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  • How to convert a lambda to an std::function using templates

    - by retep998
    Basically, what I want to be able to do is take a lambda with any number of any type of parameters and convert it to an std::function. I've tried the following and neither method works. std::function([](){});//Complains that std::function is missing template parameters template <typename T> void foo(function<T> f){} foo([](){});//Complains that it cannot find a matching candidate The following code does work however, but it is not what I want because it requires explicitly stating the template parameters which does not work for generic code. std::function<void()>([](){}); I've been mucking around with functions and templates all evening and I just can't figure this out, so any help would be much appreciated. As mentioned in a comment, the reason I'm trying to do this is because I'm trying to implement currying in C++ using variadic templates. Unfortunately, this fails horribly when using lambdas. For example, I can pass a standard function using a function pointer. template <typename R, typename...A> void foo(R (*f)(A...)) {} void bar() {} int main() { foo(bar); } However, I can't figure out how to pass a lambda to such a variadic function. Why I'm interested in converting a generic lambda into an std::function is because I can do the following, but it ends up requiring that I explicitly state the template parameters to std::function which is what I am trying to avoid. template <typename R, typename...A> void foo(std::function<R(A...)>) {} int main() { foo(std::function<void()>([](){})); }

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  • How to lazy load a data structure (python)

    - by Anton Geraschenko
    I have some way of building a data structure (out of some file contents, say): def loadfile(FILE): return # some data structure created from the contents of FILE So I can do things like puppies = loadfile("puppies.csv") # wait for loadfile to work kitties = loadfile("kitties.csv") # wait some more print len(puppies) print puppies[32] In the above example, I wasted a bunch of time actually reading kitties.csv and creating a data structure that I never used. I'd like to avoid that waste without constantly checking if not kitties whenever I want to do something. I'd like to be able to do puppies = lazyload("puppies.csv") # instant kitties = lazyload("kitties.csv") # instant print len(puppies) # wait for loadfile print puppies[32] So if I don't ever try to do anything with kitties, loadfile("kitties.csv") never gets called. Is there some standard way to do this? After playing around with it for a bit, I produced the following solution, which appears to work correctly and is quite brief. Are there some alternatives? Are there drawbacks to using this approach that I should keep in mind? class lazyload: def __init__(self,FILE): self.FILE = FILE self.F = None def __getattr__(self,name): if not self.F: print "loading %s" % self.FILE self.F = loadfile(self.FILE) return object.__getattribute__(self.F, name) What might be even better is if something like this worked: class lazyload: def __init__(self,FILE): self.FILE = FILE def __getattr__(self,name): self = loadfile(self.FILE) # this never gets called again # since self is no longer a # lazyload instance return object.__getattribute__(self, name) But this doesn't work because self is local. It actually ends up calling loadfile every time you do anything.

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  • Can I have two names for the same variable?

    - by Roman
    The short version of the question: I do: x = y. Then I change x, and y is unchanged. What I want is to "bind" x and y in such a way that I change y whenever I change x. The extended version (with some details): I wrote a class ("first" class) which generates objects of another class ("second" class). In more details, every object of the second class has a name as a unique identifier. I call a static method of the first class with a name of the object from the second class. The first class checks if such an object was already generated (if it is present in the static HashMap of the first class). If it is already there, it is returned. If it is not yet there, it is created, added to the HashMap and returned. And then I have the following problem. At some stage of my program, I take an object with a specific name from the HashMap of the first class. I do something with this object (for example change values of some fields). But the object in the HashMap does not see these changes! So, in fact, I do not "take" an object from the HashMap, I "create a copy" of this object and this is what I would like to avoid.

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  • Suggestions for opening the Rails toolbox to design a challenge game?

    - by keruilin
    How would you suggest designing a challenge system as part of a food-eating game so that it's automated as possible? All RoR tools, design patterns and logic are at your disposal (e.g., admin consoles, crontab, arch, etc.). Prize goes to whoever can suggest the simplest and most-automated design! Here are the requirements: User has many challenges. Badge has many challenges. (A unique badge is awarded for each challenge won.) Only one challenge can run at a time. Each challenge has a limited number of days that it runs. For example, one challenge can run 3 days, while another runs 7 days. Challenges can be seasonal. For example, "Eat 13 Pumpkins" only runs during the Fall. New challenges are added to the game on an ongoing basis. For example, a new challenge every week. Each challenge has a certain probability of being selected to run. For example, "Eat 10 Pies" challenge has 10% chance of being selected to run. As each new challenge is added to the database, I want the probabilities of running to change dynamically. I want to avoid the scenario where I'm manually updating a database field just to change the probability from 10% to 5%, for example. Challenges act like Easter eggs. Challenge icons pop-up at different places on the webpage. User is awarded a badge for successfully completing a challenge, but only when it's active. There is some wait time between each challenge. Between 1 and 7 days. Which wait time is random, but the probability of the wait time being short is high and the probability of it being a long wait time is low.

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  • Django | passing form values

    - by MMRUser
    I want to create a user sign up process that requires two different forms with the same data one (1st form) is for filling out the data and other one (2nd form) is for displaying the filled data as a summery (before actually saving the data) so then user can view what he/she has filled up... my problem is that how do I pass 1st form's data in to the 2nd one .. I have used the basic Django form manipulation mechanism and passed the form field values to the next form using Django template tags.. if request.method == 'POST': form = Users(request.POST) if form.is_valid(): cd = form.cleaned_data try: name = cd['fullName'] email = cd['emailAdd'] password1 = cd['password'] password2 = cd['password2'] phoneNumber = cd['phoneNumber'] return render_to_response('signup2.html', {'name': name, 'email': email, 'password1': password1, 'password2': password2, 'phone': phone, 'pt': phoneType}) except Exception, ex: return HttpResponse("Error %s" % str(ex)) and from the second from I just displayed those field values using tags and also used hidden fields in order to submit the form with values, like this: <label for="">Email:</label> {{ email }} <input type="hidden" id="" name="email" class="width250" value="{{ email }}" readonly /> It works nicely from the out look, but the real problem is that if someone view the source of the html he can simply get the password even hackers can get through this easily. So how do I avoid this issue.. and I don't want to use Django session since this is just a simple sign up process and no other interactions involved. Thanks.

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  • stop form during submission if it validates incorrectly

    - by muqman
    I am trying to use JavaScript to validate forms but if the form doesn't validate, I don't want the form to be sent to the "action" page. The validator: <script> function formSubmit() { document.getElementById("signup_form").submit(); var x=document.forms["signup_form"]["tname"].value; if (x==null || x=="") { alert("First name must be filled out"); return false; } } </script> The form itself: <form action="some_file.php" method="post" id="signup_form" name="signup_form" onsubmit="return formSubmit()"> But all this does is if the tname field empty, it will return an alert but as soon as the user hits ok, the form then redirects to some_file.php. What have I missed here? The submit button: <a href="" onclick="return formSubmit(); return false" class="purplebutton">Signup</a> So what have I missed? How do I avoid this in the future?

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  • C++ - Distributing different headers than development

    - by Ben
    I was curious about doing this in C++: Lets say I have a small library that I distribute to my users. I give my clients both the binary and the associated header files that they need. For example, lets assume the following header is used in development: #include <string> ClassA { public: bool setString(const std::string & str); private: std::string str; }; Now for my question. For deployment, is there anything fundamentally wrong with me giving a 'reduced' header to my clients? For example, could I strip off the private section and simply give them this: #include <string> ClassA { public: bool setString(const std::string & str); }; My gut instinct says "yes, this is possible, but there are gotchas", so that is why I am asking this question here. If this is possible and also safe, it looks like a great way to hide private variables, and thus even avoid forward declaration in some cases. I am aware that the symbols will still be there in the binary itself, and that this is just a visibility thing at the source code level. Thanks!

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  • How to properly cast a global memory array using the uint4 vector in CUDA to increase memory throughput?

    - by charis
    There are generally two techniques to increase the memory throughput of the global memory on a CUDA kernel; memory accesses coalescence and accessing words of at least 4 bytes. With the first technique accesses to the same memory segment by threads of the same half-warp are coalesced to fewer transactions while be accessing words of at least 4 bytes this memory segment is effectively increased from 32 bytes to 128. To access 16-byte instead of 1-byte words when there are unsigned chars stored in the global memory, the uint4 vector is commonly used by casting the memory array to uint4: uint4 *text4 = ( uint4 * ) d_text; var = text4[i]; In order to extract the 16 chars from var, i am currently using bitwise operations. For example: s_array[j * 16 + 0] = var.x & 0x000000FF; s_array[j * 16 + 1] = (var.x >> 8) & 0x000000FF; s_array[j * 16 + 2] = (var.x >> 16) & 0x000000FF; s_array[j * 16 + 3] = (var.x >> 24) & 0x000000FF; My question is, is it possible to recast var (or for that matter *text4) to unsigned char in order to avoid the additional overhead of the bitwise operations?

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  • Where to place interactive objects in JavaScript?

    - by Chris
    I'm creating a web based application (i.e. JavaScript with jQuery and lots of SVG) where the user interacts with "objects" on the screen (think of DIVs that can be draged around, resized and connected by arraows - like a vector drawing programm or a graphical programming language). As each "object" contains individual information but is allways belonging to a "class" of elements it's obvious that this application should be programmed by using an OOP approach. But where do I store the "objects" best? Should I create a global structure ("registry") with all (JS native) objects and tell them "draw yourself on the DOM"? Or should I avoid such a structure and think of the (relevant) DOM nodes as my objects and attach the relevant data as .data() to them? The first approach is very MVC - but I guess the attachment of all the event handlers will be non trivial. The second approach will handle the events in a trivial way and it doesn't create a duplicate structure, but I guess the usual OO stuff (like methods) will be more complex. What do you recomend? I think the answer will be JavaScript and SVG specific as "usual" programming languages don't have such a highly organized output "canvas".

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  • Android: How to declare global variables?

    - by niko
    Hi, I am creating an application which requires login. I created the main and the login activity. In the main activity onCreate method I added the following condition: public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); ... loadSettings(); if(strSessionString == null) { login(); } ... } The onActivityResult method which is executed when the login form terminates looks like this: @Override public void onActivityResult(int requestCode, int resultCode, Intent data) { super.onActivityResult(requestCode, resultCode, data); switch(requestCode) { case(SHOW_SUBACTICITY_LOGIN): { if(resultCode == Activity.RESULT_OK) { strSessionString = data.getStringExtra(Login.SESSIONSTRING); connectionAvailable = true; strUsername = data.getStringExtra(Login.USERNAME); } } } The problem is the login form sometimes appears twice (the login() method is called twice) and also when the phone keyboard slides the login form appears again and I guess the problem is the variable strSessionString. Does anyone know how to set the variable global in order to avoid login form appearing after the user already successfully authenticates? Thanks!

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  • data ownership and performance

    - by Ami
    We're designing a new application and we ran into some architectural question when thinking about data ownership. we broke down the system into components, for example Customer and Order. each of this component/module is responsible for a specific business domain, i.e. Customer deals with CRUD of customers and business process centered around customers (Register a n new customer, block customer account, etc.). each module is the owner of a set of database tables, and only that module may access them. if another module needs data that is owned by another module, it retrieves it by requesting it from that module. so far so good, the question is how to deal with scenarios such as a report that needs to show all the customers and for each customer all his orders? in such a case we need to get all the customers from the Customer module, iterate over them and for each one get all the data from the Order module. performance won't be good...obviously it would be much better to have a stored proc join customers table and orders table, but that would also mean direct access to the data that is owned by another module, creating coupling and dependencies that we wish to avoid. this is a simplified example, we're dealing with an enterprise application with a lot of business entities and relationships, and my goal is to keep it clean and as loosely coupled as possible. I foresee in the future many changes to the data scheme, and possibly splitting the system into several completely separate systems. I wish to have a design that would allow this to be done in a relatively easy way. Thanks!

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  • Using struts 2 with no tags

    - by WannaAsk
    Hi everyone, I wonder if you could guide me on this struts issue - I feel hopeless on this... I am working on migrating our web application to a Struts 2 portlet (I'm using Struts 2.1.8). The thing is, I am forced to avoid struts tags because our application relies on Dijit widgets, which are omitted when using struts tags. So now I should implement the <s:form tag using scriptlets. My question is: how you would suggest I imitate the way struts handles the "action" attribute? Right now it appears I should: Create a regular html form in my jsp. Get/create the ActionConfig object during onsubmit and set on it values which match my desired destination: class+method+result jsp. Execute the action I set in 2. Would you recommend this? If so - is ActionConfig obtained from the session? Can I initiate an action execution from ActionConfig? (Aletrnatively... generating an action url using struts' form.vm file - what do you say?) I would appreciate any help on this - Thanks a lot in advance!!!

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  • How to create a desktop shortcut to a website with website logo as icon?

    - by Wbdvlpr
    Hi I need a solution which allows users to create a desktop shortcut to a website, preferably with website logo as shortcut icon. There are ways users can create shortcut such as drag drop favicon or right click create new shortcut etc. This works but also creates the shortcut with default IE icon on windows. I am trying to avoid this method for this icon and some other reasons. I thought of creating a website-title.URL file, and tell users to download and save file to their desktop, again this works but doesn't solve the icon problem as the website logo (.ico) has to be at local disk and at a pre-specified location [IconFile=path]. I was wondering if it is possible to create a some sort of installer or windows application which users can download from the website. Once its executed by user, it creates this .URL file on user desktop which have IconFile path pre-specified, and copy the website-logo.ico at path specified in .URL file etc. So my questions are - Is it possible to create such a solution? What programming languages can be used to achieve this? Can this installer/app be made to work on non-windows machines as well? From developments point of view how big project it is? if I have to hire a programmer to do this. Please let me know if you need more information. Thanks

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  • ASP ListView - Eval() as formatted number, Bind() as unformatted?

    - by chucknelson
    I have an ASP ListView, and have a very simple requirement to display numbers as formatted w/ a comma (12,123), while they need to bind to the database without formatting (12123). I am using a standard setup - ListView with a datasource attached, using Bind(). I converted from some older code, so I'm not using ASP.NET controls, just form inputs...but I don't think it matters for this: <asp:SqlDataSource ID="MySqlDataSource" runat="server" ConnectionString='<%$ ConnectionStrings:ConnectionString1 %>' SelectCommand="SELECT NUMSTR FROM MY_TABLE WHERE ID = @ID" UpdateCommand= "UPDATE MY_TABLE SET NUMSTR = @NUMSTR WHERE ID = @ID"> </asp:SqlDataSource> <asp:ListView ID="MyListView" runat="server" DataSourceID="MySqlDataSource"> <LayoutTemplate> <div id="itemplaceholder" runat="server"></div> </LayoutTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <input type="text" name="NUMSTR" ID="NUMSTR" runat="server" value='<%#Bind("NUMSTR")%>' /> <asp:Button ID="UpdateButton" runat="server" Text="Update" Commandname="Update" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:ListView> In the example above, NUMSTR is a number, but stored as a string in a SqlServer 2008 database. I'm also using the ItemTemplate as read and edit templates, to save on duplicate HTML. In the example, I only get the unformatted number. If I convert the field to an integer (via the SELECT) and use a format string like Bind("NUMSTR", "{0:###,###}"), it writes the formatted number to the database, and then fails when it tries to read it again (can't convert with the comma in there). Is there any elegant/simple solution to this? It's so easy to get the two-way binding going, and I would think there has to be a way to easily format things as well... Oh, and I'm trying to avoid the standard ItemTemplate and EditItemTemplate approach, just for sheer amount of markup required for that. Thanks!

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  • wpautop() - when shortcode attributes are on new lines -breaks args array

    - by Luca
    I have a custom shortcode tag with a few attributes, and I would like to be able to display its attributes on new lines - to make it more readable to content editors: [component attr1 ="value1" attr2 ="value of the second one" attr3 ="another" attr4 ="value" ... attrN ="valueN"] The reason behind this requirement is that a few attributes might be quite verbose in content. Unfortunately, wpautop() adds some nasty extra markup that breaks the args array like this (using php print_r($args)): Array ( [0] => attr1 [1] => ="value1" /> [3] => attr2 = [4] => "value [5] => of [6] => the [7] => second [8] => one" /> [10] => "" //...and more like this) I've tried with the attributes inline: [component attr1 ="value1" attr2 ="value of the second one" ="value"... attrN ="valueN"] and the output is as expected: Array ( [attr1] => value1 [attr2] => value of the second one [attr3] => //...and so on) is there any way to have the attributes intented and avoid that extra markup that breaks the $args array?

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  • updating a column in a table only if after the update it won't be negative and identifying all updat

    - by Azeem
    Hello all, I need some help with a SQL query. Here is what I need to do. I'm lost on a few aspects as outlined below. I've four relevant tables: Table A has the price per unit for all resources. I can look up the price using a resource id. Table B has the funds available to a given user. Table C has the resource production information for a given user (including the number of units to produce everyday). Table D has the number of units ever produced by any given user (can be identified by user id and resource id) Having said that, I need to run a batch job on a nightly basis to do the following: a. for all users, identify whether they have the funds needed to produce the number of resources specified in table C and deduct the funds if they are available from table B (calculating the cost using table A). b. start the process to produce resources and after the resource production is complete, update table D using values from table C after the resource product is complete. I figured the second part can be done by using an UPDATE with a subquery. However, I'm not sure how I should go about doing part a. I can only think of using a cursor to fetch each row, examine and update. Is there a single sql statement that will help me avoid having to process each row manually? Additionally, if any rows weren't updated, the part b. SQL should not produce resources for that user. Basically, I'm attempting to modify the sql being used for this logic that currently is in a stored procedure to something that will run a lot faster (and won't process each row separately). Please let me know any ideas and thoughts. Thanks! - Azeem

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  • Counting XML elements in file on Android

    - by CSharperWithJava
    Take a simple XML file formatted like this: <Lists> <List> <Note/> ... <Note/> </List> <List> <Note/> ... <Note/> </List> </Lists> Each node has some attributes that actually hold the data of the file. I need a very quick way to count the number of each type of element, (List and Note). Lists is simply the root and doesn't matter. I can do this with a simple string search or something similar, but I need to make this as fast as possible. Design Parameters: Must be in java (Android application). Must AVOID allocating memory as much as possible. Must return the total number of Note elements and the number of List elements in the file, regardless of location in file. Number of Lists will typically be small (1-4), and number of notes can potentially be very large (upwards of 1000, typically 100) per file. I look forward to your suggestions.

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  • Split UInt32 (audio frame) into two SInt16s (left and right)?

    - by morgancodes
    Total noob to anything lower-level than Java, diving into iPhone audio, and realing from all of the casting/pointers/raw memory access. I'm working with some example code wich reads a WAV file from disc and returns stereo samples as single UInt32 values. If I understand correctly, this is just a convenient way to return the 32 bits of memory required to create two 16 bit samples. Eventually this data gets written to a buffer, and an audio unit picks it up down the road. Even though the data is written in UInt32-sized chunks, it eventually is interpreted as pairs of 16-bit samples. What I need help with is splitting these UInt32 frames into left and right samples. I'm assuming I'll want to convert each UInt32 into an SInt16, since an audio sample is a signed value. It seems to me that for efficiency's sake, I ought to be able to simply point to the same blocks in memory, and avoid any copying. So, in pseudo-code, it would be something like this: UInt32 myStereoFrame = getFramefromFilePlayer; SInt16* leftChannel = getFirst16Bits(myStereoFrame); SInt16* rightChannel = getSecond16Bits(myStereoFrame); Can anyone help me turn my pseudo into real code?

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  • Recommendations for IPC between parent and child processes in .NET?

    - by Jeremy
    My .NET program needs to run an algorithm that makes heavy use of 3rd party libraries (32-bit), most of which are unmanaged code. I want to drive the CPU as hard as I can, so the code runs several threads in parallel to divide up the work. I find that running all these threads simultaneously results in temporary memory spikes, causing the process' virtual memory size to approach the 2 GB limit. This memory is released back pretty quickly, but occasionally if enough threads enter the wrong sections of code at once, the process crosses the "red line" and either the unmanaged code or the .NET code encounters an out of memory error. I can throttle back the number of threads but then my CPU usage is not as high as I would like. I am thinking of creating worker processes rather than worker threads to help avoid the out of memory errors, since doing so would give each thread of execution its own 2 GB of virtual address space (my box has lots of RAM). I am wondering what are the best/easiest methods to communicate the input and output between the processes in .NET? The file system is an obvious choice. I am used to shared memory, named pipes, and such from my UNIX background. Is there a Windows or .NET specific mechanism I should use?

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  • In Silverlight, what structures, aside of the ListBox, can be used for binding?

    - by Aidenn
    I need to simply provide the content of a property to a custom User Control in Silverlight. My control is something like this: <UserControl x:Class="SilverlightApplication.Header" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" mc:Ignorable="d" d:DesignWidth="300" d:DesignHeight="120"> <Grid x:Name="Header_Layout"> <StackPanel x:Name="hiHeaderContent" Width="Auto" Margin="73,8,8,8"> <TextBlock x:Name="User:" Text="{Binding name}" /> </StackPanel> </Grid> I try to use this User Control from another control where I try to pass the parameter "name" to the previous UserControl ("Header"). I don't need to create a "ListBox" as I will only have 1 header, so I try to avoid doing: <ListBox x:Name="HeaderListBox" Grid.Row="0"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <SilverlightApplication:Header/> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> in order to send the "User" account using: HeaderListBox.ItemsSource = name; Is there any other structure I can use instead of the ListBox to pass the parameter just once? It won't be a list, it's just a header... Thank you!

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  • Getting memory leak at NSURL connection in Iphone sdk.

    - by monish
    Hi guys, Here Im getting leak at the NSURL connection in my libxml parser can anyone tell how to resolve it. The code where leak generates is: - (BOOL)parseWithLibXML2Parser { BOOL success = NO; ZohoAppDelegate *appDelegate = (ZohoAppDelegate*) [ [UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; NSString* curl; if ([cName length] == 0) { curl = @"https://invoice.zoho.com/api/view/settings/currencies?ticket="; curl = [curl stringByAppendingString:appDelegate.ticket]; curl = [curl stringByAppendingString:@"&apikey="]; curl = [curl stringByAppendingString:appDelegate.apiKey]; curl = [curl stringByReplacingOccurrencesOfString:@"\n" withString:@""]; } NSURLRequest *theRequest = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:[NSURL URLWithString:curl]]; NSLog(@"the request parserWithLibXml2Parser %@",theRequest); NSURLConnection *con = [[[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:theRequest delegate:self] autorelease];//Memory leak generated here at this line of code. //self.connection = con; //[con release]; // This creates a context for "push" parsing in which chunks of data that are // not "well balanced" can be passed to the context for streaming parsing. // The handler structure defined above will be used for all the parsing. The // second argument, self, will be passed as user data to each of the SAX // handlers. The last three arguments are left blank to avoid creating a tree // in memory. _xmlParserContext = xmlCreatePushParserCtxt(&simpleSAXHandlerStruct, self, NULL, 0, NULL); if(con != nil) { do { [[NSRunLoop currentRunLoop] runMode:NSDefaultRunLoopMode beforeDate:[NSDate distantFuture]]; } while (!_done && !self.error); } if(self.error) { //NSLog(@"parsing error"); [self.delegate parser:self encounteredError:nil]; } else { success = YES; } return success; } Anyone's help will be muck appreciated . Thank you, Monish.

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  • How do I pass references as method parameters across AppDomains?

    - by Thiado de Arruda
    I have been trying to get the following code to work(everything is defined in the same assembly) : namespace SomeApp{ public class A : MarshalByRefObject { public byte[] GetSomeData() { // } } public class B : MarshalByRefObject { private A remoteObj; public void SetA(A remoteObj) { this.remoteObj = remoteObj; } } public class C { A someA = new A(); public void Init() { AppDomain domain = AppDomain.CreateDomain("ChildDomain"); string currentAssemblyPath = Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().Location; B remoteB = domain.domain.CreateInstanceFromAndUnwrap(currentAssemblyPath,"SomeApp.B") as B; remoteB.SetA(someA); // this throws an ArgumentException "Object type cannot be converted to target type." } } } What I'm trying to do is pass a reference of an 'A' instance created in the first AppDomain to the child domain and have the child domain execute a method on the first domain. In some point on 'B' code I'm going to call 'remoteObj.GetSomeData()'. This has to be done because the 'byte[]' from 'GetSomeData' method must be 'calculated' on the first appdomain. What should I do to avoid the exception, or what can I do to achieve the same result?

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  • Using a single texture image unit with multiple sampler uniforms

    - by bcrist
    I am writing a batching system which tracks currently bound textures in order to avoid unnecessary glBindTexture() calls. I'm not sure if I need to keep track of which textures have already been used by a particular batch so that if a texture is used twice, it will be bound to a different TIU for the second sampler which requires it. Is it acceptable for an OpenGL application to use the same texture image unit for multiple samplers within the same shader stage? What about samplers in different shader stages? For example: Fragment shader: ... uniform sampler2D samp1; uniform sampler2D samp2; void main() { ... } Main program: ... glActiveTexture(GL_TEXTURE0); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, tex_id); glUniform1i(samp1_location, 0); glUniform1i(samp2_location, 0); ... I don't see any reason why this shouldn't work, but what about if the shader program also included a vertex shader like this: Vertex shader: ... uniform sampler2D samp1; void main() { ... } In this case, OpenGL is supposed to treat both instances of samp1 as the same variable, and exposes a single location for them. Therefore, the same texture unit is being used in the vertex and fragment shaders. I have read that using the same texture in two different shader stages counts doubly against GL_MAX_COMBINED_TEXTURE_IMAGE_UNITS but this would seem to contradict that. In a quick test on my hardware (HD 6870), all of the following scenarios worked as expected: 1 TIU used for 2 sampler uniforms in same shader stage 1 TIU used for 1 sampler uniform which is used in 2 shader stages 1 TIU used for 2 sampler uniforms, each occurring in a different stage. However, I don't know if this is behavior that I should expect on all hardware/drivers, or if there are performance implications.

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  • Javascript Namespace Help

    - by Jason
    Hi, I have a pretty big Javascript script with loads of global variables & functions in it. Then a piece of code that calls one function from this js file: myfunc(); Ok, now I have cloned this script and modified some functionality, all function prototypes and variables are named the same in both scripts. So now I have two scripts loaded and one call to myfunc(), now we have a clash because there are loads of global variables with the same names and two myfunc()s. What I want to do is wrap this cloned script in a namespace, so that I can modify the original call to: clone.myfunc() which will call the new function, but I also want myfunc() to just refer to the original script. In other words I can't touch the original script (no permissions) and I want to be able to use both the clone and the original at runtime. This is the script im cloning: http://pastebin.com/6KR5T3Ah Javascript namespaces seem quite tricky this seems a nice namespace method: var namespace = { foo: function() { } bar: function() { } } ... namespace.foo(); } However that requires using an object, and the script (as posted above) is humongous at nearly 4000 lines, too much to objectize I think? Anyone know a better solution to avoid namespace pollution, with one script I cant touch and one being a clone of that script. Just so I can call myfunc() and clone.myfunc() and all global variables will behave in their respected scope. It's either that, or I go through and modify everything to have unique names, which may take a lifetime This is a Mozilla addon if it helps context wise. Thanks.

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  • Mixing stored procedures and ORM

    - by Jason
    The company I work for develops a large application which is almost entirely based on stored procedures. We use classic ASP and SQL Server and the major part of the business logic is contained inside those stored procedures. For example, (I know, this is bad...) a single stored procedure can be used for different purposes (insert, update, delete, make some calculations, ...). Most of the time, a stored procedure is used for operations on related tables, but this is not always the case. We are planning to move to ASP.NET in a near future. I have read a lot of posts on StackOverflow recommending that I move the business logic outside the database. The thing is, I have tried to convince the people who takes the decisions at our company and there is nothing I can do to change their mind. Since I want to be able to use the advantages of object-oriented programming, I want to map the tables to actual classes. So far, my solution is to use an ORM (Entity Framework 4 or nHibernate) to avoid mapping the objects manually (mostly to retrieve the data) and use some kind of Data Access Layer to call the existing stored procedures (for saving). I want your advice on this. Do you think it is a good solution? Any ideas?

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