ). Getting events to trigger when all instantiations have the same el is easy: someView = Backbone.View.extend({ el: '#someDiv', events: { 'click': 'someFunction' }, someFunction: function(){ //Do something here } }); So far, if I assign el in the initialize function, and set events normally as follows, events do not trigger: someView = Backbone.View.extend({ events: { 'click': 'someFunction' }, initialize: function( options ){ this.el = options.el }, someFunction: function(){ //Do something here } }); My first instinct was to have el be a function that returns the string representation of the dom element of interest: someView = Backbone.View.extend({ el: function(){ return '#someDiv-' + this.someNumber }, events: { 'click': 'someFunction' }, initialize: function( options ){ this.someNumber = options.someNumber }, someFunction: function(){ //Do something here } }); However, this triggers someFunction x times if I have x instantiations of someView. Next I tried setting both the el and events attributes in initialize: someView = Backbone.View.extend({ initialize: function( options ){ this.el = options.el this.events = { 'click': 'someFunction' } }, someFunction: function(){ //Do something here } }); but this does not trigger events. At this point I'm pretty much fishing. Does anyone know how instantiate a backbone.js view with an el specific to that instance that has events that only trigger for that instance, and not other instances of the View?

    Read the article

  • Dynamic Linq Property Converting to Sql

    - by Matthew Hood
    I am trying to understand dynamic linq and expression trees. Very basically trying to do an equals supplying the column and value as strings. Here is what I have so far private IQueryable<tblTest> filterTest(string column, string value) { TestDataContext db = new TestDataContext(); // The IQueryable data to query. IQueryable<tblTest> queryableData = db.tblTests.AsQueryable(); // Compose the expression tree that represents the parameter to the predicate. ParameterExpression pe = Expression.Parameter(typeof(tblTest), "item"); Expression left = Expression.Property(pe, column); Expression right = Expression.Constant(value); Expression e1 = Expression.Equal(left, right); MethodCallExpression whereCallExpression = Expression.Call( typeof(Queryable), "Where", new Type[] { queryableData.ElementType }, queryableData.Expression, Expression.Lambda<Func<tblTest, bool>>(e1, new ParameterExpression[] { pe })); // Create an executable query from the expression tree. IQueryable<tblTest> results = queryableData.Provider.CreateQuery<tblTest>(whereCallExpression); return results; } That works fine for columns in the DB. But fails for properties in my code eg public partial class tblTest { public string name_test { get { return name; } } } Giving an error cannot be that it cannot be converted into SQL. I have tried rewriting the property as a Expression<Func but with no luck, how can I convert simple properties so they can be used with linq in this dynamic way? Many Thanks

    Read the article

  • ASP Calendar Date Pick

    - by Steven
    I am attempting to construct my own date picker using code from several sources. Specifically, I am now populating the textbox with a calendar click. Two questions: Why does the first click refresh the page without doing anything? How can I have the textbox update without refreshing the entire page? myDate.ascx <%@ Control Language="vb" AutoEventWireup="false" CodeBehind="myDate.ascx.vb" Inherits="Website.myDate" %> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> function toggleCalendar(myID) { var obj = document.getElementById(myID) obj.style.display = (obj.style.display == "none") ? "" : "none"; } </script> <asp:TextBox ID="dateText" runat="server" > </asp:TextBox> <input type="button" name="dateBtn" value="x" onclick="toggleCalendar('<%=dateCal.clientID%>');" /> <asp:Calendar ID="dateCal" runat="server" ></asp:Calendar> myDate.ascx.vb Partial Public Class myDate Inherits System.Web.UI.UserControl Protected Sub dateCal_SelectionChanged _ (ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) _ Handles dateCal.SelectionChanged dateText.Text = dateCal.SelectedDate 'update text box' dateCal.Style("display") = "none" 'hide calendar' End Sub End Class

    Read the article

  • Binding a date string parameter in an MS Access PDO query

    - by harryg
    I've made a PDO database class which I use to run queries on an MS Access database. When querying using a date condition, as is common in SQL, dates are passed as a string. Access usually expects the date to be surrounded in hashes however. E.g. SELECT transactions.amount FROM transactions WHERE transactions.date = #2013-05-25#; If I where to run this query using PDO I might do the following. //instatiate pdo connection etc... resulting in a $db object $stmt = $db->prepare('SELECT transactions.amount FROM transactions WHERE transactions.date = #:mydate#;'); //prepare the query $stmt->bindValue('mydate', '2013-05-25', PDO::PARAM_STR); //bind the date as a string $stmt->execute(); //run it $result = $stmt->fetch(); //get the results As far as my understanding goes the statement that results from the above would look like this as binding a string results in it being surrounded by quotes: SELECT transactions.amount FROM transactions WHERE transactions.date = #'2013-05-25'#; This causes an error and prevents the statement from running. What's the best way to bind a date string in PDO without causing this error? I'm currently resorting to sprintf-ing the string which I'm sure is bad practise. Edit: if I pass the hash-surrounded date then I still get the error as below: Fatal error: Uncaught exception 'PDOException' with message 'SQLSTATE[22018]: Invalid character value for cast specification: -3030 [Microsoft][ODBC Microsoft Access Driver] Data type mismatch in criteria expression. (SQLExecute[-3030] at ext\pdo_odbc\odbc_stmt.c:254)' in C:\xampp\htdocs\ips\php\classes.php:49 Stack trace: #0 C:\xampp\htdocs\ips\php\classes.php(49): PDOStatement-execute() #1 C:\xampp\htdocs\ips\php\classes.php(52): database-execute() #2 C:\xampp\htdocs\ips\try2.php(12): database-resultset() #3 {main} thrown in C:\xampp\htdocs\ips\php\classes.php on line 49

    Read the article

  • log4js ConsoleAppender initialization

    - by perrierism
    I'm wondering if anyone happens to have some experience using Log4js? It seems its normal ConsoleAppender isn't always ready to use immediately after it's added to a logger object... If I have two sequential script tags in a document like: //Initialize logger <script type="text/javascript"> var logger = new Log4js.getLogger("JSLOG"); logger.addAppender(new Log4js.ConsoleAppender(logger, false)); logger.setLevel(Log4js.Level.INFO); </script> //Use logger <script type="text/javascript"> logger.info('Test test'); </script> ... It causes the console pop-up (pop-up window) to appear with an error message on page load: 12:58:23 PM WARN Log4js - Could not run the listener function () { return fn.apply(object, arguments); }. TypeError: this.outputElement is null The console is still initialised, it's there afterward, but for just that first logger call it doesn't seem to be there fully. If I make the first logger call setTimeout("logger.info('test test')", 1000), it doesn't have the error. So it's like it's not ready immediately. Anyone see this before or know what a workaround might be? Cheers

    Read the article

  • Properly using Log4r in Ruby Application

    - by Spencer
    I must really be missing something obvious, but I'm having trouble with general use of Log4r in my Ruby application. I am able to log without issue, but the overhead seems clunky the way I have it setup. I'm basically passing the full path to a filename to log in each class in my application. The ruby script that is called pulls the log file from one of the arguments in ARGV which is then passed around and set in each class that I call in ruby. In each class I use the patternFormatter to insert the class/file name into the log statement. Is there a better way to make this work? It feels like no matter what I think of will require something to be passed to each class in my ruby application. I could set the log file in a yaml configuration file instead, but then I would be passing around the configuration file to each class as well. Any advice? If this doesn't make sense I could try and post some more specific code samples to further explain what I mean. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Windows Azure ASP.NET MVC Role behaves strangely when redirecting from HTTP to HTTPS

    - by Rinat Abdullin
    Subj. I've got an ASP.NET 2 MVC Worker Role Application, that does not differ much from the default template. When attempting redirect from HTTP to HTTPS (this happens when we access constroller secured by the usual RequireSSL attribute implementation) we get blank page with "Bad Request" message. IntelliTrace shows this: Thrown: "The file '/Views/Home/LogOnUserControl.aspx' does not exist." (System.Web.HttpException) Call stack is really short: [External Code] App_Web_vfahw7gz.dll!ASP.views_shared_site_master.__Render__control1(System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriter __w = {unknown}, System.Web.UI.Control parameterContainer = {unknown}) [External Code] App_Web_bsbqxr44.dll!ASP.views_home_index_aspx.ProcessRequest(System.Web.HttpContext context = {unknown}) [External Code] User control reference is the usual one in /Views/Shared/Site.Master: <div id="logindisplay"> <% Html.RenderPartial("LogOnUserControl"); %> </div> And partial view LogOnUserControl.ashx is located in Views/Shared (and it is ASHX, not ASPX). Problem shows up, when we try to access site pages, that require auth and redirect. These pages are secured by RequireSSL attribute (Redirect == true): [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Method | AttributeTargets.Class, Inherited = true, AllowMultiple = false)] public sealed class RequireSslAttribute : FilterAttribute, IAuthorizationFilter { public bool Redirect { get; set; } // Methods public void OnAuthorization(AuthorizationContext filterContext) { // this get's messy, when we are running custom ports // within the local dev fabric. // hence we disable code in the debug #if !DEBUG if (filterContext == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("filterContext"); } if (filterContext.HttpContext.Request.IsSecureConnection) return; var canRedirect = string.Equals(filterContext.HttpContext.Request.HttpMethod, "GET", StringComparison.OrdinalIgnoreCase); if (canRedirect && Redirect) { var builder = new UriBuilder { Scheme = "https", Host = filterContext.HttpContext.Request.Url.Host, Path = filterContext.HttpContext.Request.RawUrl }; filterContext.Result = new RedirectResult(builder.ToString()); } else { throw new HttpException(0x193, "Access forbidden. The requested resource requires an SSL connection."); } #endif } } Obviously we compile in RELEASE for this case. Does anybody have any idea, what could cause this strange exception and how to get rid of it?

    Read the article

  • Implementing parts of rfc4226 (HOTP) in mysql

    - by Moose Morals
    Like the title says, I'm trying to implement the programmatic parts of RFC4226 "HOTP: An HMAC-Based One-Time Password Algorithm" in SQL. I think I've got a version that works (in that for a small test sample, it produces the same result as the Java version in the code), but it contains a nested pair of hex(unhex()) calls, which I feel can be done better. I am constrained by a) needing to do this algorithm, and b) needing to do it in mysql, otherwise I'm happy to look at other ways of doing this. What I've got so far: -- From the inside out... -- Concatinate the users secret, and the number of time its been used -- find the SHA1 hash of that string -- Turn a 40 byte hex encoding into a 20 byte binary string -- keep the first 4 bytes -- turn those back into a hex represnetation -- convert that into an integer -- Throw away the most-significant bit (solves signed/unsigned problems) -- Truncate to 6 digits -- store into otp -- from the otpsecrets table select (conv(hex(substr(unhex(sha1(concat(secret, uses))), 1, 4)), 16, 10) & 0x7fffffff) % 1000000 into otp from otpsecrets; Is there a better (more efficient) way of doing this?

    Read the article

  • Moving delegate-related function to a different thread

    - by Chris
    Hello everybody. We are developing a library in C# that communicates with the serial port. We have a function that is given to a delegate. The problem is that we want it to be run in a different thread. We tried creating a new thread (called DatafromBot) but keep using it as follows (first line): comPort.DataReceived += new SerialDataReceivedEventHandler(comPort_DataReceived); DatafromBot = new Thread(comPort_DataReceived); DatafromBot.Start(); comPort_DataReceived is defined as: Thread DatafromBot; public void comPort_DataReceived(object sender, SerialDataReceivedEventArgs e) { ... } The following errors occur: Error 3 The best overloaded method match for 'System.Threading.Thread.Thread(System.Threading.ThreadStart)' has some invalid arguments C:...\IR52cLow\CommunicationManager.cs 180 27 IR52cLow Error 4 Argument '1': cannot convert from 'method group' to 'System.Threading.ThreadStart' C:...\IR52cLow\CommunicationManager.cs 180 38 IR52cLow Any ideas of how we should convert this to get it to compile? Please note that comPort.DataReceived (pay attention to "." instead of "_") lies within a system library and cannot be modified. Thanks for your time! Chris

    Read the article

  • How do I break down MySQL query results into categories, each with a specific number of rows?

    - by Mel
    Hello, Problem: I want to list n number of games from each genre (order not important) The following MySQL query resides inside a ColdFusion function. It is meant to list all games under a platform (for example, list all PS3 games; list all Xbox 360 games; etc...). The variable for PlatformID is passed through the URL. I have 9 genres, and I would like to list 10 games from each genre. SELECT games.GameID AS GameID, games.GameReleaseDate AS rDate, titles.TitleName AS tName, titles.TitleShortDescription AS sDesc, genres.GenreName AS gName, platforms.PlatformID, platforms.PlatformName AS pName, platforms.PlatformAbbreviation AS pAbbr FROM (((games join titles on((games.TitleID = titles.TitleID))) join genres on((genres.GenreID = games.GenreID))) join platforms on((platforms.PlatformID = games.PlatformID))) WHERE (games.PlatformID = '#ARGUMENTS.PlatformID#') ORDER BY GenreName ASC, GameReleaseDate DESC Once the query results come back I group them in ColdFusion as follows: <cfoutput query="ListGames" group="gName"> (first loop which lists genres) #ListGames.gName# <cfoutput> (nested loop which lists games) #ListGames.tName# </cfoutput> </cfoutput> The problem is that I only want 10 games from each genre to be listed. If I place a "limit" of 50 in the SQL, I will get ~ 50 games of the same genre (depending on how much games of that genre there are). The second issue is I don't want the overload of querying the database for all games when each person will only look at a few. What is the correct way to do this? Many thanks!

    Read the article

  • Number of args for stored procedure PLS-00306

    - by Peter Kaleta
    Hi I have problem with calling for my procedure. Oracle scrams PLS-00306 Error: Wrong number of types of arguments in call to procedure. With my type declaration procedure has exact the same declaration like in header below. If I run it as separate procedure it works, when i work in ODCI interface for extensible index creation, it throws PLS-00306. MEMBER PROCEDURE FILL_TREE_LVL (target_column VARCHAR2, cur_lvl NUMBER, max_lvl NUMBER, parent_rect NUMBER,start_x NUMBER, start_y NUMBER, end_x NUMBER, end_y NUMBER) IS stmt VARCHAR2(2000); rect_id NUMBER; diff_x NUMBER; diff_y NUMBER; new_start_x NUMBER; new_end_x NUMBER; i NUMBER; j NUMBER; BEGIN {...} END FILL_TREE_LVL; STATIC FUNCTION ODCIINDEXCREATE (ia SYS.ODCIINDEXINFO, parms VARCHAR2, env SYS.ODCIEnv) RETURN NUMBER IS stmt VARCHAR2(2000); stmt2 VARCHAR2(2000); min_x NUMBER; max_x NUMBER; min_y NUMBER; max_y NUMBER; lvl NUMBER; rect_id NUMBER; pt_tab VARCHAR2(50); rect_tab VARCHAR2(50); cnum NUMBER; TYPE point_rect is RECORD( point_id NUMBER, rect_id NUMBER ); TYPE point_rect_tab IS TABLE OF point_rect; pr_table point_rect_tab; BEGIN {...} FILL_TREE_LVL('any string', 0, lvl,0, min_x, min_y, max_x, max_y); {...} END;

    Read the article

  • Good patterns for loose coupling in Java?

    - by Eye of Hell
    Hello. I'm new to java, and while reading documentation so far i can't find any good ways for programming with loose coupling between objects. For majority of languages i know (C++, C#, python, javascript) i can manage objects as having 'signals' (notification about something happens/something needed) and 'slots' (method that can be connected to signal and process notification/do some work). In all mentioned languages i can write something like this: Object1 = new Object1Class(); Object2 = new Object2Class(); Connect( Object1.ItemAdded, Object2.OnItemAdded ); Now if object1 calls/emits ItemAdded, the OnItemAdded method of Object2 will be called. Such loose coupling technique is often referred as 'delegates', 'signal-slot' or 'inversion of control'. Compared to interface pattern, technique mentioned don't need to group signals into some interfaces. Any object's methods can be connected to any delegate as long as signatures match ( C++Qt even extends this by allowing only partial signature match ). So i don't need to write additional interface code for each methods / groups of methods, provide default implementation for interface methods not used etc. And i can't see anything like this in Java :(. Maybe i'm looking a wrong way?

    Read the article

  • Dependency Injection and decoupling of software layers

    - by cs31415
    I am trying to implement Dependency Injection to make my app tester friendly. I have a rather basic doubt. Data layer uses SqlConnection object to connect to a SQL server database. SqlConnection object is a dependency for data access layer. In accordance with the laws of dependency injection, we must not new() dependent objects, but rather accept them through constructor arguments. Not wanting to upset the DI gods, I dutifully create a constructor in my DAL that takes in SqlConnection. Business layer calls DAL. Business layer must therefore, pass in SqlConnection. Presentation layer calls Business layer. Hence it too, must pass in SqlConnection to business layer. This is great for class isolation and testability. But didn't we just couple the UI and Business layers to a specific implementation of the data layer which happens to use a relational database? Why do the Presentation and Business layers need to know that the underlying data store is SQL? What if the app needs to support multiple data sources other than SQL server (such as XML files, Comma delimited files etc.) Furthermore, what if I add another object upon which my data layer is dependent on (say, a second database). Now, I have to modify the upper layers to pass in this new object. How can I avoid this merry-go-round and reap all the benefits of DI without the pain?

    Read the article

  • svcutil, XmlSerializer and xsd:list

    - by Dmitry Ornatsky
    I'm using svcutil to generate classes from service metadata. This XML schema <xsd:complexType name="FindRequest"> ... <xsd:attribute name="Significance" type="Significance" use="optional" /> </xsd:complexType> <xsd:simpleType name="Significance"> <xsd:list> <xsd:simpleType> <xsd:restriction base="xsd:int"> <xsd:enumeration value="1" /> <xsd:enumeration value="2" /> <xsd:enumeration value="3" /> </xsd:restriction> </xsd:simpleType> </xsd:list> produces following code: public partial class FindRequest { ... private int significanceField; private bool significanceFieldSpecified; [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlAttributeAttribute()] public int Significance { get { return this.significanceField; } set { this.significanceField = value; } } [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlIgnoreAttribute()] public bool SignificanceSpecified { get { return this.significanceFieldSpecified; } set { this.significanceFieldSpecified = value; } } } My questions are: Is it possible to make XmlSerializer understand this type of list: <FindRequest Significance="1 2 3"/> For example by using some kind of a flags-style enum: public enum EmployeeStatus { [XmlEnum(Name = "1")] One = 1, [XmlEnum(Name = "2")] Two = 2, [XmlEnum(Name = "3")] Three = 4 } If the answer is yes, Is it possible to make svcutil/xsd.exe generate classes that are serialized that way without changing the schema?

    Read the article

  • ASP Button Calling JavaScript Function

    - by Steven
    I am attempting to construct my own date picker using code from several sources. Specifically, I am now attempting to have an asp:button display/hide the calendar. What am I doing wrong? myDate.ascx <%@ Control Language="vb" AutoEventWireup="false" CodeBehind="myDate.ascx.vb" Inherits="Website.myDate" %> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> function toggleCalendar(myID) { var obj = document.getElementById(myID) obj.style.display = (obj.style.display == "none") ? "" : "none"; } </script> <asp:TextBox ID="dateText" runat="server" > </asp:TextBox> <asp:Button ID="dateBtn" runat="server" UseSubmitBehavior="false" Text="x" /> <asp:Calendar ID="dateCal" runat="server" > </asp:Calendar> myDate.ascx.vb Partial Public Class myDate Inherits System.Web.UI.UserControl Protected Sub Page_Load (ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load 'Add OnClick event to call JavaScript to toggle calendar display' calBtn.Attributes.Add("OnClick", "toggleCalendar(" & cal.ClientID & ")") End Sub End Class HTML code for button (from browser) <input type="button" name="ctl03$calBtn" value="x" onclick="toggleCalendar(ctl03_cal);__doPostBack('ctl03$calBtn','')" id="ctl03_calBtn" />

    Read the article

  • Vim script to TeX source, and launch PDF only if no errors

    - by Jeet
    Hi, I am switching to using Vim for for my LaTeX editing environment. I would like to be able to tex the source file from within Vim, and launch an external viewing if the compile was successful. I know about the Vim-Latex suite, but, if possible, would prefer to avoid using it: it is pretty heavy-weight, hijacks a lot of my keys, and clutters up my vimruntime with a lot of files. Here is what I have now: if exists('b:tex_build_mapped') finish endif " use maparg or mapcheck to see if key is free command! -buffer -nargs=* BuildTex call BuildTex(0, <f-args>) command! -buffer -nargs=* BuildAndViewTex call BuildTex(1, <f-args>) noremap <buffer> <silent> <F9> <Esc>:call BuildTex(0)<CR> noremap <buffer> <silent> <S-F9> <Esc>:call BuildTex(1)<CR> let b:tex_build_mapped = 1 if exists('g:tex_build_loaded') finish endif let g:tex_build_loaded = 1 function! BuildTex(view_results, ...) write if filereadable("Makefile") " If Makefile is available in current working directory, run 'make' with arguments echo "(using Makefile)" let l:cmd = "!make ".join(a:000, ' ') echo l:cmd execute l:cmd if a:view_results && v:shell_error == 0 call ViewTexResults() endif else let b:tex_flavor = 'pdflatex' compiler tex make % if a:view_results && v:shell_error == 0 call ViewTexResults() endif endif endfunction function! ViewTexResults(...) if a:0 == 0 let l:target = expand("%:p:r") . ".pdf" else let l:target = a:1 endif if has('mac') execute "! open -a Preview ".l:target endif endfunction The problem is that v:shell_error is not set, even if there are compile errors. Any suggestions or insight on how to detect whether a compile was successful or not would be greatly appreciated! Thanks!

    Read the article

  • MySQL-python 1.2.3 and OS X 10.5: 64- or 32-bit?

    - by Dave Everitt
    I've been happily using Django and MySQL in development on an existing machine running OS X 10.4 Tiger, and have set up a similar environment in 10.5 Leopard on a new 64-bit MacBook, with a working MySQL and Python 2.6.4. However, now I want them to communicate, easy_install MySQL-python gave ld warnings that the file is not of the required architecture, which led me to test my Python 2.4.6 install (from the Mac OS X disc image): >>> import sys >>> sys.maxint 2147483647 Ah. So my Python install appears to be 32-bit and (I think?) won't install MySQL-python for my 64-bit MySQL. There are lots of hacks out there for MySQL-python on OS X (mostly 1.2.2), but - after hours of reading - I'm pretty sure they won't fix this architecture mismatch. So I'm stuck because I can't decide whether to: give up, remove the 64-bit MySQL install (thorough methods, please?) and use the 32-bit MySQL disc image instead; re-install Python in 64-bit mode from the tarball, --with-universal archs-64-bit and --enable-universalsdk= as detailed in Python.org's 2.6 news. So my questions for anyone who has encountered this issue are: Is installing 64-bit Python on OS X 10.5 worth bothering with? If so, (naive, lazy question!) how are the two required arguments combined? If I just skip along in 32-bit (as on my working setup) what am I missing? I'm after a hassle-free install that's easy to reproduce on other machines (possible student use) so I'd really welcome your opinions, please!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 256 257 258 259 260 261 262 263 264 265 266 267  | Next Page >