Search Results

Search found 7959 results on 319 pages for 'broken logic'.

Page 262/319 | < Previous Page | 258 259 260 261 262 263 264 265 266 267 268 269  | Next Page >

  • Winsock tcp/ip Socket listening but connection refused, race condition?

    - by Wayne
    Hello folks. This involves two automated unit tests which each start up a tcp/ip server that creates a non-blocking socket then bind()s and listen()s in a loop on select() for a client that connects and downloads some data. The catch is that they work perfectly when run separately but when run as a test suite, the second test client will fail to connect with WSACONNREFUSED... UNLESS there is a Thread.Sleep() of several seconds between them??!!! Interestingly, there is retry loop every 1 second for connecting after any failure. So the second test loops for a while until timeout after 10 minutes. During that time, netstat -na shows the correct port number is in the LISTEN state for the server socket. So if it is in the listen state? Why won't it accept the connection? In the code, there are log messages that show the select NEVER even gets a socket ready to read (which means ready to accept a connection when it applies to a listening socket). Obviously the problem must be related to some race condition between finishing one test which means close() and shutdown() on each end of the socket, and the start up of the next. This wouldn't be so bad if the retry logic allowed it to connect eventually after a couple of seconds. However it seems to get "gummed up" and won't even retry. However, for some strange reason the listening socket SAYS it's in the LISTEN state even through keeps refusing connections. So that means it's the Windoze O/S which is actually catching the SYN packet and returning a RST packet (which means "Connection Refused"). The only other time I ever saw this error was when the code had a problem that caused hundreds of sockets to get stuck in TIME_WAIT state. But that's not the case here. netstat shows only about a dozen sockets with only 1 or 2 in TIME_WAIT at any given moment. Please help.

    Read the article

  • Bring a subview to the top on mouseDown: AND keep receiving events (for dragging)

    - by d11wtq
    Ok, basically I have a view with a series of slightly overlapping subviews. When a subview is clicked, it moves to the top (among other things), by a really simple two-liner: -(void)mouseDown:(NSEvent *)theEvent { if (_selected) { // Don't do anything this subview is already in the foreground return; } NSView *superview = [self superview]; [self removeFromSuperview]; [superview addSubview:self position:NSWindowAbove relativeTo:nil]; } This works fine and seems to be the "normal" way to do this. The problem is that I'm now introducing some drag logic to the view, so I need to respond to -mouseDragged:. Unfortunately, since the view is removed from the view hierarchy and re-added in the process, I can have the view come to the foreground and be dragged in the same mouse action. It only drags if I leave go of the mouse and click on the view again, since the second click doesn't do any view hierarchy juggling. Is there anything I can do that will allow the view to move to the foreground like this, AND continue to receive the subsequent -mouseDragged: and -mouseUp: events that follow? I started along the lines of thinking of overriding -hitTest: in the superview and intercepting the mouseDown event in order to bring the view to the foreground before it actually receives the event. The problem here is, from within -hitTest:, how do I distinguish what type of event I'm actually performing the hit test for? I wouldn't want to move the subview to the foreground for other mouse events, such as mouseMoved etc.

    Read the article

  • Can you have multiple clipping regions in an HTML Canvas?

    - by emh
    I have code that loads a bunch of images into hidden img elements and then a Javascript loop which places each image onto the canvas. However, I want to clip each image so that it is a circle when placed on the canvas. My loop looks like this: $$('#avatars img').each(function(avatar) { var canvas = $('canvas'); var context = canvas.getContext('2d'); var x = Math.floor(Math.random() * canvas.width); var y = Math.floor(Math.random() * canvas.height); context.beginPath(); context.arc(x+24, y+24, 20, 0, Math.PI * 2, 1); context.clip(); context.strokeStyle = "black"; context.drawImage(document.getElementById(avatar.id), x, y); context.stroke(); }); Problem is, only the first image is drawn (or is visible). If I remove the clipping logic: $$('#avatars img').each(function(avatar) { var canvas = $('canvas'); var context = canvas.getContext('2d'); var x = Math.floor(Math.random() * canvas.width); var y = Math.floor(Math.random() * canvas.height); context.drawImage(document.getElementById(avatar.id), x, y); }); Then all my images are drawn. Is there a way to get each image individually clipped? I tried resetting the clipping area to be the entire canvas between images but that didn't work.

    Read the article

  • In facebook connect, how can I check if a user is a fan of my facebook page? Is it possible to track

    - by Tony
    I am trying to determine if a user is a facebook fan. I load the facebook JS library and initialize: <script type="text/javascript" src="http://static.ak.connect.facebook.com/js/api_lib/v0.4/FeatureLoader.js.php/en_US"></script> FB_RequireFeatures(["XFBML","Connect","Api"], function() { FB.init("my_api_key","xd_receiver.htm") }); FB.ensureInit(function () { FB.ApiClient.pages_isFan(my_profile_id,"some_UID",callback); }); However when I call the API client with FB.ApiClient.pages_isFan, I get a JS error - FB.ApiClient is undefined I am also using the FBML fan tag to display the "become a fan" button: <fb:fan profile_id="my_profile_id" stream="0" connections="10" logobar="1" width="300"></fb:fan> And would like to be notified when either the "become a fan" button is clicked or a user has successfully become a fan. The business logic is pretty simple - If they become a fan, track it in my database. Then if they try to become a fan again, check with the library if they are a fan and say "You are already a fan" if they are a fan, show the widget if not.

    Read the article

  • Easiest RPC client method in PHP

    - by T.K.
    I've been asked to help a friend's company to bring up a web application. I have very limited time and I reluctantly accepted the request, at one condition. As most of the logic goes on in the back-end, I suggested that I would finish the complete back-end only, allowing a front-end developer to simply interface with my backend. I plan to do the back-end in Java EE or Python (with Pylons). It does not really matter at this point. I plan to have my back-end completely ready and unit-tested, so that my input will hardly be needed after my work is done. I know they have a PHP programmer, but as far as I could tell he is a real rookie. I want him to basically interface with my backend's services in the easiest possible way, with no way of him "stuffing" it up. It's basically a CRUD-only application. I could implement the backend as accessible through a webservice such as XML-RPC or SOAP. Even a RESTful API could be possible. However, my main objective is to make something that complete "noob" PHP programmer can easily interface with without getting confused. Preferably I do not even want to talk to him because I generally have an extremely busy schedule, and doing "support calls" is not something I am willing to do. Which approach should I choose? I would welcome any suggestions and inputs!

    Read the article

  • best way to add and delete text lines with jquery product configurator

    - by Daniel White
    I am creating a product configurator with Jquery. My users can add custom text lines to their product. So you could create say... 4 text lines with custom text. I need to know what the best way to add and delete these lines would be. Currently I have the following code for adding lines... //Add Text Button $('a#addText').live('click', function(event) { event.preventDefault(); //Scroll up the text editor $('.textOptions').slideUp(); $('#customText').val(''); //count how many items are in the ul textList var textItems = $('ul#textList li').size(); var nextNumber = textItems + 1; if(textItems <= 5) { //Change input to reflect current text being changed $('input#currentTextNumber').val(nextNumber); //Append a UL Item to the textList $('ul#textList').append('<li id="textItem'+nextNumber+'">Text Line. +$5.00 <a class="deleteTextItem" href="'+nextNumber+'">Delete</a></li>'); //Scroll down the text editor $('.textOptions').slideDown(); }else { alert('you can have a maximum of 6 textual inputs!'); } }); I'm probably not doing this the best way, but basically i have an empty UL list to start with. So when they click "Add Text Line" it finds out how many list elements are in the unordered list, adds a value of 1 to that and places a new list element with the id TextItem1 or TextItem2 or whatever number we're on. The problem i'm running into is that when you click delete item, it screws everything up because when you add an item again all the numbers aren't correct. I thought about writing some kind of logic that says all the numbers above the one you want deleted get 1 subtracted from their value and all the numbers below stay the same. But I think i'm just going about this the wrong way. Any suggestions on the easiest way to add and delete these text lines is appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How do I create a python module from a fortran program with f2py?

    - by Lars Hellemo
    I am trying to read some smps files with python, and found a fortran implementation, so I thought I would give f2py a shot. The problem is that I have no experience with fortran. I have successfully installed gfortran and f2py on my Linux box and ran the example on thew f2py page, but I have some trouble compiling and running the large program. There are two files, one with a file reader wrapper and one with all the logic. They seem to call each other, but when I compile and link or try f2py, I get errors that they somehow can't find each other: f95 -c FILEWR~1.F f95 -c SMPSREAD.F90 f95 -o smpsread SMPSREAD.o FILEWR~1.o FILEWR~1.o In function `file_wrapper_' FILEWR~1.F(.text+0x3d) undefined reference to `chopen_' usrlibgcci486-linux-gnu4.4.1libgfortranbegin.a(fmain.o) In function `main' (.text+0x27) undefined reference to `MAIN__' collect2 ld returned 1 exit status I also tried changing the name to FILE_WRAPPER.F but that did not help. With f2py I found out I had to include a comment to get it to accept free format, and saved this as a new file and tried: f2py -c -m smpsread smpsread.f90 I get a lot of output and warnings, but the error seems to be this one: getctype: No C-type found in "{'typespec': 'type', 'attrspec': ['allocatable'], 'typename': 'node', 'dimension': [':']}", assuming void. The fortran 90 spms reader can be found here. Any help or suggestions appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Why doesn't is operator take in consideration if the explicit operator is overriden when checking ty

    - by Galilyou
    Hey Guys, Consider this code sample: public class Human { public string Value { get; set;} } public class Car { public static explicit operator Human (Car c) { Human h = new Human(); h.Value = "Value from Car"; return h; } } public class Program { public static void Mani() { Car c = new Car(); Human h = (Human)c; Console.WriteLine("h.Value = {0}", h.Value); Console.WriteLine(c is Human); } } Up I provide a possibility of an explicit cast from Car to Human, though Car and Human hierarchically are not related! The above code simply means that "Car is convertible to human" However, if you run the snippet you will find the expression c is Human evaluates to false! I used to believe that the is operator is kinda expensive cause it attempts to do an actual cast that might result in an InvalidCastException. If the operator is trying to cast, then the cast should succeed as there's an operator logic that should perform the cast! What does "is" test? Does test a hierarchical "is-a" relationship? Does test whether a variable type is convertible to a type?

    Read the article

  • Save Dialog on top of another custom dialog is behaving strangely!

    - by Raghu
    I have a save as image feature for charts in my application. The chart control is a custom user control with custom logic in them. It also has some scaling based on size, zoom etc. However, while saving them as an image I would like to give the user the option to set the size of the image (eg: 800x600 px @ 300 DPI). To do this I have created a Form with textboxes/checkboxes etc for various settings for image. One of these TextBoxes is for the file name. The file name textbox is readonly and is accompanied with a browse button which shows a SaveFileDialog when clicked. The user clicks "Save As Image" in the main form's menu. I show the ImageExportDialog using the code below: using(ImageExportDialog dlg = new ImageExportDialog()) { if(dlg.ShowDialog() == DialogResult.OK) { //get the settings selected by the user and generate the image } } In the ImageExportDialog, the user clicks on the browse button and the SaveFileDialog is shown as follows: using(SaveFileDialog dlg = new SaveFileDialog()) { if(dlg.ShowDialog() == DialogResult.OK) { txtFileName.Text = dlg.FileName; } } Now the problem is, when the user clicks on "Save" button in the SaveFileDialog, as expected the txtFileName.Text is set, but the parent custom dialog also seems to return from the ShowDialog method and the DialogResult is the same as the one for SaveFileDialog! The control then goes on to the "get the settings selected by the user and generate the image" part of the code above. Not really sure what I am doing wrong here!

    Read the article

  • Custom Model Validator for MVC

    - by scottrakes
    I am trying to add a custom model validation at the property level but need to pass in two values. Below is my class definition and validation implementation. When it runs, the "value" in the IsValid method is always null. I can get this working at the class level but the property level is causing me issues. What am I missing? Event Class: public class Event { public int? EventID {get;set;} [ValidPURL("EventID", "PURLValue")] public string PURLValue { get; set; } ... } Validation Class [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.All, AllowMultiple = true, Inherited = true)] public sealed class ValidPURL : ValidationAttribute { private const string _defaultErrorMessage = "Web address already exist."; private readonly object _typeId = new object(); public ValidPURL(int eventID, string purlValue) : base(_defaultErrorMessage) { EventID = eventID; PURLValue = purlValue; } public int EventID { get; private set; } public string PURLValue { get; private set; } public override object TypeId { get { return _typeId; } } public override string FormatErrorMessage(string name) { return String.Format(CultureInfo.CurrentUICulture, ErrorMessageString, EventID, PURLValue); } public override bool IsValid(object value) { PropertyDescriptorCollection properties = TypeDescriptor.GetProperties(value); object eventIDValue = properties.Find(EventID, true /* ignoreCase */).GetValue(value); object purlValue = properties.Find(PURLValue, true /* ignoreCase */).GetValue(value); [Some Validation Logic against the database] return true; } } Thank for the help!

    Read the article

  • Exception from HRESULT: 0x80020009 (DISP_E_EXCEPTION)) in SharePoint Part 2

    - by BeraCim
    Hi all: Following this post which I posted some time ago, I now get the same error every time I try to rewire 2 web's URLs. Basically, this is the code. It runs in a LongRunningOperationJob: SPWeb existingWeb = null; using (existingWeb = site.OpenWeb(wedId)) { SPWeb destinationWeb = createNewSite(existingWeb); existingWeb.AllowUnsafeUpdates = true; existingWeb.Name = existingWeb.Name + "_old"; existingWeb.Title = existingWeb.Title + "_old"; existingWeb.Description = existingWeb.Description + "_old"; existingWeb.Update() existingWeb.AllowUnsafeUpdates = false; destinationWeb.AllowUnsafeUpdates = true; destinationWeb.Name = existingWeb.Name; destinationWeb.Title = existingWeb.Title; destinationWeb.Description = existingWeb.Description; destinationWeb.Update(); destinationWeb.AllowUnsafeUpdates = false; // null this for what its worth existingWeb = null; destinationWeb = null; } // <---- Exception raised here Basically, the code is trying to rename the existing site's URL to something else, and have the destination web's url point to the old site's URL. When I run this for the first time, I received the Exception mentioned in the subject. However, every run after, I do not see the exception anymore. The webs DO get rewired... but at the cost of the app dying an unnecessary and terrible death. I'm at a complete lost as to what is going on and needs urgent help. Does sharepoint keep any hidden table from me or is the logic above has fatal problems? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • SWT - Table Row - Changing font color

    - by jkteater
    Is it possible to change the font color for a row based on a value in one of the columns? My table has a column that displays a status. The value of the column is going to either be Failed or Success. If it is Success I would like for that rows font be green. If the status equals Failed, I want that rows font be red. Is this possible, if so where would I put the logic. EDIT Here is my Table Viewer code, I am not going to show all the columns, just a couple private void createColumns() { String[] titles = { "ItemId", "RevId", "PRL", "Dataset Name", "Printer/Profile" , "Success/Fail" }; int[] bounds = { 100, 75, 75, 150, 200, 100 }; TableViewerColumn col = createTableViewerColumn(titles[0], bounds[0], 0); col.setLabelProvider(new ColumnLabelProvider() { public String getText(Object element) { if(element instanceof AplotResultsDataModel.ResultsData) { return ((AplotResultsDataModel.ResultsData)element).getItemId(); } return super.getText(element); } }); col = createTableViewerColumn(titles[1], bounds[1], 1); col.setLabelProvider(new ColumnLabelProvider() { public String getText(Object element) { if(element instanceof AplotResultsDataModel.ResultsData) { return ((AplotResultsDataModel.ResultsData)element).getRevId(); } return super.getText(element); } }); --ETC

    Read the article

  • Architecture for new ASP.NET web application

    - by Anders Abel
    I'm maintaining an application which currently is just a web service (built with WCF) and a database backend. The web service is built in layers with a linq-to-sql data access part with core functionality in an own assembly and on top of that the web service assembly which contains the WCF code. The core assembly also handles all business logic rules (very few actually). The customer now wants a Web interface for the application instead of just accessing it through other applications which are consuming the web service. I'm quite lost on modern web application design, so I would like some advice on what architecture and frameworks to use for the web application. The web application will be using the same core assembly with business rules and the linq-to-sql data access layer as the web service. Some concepts I've thought about are: ASP.NET MVC Webforms AJAX controls - possibly leting the AJAX controls access the existing web service through JSON. Are there any more concepts I should look into? Which one is the best for a fresh project? The development tools are Visual Studio 2008 Team Edition for Developers targeting .NET 3.5. An upgrade to Visual Studio 2010 Premium (or maybe even Ultimate) is possible if it gives any benefits.

    Read the article

  • Using OUTPUT/INTO within instead of insert trigger invalidates 'inserted' table

    - by Dan
    I have a problem using a table with an instead of insert trigger. The table I created contains an identity column. I need to use an instead of insert trigger on this table. I also need to see the value of the newly inserted identity from within my trigger which requires the use of OUTPUT/INTO within the trigger. The problem is then that clients that perform INSERTs cannot see the inserted values. For example, I create a simple table: CREATE TABLE [MyTable]( [MyID] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [MyBit] [bit] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_MyTable_MyID] PRIMARY KEY NONCLUSTERED ( [MyID] ASC )) Next I create a simple instead of trigger: create trigger [trMyTableInsert] on [MyTable] instead of insert as BEGIN DECLARE @InsertedRows table( MyID int, MyBit bit); INSERT INTO [MyTable] ([MyBit]) OUTPUT inserted.MyID, inserted.MyBit INTO @InsertedRows SELECT inserted.MyBit FROM inserted; -- LOGIC NOT SHOWN HERE THAT USES @InsertedRows END; Lastly, I attempt to perform an insert and retrieve the inserted values: DECLARE @tbl TABLE (myID INT) insert into MyTable (MyBit) OUTPUT inserted.MyID INTO @tbl VALUES (1) SELECT * from @tbl The issue is all I ever get back is zero. I can see the row was correctly inserted into the table. I also know that if I remove the OUTPUT/INTO from within the trigger this problem goes away. Any thoughts as to what I'm doing wrong? Or is how I want to do things not feasible? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Using Doctrine to abstract CRUD operations

    - by TomWilsonFL
    This has bothered me for quite a while, but now it is necessity that I find the answer. We are working on quite a large project using CodeIgniter plus Doctrine. Our application has a front end and also an admin area for the company to check/change/delete data. When we designed the front end, we simply consumed most of the Doctrine code right in the controller: //In semi-pseudocode function register() { $data = get_post_data(); if (count($data) && isValid($data)) { $U = new User(); $U->fromArray($data); $U->save(); $C = new Customer(); $C->fromArray($data); $C->user_id = $U->id; $C->save(); redirect_to_next_step(); } } Obviously when we went to do the admin views code duplication began and considering we were in a "get it DONE" mode so it now stinks with code bloat. I have moved a lot of functionality (business logic) into the model using model methods, but the basic CRUD does not fit there. I was going to attempt to place the CRUD into static methods, i.e. Customer::save($array) [would perform both insert and update depending on if prikey is present in array], Customer::delete($id), Customer::getObj($id = false) [if false, get all data]. This is going to become painful though for 32 model objects (and growing). Also, at times models need to interact (as the interaction above between user data and customer data), which can't be done in a static method without breaking encapsulation. I envision adding another layer to this (exposing web services), so knowing there are going to be 3 "controllers" at some point I need to encapsulate this CRUD somewhere (obviously), but are static methods the way to go, or is there another road? Your input is much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Apply the REL attibute automatically to posts using jQuery

    - by Couto
    Edited: I mean grouping as giving the same REL attibute to all IMGs in the same post, but each post has different REL as the example at the end of this question. So, I need to do the following: <div id="Blog1" class="widget Blog"> <div class="blog-posts hfeed"> <div class="post hentry uncustomized-post-template"> <a name="8829400899632947948"/> <div class="post-body entry-content"> <div id="8829400899632947948"> <div class="separator"> <a imageanchor="1" href="/images/outta.png"> <img src="/images/outta.png"/></a></div></div> <div style="clear: both;"/> </div> <div class="post-footer"> </div></div></div></div> I'm using jQuery and Colorbox. The first two DIVs are posts containers. I need to group the IMGs in each <div class="post hentry uncustomized-post-template"> using the REL attribute, like: 1 - Post 1.1 - IMG - REL="group0" 1.2 - IMG - REL="group0" 1.3 - IMG - REL="group0" 1.4 - IMG - REL="group0" 2 - Post 2.1 - IMG - REL="group1" 3 - Post 3.1 - IMG - REL="group2" 3.2 - IMG - REL="group2" I've tryied HAS, PARENT > CHILDREN and CHILDREN() from jQuery and REL: from Colorbox, but it seems I'm lacking somewhere in logic. Could someone help me?

    Read the article

  • What MS technology to use for HTTP service returning XML?

    - by Borek
    I need to create a service that: accepts HTTP requests (with query string or HTTP POST parameters) does some processing on the requests (checking if the request is valid, authentication etc.) reads data from a custom store (another HTTP call in our case) returns the result as custom XML (defined with XSD) I'm trying to think of various MS technologies that could help me and how good they would be for this scenario (pretty standard one I guess). The tasks above are relatively separate, this is what comes to mind: HTTP front-end: ASP.NET Web Forms ASP.NET MVC (seems more appropriate here as I won't need server controls, view state etc.) WCF? Don't know much about it or how well it would suit my task. Custom logic on the server: this will probably be a generic C# code in all cases (sometimes "plugged into" or called from MVC controllers or some equivalent place in other technologies) Reading data from internal data stores: As said, this is another HTTP server in our case. Options that come to mind: Just read the data using something like WebClient (Just theoretically) implement a LINQ provider (Just even more theoretically) implement an EF provider Output the data as custom XML: Linq2XML Serialization? Is it flexible enough? Does WCF provide some tools for this? Some "OXM" - Object/XML mapper if there is something like that for .NET I may be wrong in many of my assumptions, this is just a quick list that comes to mind after a quick research. Some general notes / questions: Testing is important Solution with a clear domain model would be much preferred over the one without Can Entity Framework actually help somewhere in my scenario? If so, where and how? Would WCF be an appropriate technology for this? I don't know much about it.

    Read the article

  • Mutex example / tutorial ?

    - by Nav
    I've noticed that asking questions for the sake of creating a reference list etc. is encouraged in SO. This is one such question, so that anyone Googling for a mutex tutorial will find a good one here. I'm new to multithreading, and was trying to understand how mutexes work. Did a lot of Googling and this is the only decent tutorial I found, but it still left some doubts of how it works because I created my own program and the locking didn't work. One absolutely non-intuitive syntax of the mutex is pthread_mutex_lock( &mutex1 );, where it looks like the mutex is being locked, when what I really want to lock is some other variable. Does this syntax mean that locking a mutex locks a region of code until the mutex is unlocked? Then how do threads know that the region is locked? And isn't such a phenomenon supposed to be called critical section? In short, could you please help with the simplest possible mutex example program and the simplest possible explanation on the logic of how it works? I'm sure this will help plenty of other newbies.

    Read the article

  • Create a strongly typed view which inherites a class which is concrete

    - by Ashwani K
    Hello All: I am having one class called BaseClass which contains some logic applicable to whole web site. In order to create a strongly typed view we need to inherit the page from System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage generic class. But In our case I have to Inherit the BaseClass from System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage to apply some common settings, but the BaseClass should be inherited from System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage< generic version. But I cannot inherit the BaseClass from System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage< as it will change other class also. So I created one more class of type BaseClass< inheriting it from System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage< and copied the whole code of BaseClass in BaseClass<. But the code in BaseClass is controlled by other team so it will be changed frequently so my BaseClass< should be in sync with BaseClass. Please help me in eliminating the code duplication or any other approach to make strongly typed View. Thanks Ashwani

    Read the article

  • Web-app currency input/manipulation/calculation with javascript .. there has got to be a better (fra

    - by dreftymac
    BACKGROUND: I am of the "user-input-lockdown" school of thought. Whenever possible, I try to mistrust and sanitize user input, both client side and server side; and I try to take multiple opportunities to restrict possible inputs to a known subset of possibilities, usually this means providing a lot of checkboxes and select lists. (This is from the usability side of things, I know security-wise that malicious users can easily bypass fixed user input GUI controls). PROBLEM: Anyway, the problem always arises with non-fixed input of currency. Whenever I have to accept a freely-specified dollar amount as user input, I always have to confront these problems/annoyances and it is always painful: 1) Make sure to give the user two input boxes for each currency_datapoint, one for the whole_dollar_part and another for the fractional_pennies_part 2) Whenever the user changes a currency_datapoint, provide keystroke-by-keystroke GUI feedback to let them know whether the currency_datapoint is well-formed, with context-appropriate validation rules (e.g., no negatives?, nonzero only?, numeric only!, no non-numeric punctuation! no symbols!) 3) For display purposes, every user-provided currency_datapoint should be translated to human-readable currency formatting (dollar sign, period, commas provided by the app, where appropriate) 4) For calculation purposes, every user-provided currency_datapoint has to be converted to integer (all pennies, to avoid floating point errors) and summed into a grand total with zero or more subtotals. 5) Every user-provided currency_datapoint should be displayed or displayable in a nice "tabular" format, which auto-updates as the user enters each currency_datapoint, including a baloon that warns when one or more currency_datapoints is not well-formed. I seem to be re-inventing this wheel every time I have to work with currency in Javascript on the client side (server side is a bit more flexible since most programming languages have higher-level currency formatting logic). QUESTION: Has anyone out there solved the problem of dealing with the above issues, client side, in a way that is server-side-technology-stack agnostic, (preferrably plain javascript or jquery)? This is getting old, there has to be a better way.

    Read the article

  • Summation loop program in Pascal

    - by user2526598
    I am having a bit of an issue with this problem. I am taking a Pascal programming class and this problem was in my logic book. I am required to have the user enter a series of (+) numbers and once he/she enters a (-) number, the program should find the sum of all the (+) numbers. I accomplished this, but now I am attempting part two of this problem, which requires me to utilize a nested loop to run the program x amount of times based on the user's input. The following code is what I have so far and honestly I am stumped: program summation; //Define main program's variables var num, sum, numRun : integer; //Design procedure that will promt user for number of runs procedure numRunLoop ( var numRun : integer ); begin writeln('How many times shall I run this program?'); readln(numRun); end; //Design procedure that will sum a series of numbers //based on user input procedure numPromptLoop( numRun : integer; var num : integer ); var count : integer; begin //Utilize for to establish run limit for count := 1 to numRun do begin //Use repeat to prompt user for numbers repeat writeln('Enter a number: '); readln(num); //Tells program when to sum if num >= 0 then sum := sum + num; until num < 0; end; end; //Design procedure that will display procedure addItion( sum : integer ); begin writeln('The sum is; ', sum); end; begin numRunLoop(numRun); numPromptloop(numRun, num); addItion(sum); readln(); end.

    Read the article

  • Why Does This Maintainability Index Increase?

    - by Timothy
    I would be appreciative if someone could explain to me the difference between the following two pieces of code in terms of Visual Studio's Code Metrics rules. Why does the Maintainability Index increase slightly if I don't encapsulate everything within using ( )? Sample 1 (MI score of 71) public static String Sha1(String plainText) { using (SHA1Managed sha1 = new SHA1Managed()) { Byte[] text = Encoding.Unicode.GetBytes(plainText); Byte[] hashBytes = sha1.ComputeHash(text); return Convert.ToBase64String(hashBytes); } } Sample 2 (MI score of 73) public static String Sha1(String plainText) { Byte[] text, hashBytes; using (SHA1Managed sha1 = new SHA1Managed()) { text = Encoding.Unicode.GetBytes(plainText); hashBytes = sha1.ComputeHash(text); } return Convert.ToBase64String(hashBytes); } I understand metrics are meaningless outside of a broader context and understanding, and programmers should exercise discretion. While I could boost the score up to 76 with return Convert.ToBase64String(sha1.ComputeHash(Encoding.Unicode.GetBytes(plainText))), I shouldn't. I would clearly be just playing with numbers and it isn't truly any more readable or maintainable at that point. I am curious though as to what the logic might be behind the increase in this case. It's obviously not line-count.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Group

    - by Jimmo
    I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, Customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.) In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on their account. When calling something like ValidateUser, I have access to their affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to which to compare it. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

    Read the article

  • Dependency Property ListBox

    - by developer
    Hi All, I want to use a dependency property, so that my label displays values selected in the listbox. This is just to more clearly understand the working of a dependency property. <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:WPFToolkit="clr-namespace:Microsoft.Windows.Controls;assembly=WPFToolkit" xmlns:local="clr-namespace:WpfApplication1" x:Name="MyWindow" Height="200" Width="300" > <StackPanel> <ListBox x:Name="lbColor" Width="248" Height="56" ItemsSource="{Binding TestColor}"/> <StackPanel> <Label Content="{Binding Path=Test, ElementName=lbColor}" /> </StackPanel> </StackPanel> </Window> Code Behind, namespace WpfApplication1 { /// <summary> /// Interaction logic for Window1.xaml /// </summary> public partial class Window1 : Window { public ObservableCollection<string> TestColor { get; set; } public String Test { get { return (String)GetValue(TestProperty); } set { SetValue(TestProperty, value); } } // Using a DependencyProperty as the backing store for Title. This enables animation, styling, binding, etc... public static readonly DependencyProperty TestProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("Test", typeof(String), typeof(ListBox), new UIPropertyMetadata("Test1")); public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); TestColor = new ObservableCollection<string>(); DataContext = this; TestColor.Add("Red"); TestColor.Add("Orange"); TestColor.Add("Yellow"); TestColor.Add("Green"); TestColor.Add("Blue"); } } } Can anyone explain me how will I accompalish this using a dependency property. Somehow I am very confused with the Dependency Property concept, and I just wanted to see a working example for that.

    Read the article

  • mysql and trigger usage question

    - by dhruvbird
    I have a situation in which I don't want inserts to take place (the transaction should rollback) if a certain condition is met. I could write this logic in the application code, but say for some reason, it has to be written in MySQL itself (say clients written in different languages will be inserting into this MySQL InnoDB table) [that's a separate discussion]. Table definition: CREATE TABLE table1(x int NOT NULL); The trigger looks something like this: CREATE TRIGGER t1 BEFORE INSERT ON table1 FOR EACH ROW IF (condition) THEN NEW.x = NULL; END IF; END; I am guessing it could also be written as(untested): CREATE TRIGGER t1 BEFORE INSERT ON table1 FOR EACH ROW IF (condition) THEN ROLLBACK; END IF; END; But, this doesn't work: CREATE TRIGGER t1 BEFORE INSERT ON table1 ROLLBACK; You are guaranteed that: Your DB will always be MySQL Table type will always be InnoDB That NOT NULL column will always stay the way it is Question: Do you see anything objectionable in the 1st method?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 258 259 260 261 262 263 264 265 266 267 268 269  | Next Page >