Search Results

Search found 39888 results on 1596 pages for 'delete method'.

Page 262/1596 | < Previous Page | 258 259 260 261 262 263 264 265 266 267 268 269  | Next Page >

  • .NET: How to know when serialization is completed?

    - by Ian Boyd
    When I construct my control (which inherits DataGrid), I add specific rows and columns. This works great at design time. Unfortunately, at runtime I add my rows and columns in the same constructor, but then the DataGrid is serialized (after the constructor runs) adding more rows and columns. After serialization is complete, I need to clear everything and re-initialize the rows and columns. Is there a protected method that I can override to know when the control is done serializing? Of course, I'd prefer to not have to do the work in the constructor, throw it away, and do it again after (potential) serialization. Is there a preferred event that is the equivalent of "set yourself up now", so that it is called once whether I'm serialized or not? The serialization i speak of comes from the InitializeComponent() method in the form's code-behind file. #region Windows Form Designer generated code /// <summary> /// Required method for Designer support - do not modify /// the contents of this method with the code editor. /// </summary> private void InitializeComponent() { ... } It would have been perfect if InitializeComponent was a virtual method defined by Control, then i could just override it and then perform my processing after i call base: protected override void InitializeComponent() { base.InitializeComponent(); InitializeMe(); } But it's not an ancestor method, it's declared only in the code-behind file. i notice that InitializeComponent calls SuspendLayout and ResumeLayout on various Controls. i thought it could override ResumeLayout, and perform my initialization then: public override void ResumeLayout() { base.ResumeLayout(); InitializeMe(); } But ResumeLayout is not virtual, so that's out. Anymore ideas? i can't be the first person to create a custom control.

    Read the article

  • Calling delegate methods and calling selectors

    - by Crystal
    I'm new to the concept of delegates and selectors when used with notifications. So my first question is, 1) Let's say you have a button that has a delegate that implements some doWork method. If you want the same functionality that's in the method, is it 'ok' to just call that method? I didn't know if that was considered good coding practices and/or if you should do that, or do something different in getting that type of functionality. Like if that is ok architecture? 2) Similarly, with NSNotificationCenter, I see some code that posts a notification. Then there's a HandleSegmentedControl:(NSNotification *)notification method. If I want to manually have that functionality, but without pressing the segment control, is it 'ok' to just take that functionality out of that method and put it in a new method so it would look like this: Original: - (void)HandleSegmentedControl:(NSNotification *)notification { NSDictionary *dict = [userInfo notification]; // do stuff with the dictionary } New: - (void)HandleSegmentedControl:(NSNotification *)notification { NSDictionary *dict = [userInfo notification]; [self newMethod:dict]; } - (void)newMethod:(NSDictionary *)dict { // do stuff with the dictionary } - (void)myOtherMethodThatNeedsTheSameFunctionality { NSDictionary *dict = // create some dictionary [self newMethod:dict]; } Sorry if these are basic questions. I'm not sure what the best practices are for things like this and wanted to start the right way. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • how to fix error in bitmap size exceeds VM budget

    - by narasimha
    hi folks i am working one application image uploading to sdcard i am scaling that sdcard saved into database some times one error is occurs bitmap size exceeds vm budget ouput : 01-11 15:39:51.809: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6214): Uncaught handler: thread main exiting due to uncaught exception 01-11 15:39:51.979: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6214): java.lang.OutOfMemoryError: bitmap size exceeds VM budget 01-11 15:39:51.979: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6214): at android.graphics.BitmapFactory.nativeDecodeByteArray(Native Method) 01-11 15:39:51.979: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6214): at android.graphics.BitmapFactory.decodeByteArray(BitmapFactory.java:384) 01-11 15:39:51.979: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6214): at android.graphics.BitmapFactory.decodeByteArray(BitmapFactory.java:397) 01-11 15:39:51.979: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6214): at com.fitzgeraldsoftware.shout.presentationLayer.Shout.onActivityResult(Shout.java:1653) 01-11 15:39:51.979: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6214): at android.app.Activity.dispatchActivityResult(Activity.java:3624) 01-11 15:39:51.979: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6214): at android.app.ActivityThread.deliverResults(ActivityThread.java:3220) 01-11 15:39:51.979: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6214): at android.app.ActivityThread.handleSendResult(ActivityThread.java:3266) 01-11 15:39:51.979: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6214): at android.app.ActivityThread.access$2600(ActivityThread.java:116) 01-11 15:39:51.979: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6214): at android.app.ActivityThread$H.handleMessage(ActivityThread.java:1823) 01-11 15:39:51.979: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6214): at android.os.Handler.dispatchMessage(Handler.java:99) 01-11 15:39:51.979: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6214): at android.os.Looper.loop(Looper.java:123) 01-11 15:39:51.979: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6214): at android.app.ActivityThread.main(ActivityThread.java:4203) 01-11 15:39:51.979: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6214): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invokeNative(Native Method) 01-11 15:39:51.979: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6214): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:521) 01-11 15:39:51.979: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6214): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit$MethodAndArgsCaller.run(ZygoteInit.java:791) 01-11 15:39:51.979: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6214): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit.main(ZygoteInit.java:549) 01-11 15:39:51.979: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6214): at dalvik.system.NativeStart.main(Native Method) how can fix the error please forward some solution thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Copying contents of a MySQL table to a table in another (local) database

    - by Philip Eve
    I have two MySQL databases for my site - one is for a production environment and the other, much smaller, is for a testing/development environment. Both have identical schemas (except when I am testing something I intend to change, of course). A small number of the tables are for internationalisation purposes: TransLanguage - non-English languages TransModule - modules (bundles of phrases for translation, that can be loaded individually by PHP scripts) TransPhrase - individual phrases, in English, for potential translation TranslatedPhrase - translations of phrases that are submitted by volunteers ChosenTranslatedPhrase - screened translations of phrases. The volunteers who do translation are all working on the production site, as they are regular users. I wanted to create a stored procedure that could be used to synchronise the contents of four of these tables - TransLanguage, TransModule, TransPhrase and ChosenTranslatedPhrase - from the production database to the testing database, so as to keep the test environment up-to-date and prevent "unknown phrase" errors from being in the way while testing. My first effort was to create the following procedure in the test database: CREATE PROCEDURE `SynchroniseTranslations` () LANGUAGE SQL NOT DETERMINISTIC MODIFIES SQL DATA SQL SECURITY DEFINER BEGIN DELETE FROM `TransLanguage`; DELETE FROM `TransModule`; INSERT INTO `TransLanguage` SELECT * FROM `PRODUCTION_DB`.`TransLanguage`; INSERT INTO `TransModule` SELECT * FROM `PRODUCTION_DB`.`TransModule`; INSERT INTO `TransPhrase` SELECT * FROM `PRODUCTION_DB`.`TransPhrase`; INSERT INTO `ChosenTranslatedPhrase` SELECT * FROM `PRODUCTION_DB`.`ChosenTranslatedPhrase`; END When I try to run this, I get an error message: "SELECT command denied to user 'username'@'localhost' for table 'TransLanguage'". I also tried to create the procedure to work the other way around (that is, to exist as part of the data dictionary for the production database rather than the test database). If I do it that, way, I get an identical message except it tells me I'm denied the DELETE command rather than SELECT. I have made sure that my user has INSERT, DELETE, SELECT, UPDATE and CREATE ROUTINE privileges on both databases. However, it seems as though MySQL is reluctant to let this user exercise its privileges on both databases at the same time. How come, and is there a way around this?

    Read the article

  • I am not able to update form data to MySQL using PHP and jQuery

    - by Jimson Jose
    My problem is that I am unable to update the values entered in the form. I have attached all the files. I'm using MYSQL database to fetch data. What happens is that I'm able to add and delete records from form using jQuery and PHP scripts to MYSQL database, but I am not able to update data which was retrieved from the database. The file structure is as follows: index.php is a file with jQuery functions where it displays form for adding new data to MYSQL using save.php file and list of all records are view without refreshing page (calling load-list.php to view all records from index.php works fine, and save.php to save data from form) - Delete is an function called from index.php to delete record from MySQL database (function calling delete.php works fine) - Update is an function called from index.php to update data using update-form.php by retriving specific record from MySQL table, (works fine) Problem lies in updating data from update-form.php to update.php (in which update query is written for MySQL) I have tried in many ways - at last I had figured out that data is not being transferred from update-form.php to update.php; there is a small problem in jQuery AJAX function where it is not transferring data to update.php page. Something is missing in calling update.php page it is not entering into that page. I am new bee in programming. I had collected this script from many forums and made this one. So I was limited in solving this problem. I came to know that this is good platform for me and many where we get a help to create new things. Please find the link below to download all files which is of 35kb (virus free assurance): download mysmallform files in ZIPped format, including mysql query

    Read the article

  • Javascript errors on internet explorer with jQuery but working fine on Firefox

    - by user994319
    A quick question I'm hoping someone can help me out with. On firefox our jQuery slider is working perfectly, however on viewing with internet explorer there are some javascript errors occurring. The website is http://foscam-uk.com/index.php Hoping there is a possible solution to this. Kind Regards and Thank You! Errors: Webpage error details User Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 6.1; WOW64; Trident/4.0; SLCC2; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.5.30729; .NET CLR 3.0.30729; Media Center PC 6.0; .NET4.0C; .NET4.0E; InfoPath.3) Timestamp: Wed, 6 Jun 2012 22:36:43 UTC Message: Object doesn't support this property or method Line: 5653 Char: 9 Code: 0 URI: http://foscam-uk.com/js/prototype/prototype.js Message: Object doesn't support this property or method Line: 5988 Char: 5 Code: 0 URI: http://foscam-uk.com/js/prototype/prototype.js Message: Object doesn't support this property or method Line: 2 Char: 5 Code: 0 URI: http://foscam-uk.com/skin/frontend/default/theme316/js/scripts.js Message: Object doesn't support this property or method Line: 5736 Char: 7 Code: 0 URI: http://foscam-uk.com/js/prototype/prototype.js Message: Object doesn't support this property or method Line: 5988 Char: 5 Code: 0 URI: http://foscam-uk.com/js/prototype/prototype.js Message: Object doesn't support this property or method Line: 73 Char: 11 Code: 0 URI: http://foscam-uk.com/index.php

    Read the article

  • BASH echo write mysql input

    - by jmituzas
    Have a bash menu where variables write to file for mysql input. heres what I have: echo "CREATE DATABASE '$mysqldbn'; #GRANT ALL PRIVILEGES ON *.* TO '$mysqlu'@'$myhost' IDENTIFIED BY '$mysqlup' WITH GRANT OPTION; GRANT SELECT, INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE, CREATE, DROP, INDEX, ALTER, CREATE TEMPORARY TABLES, LOCK TABLES ON '$mysqldbn'.* TO '$mysqlu'@'$myhost' IDENTIFIED BY '$mysqlup'; GRANT SELECT, INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE, CREATE, DROP, INDEX, ALTER, CREATE TEMPORARY TABLES, LOCK TABLES ON '$mysqldbn'.* TO '$mysqlu'@'$myip' IDENTIFIED BY '$mysqlup'; GRANT SELECT, INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE, CREATE, DROP, INDEX, ALTER, CREATE TEMPORARY TABLES, LOCK TABLES ON '$mysqldbn'.* TO '$mysqlu'@'localhost' IDENTIFIED BY '$mysqlup'; GRANT SELECT, INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE, CREATE, DROP, INDEX, ALTER, CREATE TEMPORARY TABLES< LOCK TABLES on '$mysqldbn'.* TO '$mysqlu'@'$rip' IDENTIFIED BY '$mysqlup';" > nmysql.db mysql -u root -p$mypass < nmysql.db problem is to get variables to show I had to put them in single quotes, the single quotes show up as I want for instances like '$mysqlu'@'localhost'. But how can I remove the quotes and still get to use the variable in the instance like, CREATE DATABASE '$mysqldbn' ? Double quotes wont work either, I am at a loss. Thanks in advance, Joe

    Read the article

  • Java downcasting and is-A has-A relationship

    - by msharma
    HI, I have a down casting question, I am a bit rusty in this area. I have 2 clasess like this: class A{ int i; String j ; //Getters and setters} class B extends A{ String k; //getter and setter} I have a method like this, in a Utility helper class: public static A converts(C c){} Where C are objects that are retireved from the database and then converted. The problem is I want to call the above method by passing in a 'C' and getting back B. So I tried this: B bClasss = (B) Utility.converts(c); So even though the above method returns A I tried to downcast it to B, but I get a runtime ClassCastException. Is there really no way around this? DO I have to write a separate converts() method which returns a B class type? If I declare my class B like: class B { String k; A a;} // So instead of extending A it has-a A, getter and setters also then I can call my existing method like this: b.setA(Utility.converts(c) ); This way I can reuse the existing method, even though the extends relationship makes more sense. What should I do? Any help much appreciated. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Mutual class instances in C++

    - by SepiDev
    Hi guys. What is the issue with this code? Here we have two files: classA.h and classB.h classA.h: #ifndef _class_a_h_ #define _class_a_h_ #include "classB.h" class B; //???? class A { public: A() { ptr_b = new B(); //???? } virtual ~A() { if(ptr_b) delete ptr_b; //???? num_a = 0; } int num_a; B* ptr_b; //???? }; #endif //_class_a_h_ classB.h: #ifndef _class_b_h_ #define _class_b_h_ #include "classA.h" class A; //???? class B { public: B() { ptr_a = new A(); //???? num_b = 0; } virtual ~B() { if(ptr_a) delete ptr_a; //???? } int num_b; A* ptr_a; //???? }; #endif //_class_b_h_ when I try to compile it, the compiler (g++) says: classB.h: In constructor ‘B::B()’: classB.h:12: error: invalid use of incomplete type ‘struct A’ classB.h:6: error: forward declaration of ‘struct A’ classB.h: In destructor ‘virtual B::~B()’: classB.h:16: warning: possible problem detected in invocation of delete operator: classB.h:16: warning: invalid use of incomplete type ‘struct A’ classB.h:6: warning: forward declaration of ‘struct A’ classB.h:16: note: neither the destructor nor the class-specific operator delete will be called, even if they are declared when the class is defined.

    Read the article

  • Giving writing permissions for IIS user at Windows 2003 Server

    - by Steve
    I am running a website over Windows 2003 Server and IIS6 and I am having problems to write or delete files in some temporary folder obtaining this kind of warmings: Warning: unlink(C:\Inetpub\wwwroot\cakephp\app\tmp\cache\persistent\myapp_cake_core_cake_): Permission denied in C:\Inetpub\wwwroot\cakephp\lib\Cake\Cache\Engine\FileEngine.php on line 254 I went to the tmp directory and at the properties I gave the IIS User the following permissions: Read & Execute List folder Contents Read And it still showing the same warnings. When I am on the properties window, if I click on Advanced the IIS username appears twice. One with Allow type and read & execute permissions and the other with Deny type and Special permissions. My question is: Should I give this user not only the Read & Execute permissions but also this ones?: Create Attributes Create Files/ Write Data Create Folders/ Append Data Delete Subfolders and Files Delete They are available to select if I Click on the edit button over the username. Wouldn't I be opening a security hole if I do this? Otherwise, how can I do to read and delete the files my website uses? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • how to elegantly duplicate a graph (neural network)

    - by macias
    I have a graph (network) which consists of layers, which contains nodes (neurons). I would like to write a procedure to duplicate entire graph in most elegant way possible -- i.e. with minimal or no overhead added to the structure of the node or layer. Or yet in other words -- the procedure could be complex, but the complexity should not "leak" to structures. They should be no complex just because they are copyable. I wrote the code in C#, so far it looks like this: neuron has additional field -- copy_of which is pointer the the neuron which base copied from, this is my additional overhead neuron has parameterless method Clone() neuron has method Reconnect() -- which exchanges connection from "source" neuron (parameter) to "target" neuron (parameter) layer has parameterless method Clone() -- it simply call Clone() for all neurons network has parameterless method Clone() -- it calls Clone() for every layer and then it iterates over all neurons and creates mappings neuron=copy_of and then calls Reconnect to exchange all the "wiring" I hope my approach is clear. The question is -- is there more elegant method, I particularly don't like keeping extra pointer in neuron class just in case of being copied! I would like to gather the data in one point (network's Clone) and then dispose it completely (Clone method cannot have an argument though).

    Read the article

  • How to get at specific HTML elements of a document using C# and Hide them/Show them etc.

    - by LaserBeak
    Basically I want to load a HTML document and using controls such as multiple check boxes which will be programmed to hide, delete or show HTML elements with certain ID's. So I am thinking I would have to set an inline CSS property for visibility to: false on the ones I want to hide or delete them altogether when necessary. I need this so I don't have to edit my Ebay HTML templates in dreamweaver all the time, where I usually have to scroll around messy code and manually delete or add tags and their respective content. Whereas I just want to create one master template in dreamweaver which has all the variations that my products have, since they are all of the same genre with slight changes here and there and I just need to enable and disable the visibility of these variants as required and copy + paste the final html. I haven's used Windows Forms before, but tried doing this in WebForms which I do know a bit. I am able to get the result that I want by wrapping any HTML elements in a <asp:PlaceHolder></asp:PlaceHolder> and just setting that place holders visibility to false after the associated checkbox is checked and a postback occurs, finally I add a checkbox/button control that removes all the checkboxes, including itself etc for final html. But this method seems just like too much pain in the ass as I have to add the placeholder tags around everything that I need control over as ordinary html elements do not run at server, also webforms injects a bunch of Javascript and ViewState data so I don't have clean HTML which I can just copy after viewing the page source. Any tips/code that you can suggest to achieve the desired effect with the least changes required to existing HTML documents? Ideally I would want to load the HTML document in, have a live design preview of it and underneath have a bunch of well labelled checkboxes programmed to hide, delete or show elements with certain ID's. Thanks...

    Read the article

  • Obj-C: Passing pointers to initialized classes in other classes

    - by FnGreg7
    Hey all. I initialized a class in my singleton called DataModel. Now, from my UIViewController, when I click a button, I have a method that is trying to access that class so that I may add an object to one of its dictionaries. My get/set method passes back the pointer to the class from my singleton, but when I am back in my UIViewController, the class passed back doesn't respond to methods. It's like it's just not there. I think it has something to do with the difference in passing pointers around classes or something. I even tried using the copy method to throw a copy back, but no luck. UIViewController: ApplicationSingleton *applicationSingleton = [[ApplicationSingleton alloc] init]; DataModel *dataModel = [applicationSingleton getDataModel]; [dataModel retrieveDataCategory:dataCategory]; Singleton: ApplicationSingleton *m_instance; DataModel *m_dataModel; - (id) init { NSLog(@"ApplicationSingleton.m initialized."); self = [super init]; if(self != nil) { if(m_instance != nil) { return m_instance; } NSLog(@"Initializing the application singleton."); m_instance = self; m_dataModel = [[DataModel alloc] init]; } NSLog(@"ApplicationSingleton init method returning."); return m_instance; } -(DataModel *)getDataModel { DataModel *dataModel_COPY = [m_dataModel copy]; return dataModel_COPY; } For the getDataModel method, I also tried this: -(DataModel *)getDataModel { return m_dataModel; } In my DataModel retrieveDataCategory method, I couldn't get anything to work. I even just tried putting a NSLog in there but it never would come onto the console. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • ASP.net MVC Routing on Postback

    - by Mark Kadlec
    In my ASP.net MVC View I have a dropdown that I want to get details on selection and asynchronously update a div. My aspx is as follows: <% using (Html.BeginForm("Index", "Portal", FormMethod.Post, new { id = "TheForm" })) {%> <h2>Index</h2> <% using (Ajax.BeginForm("Details", new AjaxOptions { UpdateTargetId = "mpkResults" })) { %> <%=Html.DropDownList("Docs", (IEnumerable<SelectListItem>)ViewData["Docs"], new { onchange = "document.getElementById('TheForm').submit();" })%> <p><input type="submit" value="Details" /></p> <% } %> <div id="mpkResults" style="margin:10px 0px 0px 0px;"></div> ... The onchange event fires correctly on selection of the dropdown, but instead of the Details method in my code behind firing, it hits my Index method. Why is the details method not getting hit on the onchange event? My Details() method in the controller is: public ActionResult Details() { ... < It never gets here, just goes to the index() method } It's a little frustrating right now since I'm sure it is a simple mistake but not sure what it could be. I looked at the Source of my page and sure enough, the form looks like it should be routing to the Details Action: <form action="/Portal/Details" method="post" ... Any help would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Weird exception: Cannot cast String to Boolean when using getBoolean

    - by La bla bla
    I'm getting a very weird error. I have 2 activities. On both I'm getting the SharedPreferences using MODE_PRIVATE (if it matters) by sp = getPreferences(MODE_PRIVATE); on each activity's onCreate() I'm calling sp.getBoolean(IntroActivity.SHOW_INTRO, true) On the IntroActivity this works fine. But when I'm trying in the main activity, I'm getting this 10-12 04:55:23.208: E/AndroidRuntime(11668): FATAL EXCEPTION: main 10-12 04:55:23.208: E/AndroidRuntime(11668): java.lang.ClassCastException: java.lang.String cannot be cast to java.lang.Boolean 10-12 04:55:23.208: E/AndroidRuntime(11668): at android.app.SharedPreferencesImpl.getBoolean(SharedPreferencesImpl.java:242) 10-12 04:55:23.208: E/AndroidRuntime(11668): at com.lablabla.parkme.ParkMeActivity$2.onClick(ParkMeActivity.java:194) 10-12 04:55:23.208: E/AndroidRuntime(11668): at android.view.View.performClick(View.java:4084) 10-12 04:55:23.208: E/AndroidRuntime(11668): at android.view.View$PerformClick.run(View.java:16966) 10-12 04:55:23.208: E/AndroidRuntime(11668): at android.os.Handler.handleCallback(Handler.java:615) 10-12 04:55:23.208: E/AndroidRuntime(11668): at android.os.Handler.dispatchMessage(Handler.java:92) 10-12 04:55:23.208: E/AndroidRuntime(11668): at android.os.Looper.loop(Looper.java:137) 10-12 04:55:23.208: E/AndroidRuntime(11668): at android.app.ActivityThread.main(ActivityThread.java:4745) 10-12 04:55:23.208: E/AndroidRuntime(11668): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invokeNative(Native Method) 10-12 04:55:23.208: E/AndroidRuntime(11668): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:511) 10-12 04:55:23.208: E/AndroidRuntime(11668): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit$MethodAndArgsCaller.run(ZygoteInit.java:786) 10-12 04:55:23.208: E/AndroidRuntime(11668): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit.main(ZygoteInit.java:553) 10-12 04:55:23.208: E/AndroidRuntime(11668): at dalvik.system.NativeStart.main(Native Method) I made sure that I'm not putting a String somewhere in the middle with that same key Any ideas? Thanks! EDIT: some code: //onCreate() sp = getPreferences(MODE_PRIVATE); // other method boolean showIntro = sp.getBoolean(IntroActivity.SHOW_INTRO, true); // Exception is here showIntroCheckBox.setChecked(showIntro); If it matters, the code which throws the exception is inside a button's onClick

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET GridView "Client-Side Confirmation when Deleting" stopped working on ie - how come?

    - by tarnold
    A few months ago, I have programmed an ASP.NET GridView with a custom "Delete" LinkButton and Client-Side JavaScript Confirmation according to this msdn article: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb428868.aspx (published in April 2007) or e.g. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/218733/javascript-before-aspbuttonfield-click The code looks like this: <ItemTemplate> <asp:LinkButton ID="deleteLinkButton" runat="server" Text="Delete" OnCommand="deleteLinkButtonButton_Command" CommandName='<%# Eval("id") %>' OnClientClick='<%# Eval("id", "return confirm(\"Delete Id {0}?\")") %>' /> </ItemTemplate> Surprisingly, "Cancel" doesn't work no more with my ie (Version: 6.0.2900.2180.xpsp_sp2_qfe.080814-1242) - it always deletes the row. With Opera (Version 9.62) it still works as expeced and described in the msdn article. More surprisingly, on a fellow worker's machine with the same ie version, it still works ("Cancel" will not delete the row). The generated code looks like <a onclick="return confirm(...);" href="javascript:__doPostBack('...')"> As confirm(...) returns false on "Cancel", I expect the __doPostBack event in the href not to be fired. Are there any strange ie settings I accidentally might have changed? What else could be the cause of this weird behaviour? Or is this a "please reinstall WinXP" issue?

    Read the article

  • Tree deletion with NHibernate

    - by Tigraine
    Hi, I'm struggling with a little problem and starting to arrive at the conclusion it's simply not possible. I have a Table called Group. As with most of these systems Group has a ParentGroup and a Children collection. So the Table Group looks like this: Group -ID (PK) -Name -ParentId (FK) I did my mappings using FNH AutoMappings, but I had to override the defaults for this: p.References(x => x.Parent) .Column("ParentId") .Cascade.All(); p.HasMany(x => x.Children) .KeyColumn("ParentId") .ForeignKeyCascadeOnDelete() .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan() .Inverse(); Now, the general idea was to be able to delete a node and all of it's children to be deleted too by NH. So deleting the only root node should basically clear the whole table. I tried first with Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan but that works only for deletion of items from the Children collection, not deletion of the parent. Next I tried ForeignKeyCascadeOnDelete so the operation gets delegated to the Database through on delete cascade. But once I do that MSSql2008 does not allow me to create this constraint, failing with : Introducing FOREIGN KEY constraint 'FKBA21C18E87B9D9F7' on table 'Group' may cause cycles or multiple cascade paths. Specify ON DELETE NO ACTION or ON UPDATE NO ACTION, or modify other FOREIGN KEY constraints. Well, and that's it for me. I guess I'll just loop through the children and delete them one by one, thus doing a N+1. If anyone has a suggestion on how do that more elegantly I'd be eager to hear it.

    Read the article

  • Is there anything bad in declaring static inner class inside interface in java?

    - by Roman
    I have an interface ProductService with method findByCriteria. This method had a long list of nullable parameters, like productName, maxCost, minCost, producer and so on. I refactored this method by introducing Parameter Object. I created class SearchCriteria and now method signature looks like this: findByCriteria (SearchCriteria criteria) I thought that instances of SearchCriteria are only created by method callers and are only used inside findByCriteria method, i.e.: void processRequest() { SearchCriteria criteria = new SearchCriteria () .withMaxCost (maxCost) ....... .withProducer (producer); List<Product> products = productService.findByCriteria (criteria); .... } and List<Product> findByCriteria(SearchCriteria criteria) { return doSmthAndReturnResult(criteria.getMaxCost(), criteria.getProducer()); } So I did not want to create separate public class for SearchCriteria and put it inside ProductServiceInterface: public interface ProductService { List<Product> findByCriteria (SearchCriteria criteria); static class SearchCriteria { ... } } Is there anything bad in this interface? Where whould you place SearchCriteria class?

    Read the article

  • jquery append a tr after calling

    - by marharépa
    Hello! I've got a table. <table id="servers" ...> ... {section name=i loop=$ownsites} <tr id="site_id_{$ownsites[i].id}"> ... <td>{$ownsites[i].phone}</td> <td class="icon"><a id="{$ownsites[i].id}" onClick="return makedeleterow(this.getAttribute('id'));" ...></a></td> </tr> {/section} <tbody> </table> And this java script. <script type="text/javascript"> function makedeleterow(id) { $('#delete').remove(); $('#servers').append($(document.createElement("tr")).attr({id: "delete"})); $('#delete').append($(document.createElement("td")).attr({colspan: "9", id: "deleter"})); $('#deleter').text('Biztosan törölni szeretnéd ezt a weblapod?'); $('#deleter').append($(document.createElement("input")).attr({type: "submit", id: id, onClick: "return truedeleterow(this.getAttribute('id'))"})); $('#deleter').append($(document.createElement("input")).attr({type: "hidden", name: "website_del", value: id})); } </script> It's workin fine, it makes a TR after the table's last tr and put the info to it, and the delete also works fine. But i'd like to make this AFTER the tr which calling the script. How can i do this? I've tried it with closest() but not work :(

    Read the article

  • Forcing user to new page in php. (PHP newbie)

    - by JohnC
    Hello I'm a newbie web programmer. My background is writing Windows applications with sql. I'm putting together my 1st data entry screens in Php. I have a search form that links to a form that displays records in a grid. On each row of the grid I have a delete url to allow the user to remove a record. This links to a form delete.php (which calls the sql to remove the record). Ideally I would like to automatically take the user back to the search form rather than forcing the user to click on a link to do so. I have used ob_start with the header to do this elsewhere but cannot get it to work on this page. Is there another way to do it? (Using php 5 as part of LAMP) file delete.php <?php $id = $_GET['recordID']; //ob_start(); require_once('connections/local.php'); mysql_select_db($database_local, $local); mysql_query("DELETE FROM user_access WHERE id = {$id}") or die(mysql_error()); echo("Record ".$id." deleted"); echo("<br>"); //header("location:http://localhost/search7.htm); //ob_flush(); echo("<a href=\"http://localhost/search7.htm\">Search for Members</a>"); ?>

    Read the article

  • HELP ME !! I am Not able to update form data to mysql using php and jquery

    - by Jimson Jose
    i tired and was unable to find the answer i am looking for an answer. my problem is that i am unable to update the values enterd in the form. I have attached all the files i'm using MYSQL database to fetch data. what happens is that i'm able to add and delete records from form using jquery and PHP scripts to MYSQL database, but i am not able to update data which was retrived from database. the file structure is as follows index.php is a file with jquery functions where it displays form for adding new data to MYSQL using save.php file and list of all records are view without refrishing page (calling load-list.php to view all records from index.php works fine, and save.php to save data from form) - Delete is an function called from index.php to delete record from mysql database (function calling delete.php works fine) - Update is an function called from index.php to update data using update-form.php by retriving specific record from mysql tabel, (works fine) Problem lies in updating data from update-form.php to update.php (in which update query is wrriten for mysql) i had tried in many ways at last i had figured out that data is not being transfred from update-form.php to update.php there is a small problem in jquery ajax function where it is not transfering data to update.php page. some thing is missing in calling update.php page it is not entering into that page I am new bee in programming i had collected this script from many forums and made this one.So i was limited in solving this problem i cam to know that this is good platform for me and many where we get a help to create new things.. please guide me with your help to complete my effors !!!!! i will be greatfull to all including ths site which gave me an oppurtunity to present my self..... please find the link below to download all files which is of 35kb (virus free assurance) download mysmallform files in ZIPped format, including mysql query thanks a lot in advance, May GOD bless YOU and THIS SITE

    Read the article

  • Spring MVC 3.0 Rest problem

    - by Gidogeek
    Hi Guys, I'm trying out Spring MVC 3.0 for the first time and like to make it RESTfull. This is my controller: @Controller @RequestMapping(value = "/product") @SessionAttributes("product") public class ProductController { @Autowired private ProductService productService; public void setProductValidator(ProductValidator productValidator, ProductService productService) { this.productService = productService; } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.GET) public Product create() { //model.addAttribute(new Product()); return new Product(); } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.POST) public String create(@Valid Product product, BindingResult result) { if (result.hasErrors()) { return "product/create"; } productService.add(product); return "redirect:/product/show/" + product.getId(); } @RequestMapping(value = "/show/{id}", method = RequestMethod.GET) public Product show(@PathVariable int id) { Product product = productService.getProductWithID(id); if (product == null) { //throw new ResourceNotFoundException(id); } return product; } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.GET) public List<Product> list() { return productService.getProducts(); } } I have 2 questions about this. I'm a believer in Convention over Configuration and therefor my views are in jsp/product/ folder and are called create.jsp , list.jsp and show.jsp this works relatively well until I add the @PathVariable attribute. When I hit root/product/show/1 I get the following error: ../jsp/product/show/1.jsp" not found how do I tell this method to use the show.jsp view ? If I don't add the RequestMapping on class level my show method will be mapped to root/show instead of root/owner/show how do I solve this ? I'd like to avoid using the class level RequestMapping.

    Read the article

  • Access denied from another thread

    - by Lobuno
    Hello! In a program I span a thread ("the working thread"). Hera I copy some files write some data to a database and eventually, delete some other files or directories. Everything works fine. The problem is now, that I decided to move the deleting operation to some other thread. So the working thread now copies the files or directories, writes to the database, and , if there is a need to delete some other files this thread spans another thread and that second thread deleted the needed files or directories. The problem is that,the deletion used to work 100% when done in the working thread, now when the same is done in the secondary thread, I sometimes get an "Access denied" error and the files cannot be deleted. And no, the working thread is definitely NOT acceding the files and directories to delete at this moment. Sometimes (but not always) the main thread is impersonating some user, so if needed , the deleting thread is also running under impersonation just to grant the needed permissions to delete the files, so that should not be the problem. Anybody has a clue why this could be happening?

    Read the article

  • Recursive powerof-function, see if you can solve it

    - by Jonas B
    First of all, this is not schoolwork - just my curiousity as I for some reason can't get my head around it and solve it. I come up with these stupid things all the time and it annoys the hell out of me when I cant solve them. Code example is in C# but solution doesn't have to be in any particular programming-language. long powerofnum(short num, long powerof) { return powerofnum2(num, powerof, powerof); } long powerofnum2(short num, long powerof, long holder) { if (num == 1) return powerof; else { return powerof = powerofnum2(num - 1, holder * powerof, holder); } } As you can see I have two methods. I call for powerofnum(value, powerofvalue) which then calls the next method with the powerofvalue also in a third parameter as a placeholder so it remembers the original powerof value through the recursion. What I want to accomplish is to do this with only one method. I know I could just declare a variable in the first method with the powerof value to remember it and then iterate from 0 to value of num. But as this is a theoretical question I want it done recursively. I could also in the first method just take a third parameter called whatever to store the value just like I do in the second method that is called by the first, but that looks really stupid. Why should you have to write what seems like the same parameter twice? Rules explained in short: no iteration scope-specific variables only only one method Anyhow, I'd appreciate a clean solution. Good luck :)

    Read the article

  • Touch draw in Quatz 2D/Core Graphics

    - by OgreSwamp
    Hello, I'm trying to implement "hand draw tool". At the moment algorythm looks like that (I don't insert any code because methods are quite big, will try to explain an idea): Drawing In touchesStarted: method I create NSMutableArray *pointsArray and add point into it. Call setNeedsDisplay: method. In touchesMoved: method I calculate points between last added point from the pointsArray and current point. Add all points to the pointsArray. Call setNeedsDisplay: method. In touchesFinished: event I calculate points between last added point from the array and current point. Set flag touchesWereFinished. Call setNeedsDisplay:. Render: drawRect: method checks is pointsArray != nil and is there any data in it. If there is - it starts to traw circles in each point of this array. If flag touchesWereFinished is set - save current context to the UIImage, release pointsArray, set it to nil and reset the flag. There are a lot disadvantages of this method: It is slow It becomes extremely slow when user touches and move finger for long time. Array becomes enormous "Lines" composed by circles are ugly I would like to change my algorithm to make it bit faster and line smoother. In result I would like to have lines like on the picture at following URL (sorry, not enough reputation to insert an image): http://2.bp.blogspot.com/_r5VzEAUYXJ4/SrOYp8tJCPI/AAAAAAAAAMw/ZwDKXiHlhV0/s320/SketchBook+Mobile(4).png Can you advice me, ho I can draw lines this way (smooth and slim on the edges)? I thought to draw circles with alpha gradient on the edges (to make lines smoother), but it will be extremely slowly IMHO. Thanks for help

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 258 259 260 261 262 263 264 265 266 267 268 269  | Next Page >